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Water and Waste Management Quiz

The document contains a series of exam questions related to environmental science, specifically focusing on water treatment, air quality management, and waste management. Each question includes multiple-choice answers with the correct answers indicated. The exam covers various topics such as types of water, pollutants, treatment processes, and environmental standards.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
22 views13 pages

Water and Waste Management Quiz

The document contains a series of exam questions related to environmental science, specifically focusing on water treatment, air quality management, and waste management. Each question includes multiple-choice answers with the correct answers indicated. The exam covers various topics such as types of water, pollutants, treatment processes, and environmental standards.
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

11/23/23, 12:43 PM SAFE

ES 250 Exam LA 201


Exam Paper

1. Match the following

Type of Water Source

A) Greywater 1.) Urinal wastewater

B) Blackwater 2.) Laundry wastewater

C) Yellow water 3.) Toilet wastewater

D) Brown water 4.) Separately collected human faecal


wastewater
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

1) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

2) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

3) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

Answer: [ 2 ]

2. Which of the following is not a physical pollutant in a water sample?


Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Color

1) Turbidity

2) Foam or froth

3) TDS

Answer: [ 3 ]

3. Acid rain has pH values Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER

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Options:
0) <5.7

1) <7

2) >5.7

3) Between 5.7 and 7

Answer: [ 0 ]

4. Thermal pollution in a river can reduce its Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) DO level

1) COD level

2) BOD level

3) Nutrient level

Answer: [ 0 ]

5.
The main purpose of activated sludge process in sewage treatment plant is to remove:
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Inorganic matter

1) Biodegradable organic matter

2) Only nutrients

3) Inorganic and organic matter both

Answer: [ 1 ]

6.
A perc test is conducted in a soil to determine feasibility of septic tank. During the test, it
was observed that the water level was dropped by 150 mm in 30 min duration. The
‘Perc rate’ will be approximately…………………….. (take 1 inch = 2.54 cm)
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) 5 min/inch

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1) 5 mm/min

2) 0.2 inch/ min

3) 0.2 min/cm

Answer: [ 0 ]

7. In the disinfection of water by chlorine, the most reactive chlorine species is:
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0)

1) HOCl

2)

3)

Answer: [ 1 ]

8.
The dimensions of a regular settling tank are 20 m length, 5 m width and 3 m height. It
passes 5 million litres of water per day. The detention period of the tank would be:
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) 3 h

1) 2 h

2) 2.4 h

3) 2.1 h

Answer: [ 2 ]

9. After the secondary treatment, wastewater does not contain: Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Dissolved inorganic matter

1) Larger suspended solids

2) Nutrients (N, P)

3) Pathogens

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Answer: [ 1 ]

10. In a conventional municipal wastewater treatment system, the function of tertiary


or advanced treatment is to
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Remove dissolved and suspended organic solids

1) Remove pathogens

2) Remove nutrients and micropollutants

3) Remove larger and inorganic materials

Answer: [ 2 ]

11. What are endocrine disrupting PPCPs: Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Steroids

1) Nonsteroidal pharmaceuticals

2) Personal care products

3) All of the above

Answer: [ 3 ]

12. What are the advantages of Membrane bioreactor (MBR): Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) High effluent quality

1) High footprint

2) High-pressure membrane (NF/RO) used

3) Both a and b

Answer: [ 0 ]

13. What are the key steps in air quality management? Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) inventory, modelling, monitoring, source control

1) source apportionment, receptor modelling, health records, meteorology


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2) meteorology, road sweeping, monitoring, fogging at construction sites

3) ban of garbage burning, ban of stubble burning, artificial rain, satellite data

Answer: [ 0 ]

14. How would one know for sure if the air is polluted? Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Dirt on shirt collars

1) Visibility at the airport

2) Compare with NAAQS

3) Dust cars in the parking lot

Answer: [ 2 ]

15. What is the difference between Primary and Secondary pollutants?


Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Primary are more of a health risk

1) Secondary are what is left after treatment of primary

2) Secondary are not emitted directly

3) Secondary are a sub-set of primary

Answer: [ 2 ]

16. What are the three modes of atmospheric particle size distributions?
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Nuclei, Accumulation and Coarse

1) Gas, Liquid and Solid

2) Smoke, Dust and Haze

3) Cigarette smoke, Sand particles and Road dust

Answer: [ 0 ]

17. Why is the PM2.5 to PM10 ratio important ? Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER

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Options:
0) PM2.5 represents only the respirable fraction of PM10

1) If it is greater than 1, it is harmful

2) It represents the toxic fraction of PM

3) PM mass greater than 2.5mm is toxic

Answer: [ 2 ]

18. What are three key principles of gaseous emissions control in the industry?
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Cyclones, adsorption, incineration

1) adsorption, incineration, absorption

2) fabric filters, incineration, catalytic conversion

3) impactors, electrostatic precipitators, incineration

Answer: [ 1 ]

19. Three features of a Wind-Rose are : Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Height, Mean Sea Level, Latitude

1) Anemometer, Weather Station, Lighthouse

2) Velocity, Humidity, Temperature

3) Speed, Direction, Frequency

Answer: [ 3 ]

20. What is the benefit of vertical mixing? Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Prevents horizontal transport to other regions

1) Keep the pollution away from breathing level

2) Moisture in the upper layers absorbs the pollution

3) Dilutes the pollutants in the atmosphere

Answer: [ 3 ]

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21. Draft ISO 14000 series EMS standards were first agreed upon in ____.
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) 1991

1) 1993

2) 1995

3) 1997

Answer: [ 2 ]

22.
Which of the following elements should be present in an EMS conforming to ISO 14001
of 2015?
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) environmental policy

1) procedures for emergency response

2) plan for corrective actions

3) all of these

Answer: [ 3 ]

23. Environmental degradation refers to: Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Increase in the use of resources

1) Reduction of the capacity of the environment to meet social and ecological objectives

2) Increase in global population

3) Increase in pollution

Answer: [ 1 ]

24. The concept of “Planetary Boundaries” does not include: Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Safe operating space for humanity

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1) Transgressing a boundary has a deleterious or catastrophic risk to ecosystem health

2) Improving energy efficiencies of vehicles and industries

3) Impacts of transgressing boundaries are likely irreversible and non-linear

Answer: [ 2 ]

25. Drivers of land use change include: Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Conversion of forestland to pastures

1) Conversion of peatlands to oil palm plantations

2) Mining

3) All of the above

Answer: [ 3 ]

26.
The pollutant most widely used to study changes in the atmosphere as an indicator of
climate change:
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) CFCs

1)

2)

3) PM2.5

Answer: [ 1 ]

27. Climate forcing refers to Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Interaction of the different environmental media

1) Imbalance in the Earth's energy budget caused by a perturbation of the climate system

2) Amount of energy absorbed by 1 ton of a greenhouse gas

3) Increase in earth’s average temperature

Answer: [ 1 ]

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28. The amount of energy consumed for generating one unit of GDP is:
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Per capita energy consumption

1) Energy intensity

2) Energy efficiency

3) Carbon intensity

Answer: [ 1 ]

29. Which sector is the largest consumer of groundwater resources in India?


Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Agriculture

1) Industrial

2) Domestic

3) Commercial

Answer: [ 0 ]

30. Dobson unit is specifically used to measure Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) UV rays’ intensity

1) Ozone concentration in the stratosphere

2) Ozone layer thickness in the stratosphere

3) DNA damaging potential of UV rays

Answer: [ 2 ]

31.
Which is the correct sequence of waste hierarchy (starting from most preferred one):
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Reduction, Recycle, Composting, Energy recovery, Landfilling
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1) Reduction, Composting, Recycle, Energy recovery, Landfilling

2) Reduction, Recycle, Energy recovery, Composting, Landfilling

3) Reduction, Composting, Recycle, Landfilling, Energy recovery

Answer: [ 0 ]

32. Which of the following is categorized under physical properties of waste:


Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Hydraulic conductivity

1) Proximate analysis

2) Calorific value

3) Nutrients determination

Answer: [ 0 ]

33.
The chemical formula of a municipal solid waste sample is C90H220O100N. The
energy content of waste material will be …………………MJ/kg.
Use the following if needed:
Heating value (kJ/kg) = 337C + 1428(H - 0.125O) + 93S + 23N
Atomic mass: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16, N = 14 and S = 32
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) 32.8

1) 13.5

2) 326.6

3) 135.0

Answer: [ 1 ]

34.
Gas stream from anaerobic digestion of municipal solid waste majorly contains two
gases … and ….

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Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0)

1)

2)

3)

Answer: [ 0 ]

35.
Which of the following municipal solid waste treatment method could be a major source
of dioxins and furans?
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Incineration

1) Composting

2) Anaerobic digestion

3) Sanitary landfilling

Answer: [ 0 ]

36. Three (3) Ts in combustion stands for? Marks: 1


Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Time, Temperature and Transfer Rate

1) Turbulence, Time and Transfer Rate

2) Toxic emissions, Time and Turbulence

3) Temperature, Time and Turbulence

Answer: [ 3 ]

37.
Which of the following is not a property of aerobic composting in municipal solid waste
management?
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:

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0) Transformation of biodegradable waste into biologically stable matter using microorganisms

1) Destroy pathogens

2) Reduces the volume of waste

3) Produces biogas which can be used as a source of energy

Answer: [ 3 ]

38. How is “Air Pollution” defined in India’s Air Act of 1981? Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) Any solid liquid or gaseous substance including noise present in the atmosphere beyond permissible limits.

1)
Any solid liquid or gaseous substance present in the atmosphere beyond permissible limits but excluding noise.

2) Presence of Green Houses Gases in atmosphere including and aerosols.

3) Presence of smoke, fumes and toxic gases emitted by vehicles and industries.

Answer: [ 0 ]

39.
How is the term “Environment” conceptualized in the Environment (Protection) Act of
1986?
Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0)
Environment includes interrelationships between water, air, land, human beings, other living creatures and
property.

1) Environment includes atmosphere, oceans, rivers, lakes, groundwater and soils.

2) Environment includes all natural surroundings which human beings can own and exploit for their benefit.

3)
Environment includes those components of natural surroundings which are polluted or could potentially be
polluted by human activities.

Answer: [ 0 ]

40. When was the Water (P & CP) Act enacted? Marks: 1
Type: SINGLE_CORRECT_ANSWER
Options:
0) 1974.

1) 1981.
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2) 1976.

3) 1982.

Answer: [ 0 ]

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Common questions

Powered by AI

The main purpose of the activated sludge process is to remove biodegradable organic matter from wastewater .

The detention period in a settling tank determines the amount of time water remains in the tank, which affects the efficiency of particle settling. It depends on tank dimensions and flow rate; a correct detention period ensures optimal removal of suspended solids .

The Environment (Protection) Act of 1986 defines 'Environment' as the interrelationships between water, air, land, human beings, living creatures, and properties .

Air pollution is defined as any solid, liquid, or gaseous substance including noise present in the atmosphere beyond permissible limits .

The 'Planetary Boundaries' framework identifies limits to ensure humanity operates safely within Earth’s ecological capacity, emphasizing that transgressing these boundaries can lead to irreversible environmental changes .

Membrane Bioreactors offer high effluent quality and efficiency in removing contaminants, leading to smaller plant footprints compared to conventional technologies .

Endocrine-disrupting PPCPs such as steroids and nonsteroidal pharmaceuticals can interfere with hormone systems, potentially causing negative environmental effects by disrupting the endocrine systems of wildlife .

Primary pollutants are directly emitted from a source, while secondary pollutants are not emitted directly but form in the atmosphere through chemical reactions .

Aerobic composting transforms biodegradable waste into stable organic matter using microorganisms, destroys pathogens, and reduces waste volume, but does not produce biogas .

The PM2.5 to PM10 ratio is critical because PM2.5 represents the respirable fraction of PM10, which can penetrate the respiratory system deeply and pose significant health risks .

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