09-02-2025

7501CMD303035240061 MD

PHYSICS

1) The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current I flowing in

the circuit

(1) 1.71 A
(2) 2.00 A
(3) 2.31 A
(4) 1.33 A

2)

The current density (J) for an intrinsic semiconductor is given by which of the following equations :-
[where μe = electron mobility
μh = hole mobility
n1 = carrier concentration

E = applied electric field]

(1) J = n1 . e . (μe + μh) . E
(2) J = n1 . e . (μh – μe) . E

(3)

(4)

3) Two waves having intensity I and 9I produce interference. If the resultant intensity at a point is
7I, what is the phase difference between the two waves ?

(1) 0°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

4) Using screw gauge of pitch 0.1 cm and 50 divisions on its circular scale, the thickness of an object
is measured. It should correctly be recorded as :

(1) 2.123 cm
(2) 2.125 cm
(3) 2.121 cm
(4) 2.124 cm

5) Highly energetic electrons are bombarded on a target of an element containing 30 neutrons. The
ratio of radii of target nucleus to that of Helium nucleus is 141/3. The atomic number of nucleus will
be:-

(1) 25
(2) 26
(3) 56
(4) 30

6) The kinetic energy of an electron gets tripled, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it
becomes how many time :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3

7) Three liquids of densities ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3 (with ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3), having the same value of surface tension
T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ1, θ2 and θ3 obey:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) There is a gate with two inputs A and B, and one output Y. Using the input and output wave

forms, identify the gate :-

(1) NAND
(2) NOR
(3) OR
(4) AND

9) Beats are produced by two waves

y1 = a sin (1000 πt) and y2 = a sin (998 πt)
The number of beats heard per second is

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

10) In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased ?

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, d, e
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d

11) A liquid X of density 3.36 g/cm3 is poured in a U-tube, which contains Hg. Another liquid Y is
poured in left arm with height 8 cm. Upper levels of X and Y are same.
(Density of Hg = 13.6 × 103 kg/m3)
What is density of Y ?

(1) 0.8 gm/cc

(2) 1.2 gm/cc
(3) 1.4 gm/cc
(4) 1.6 gm/cc

12) A cubical block is floating in a liquid with one fourth of its volume immersed in the liquid. If
whole of the system accelerates upward with acceleration g/4, the fraction of volume immersed in
the liquid will be :-

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 3/4
(4) 2/3

13) If the surface tension of a liquid is T and its surface area is increased by A, then the surface
energy of that surface will be increased by –

(1) AT
(2) A/T
(3) A2T
(4) A2T2

14) Electronic configuration of germanium is 2, 8, 18 and 4. To make it extrinsic semiconductor

small quantity of antimony is added :-

The material obtained will be N-type germanium in which electrons and holes are equal in
(1)
number
The material obtained will be P-type germanium in which electrons and holes are equal in
(2)
number.
The material obtained will be N-type germanium which has more electrons than holes at room
(3)
temperature
The material obtained will be N-type germanium which has less electrons than holes at room
(4)
temperature

15) The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by :-

y = 3 sin (50 t – x),

where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave
velocity is :-

(1) 3π

(2)
π
(3) 2π

(4)
π

16) In the reading shown in the figure, find the zero error.
(1) 0.05 cm
(2) –0.05 cm
(3) 0.03 cm
(4) –0.03 cm

17) Mark the correct statement :-

(1) In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at antinodes

(2) In case of stationary waves, maximum pressure change occurs at nodes
(3) In case of stationary waves, pressure change is same at all the nodes and antinodes
(4) In case of stationary waves, no pressure change takes place

18) The main scale of a vernier caliper reads in mm and its Vernier is divided into 10 divisions which
coincide with 9 divisions of the main scale. The reading for the given situation will be :-

(1) 7.58 cm
(2) 8.79 cm
(3) 8.63 cm
(4) 9.78 cm

19) P-type semiconductor has acceptor levels 57 meV above the valence band. The maximum
wavelength of light required to create a hole is (Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s) :-

(1) 57Å
(2) 57 × 10–3 Å
(3) 217100 Å
(4) 11.61 × 10–33 Å

20) The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is

y = 5 sin 2π
Where distances are in cm and time in second. The wavelength of wave is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm

21) The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on :-

(1) angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
(2) viscosity
(3) surface tension
(4) density

22) The excess of pressure inside a soap bubble than that of the outer pressure is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A transverse wave is travelling along a string from left to right. The adjoining figure represents
the shape of the string at a given instant. At this instant, among the following , choose the wrong

statement about particle velocity-

(1) Points D, E and F have upwards positive velocity.

(2) Points A, B and H have downwards negative velocity.
(3) Points C and G have zero velocity.
(4) Points A and B have upwards positive velocity.

24) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the
mainscale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale
is :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm

25)

An electron of stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The
velocity that the atom of mass m acquired a result of photon emission will be :
(R, Rydberg constant and h Planck's constant)

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

26) In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles denote

holes and electrons respectively. The material is:-

(1) a n-type semiconductor

(2) a p-type semicoductor
(3) a insulator
(4) a metal

27) In a capillary tube, water rises by 1.2 mm. The height of water that will rise in another capillary
tube having half the radius of the first, is :

(1) 1.2 mm
(2) 2.4 mm
(3) 0.6 mm
(4) 0.4 mm

28) A photon of wavelength 300 nm interacts with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state.
During the interaction, whole energy of the photon is transferred to the electron of the atom. State
which possibility is correct. (Consider, Planck's constant = 4×10–15 eVs, velocity of light =3 × 108
m/s, ionization energy of hydrogen = 13.6 eV):-

(1) Electron will be knocked out of the atom

(2) Electron will go to any excited state of the atom
(3) Electron will go only to first excited state of the atom
(4) Electron will keep orbiting in the ground state of atom.

29) In 4 full rotations the circular scale of a screw gauge advances by 2 mm. If total 100 divisions
are there on circular scale, then least count of screw gauge will be :-

(1) 0.005 cm
(2) 0.0005 cm
(3) 0.02 mm
(4) 0.002 mm

30) The graph is showing the photo current with the applied voltage of a photoelectric effect
experiment. Then :-

(1) A & B will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency
(2) B & C have same intensity and A & B have same frequency
(3) A & C will have same frequency and B & C have same intensity
(4) A & C will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency

31) In a gaseous medium, on increasing temperature by 800 K, speed of sound becomes times of
initial then initial temperature of medium in °C is:-

(1) 27°C
(2) 300°C
(3) –73°C
(4) 73°C

32) The property utilized in the manufacture of lead shots is :

(1) Specific weight of liquid lead

(2) Specific gravity of liquid lead
(3) Compressibility of liquid lead
(4) Surface tension of liquid lead

33) In a capillary tube expertiment, a vertical 30 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The
water rises up to a height of 10 cm due to capillary action. If this experiment is conducted in a freely
falling elevator, the length of the water column becomes :

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) Zero

34) Statement-1 : The mass of nucleus is not integral multiples of the mass of single nucleon.
Statement-2 : Due to mass defect the total mass of nucleus is not equal to masses of its
constituents.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

35)
The rest energy of an electron is 0.511 MeV. The electron is accelerated from rest to a velocity 0.5c.
The change in its energy will be

(1) 0.026 MeV

(2) 0.051 Mev
(3) 0.079 MeV
(4) 0.105 MeV

36) The truth table for the gate shown in the following figure will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) In the following circuit the output Y becomes zero for the inputs

(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1
(3) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0
(4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

38) The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission in tungsten is 400 nm. The wavelength of
light that must be used in order to eject electrons with a maximum energy of 0.9 eV to be :-

(1) 120 nm
(2) 310 nm
(3) 380 nm
(4) 400 nm

39) If binding energies per nucleon of X, B and A are 7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively,
then the energy released in the reaction : X200 → A110 + B90 + energy will be-

(1) 160 MeV

(2) 200 MeV
(3) 110 MeV
(4) 90 MeV

40) Two waves represented by ;

and

,
are superposed. The resultant wave has an amplitude equal to :-

(1) zero
(2) 2a
(3) a
(4)

41) In the following circuit, the current flowing through 1kΩ resistor is :-

(1) 0 mA
(2) 5 mA
(3) 10 mA
(4) 15 mA

42) Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations to 1.5 × 1016 m–3.
Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. The doped semiconductor is of :-

9 –3
(1) p-type, having elecron concentrations ne = 5 × 10 m
22 –3
(2) n-type, with electron concentration ne = 5 × 10 m
10 –3
(3) P-type, with electron concentration ne = 2.5 × 10 m
23 –3
(4) n-type, with electron concentration ne=2.5 × 10 m

43) A photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because :

(A) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
(B) the maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons depends only on the frequency of light and not
on its intensity
(C) Above thresold frequency even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photoelectrons
leave the surface immediately
(D) electric charge of photoelectrons is quantized In the above true statement is :-

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B
(3) A
(4) All

44) A cube of edge length 10 cm is just balanced at the interface of two liquids A and B as shown in
figure. If A and B has specific gravity 0.6 and 0.4 respectively, then mass of cube is :-

(1) 240 g
(2) 360 g
(3) 480 g
(4) 540 g

45) According to Newton, propagation of sound in gas is ....... process and according to Laplace it is
......... process :-

(1) Adiabatic, Isothermal

(2) Adiabatic, Adiabatic
(3) Isothermal, Adiabatic
(4) Isothermal, Isothermal

CHEMISTRY

1)
Product P is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) If the value of equilibrium constant is 15, then the rate constant of forward and backward
reaction respectively are

(1) and
(2) and
(3) and
(4) and

3) is true relationship for the following reaction:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) (2) and (3) both

4) Assertion (A) :- Mo (VI) and W (VI) are found to be more stable than Cr(VI).
Reason (R) :- Cr(VI) in the form of dichromate in acidic medium act as a strong reducing agent.

(1) A and R are both true but R is not correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A and R are both true and R is the correct explanation of A.

5) A solution of KMnO4 is reduced to various products depending upon its pH. At pH < 7 it is
reduced to a colourless solution (A), at pH = 7 it forms a brown precipitate (B) and at pH > 7 it gives
a green solution (C), (A), (B) and (C) are

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Mn2+ MnO2

(2) MnO2 Mn2+

(3) Mn2+ MnO2

(4) Mn2+ MnO2

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) In which of the following oxo-anion, all M–O bond length are not identical ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) A solution of salt in dilute H2SO4 import deep blue colour with starch iodine solution, it confirm
the presence of which of the following ion :-

(1)
(2)
(3) I–
–
(4) CH3COO

8) The solubility of A2X3 is Y mol dm–3. Its solubility product is :

(1) 6Y4
(2) 64 Y4
(3) 36 Y5
(4) 108 Y5

9) Statement-I :- Primary amines have higher boiling point than isomeric secondary amines.
Statement-II :- Primary amines have more H-bonding.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.

10) Choose the correct matching :

Column-I Column-II
n
(P) NaBr + Conc . H2SO4 → (A) Colourless gas

(Q) Na2S + dil. HCl → (B) Brown Colour

(R) NaNO2 + dil HCl → (C) Rotten Egg smell

(S) NaNO3 + Conc. H2SO4 (D) Paramagnetic

(1) P–B,D; Q–A,C; R–B; S–B,D
(2) P–B; Q–A,C; R–B,D; S–B,D
(3) P–B,D; Q–A,C; R–B,D; S–B
(4) P–B; Q–A,C; R–A,C; S–B,D

11) Out of the following, amphiprotic species are

I. HPO32– II. CO32–
III. H2PO4– IV. HCO3–

(1) I, III, IV
(2) I and III
(3) III and IV
(4) All

12) Match the property given in Column-I with the element given in Column-II.

(1) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d

(2) i–d, ii–a, iii–b, iv–c
(3) i–b, ii–d, iii–a, iv–c
(4) i–b, ii–a, iii–d, iv–c

13) Which of the following pair contains only ambidenate ligand ?

 –
(1) CN , NH3
– –
(2) NO2 , SCN
(3) H2O, en
(4) en, dien

14) Which cation is detected by flame test?

+
(1) NH4
(2) K+
(3) Mg+2
(4) Al+3

15) The pH of a 10–10 M NaOH solution is nearest to:

(1) 10
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) –10

16) Major product

(1)

(2)

(3) No reaction

(4)

17) For which one of the following ion the colour is not due to a d-d transition ?

(1) (lemon yellow)

2+
(2) [Cu(NH3)4] dark blue
(3) [Fe(H2O)6]SO4 green
3+
(4) [Ti(H2O)6] purple
18) In the following which one has highest degree of hydrolysis.

(1) 0.01 M HCOONa

(2) 0.1 M HCOONa
(3) 0.001 M HCOONa
(4) Same

19) The incorrect statement is :-

(1) Ferric ion gives blood red colour with potassium thiocyanate
+2 +2
(2) Cu and Ni ion give black precipitate with H2S in presence of HCl solution.
(3) Cu+2 salts give red coloured borax bead test in reducing flame.
(4) Cu+2 ion gives chocolate coloured precipitate with potassium ferrocyanide solution.

20) In salt analyses, group V radicals (Ba2+, Ca2+ and Sr2+) are precipitated as their carbonates by
adding soild NH4Cl and excess of NH4OH solution followed by solid (NH4)2CO3.
Choose the correct reagent used for the confirmation of Ca2+ ion from the following :

(1) Potassium chromate

(2) Ammonium oxalate
(3) Ammonium nitrate
(4) Ammonium sulphate

21) Hexaamminenickel(II) hexanitrocobaltate(III) can be written as

(1) [Ni(NH3)6]2[Co(NO2)6]3
(2) [Ni(NH3)6]3[Co(NO2)6]2
(3) [Ni(NH3)6] [Co(NO2)6]
(4) [Ni(NH3)6(NO2)6]Co

22) Match the catalysts (Column I) with products (Column II)

Column-I
Column-II (Product)
(Catalyst)

A. V2O5 (i) Polyethylene

B. TiCl4/Al(Me)3 (ii) ethanal

C. PdCl2 (iii) H2SO4

D. Fe/Mo (iv) NH3

(1) A→(iii), B→(iv), C→(i), D→(ii)
(2) A→(ii), B→(iii), C→(i), D→(iv)
(3) A→(iii), B→(i), C→(ii), D→(iv)
(4) A→(iv), B→(iii), C→(ii), D→(i)
23) Glucose (A)
Major product 'A' is ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)
what is "P" ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Assertion (A):– The increasing oxidising power in the series .

Reason (R):– Due to increasing stability of the lower species in which they are reduced.

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) and (R) both are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
26)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which of the following statement is not true about Potash alum ?

(1) Its empirical formula is [Link].(SO4)3.12H2O

(2) It is used in dyeing industry, to stop bleeding
(3) It is salt of (SA + SB) + (SA + WB).
(4) Its aqueous solution is basic in nature.

28) Give the correct order of electrical conductivity of aqueous solution of following complexes :-
(A) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 (B) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(C) K2[PtCl6]

(1) A < B < C

(2) A > B > C
(3) A < B < C
(4) A > B < C

29) When pressure is applied to equilibrium system Ice water. Which of the following phenomenon
will happen?

(1) More ice will be formed

(2) Water will evaporate
(3) More water will be formed
(4) Equilibrium will not exist

30) Statement-1 :- Salt solution containing Br– and Cl– ion on treating with conc. H2SO4 produces
Br2 and HCl respectively but if MnO2 is used along with the acid then X2 (Br2, Cl2) is obtained as
general product.
Statement-2 :- Conc. H2SO4 can oxidize Br– but cannot oxidize Cl– whereas MnO2 can oxidize both
Br– and Cl– ions to Br2 and Cl2 respectively.
In the following set of questions, Statement 1 is given and a corresponding Statement 2 is given
below it. Mark the correct option as :

(1) If both the Statements are true and Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
(2) If both the Statements are true and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(3) If Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(4) If Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.

31) The group reagent for the IV group radicals is :-

(1) H2S (acidic)

(2) NaOH
(3) H2S (basic)
(4) (NH4)2CO3

32) Which of the following is a buffer solution ?

(1) 500mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.1N NaOH

(2) 500mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.1N HCl
(3) 500 mL of 0.1 N CH3COOH + 500 mL of 0.2N NaOH
(4) 500 mL of 0.2 N CH3COOH + 500 mL to 0.1N NaOH

33) Identify True/False statements respectively :-

(1) Many trivalent lanthanoid ions are coloured both in solid state and in aqueous solution.
(2) Abnormally low value of 3rd I.E. of 64Gd is due to less exchange energy.
(3) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
(4) 2nd I.E. of lanthanoids is comparable with aluminium about 1200 kJ/mol.

(1) TFTF
(2) TTFF
(3) FFFT
(4) TTTF

34) For the reaction the value of equilibrium constant is 9.0. The
degree of dissociation of HI will be

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.33
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.67
35)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Statement-I : Electronically, Aldehydes are less reactive than ketones towards Nucleophilic
Addition Reaction.
Statement-II : Two Alkyl groups increase the electrophilicity of the carbonyl more effectively.

(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and II are correct.

37) The correct representation for the Ksp of SnS2 is

(1) [Sn2+][S–2]2
(2) [Sn4+][S–2]2
(3) [Sn2+][2S–2]
(4) [Sn4+][2S–2]2

38) The compound which will given HVZ reaction is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

39) Which complex ion of cobalt will absorb light of highest wavelength ?

+3
(1) [Co(NH3)6]
–3
(2) [Co(CN)6]
–3
(3) [CoCl6]
+3
(4) [Co(H2O)6]

40) Order of number of chelate ring is correct for :-

(i) [Co(en)2(Ox)]+ (ii) [Fe(Trien)(Ox)]+ (iii) [Ca(EDTA)]–2 (iv) [Pt(Ox)2 (H2O)2]

(1) iii > i > ii > iv

(2) iii > ii > i > iv
(3) iii > iv > i > ii
(4) ii > iii > i > iv

41) The final products obtained for the following reaction is:-
KMnO4 (excess) + H2SO4 (concentrated and cold)

(1) Mn2O7
(2) MnO
(3) Mn3O4
(4)

42) Suppose the following reaction

The product 'C' will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The colour developed when sodium sulphide is added to sodium nitroprusside is :

(1) violet
(2) yellow
(3) red
(4) black

44) Which of the following is not expected to show paramagnetism ?

2+
(1) [Fe(NH3)6]
(2) Ni(CO)4
2+
(3) [Cr(en)3]
2+
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]

45) Which of the following is not present in complex [Co(NH3)4(SCN)2]Br ?

(1) Geometrical Isomerism

(2) Linkage Isomerism
(3) Ionisation Isomerism
(4) Optical Isomerism

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following cross is used to find out homozygosity or heterozygosity of a dominant
individual ?

(1) Reciprocal cross

(2) Test cross
(3) Out cross
(4) Monohybrid cross

2) A man whose father was colour blind marries a woman who had a colourblind mother and normal
father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colourblind -

(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%

3) Find out the incorrect match :

Chromosomal theory of Sutton and

(1)
inheritance Bovari

(2) Chromosomal map Sturtevant

(3) Henking X-body

(4) Morgan. Pisum sativam

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Brain is covered with cranial meninges. Outer, inner and middle region meninges are
respectively.

(1) dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

(2) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid
(3) dura mater, Pia mater, arachnoid
(4) arachnoid, dura mater, pia mater

5) Which of the following function is not related with hormones secreted by adenohypophysis ?

(1) Control growth

(2) Milk formation and secretion
(3) Secretion of androgen from testis
(4) Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in distal tubules of kidney

6) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes the correct ones
only.
(a) Nerve fibre do not innervates all cell of body but cellular function needs to be continuousely
regulated.
(b) Hormones are non-nutrient chemical which are secreted by glands which has ducts.
(c) Releasing & inhibitory hormones are secreted by nuclei present in hypothalamus.
(d) All the hormone originating in the hypothalamic neurons, pass through axon and released from
their nerve endings.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

7) Given blow is the diagramatic sketch of transversge section of young anther. Indentify the parts

labelled A, B, C, D and select the right option:-

A B C D

1 Epidermis Middle layer Endothecium Tapetum

2 Epidermis Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum

3 Epiblema Tapetum Middle layer Endothecium

4 Epidermis Middle layer Endothecium Tapetum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which of the following is not a function of Thyroxine Hormone ?

(1) Regulate menstrual cycle

(2) Stimulate protein synthesis
(3) Stimulate basal metabolic rate
(4) Stimulate glycogenesis in Liver

9) A canal named ___________ and four round swellings ____________ are represented by _____________
part of human brain.

(1) Metacoel, corpora quadrigemina, mid brain.

(2) Iter, corpora quadrigemina, fore brain.
(3) Central canal, corpora bigemina, Hind brain.
(4) Iter, corpora quadrigemina, mid brain.

10) Which of the following is the 2nd largest part of human brain?

(1) Thalamus
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Cerebellum

11) The process in which newly form cells from primary meristematic tissue derived to perform
specific function is known as :-

(1) regeneration
(2) dedifferentiation
(3) redifferentiation
(4) differentiation

12) Horizontal growth of seedling, swelling of axis and apical hook formation in dicot seedling are
associated with:-

(1) Photoperiodism
(2) Vernalisation
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

13) Match the following columns :–

Column-I Column-II

(A) Coconut milk (i) ABA

(B) Apical dominance (ii) Ethylene

(C) Fruit ripening (iii) Cytokinins

(D) Seed Dormancy (iv) Auxins

(1) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(2) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii

14) What will be ploidy of the cells of nucellus, megaspore mother cell, functional megaspore and
embryosac respectively

(1) n, 2n, 3n, 4n

(2) n, 3n, 4n, 2n
(3) 2n, 2n, n, n
(4) 3n, 4n, 2n, n
15) Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about

(1) 25 - 50 mm
(2) 25 - 50 m
(3) 50 - 100 m
(4) 20 - 40 mm

16) In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is :-

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure

(2) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
(3) 7 celled 6 nucleated structure
(4) 4 celled 4 nucleated structure

17) Choose the correct option for functions of A,B,C and D :-

(1) A– Primary growth

(2) B – Secondary growth
(3) C – Lateral growth
(4) D – Secondary growth

18) Cleistogamous flowers are present in:

(1) Commelina
(2) Mustard
(3) Mirabilis
(4) Catharanthus

19) Which of the following hormone has no action on gene expression ?

(1) Cortisol
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Progesterone
(4) Glucagon

20) If Tt pea plant is crossed with Tt pea plant, then the offsprings will be -
A- 75% plants are Tall
B- 25% plants are Dwarf
C- 50% plants are homozygous
D- 50% plants are heterozygous
Select the correct option -

(1) Only A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only A, B, C

21) Which hormone has the anti-insulin effect ?

(1) Calcitonin
(2) Cortisol
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Aldosterone

22) In paddy and wheat pollen grains survive for :-

(1) Several months

(2) Few weaks
(3) 30 minutes
(4) One year

23) Identify the structure labelled as A,B,C and D in the following figure, showing the mode of action

of a steroid hormone:-

(1) A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Receptor, C - cAMP, D-Ovarian growth

(2) A-Ovarian cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, C-Proteins, D-ovarian growth
(3) A-Ovarian cell membrane, B - cAMP, C-Proteins, D-Tissue growth and differentiation
A-Uterine cell membrane, B-Hormone-receptor complex, C-Proteins, D-Tissue growth and
(4)
differentiation

24) Which of the following system relays impulse from CNS to skeletal muscles?

(1) Somatic neural system

(2) Sympathetic neural system
(3) Parasympathetic neural system
(4) Autonomic neural system

25)

How many harmones from given list are binds with intracellular receptor & produce their effect by
gene expression :-
LH, FSH, Melatonin, MSH, PTH, Insulin, Cortisol, Norepinephrin, Prolactin, GnRH.

(1) 1
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 9

26) A dominant trait is the one which is expressed in :-

(1) Homozygous condition only

(2) Heterozygous condition only
(3) Either homozygous or in heterozygous condition
(4) Both in homozygous and heterozygous condition

27) If the pituitary gland of an adult rat is removed surgically, which of the following endocrine
glands will be least affected ?

(1) Adrenal cortex

(2) Adrenal medulla
(3) Thyroid
(4) Gonads

28) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in:-

(1) Rose, lotus

(2) Hibiscus, Papaver
(3) Michelia, lotus
(4) Hibiscus, rose

29) In the cross given below:

AaBbccDd ×AabbCCDd
What percentage of progeny will have genotype aaBbCcDD?

(1) 6.2 %
(2) 3.1 %
(3) 12.4 %
(4) 25 %

30) The substances essential for the normal growth of tissues and their repairing / regeneration that
are secreted from non-endocrine tissues are
(1) Growth factors
(2) Secondary messengers
(3) Primary messengers
(4) Both 2 & 3

31) Which of the following is true sequence of transmission of impulse within neuron?

(1) C→B→A
(2) B→A→C
(3) A→B→C
(4) Either (1) or (2)

32) The brain stem does not include

(1) Pons
(2) Medulla
(3) Midbrain
(4) Cerebellum

33) In a breeding experiment between two parents showing the dominant and recessive phenotype
of the character, the offsprings showed equal proportions of the dominant & recessive phenotypes.
Which one of following statement must be true ?

(1) Both the parents produces same types of gametes

(2) Both the parents carried recessive alleles
(3) Both the parents were true breeding
(4) More than one options are correct

34) Assertion(A): Myelinated nerves conduct impulses more quickly than unmyelinated nerves.
Reason(R): Myelinated nerve performs saltatory conduction.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason is the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and reason is not the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

35) Which of the following statements are correct in relation to the endocrine system ?

(1) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland.
(2) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any
(3)
hormones.
 Non-nutrient chemicals produced by endocrine glands in trace amount that act as intercellular
(4)
messengers are known as hormones.

36) The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is
20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear
chromosome?

(1) d, b, a, c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, c, b, d
(4) a, d, b, c

37) Which of the following is/are intracellular intrinsic factor(s) to affect the development of plants ?

(1) Plant growth regulators

(2) Temperature and nutrients
(3) Genetic factors
(4) Oxygen and water

38) Disease caused by hyper-or-hypo secretion of thyroxine is :-

(1) Cretinism
(2) Acromegaly
(3) Goitre
(4) All of the above

39) Which is not a neural modified part :-

(1) Pineal gland

(2) Adrenal cortex
(3) Adrenal medulla
(4) Posterior pituitary

40) Which of the following hormones are most likely related to Osteoporosis?

(1) Progesterone and aldosterone

(2) Estrogen and aldosterone
(3) Estrogen and parathormone
(4) Parathormone and prolactin

41) Nissl’s granules are absent in —

(1) Dendrons and dendrites

(2) Axon
(3) Cyton
(4) Cyton and dendrons
42) Intake of ORS inhibits the secretion of :-

(1) Vasopressin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Melatonin
(4) Thyroxine

43)

A woman may develop beard and moustaches due to:-

(1) Hypersecretion of adrenal corticoids

(2) Hypersection of thyroxine
(3) Hyposecretion of adrenaline
(4) Hyposecretion of thyroxine

44) The gastric secretion and cardiovascular reflexes are controlled by centres located in

(1) Medulla
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons
(4) Mid brain

45) The generation of an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron is usually caused due to

(1) Opening of ion channels which allow the entry of ions in post-synaptic neuron
(2) Closure of ion channels which block the entry of ions in pre-synaptic neuron
(3) Release of neurotransmitters in synaptic cleft from post-synaptic neuron
(4) Binding of neurotransmitters to their specific receptors present on pre-synaptic membrane

46) In tetrahybrid (TtRrGgAa) selfing, the possibility of plant with genotype TTRrggAa in next
generation would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

47) Nodes of Ranvier are —

(1) Areas of swellings of axon

(2) Found in the wall of stomach
(3) The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheath
(4) Bands in striated muscles

48) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse i.e. resting, the axonal membrane is

(1) Comparatively more permeable to K+ and nearly impermeable to Na+

(2) Impermeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) More permeable to Na+ ions than K+ ion.

49) Match column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(I) IAA (A) Terpenes

(II) GA (B) Indole compounds

(III) ABA (C) Adenine derivatives

(IV) Kinetin (D) Carotenoid derivatives

The correct match is :-
(1) I - B, II - D, III - A, IV - C
(2) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
(3) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
(4) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C

50) Limbic system is mainly concerned with the following functions, except

(1) Regulation of sexual behaviour

(2) Expression of emotional reactions and motivation
(3) Conversion of short term memory to long term
(4) Integration of all visual, tactile and auditory inputs

51) In an electrical synapse, the pre-synaptic neuron transmits an action potential across the
synaptic cleft through

(1) Excitatory neurotransmitters

(2) Inhibitory neurotransmitters
(3) Voltage gated sodium channels
(4) Gap junctions present in synapse

52) The sequence of developments of embryo sac.

(1) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.

(2) Archesporium → Megaspore → Megaspore mother cell → Embryo sac.
(3) Archesporium → Megaspore mother cell → Microspore → Embryo sac.
(4) Archesporium → Microspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac.
53) A gaseous PGR that is both growth promoter and growth inhibitor and it stimulates the
formation of root hairs is :-

(1) ABA
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) CH4 gas

54) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A : Catecholamines stimulate the breakdown of glycogen resulting in an increased
concentration of glucose in blood.
Statement B : Underproduction of catecholamines by adrenal cortex can cause acute weakness and
fatigue.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

55) Part of forebrain in man which controls urge for eating, satiety and drinking is

(1) Amygdala
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Epithalamus
(4) Thalamus

56) Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on

(1) membranes of synaptic vesicles

(2) pre-synaptic membrane
(3) tips of axons
(4) post-synaptic membranes

57) Versatile anther and feathery stigma is the characterstic of

(1) Entomophilous flower

(2) Hydrophilous flower
(3) Anemophilous flower
(4) Ornithophilous flower

58) Amorphophallus flower provide floral rewards to the pollinator in the form of :-

(1) Beautiful colour

(2) Providing safe place to lay eggs
(3) Nectar
(4) Providing safe place for asexual reproduction
59) In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by

(1) Insects or wind

(2) Water currents only
(3) Wind and water
(4) Insects and water

60) Coordination is the process through which

(1) One organ always inhibits the function of any other organ
(2) One organ always stimulates the function of all organs of the body
(3) Two or more organs interact and complement the function of one another
(4) Two or more organs anatomically connect with each other

61) One of the male gamete moves towards the egg cell & fuses with it, the process is known as -

(1) Syngamy
(2) Triple fusion
(3) Double fertilization
(4) Autogamy

62) Which of the following is most relevant with the figure given above.

(1) Microsporogenesis
(2) Stages of a microspore maturing into a pollen grain/ male gametophyte
(3) Formation of two celled gamete
(4) Megasporogenesis

63) Which one opposes parathormone ?

(1) ADH
(2) Insulin
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Thyrocalcitonin

64) The ability of plants to follow different pathways in response to environment or phase of life to
form different kind of structures is called :-

(1) Adaptation
(2) Differentiation
(3) Maturation
(4) Plasticity

65) The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called

(1) Cerebral aqueduct

(2) Corpora quadrigemina
(3) Corpus callosum
(4) Cerebral peduncles

66) Types of gametes formed by the plant with genotype AABbccDdee :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 32
(4) 64

67) In a dihybrid cross in garden pea plants, 1024 plants were obtained in F2 generation. How many
plants will show dominant trait for both characters ?

(1) 218
(2) 324
(3) 123
(4) 576

68) At which labelled point opening of K+ channel represents :

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

69) The hormone that supports red blood cell formation is

(1) Cortisol
(2) Erythropoietin
(3) T3 and T4
(4) All the above

70) Which one promotes nutrient mobilisation that helps in the delay of leaf senescence ?

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Ethylene
(3) Cytokinins
(4) Gibberellins

71) The greyish appearance of cerebral cortex is largely due to

(1) Accumulation of myelin sheath

(2) Concentrated neuron cell bodies
(3) Presence of iron containing cytochrome pigment
(4) Presence of medullated axon

72) During repolarization of neuron

(1) K+ gate closes and Na+ gate opens

(2) Na+ channels are closed and K+ channels are opened
(3) Both K+ and Na+ gates are closed
(4) Both gates remain opened

73) Formula that represent growth of cells in tissue culture is :-

(1) Lt = L0 + rt
rt
(2) Wt = W0 e
(3) Lt = L0 ert
(4) Wt = W0 + rt

74) With respect to ABO blood groups, how many genotypes and phenotypes, respectively, are
possible in the population of human being?

(1) 6 and 4
(2) 4 and 6
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 4 and 8

75) Area of leaf A was 10 cm2 and that of leaf B was 25 cm2. After unit time, area of leaf A became 17
cm2 while that of leaf B became 32 cm2. What is the difference between relative growth rate of leaf A
and B :-

(1) 42%
(2) 30%
(3) 28%
(4) 7%

76) How many additional autosomes are present in Klinifelter’s syndrome than normal man-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Zero

77) Which one is responsible to maintain the neuron in polarised state :

(1) Na+ VGC channal

(2) Cl– channal
(3) Na–K pump
(4) All of these

78) Pollination in Vallisneria is by :-

(1) wind
(2) animals
(3) insects
(4) water

79) The nerve fibre that is enclosed by a Schwann cell is

(1) Only myelinated nerve fibre present in CNS

(2) Only myelinated nerve fibre present in PNS
(3) Unmyelinated and myelinated nerve fibre present in PNS
(4) Unmyelinated nerve fibre present in CNS

80) Oxytocin & ADH hormones are released from :-

(1) Posterior pituitary gland

(2) Anterior pituitary gland
(3) Hypothalamic Nuclei
(4) DCT of Nephron

81) The figure given below is of experimental technique of Mendel. Select the option giving correct
identification of A, B & C :-

A-Artificial cross pollination;

(1) B-Hybrid offsprings;
C-Emasculation.
A-Emasculation;
(2) B-Bagging & tagging;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Emasculation;
(3) B-Artificial cross pollination;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Bagging & tagging;
(4) B-Emasculation;
C-Hybrid offsprings.

82) Primary function of myelin sheath around vertebrate axon is to :-

(1) Regulate Na+ –K+ pump

(2) Increase in value of action potential
(3) Increase in speed of conduction by preventing leakage of ions
(4) Deactivate the release of neurotransmitter

83) The factors affecting growth can be

(1) Water, light, gravity but not temperature

(2) Water, temperature, light but not gravity
(3) Water, light but not temperature and Gravity
(4) Water, temperature, light, gravity
84) Choose the correct option for A,
B, C and D in given diagram :-

A-mature cell, B-differentiation,

(1)
C-maturation, D-meristematic cell
A-meristematic cell, B-maturation,
(2)
C-differentiation, D-mature cell
A-meristematic cell, B-differentiation,
(3)
C-maturation, D-mature cell
A-meristematic cell, B-differentiation,
(4)
C-maturation, D-meristematic cell

85) Advantage of cleistogamy is :-

(1) More vigorous offspring

(2) No dependence on pollinators
(3) Vivipary
(4) Higher genetic variability

86) Tapetum of flowering plant is :-

(1) Diploid and uninucleate

(2) Haploid and uninucleate
(3) Haploid and multinucleate
(4) Polyploid and multinucleate

87) In 1900 A. D. three biologists independently discovered Mendel's principles. They are :-

(1) De Vries, Correns and Tschermak

(2) Sutton, Morgan and Bridges
(3) Avery, McLeod and McCarthy
(4) Bateson, Punnet and Bridges

88) ________ is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling

(1) Hypothalamus
(2) Amygdala
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Thalamus

89) A cell
↓
 B hormone
↓
Protein, Carbohydrate, lipid
↓
Anabolism Identify the A and B :-

(1) A-Somatotroph cell, B → Growth hormone

(2) A-Adrenal cortex cell, B → glucocorticoid
(3) A-Beta cell, B → Insulin
(4) A-Alpha cell, B → Glucagon

90) What will be the probability of individuals homozygous for first character and heterozygous for
second character in a dihybrid cross ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 4 3 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 4 4 2 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 1 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 3 2 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 4 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 1 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 4 3 4 2 2 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 4 1 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 4 2 1 4 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 1 1 1 3 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 1 2 4 3 2 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 2 4 4 3 2 4 3 4 3 2 2 2 1 1 4 3 4 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 3 2 4 1 4 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

∵ J = neνd = neμE = m1e(μe + μh).E

3)

4)
So any measurement will be integral multiple of LC
So ans. will be 2.124 cm

5)
∵ R α A1/3

=14
AN = 14 × 4 = 56
N+P = 56
atomic number = P = 56 – 30 = 26

6) ....(i)
As K.E'. = 3 K.E.

∴ λ' = ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)

7)

h=

As r, h, T are same,
⇒ As ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3
⇒ cos θ1 > cos θ2 > cos θ3 ⇒ θ1 < θ2 < θ3
As water rises so q must be acute So, 0 ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < π/2

8)

From the given waveform following truth table can be formed

This belongs to NOR gate

9) Comparing each wave equation with the standard equation

y = a sin ωt = a sin 2πnt
the frequencies of the two waves are

n1 = 500 Hz and n2 = = 499 Hz

∴ Beat frequency = n1 – n2 = 500 – 499 = 1 beat/sec.

10)

(a)
P → Low potential (L.P.) → 0V
N → High potential (H.P.) → 5V
So, D → R.B.

(b)
P → 10V (H.P.)
N → 5V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.

(c)
P → –10V (L.P.)
N → 0V (H.P.)
So, D → R.B.

(d)
 P → –5V (H.P.)
N → –12V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.

(e)
P → 0V (H.P.)
N → –10V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.
So, (b), (d), (e) are forward biased.

11)
PA = PB
10 × ρx × g = 8ρyg + 2ρHgg
10 × 3.36 = 8ρy + 2 × 13.6
ρy = 0.8 g/cm3

12) For floating mg = ρving

⇒ Vin =
since inside volume is independent of 'g' so fraction of volume will remain same.

13)

W = TΔA
W = TA

as ΔA = A

14)

Antimony is pentavalent impurity so Ge pure crystal will convert into N type extrinsic S.C.
having large number of free e– than holes.

15) Maximum particle velocity = Aω

wave velocity =

in equation

y = 3 sin

y = 3 sin
Compare it with
y = A sin (ωt – kx)

AK =

16)

In the diagram, zero of the vernier scale lies to the right of zero of main scale. So it has
positive zero error.
N = 0, Third division of vernier scale is coinciding with the main scale division.
∴ zero error
= N + 3 × L.C = 0 + 3 × 0.01 cm
= 0.03 cm
Z.E. = +0.03 cm
& zero correction = –0.03 cm.

17) When a stationary wave is established in a medium, then maximum deformation of the
medium is produced at nodes. Hence, maximum pressure change takes place at nodes and at
antinodes no pressure changes takes place. Hence, option (2) alone is correct.

18) Least count (LC) = MSD ;

here a = 9,
b = 10 ; 1 MSD = 1 mm

LC = 1 mm = 0.1 mm
There is zero error in measurement.
As the zero of the vernier lies to the left of the main scale, it has negative zero error. For
negative zero error, the coinciding division is to be read from right and it has 5th division
coinciding from right.
Thus zero error = ZE = –5 × 0.1 mm = –0.5 mm = –0.05 cm
Reading at measurement : MSR = 8.5 cm
VSR = 8th VSD × 0.1 mm = 0.08 cm
Corrected reading = MSR+VSR × LC – zero error
= 8.5 cm + 0.08 cm – (–0.5mm) = 8.63 cm

19)

λ= = 217100Å

20) k = = or λ = 50 cm

21)

The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on angle of contact between the
 surface and the liquid.
(I) acute – wet

(II) abtuse – not wet

22) Since a soap bubble has two surfaces, excess pressure will get doubled as compared to a
drop

0
Pi –P' = , P' – P = ⇒ excess pressure

0
= Pi – P =

23)

Particle velocity,

or = – wave velocity × slope of the wave

(a) For upward velocity, vpa = + ve, so slope must negative which is at the points D, E and F.

(b) For downward velocity, vpa = –ve, so slope must be positive which
is at the points A, B and H.
(c) For zero velocity, slope must be zero which is at C and G.
(d) For maximum magnitude of velocity, |slope| = maximum, which is at A and E. Hence, the given
(d) alternative is wrong.

24)

0.1 mm =
MSD = 1mm

25) Energy of photon

Momentum of photon =
 26)
Nh >> Ne
So, p–type semiconductor

27)

h=

⇒h∝

29)

Pitch

= 0.0005 cm

30) Saturation current is proportional to intensity while stopping potential increases with
increase in frequency. Hence A & B same intensity. B & C same frequency. Therefore, the
correct option is (1)

31)

⇒ ⇒ T = 200 K = – 73°C

32) Surface tension of liquid lead, which tries to minimize the surface area and gives a
spherical shape.

33) Inside a freely falling elevator, water will rise upto the top level but still not overflow.
Radius of curvature (R') increses in such a way that final height h' is reduced and given by h' =

. (It is in accordance with Zurin's law).

34) Correction by SKC Sir

Theory
 36)

37)

38)

E = ϕ0 + KEmax KEmax = 0.9 eV

E = 3.1 + 0.9 ϕ =
0

E = 4 eV ϕ0 = 3.1 eV

E=

λ= = 3100 Å or 310 nm

39)

Energy released = B.E. of (A + B) – BE of (X)

= 110 × 8.2 + 90 × 8.2 – 200 × 7.4
= 160 MeV

40) A =
A=
A=

41)
Zener and RL are in parallel

∴ I=

42)
= 5 × 109 m–3
 43)

Theory based

44) By law of floating

Mg = ρ1V1g + ρ2V2g
⇒ M = ρ1V1 + ρ2V2
M = 0.6 × 102 × 4 + 0.4 × 102 × 6 = 480 gm
Hence option (3)

45)

According to newton propagation of sound in gas is isothermal and according to laplace it is

adiabatic.

CHEMISTRY

47)

48)

53)
KSP = (2Y)2 (3Y)3
KSP = 108.Y5

56) and both are amphiprotic species

60) Read notes

63) HCOONa → WASB

 65) Ammonium oxalate is used for the confirmation of Ca+2.

69)

74) Conceptual

77) Read notes

79)

81)

Conceptual

82)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT-XII, Page # 58

97) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23

99)

NCERT page no.322

102) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230

104)

NCERT-XIIth, Page 26 (E), 27 (H)

105)

NCERT Pg. # 28,29

106)

In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is 7 celled 8 nucleated structure

107) NCERT Pg. # 241

110)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 57

111)

NCERT - 2023 -24 . Pg. 245

112)

NCERT XII Page # 8

113)

NCERT_XI_Pg.No: 249

118)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 25(E), 26(H), fig. 2.7(a)

120)

NCERT_XI_Pg.No: 248

121)

Module.6
124)

Module 15

127) NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 247 (1st para)

NCERT (XIth) (H) Pg. # 247 (पहला पे राग ाफ)
[Inter एवं Intra, Eng. NCERT से confirm कर ।]

130) NCERT Page No-334,337

133) NCERT Page 336.

138)

Module Page 45

141) NCERT page- 319

143) NCERT Page # 250

144) NCERT Pg. No. 244

148) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 30

149)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 11 (III para)

150) NCERT page- 315

152) NCERT Pg. # 23

154) NCERT XI Pg. # 244

156)

Type of gamete

h = number of heterozygous
n = 2 in above genotype
22 = 4 type of gametes

159) NCERT Page No-334,335

165) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 244

168)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

169) NCERT page- 317

171) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 71

172)

Module

173) NCERT XI Pg # 243

174) NCERT XI Page # 246, Figure 15.8

175) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 28

178) NCERT page- 321