APPSC GROUP-II MAINS TEST-16 EXPLANATION (01-02-2025)

1) Consider the following statements regarding pyrolysis:

1. Pyrolysis requires high temperatures in the presence of oxygen to break down synthetic material.
2. It is used to produce methanol, activated carbon, and biofuel.
3. It reduces greenhouse gas emissions and waste going to landfills.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Incorrect:
Pyrolysis is a thermochemical decomposition process that occurs in the absence of oxygen, typically at high
temperatures ranging from 300°C to 900°C. The absence of oxygen is critical because it prevents combustion,
which would otherwise release harmful emissions. Instead, pyrolysis produces useful by-products such as
synthetic gas (syngas), bio-oil, and biochar.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct as pyrolysis has applications in biofuel production and reduces environmental
hazards.
• Methanol: Pyrolysis of organic matter produces syngas, which can be converted into methanol.
• Activated Carbon and Charcoal: Pyrolysis of wood and other biomass materials generates activated
carbon and biochar.
• Biofuel: Pyrolysis of biomass or waste materials can yield bio-oil (a liquid biofuel) and synthetic gas,
both of which can be used as energy sources. These applications highlight its significance in renewable
energy and waste management.
• Reduction in GHGs: Unlike traditional burning or landfilling, pyrolysis does not emit large quantities
of methane (a potent GHG). Instead, it converts waste into usable products, helping mitigate climate
change.
• Waste Management: Pyrolysis processes non-recyclable plastics, biomass, and organic waste,
preventing them from ending up in landfills. This reduces environmental contamination and landfill
overflows.

2) Which of the following pollutants is NOT primarily emitted during stubble burning?
a) Methane (CH₄)
b) Ammonia (NH₃)
c) Carbon Monoxide (CO)
d) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC)
Answer: B) Ammonia (NH₃)
Explanation: Ammonia is a by-product of composting processes, not stubble burning. Stubble burning releases
pollutants like methane, carbon monoxide, and VOCs, which contribute to smog formation.
Stubble burning is the practice of intentionally setting fire to agricultural residue, such as paddy or wheat
stubble, after harvest.
• The process involves the combustion of organic matter at open-air conditions, leading to the release of
a variety of harmful gases and particulate matter into the atmosphere.
Major Pollutants from Stubble Burning:
• Methane (CH₄): Produced due to incomplete combustion of organic matter.
• Carbon Monoxide (CO): Released in significant quantities as a result of incomplete combustion of
carbon-containing compounds.

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• Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC): These are gaseous emissions that include hydrocarbons and
other volatile pollutants formed during the combustion of plant material.

3) Consider the following statements regarding household air pollution:

1. Burning of agricultural residue indoors can release PM2.5 and methane.
2. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are emitted from furniture, paints, and carpets.
3. Household air pollution contributes to indoor air pollution only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. PM2.5 and Methane (Correct): The burning of agricultural residue releases fine particulate matter
(PM2.5) and methane, both of which are harmful to health and contribute to global warming.
2. VOCs (Correct): Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are released by household items such as
furniture, paints, and carpets, contributing to indoor air pollution.
3. Indoor and Outdoor Impact (Incorrect): Household air pollution can escape poorly ventilated homes,
affecting outdoor air quality.

4) Assertion (A): Significant volcanic eruptions contribute to the depletion of the ozone layer.
Reason (R): Volcanic eruptions release large quantities of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) into the atmosphere,
which react with ozone molecules and deplete the ozone layer.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: C) A is true, but R is false.
Assertion is True:
• Significant volcanic eruptions inject large volumes of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) into the stratosphere. SO₂
reacts with water vapor and forms sulphur aerosols.
• These aerosols act as a surface for chemical reactions involving chlorine and bromine compounds
(originating from anthropogenic sources like CFCs), accelerating ozone depletion.
Reason is False:
• Volcanic eruptions do not release CFCs. Chlorofluorocarbons are entirely man-made chemicals used
in refrigerants, aerosols, and industrial applications.
• Ozone depletion linked to volcanic eruptions is due to the interaction between sulphur aerosols (from
eruptions) and existing halogenated compounds (from human activities), not because volcanoes emit
CFCs.

5) A rural household uses firewood and animal dung for cooking in an unventilated kitchen. The family
members frequently report respiratory issues. A recent survey indicated high levels of PM2.5, carbon
monoxide, and black carbon in their indoor environment.
Question: Based on the case study, which interventions could most effectively reduce household air pollution
in this scenario?
1. Switching to Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) for cooking.
2. Installing a chimney or exhaust system in the kitchen.
3. Reducing the use of animal dung as fuel.
4. Increasing the use of solid biomass stoves.
Choose the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only

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b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: B) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• Switching to LPG: Eliminates harmful emissions from solid fuels.
• Installing a Chimney: Improves ventilation and reduces indoor pollutant concentration.
• Reducing Animal Dung Usage: Lowers black carbon and methane emissions.
• Solid Biomass Stoves: Not effective unless advanced stoves with emission controls are used.

6) Consider the following statements regarding air pollution:

1. PM2.5 particles are more harmful to human health than PM10 particles because they penetrate deeper
into the lungs.
2. Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed by the reaction of nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and
volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight.
3. Carbon monoxide (CO) primarily contributes to the formation of acid rain.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is correct:PM2.5, fine particles are more harmful as they can penetrate the alveoli in the
lungs and even enter the bloodstream.
2. Statement 2 is Correct: It is a secondary pollutant formed through photochemical reactions involving
NOₓ and VOCs.
3. Statement 3 is Incorrect: CO is toxic and contributes to air pollution but does not lead to acid rain. Acid
rain is caused by sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ).

7) Which of the following pollutants contribute to the formation of smog?

1. Nitrogen oxides (NOₓ)
2. Sulphur dioxide (SO₂)
3. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
4. Carbon monoxide (CO)
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
• Nitrogen oxides (NOₓ): React with VOCs in sunlight to form photochemical smog.
• Sulphur dioxide (SO₂): Combines with other pollutants to form particulate smog.
• VOCs: React with NOₓ to produce ground-level ozone, a key component of smog.
• Carbon monoxide (CO): Contributes to air pollution
Smog is a type of air pollution that forms when pollutants in the atmosphere react under specific
conditions, such as sunlight or high humidity. It can be broadly classified into two types:
Smog is typically classified into two types:
1. Photochemical Smog (Common in urban areas, especially in warm climates)
o Caused by a reaction between Nitrogen Oxides (NOₓ) and Volatile Organic Compounds
(VOCs) in the presence of sunlight.
o Leads to the formation of ground-level ozone (O₃), which is a major component of smog.

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2. Sulfurous Smog (Also called London Smog, common in cold climates)
o Formed due to high concentrations of Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂) in the air, which reacts with
moisture to form particulate pollutants.

8) Which of the following gases is NOT a greenhouse gas?

a) Methane
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen dioxide
d) Water vapor
Answer: C) Nitrogen dioxide
Explanation:
Greenhouse gases (GHGs) are those gases in Earth's atmosphere that trap heat by absorbing and emitting
infrared radiation, contributing to the greenhouse effect. They help regulate Earth's temperature but excessive
concentrations lead to global warming and climate change.
Methane (CH₄):
• Role: Methane is a potent greenhouse gas with a global warming potential (GWP) 25 times higher
than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period.
• Sources: Methane is released from natural processes (e.g., wetlands) and anthropogenic activities like
livestock farming, rice cultivation, landfills, and fossil fuel extraction.
Carbon dioxide (CO₂):
• Role: Carbon dioxide is the primary greenhouse gas emitted through human activities such as the
burning of fossil fuels (coal, oil, and natural gas), deforestation, and industrial processes.
• Impact: It accounts for 76% of total GHG emissions globally, making it the most significant
contributor to global warming.
Water vapor (H₂O):
• Role: Water vapor is a natural greenhouse gas that is critical in regulating Earth's temperature.
• Mechanism: It traps heat by absorbing infrared radiation and amplifies the greenhouse effect through
a positive feedback loop (as temperatures rise, evaporation increases, leading to more water vapor).
Nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) is a primary air pollutant that contributes to smog and acid rain but does not have a
significant greenhouse effect.

9) A metropolitan city has seen an increase in PM2.5 levels during winter. Residents report respiratory issues
and reduced visibility due to smog. The government has identified vehicular emissions, biomass burning, and
industrial activities as the main contributors.
What steps can the government take to reduce air pollution in the city?
1. Introduce odd-even vehicle schemes.
2. Promote the use of cleaner fuels like CNG.
3. Increase public transportation facilities.
4. Implement stricter emission norms for industries.
Choose the correct answer:
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
• Odd-Even Schemes: Reduce vehicular emissions by limiting traffic.
• Cleaner Fuels: CNG emits fewer pollutants compared to diesel or petrol.
• Public Transportation: Encourages fewer private vehicles on the road.
• Stricter Emission Norms: Controls industrial emissions and reduces particulate matter.

10) Which of the following are criteria air pollutants under the National Air Quality Index (NAQI) in India?
1. PM10

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2. Ozone
3. Lead
4. Carbon monoxide
Select the correct answer:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2, and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
The National Air Quality Index (NAQI) was launched in 2014 by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) to provide a unified system to measure and report air quality across India.
The National Air Quality Index (NAQI) in India monitors eight pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, nitrogen dioxide
(NO₂), sulphur dioxide (SO₂), carbon monoxide (CO), ozone (O₃), ammonia (NH₃), and lead (Pb).

11) Assertion (A): Noise pollution beyond 85 dB is considered hazardous to human health.
Reason (R): The human ear can tolerate sound levels up to 100 dB without any adverse health effects.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: C) A is true, but R is false.
Explanation:
• Assertion is True: The human ear can tolerate noise levels up to 85 dB, and anything above that is
hazardous, causing issues like hearing loss, irritation, and cardiovascular stress.
• Reason is False: The human ear cannot tolerate sound levels of 100 dB without adverse effects. Noise
between 100-125 dB is considered uncomfortable and hazardous.

12) A thermal power plant located near a metropolitan city is producing large amounts of fly ash, causing air
and water pollution. To comply with environmental regulations, the plant management is exploring sustainable
ways to utilize fly ash for nearby projects, including construction and mine reclamation.
Question: Which of the following measures can be implemented to manage fly ash sustainably?
1. Mandating the use of fly ash in construction projects within a 100 km radius.
2. Filling abandoned mines with fly ash for reclamation.
3. Using fly ash to manufacture bricks for construction.
4. Directly depositing fly ash on agricultural fields to improve soil fertility.
Choose the correct answer:
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: A) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
• Measure 1(Correct): The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) mandates the use of fly ash in
construction projects within a 100 km radius of thermal power plants to reduce environmental impact.
• Measure 2(Correct): Fly ash can safely fill abandoned mines, helping with reclamation and reducing
groundwater contamination.
• Measure 3(Correct): Fly ash bricks are a sustainable construction material, being lightweight and
durable.
• Measure 4 (Incorrect): While fly ash improves soil properties in small quantities, direct deposition can
harm crops due to heavy metal toxicity.

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13) Consider the following statements about nanoparticles (NPs):
1. Natural processes such as volcanic eruptions and dust storms release nanoparticles into the atmosphere.
2. Nanoparticles in the troposphere reduce the concentration of hydroxyl radicals, which affects the
atmosphere's ability to clean pollutants.
3. Nanoparticles contribute to global cooling by increasing albedo when deposited on glaciers.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is Correct: Natural sources like volcanic eruptions, dust storms, and forest fires release
nanoparticles into the atmosphere, making them widespread in the environment.
2. Statement 2 is Correct: Nanoparticles bind with hydroxyl radicals, reducing their concentration and
thereby diminishing the natural pollutant scrubbing capacity of the atmosphere.
3. Statement 3 is Incorrect: Nanoparticles deposited on glaciers reduce albedo (reflectivity), causing the
glaciers to absorb more sunlight, which increases melting and contributes to global warming, not
cooling.

14) Consider the following statements regarding black carbon:

1. Black carbon is a short-lived air pollutant that absorbs more sunlight than carbon dioxide.
2. Black carbon remains in the atmosphere for several years before deposition as rain or snow.
3. The Indo-Gangetic Plain is a major contributor of black carbon emissions in South Asia.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
1. Statement 1 is Correct: Black carbon absorbs sunlight much more effectively than carbon dioxide,
directly warming the atmosphere.
• Absorptive Properties:
• Black carbon has a global warming potential up to 460-1,500 times greater than CO₂, though it
persists in the atmosphere for a much shorter time.
• It is a critical driver of regional climate change, especially in areas like South Asia.
• Impact on Ice and Snow: When black carbon deposits on snow or ice, it reduces the albedo, causing
faster melting, particularly in glaciers like the Himalayas.
2. Statement 2 is Incorrect: Black carbon is short-lived, remaining in the atmosphere for only days to
weeks before being washed out by rain or snow. It is removed from the atmosphere primarily through:
• Wet deposition: Washed out by rain.
• Dry deposition: Settles onto surfaces like ice, snow, or soil.
• Unlike long-lived greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO₂) and methane (CH₄), black carbon
does not accumulate in the atmosphere for years or decades.
3. Statement 3 is Correct: The Indo-Gangetic Plain is a significant emitter, with emissions from fossil
fuels, biofuels, and biomass burning contributing around 40%, 20%, and 40%, respectively.

15) What is the permissible daytime noise level in a silent zone, as per the Central Pollution Control Board
(CPCB)?
a) 70 Db
b) 65 dB
c) 50 dB
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d) 40 dB
Answer: C) 50 dB
Explanation:
In residential areas, the permissible noise level is 55 dB during the day and 45 dB at night. Furthermore, the
'silent zone' category includes areas within 100 meters of schools, colleges, hospitals, and courts. The
acceptable noise level in this zone is 50 dB during the day and 40 dB at night.

16) What is the primary source of Polyaromatic Hydrocarbons (PAHs) in the environment?
a) Complete combustion of fossil fuels
b) Incomplete combustion of organic materials
c) Volcanic eruptions
d) Biodegradation of plastics
Answer: B) Incomplete combustion of organic materials
Explanation:
PAHs are primarily generated during the incomplete combustion of organic materials such as coal, oil, petrol,
wood, and even cigarette smoke. This process does not fully oxidize hydrocarbons, leading to the formation of
PAHs.

17) Which of the following particles has the highest penetration power and can pass through human tissues
causing severe damage?
a) Alpha particles
b) Beta particles
c) Gamma rays
d) Neutrons
Answer: C) Gamma rays
Explanation:
• Alpha particles: Blocked by paper or human skin.
• Beta particles: Can penetrate skin but are blocked by glass or thin metal.
• Gamma rays: Highly penetrating and can pass through human tissues, requiring thick concrete walls or
lead shields for blocking.
• Neutrons: Penetration depends on their energy, but they interact differently and are not as penetrating
as gamma rays in most scenarios.

18) Assertion (A): Nuclear power plants are designed with several safety features to prevent radioactive
pollution.
Reason (R): All nuclear accidents occur due to human errors
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: C) A is true, but R is false.
Explanation:
• Assertion is True: Nuclear power plants incorporate safety features like cooling systems, containment
structures, and emergency protocols to minimize risks.
• Reason is False: While human errors (e.g., Chernobyl) are a major cause of nuclear accidents, natural
disasters like earthquakes (e.g., Fukushima) can also trigger accidents.

19) Which radioactive substance is primary fuel used in nuclear reactors and is a significant source of high-
level radioactive waste?
a) Thorium
b) Uranium-235
c) Plutonium-239

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d) Radium
Answer: B) Uranium-235
Explanation:
• Uranium-235 is the primary fuel used in nuclear reactors for fission reactions.
• It generates high-level radioactive waste, including spent fuel rods, which require safe disposal and
management.
Thorium is not commonly used in current nuclear reactors as the primary fuel. It requires conversion into
Uranium-233 through neutron absorption and radioactive decay to be usable in a reactor.
Plutonium-239 is used in some nuclear reactors and is a byproduct of Uranium-238 in reactors, but it is not the
primary fuel. It is more commonly associated with nuclear weapons production and fast breeder reactors
rather than conventional nuclear power reactors.
Radium is not used in nuclear reactors. It is a naturally occurring radioactive element that was historically used
in luminous paints (e.g., for watch dials), but its use has been discontinued due to its health risks.

20) What is the primary composition of the Asian Tropopause Aerosol Layer (ATAL)?
a) Sulphates, black carbon, organic aerosols, nitrates, and dust particles
b) Methane, carbon dioxide, and sulphur dioxide
c) Nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons
d) Ozone and water vapor
Answer: A) Sulphates, black carbon, organic aerosols, nitrates, and dust particles
Explanation: ATAL is formed due to the convective transport of aerosols to the Upper Troposphere and Lower
Stratosphere (UTLS). It includes sulphates, black carbon, organic aerosols, nitrates, and dust particles. The
majority of particles in the ATAL are secondary aerosols, formed through chemical reactions in the atmosphere,
rather than directly emitted primary particle. Anthropogenic emissions from Asia are considered a primary
source of the precursors that contribute to the formation of the ATAL.

21) Consider the following statements about the half-life period:

1. Radionuclides with long half-life periods are more dangerous in the short term.
2. Half-life is the time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay.
3. Uranium-238 has a longer half-life than Caesium-137.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer: B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect because radionuclides with short half-life periods are more dangerous in the short
term due to rapid decay and high radiation intensity.
• Radionuclides with long half-life periods decay more slowly, releasing lower amounts of radiation
over time. While these can pose a danger due to their persistence, they are not immediately dangerous
in the short term.
• Radionuclides with short half-life periods, however, decay rapidly and emit higher amounts of
radiation in a short duration, making them more hazardous in the short term.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct as Half-life is the time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample
to decay and Uranium-238 (half-life ~4.5 billion years) has a much longer half-life than Caesium-137 (~30
years).

22) Assertion (A): Urban areas experience higher rainfall events due to aerosol loading.
Reason (R): Aerosols increase the size of cloud particles, enhancing their capacity to absorb sunlight and
increase evaporation.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

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b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: C) A is true, but R is false.
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true
o Urban areas typically have higher aerosol concentrations due to pollution from industrial
activities, vehicles, and other human activities.
o Aerosols act as cloud condensation nuclei (CCN), helping water vapor condense into cloud
droplets.
Reason (R) is false
o Aerosols do not directly increase the size of cloud particles to enhance sunlight absorption.
Instead:
▪ Aerosols increase the number of cloud droplets (not their size), creating a phenomenon
called the Twomey Effect. This results in smaller droplets that delay precipitation.

23) What is the primary function of an electrostatic precipitator (ESP)?

a) To reduce sulfur dioxide emissions from industrial plants
b) To collect and remove particulate matter from exhaust gases
c) To neutralize harmful gases using a scrubbing liquid
d) To convert unburnt hydrocarbons into carbon dioxide
Answer: B) To collect and remove particulate matter from exhaust gases
Explanation: ESPs are primarily used to remove over 99% of particulate matter from exhaust gases by
charging the particles and collecting them on oppositely charged plates.
• ESPs are designed to target particulate matter (PM), not gaseous pollutants like sulfur dioxide (SO₂).
• Sulfur dioxide removal requires devices such as scrubbers, which use a liquid medium to trap and
neutralize gases. ESPs cannot handle gaseous pollutants
• ESPs do not use any liquid medium or scrubbing mechanism.
• Converting unburnt hydrocarbons (HCs) into carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the job of a catalytic
converter, not an ESP.

24) What is India’s coal gasification target for 2030?

a) 50 MT
b) 75 MT
c) 100 MT
d) 150 MT
Answer: C) 100 MT
Explanation:
The Government of India has recognized the importance of coal gasification as a cleaner and more sustainable
alternative to traditional coal combustion. The target is part of India’s efforts to:
1. Promote cleaner energy technologies to reduce environmental pollution.
2. Diversify coal usage by producing syngas, which can be used to generate synthetic natural gas (SNG),
hydrogen, and liquid fuels like synthetic diesel.
3. Meet environmental commitments under global agreements to reduce emissions of carbon dioxide
(CO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂), and other pollutants.
The Ministry of Coal has explicitly set a goal of achieving 100 million tons (MT) of coal gasification by 2030.
This is a highly ambitious target, reflecting India’s push toward transitioning coal usage into cleaner
technologies while leveraging its abundant coal reserves.

25) The Polluter Pays Principle is a key part of which international declaration?
a) Stockholm Declaration, 1972
b) Rio Declaration, 1992
c) Kyoto Protocol, 1997
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d) Paris Agreement, 2015
Answer: B) Rio Declaration, 1992
Explanation:
The Polluter Pays Principle was formalized as part of the 1992 Rio Declaration on Environment and
Development, which laid out principles for sustainable development and environmental protection.

26) Consider the following statements about the Pollution Index Categories:
1. Industries in the Red category have a Pollution Index score of 60 and above and are considered critically
polluted.
2. The Green category includes industries with a Pollution Index score of 21 to 40 and requires mandatory
Environmental Clearance.
3. Industries in the White category are considered practically non-polluting and are exempt from
Environmental Clearance and Consent to Operate.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Answer: A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Red category includes industries with a Pollution Index score of 60 and above,
classified as critically polluted.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While the Green category includes industries with a Pollution Index score of 21 to 40,
Environmental Clearance may not be mandatory for all, depending on the specific industry and local
regulations.
Statement 3 is correct: The White category, with a Pollution Index score of up to 20, is considered practically
non-polluting and exempt from Environmental Clearance and Consent to Operate.

27) Consider the following statements regarding the implementation of BS VI emission norms in India:
1. BS VI norms were implemented nationwide for all vehicle categories starting from April 1, 2020.
2. The BS VI norms was uniform implemented across all regions of India at the same time.
3. BS VI norms mandate the use of On-Board Diagnostic (OBD) systems for all vehicles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct; BS VI norms were implemented nationwide for all vehicle categories
from April 1, 2020.
Statement 2 is incorrect; the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi adopted BS VI fuel standards earlier,
on April 1, 2018, ahead of the nationwide rollout.
Statement 3 is correct; BS VI norms mandate the implementation of On-Board Diagnostic (OBD) systems for
all vehicles to monitor real-time emissions and ensure compliance

28) Which statutory body has been designated as the Central Nodal Agency for implementing EV charging
guidelines?
a) Ministry of Heavy Industry
b) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
c) Ministry of Power
d) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
Answer: B) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)

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Explanation:
The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), under the Ministry of Power, has been designated as the Central
Nodal Agency for implementing EV charging guidelines and specifications.
• The Ministry of Power nominated BEE as the Central Nodal Agency to ensure technical standardization
and to coordinate the deployment of EV charging infrastructure.
Role of Other Bodies:
• Ministry of Heavy Industry (MHI): Focuses on EV production and incentives under the FAME-II
scheme.
• Ministry of Power: Issues high-level policy guidelines but delegates implementation to BEE.
• CPCB: Regulates pollution standards but does not handle EV infrastructure.

29) What is the target year for achieving a 40% reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 levels under National Clean Air
Program, based on the revised target?
a) 2024
b) 2025
c) 2026
d) 2030
Answer: C) 2026
Explanation:
Initial Target:
• When the National Clean Air Program (NCAP) was launched in 2019, it aimed for a 20-30%
reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 levels by 2024, with 2017 as the base year for comparison.
• Later, the target was revised to a 40% reduction by 2024, making it more ambitious.
• In 2022, the Government of India extended the deadline for achieving a 40% reduction to 2026.

30) Which organization is responsible for developing the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
in India?
a) Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC)
b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
c) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
d) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
Answer: B) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
Explanation:
The CPCB, under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, is the key authority responsible
for developing and notifying the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for the entire country.
• It monitors and regulates air quality by setting permissible limits for various pollutants in different
environments such as industrial, residential, and ecologically sensitive areas.
• NAAQS serves as a benchmark to assess and manage air pollution levels in India.

31) Which international agreement serves as the framework convention under which the Montreal Protocol was
established?
a) Kyoto Protocol
b) Vienna Convention
c) Paris Agreement
d) Basel Convention
Answer: B) Vienna Convention
Explanation:
The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer was adopted in 1985 and serves as a landmark
global environmental agreement. Its primary goal was to encourage international cooperation and provide a
legal framework to take action against ozone layer depletion. This convention laid the foundation for later
protocols and measures to protect the ozone layer.
The Vienna Convention is considered a framework agreement because:

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1. It does not impose legally binding reduction targets: Unlike later agreements like the Montreal
Protocol, the Vienna Convention focuses on international cooperation in scientific research, monitoring
of the ozone layer, and the sharing of information.
2. It sets the stage for future action: The convention emphasizes the need for precautionary measures to
protect the ozone layer, even without conclusive scientific evidence, which encouraged countries to act
in unison against ozone-depleting substances (ODS).
3. It enabled the development of the Montreal Protocol: As a framework convention, it allowed for the
creation of the Montreal Protocol in 1987, which introduced binding commitments to phase out ozone-
depleting substances
Kyoto Protocol (1997) – Deals with reducing greenhouse gas emissions to combat climate change, not ozone
depletion.
Paris Agreement (2015) – Focuses on global climate action and temperature control, not ozone protection.
Basel Convention (1989) – Regulates the transboundary movement of hazardous wastes, unrelated to ozone
depletion.

32) Which of the following substances are controlled under the Montreal Protocol?
1. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
2. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
3. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
4. Carbon tetrachloride
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1, 2, and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, adopted in 1987, is a global treaty
designed to phase out the production and consumption of substances that harm the ozone layer. Its primary
focus is on ozone-depleting substances (ODS). Over time, the protocol has been amended to address emerging
issues, such as the control of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), under the Kigali Amendment (2016).
• The Montreal Protocol controls the production and consumption of CFCs, HCFCs, HFCs (addressed
under the Kigali Amendment), and carbon tetrachloride, among other ozone-depleting substances
• The protocol has evolved through amendments, such as those made in London (1990), Copenhagen
(1992), Montreal (1997), Beijing (1999), and Kigali (2016).
• The inclusion of HFCs under the Kigali Amendment highlights the protocol’s shift from solely focusing
on ozone depletion to also addressing climate change.

33) The Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) Rules are framed under which Indian legislation?
a) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
b) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
d) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
Answer: C) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Explanation: The ODS Rules were framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate the
phase-out of ozone-depleting substances (ODS) in compliance with international commitments under the
Montreal Protocol.
International Compliance: The Montreal Protocol, adopted in 1987, is an international treaty to phase out
ozone-depleting substances (ODS). As a signatory, India had to implement measures to meet these
commitments, and the Environment (Protection) Act served as the legislative foundation for this.

34) What is the minimum Dissolved Oxygen (DO) content required in water to avoid being classified as
contaminated?
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a) 4.0 mg/L
b) 8.0 mg/L
c) 10.0 mg/L
d) 6.0 mg/L
Answer: B) 8.0 mg/L
Explanation:
Dissolved Oxygen (DO) refers to the concentration of free oxygen molecules (O₂) dissolved in water. It is an
essential parameter for assessing water quality because aquatic organisms like fish, amphibians, and
microorganisms rely on it for survival.
The DO content in water is influenced by various factors:
• Surface Turbulence: Increases DO by mixing oxygen from the air into the water.
• Photosynthetic Activity: Plants and algae release oxygen during photosynthesis, contributing to DO
levels.
• Decomposition of Organic Matter: Decomposition of organic and inorganic waste reduces DO because
the process consumes oxygen.
• Temperature: Colder water holds more oxygen, whereas warmer water has reduced DO levels.
Water is considered contaminated if its DO content falls below 8.0 mg/L, as this level is insufficient for most
aquatic organisms' survival. Water with DO content below 4.0 mg/L is considered highly polluted. At this level,
many aquatic organisms, particularly fish, cannot survive due to hypoxic (low oxygen) conditions.

35) Which method is most suitable for measuring the pollution caused by both biodegradable and non-
biodegradable substances in water?
a) Dissolved Oxygen (DO)
b) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
c) Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD)
d) Total Suspended Solids (TSS)
Answer: C) Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD)
Explanation: COD is a more comprehensive measure than BOD as it accounts for the oxygen required to
oxidize both biodegradable and non-biodegradable organic and inorganic compounds in water.
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is a measure of the amount of oxygen (in parts per million, ppm or mg/L)
required to chemically oxidize both:
• Biodegradable substances (organic matter broken down by microorganisms).
• Non-biodegradable substances (chemicals that cannot be broken down biologically, such as certain
industrial pollutants and synthetic compounds).
Dissolved Oxygen measures the oxygen available in water for aquatic life. It reflects the current oxygen
concentration but does not directly measure pollution.
Biological Oxygen Demand measures the amount of oxygen required by bacteria to decompose biodegradable
organic matter in water. It is expressed in mg/L
Total Suspended Solids measures the concentration of solid particles (such as silt, plankton, and organic debris)
suspended in water.

36) Which of the following metals is the most common contaminant in surface water in India, according to the
Central Water Commission report?
a) Lead
b) Chromium
c) Iron
d) Cadmium
Answer: C) Iron
Explanation: Iron is reported as the most common contaminant in surface water, as noted by the Central Water
Commission. Other contaminants include lead, nickel, chromium, cadmium, and copper.
• Iron is naturally abundant in India’s geology, especially in laterite and sedimentary rock regions, making
it more likely to leach into surface water through weathering and runoff.
• The monsoon period intensifies this leaching process.

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o Industrial Discharges: Industries like iron and steel manufacturing, mining, and metal
extraction release iron-rich waste into nearby water bodies.
o Agricultural Runoff: Fertilizers and pesticides sometimes contain iron compounds, which
contribute to surface water contamination.
o Erosion: Land disturbance due to mining or construction increases sediment with high iron
content entering water bodies.

37) Acid Mine Drainage (AMD) is an human intensified pollution, is related to

a) Natural Gas
b) Sulphur
c) Carbon
d) Nitrogen
Answer: B) Sulphur
Explanation:
Acid Rock Drainage (ARD) is a natural geochemical process where sulphide minerals (like pyrite, FeS₂) in
rocks react with water and oxygen, producing sulphuric acid. This reaction also mobilizes metals from the
rocks, leading to the leaching of potentially toxic heavy metals into water systems.
Natural Process: ARD occurs over long geological timescales in regions where sulphide-rich rocks are naturally
exposed to the environment.
Acid Mine Drainage (AMD) is a human-accelerated and intensified version of ARD that occurs when large
amounts of sulphide-rich rocks are excavated during mining operations (both open-pit and underground).

38) Consider the following statements about water pollution:

1. Heavy metal contamination in surface water is higher during the monsoon season due to erosion.
2. Thermal pollution is caused by hot water discharge from power plants and industries.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is Correct: During monsoons, heavy metal contamination increases due to erosion of
exposed soil and rock, which carry metals like iron, lead, chromium, and copper. In regions with active
mining or industrial activity, monsoons exacerbate the release of metals from disturbed soils and rocks,
making water bodies significantly more contaminated.
• Statement 2 is Correct: Industries and power plants discharge hot water into natural water bodies,
leading to thermal pollution. The used water, which is much hotter than ambient water, is discharged
into rivers, streams, or oceans. This increases the water temperature by 5–15°C.

39) What is the medical condition caused by excess nitrates in drinking water, impairing oxygen transport in
infants?
a) Fluorosis
b) Methemoglobinemia
c) Arsenicosis
d) Black Foot Disease
Answer: B) Methemoglobinemia
Explanation:
Methemoglobinemia, also known as blue baby syndrome, is a condition caused by the presence of excessive
methemoglobin in the blood.
Excess nitrates (NO₃⁻) in drinking water enter the digestive system and are reduced to nitrites (NO₂⁻)
by gut bacteria. Nitrites bind with hemoglobin (Hb) to form methemoglobin (MetHb). Unlike

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hemoglobin, methemoglobin cannot bind or transport oxygen [Link] results in a significant
reduction in oxygen transport throughout the body, leading to hypoxia (oxygen deficiency).
This condition primarily affects infants, as their digestive systems are more vulnerable to high nitrate
levels. Symptoms include bluish discoloration of the skin (cyanosis) due to lack of oxygen in the
bloodstream.

40) Arsenic contamination in groundwater is highest in which geographic region of India?

a) Thar Desert
b) Ganga Delta
c) Deccan Plateau
d) Himalayan Foothills
Answer: B) Ganga Delta
Explanation:
Arsenic contamination is one of the most significant water quality issues in India and neighboring countries,
particularly affecting the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta region. Arsenic (As) is a naturally occurring metalloid
found in soil and rocks, which can leach into groundwater through natural and anthropogenic activities.
1. Organic arsenic: Generally less toxic.
2. Inorganic arsenic: Highly toxic and linked to serious health issues.
In the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna (GBM) delta, arsenic is naturally mobilized under reducing (low-oxygen)
conditions. The World Health Organization (WHO) reports that over 60 million people in India and Bangladesh
are at risk of arsenic exposure, particularly in the Ganga Delta.

41) Which contaminant in groundwater is associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD) in the Srikakulam
district of Andhra Pradesh?
a) Lead
b) Uranium
c) Fluoride
d) Nitrates
Answer: B) Uranium
Explanation: Elevated uranium levels in groundwater, often released from granitic rocks due to over-
extraction, are associated with kidney toxicity and high rates of CKD in Andhra Pradesh.
What is Uranium?
• Uranium is a naturally occurring radioactive heavy metal found in rocks, soil, and groundwater.
• It primarily exists as uranium-238, which has a physical half-life of ~4.5 billion years, making it weakly
radioactive but chemically toxic.
Occurrence in India:
• Uranium contamination in groundwater is prevalent in areas with granitic terrain and alluvial
aquifers, particularly in Rajasthan, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
• Over-extraction of groundwater leads to uranium leaching from rocks into aquifers.
Kidney Toxicity:
• Uranium is chemically toxic, not primarily due to its radioactivity, but because it affects kidney
function.
• Long-term exposure to uranium-contaminated water can cause tubular damage in the kidneys,
impairing their ability to filter blood.

42) What is the primary health effect of radon exposure through air and water?
a) Liver cancer
b) Skin cancer
c) Lung cancer
d) Kidney cancer
Answer: C) Lung cancer
Explanation: Radon exposure damages lung tissues, significantly increasing the risk of lung cancer, especially
when inhaled.

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• Radon is a naturally occurring radioactive gas formed during the decay of uranium and radium, which
are found in rocks, soil, and water.
• It is colorless, odorless, and tasteless, making it hard to detect without specialized equipment.
• Radon can enter homes and buildings through cracks in floors and walls or dissolve in groundwater
used for drinking.
• The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classifies radon as a Group 1 carcinogen
(proven to cause cancer in humans)

43) Which of the following factors contribute to freshwater salinization syndrome (FSS)?
1. Use of road salts for de-icing
2. Oil and gas extraction
3. Saltwater intrusion due to sea-level rise
4. Anthropogenic weathering of rocks
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation:
FSS refers to the contamination of freshwater ecosystems with increasing concentrations of salts. These salts
include sodium chloride, calcium, magnesium, and bicarbonates, which naturally occur in small quantities
in freshwater but are drastically increased due to human activities.
All listed factors contribute to FSS:
• Road salts increase salt concentration in freshwater systems.
• Oil and gas extraction releases salts into water bodies.
• Sea-level rise leads to saltwater intrusion into freshwater aquifers.
• Anthropogenic weathering accelerates salt runoff into freshwater ecosystems.

44) Identify the native region of water hyacinth, also known as the 'Terror of Bengal'.
a) Central Africa
b) South Asia
c) Amazon Basin
d) South-East Asia
Answer: C) Amazon Basin
Explanation: Water hyacinth originates from the Amazon basin and has spread worldwide, becoming one of
the most invasive aquatic weeds.
What is Water Hyacinth?
• Scientific Name: Eichhornia crassipes
• Description: Water hyacinth is a free-floating aquatic plant with rounded, waxy leaves and striking
lavender flowers. While visually appealing, it is one of the most invasive aquatic plants in the world.
• Native Region: The plant is native to the Amazon Basin in South America, where it thrives naturally
in tropical climates.
• The plant was introduced to India in the late 19th century for its ornamental value, but it quickly
proliferated due to India's tropical climate and nutrient-rich water bodies.
• It earned the name 'Terror of Bengal' because of its rapid spread across Bengal's water systems, where
it caused severe ecological and economic damage
Names in Different Regions:
• 'German Weed' in Bangladesh.
• 'Florida Devil' in South Africa.
• 'Japanese Trouble' in Sri Lanka.

45) Which invasive aquatic plant is responsible for painting water bodies pink in Kerala?

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a) Water hyacinth
b) Forked fanwort
c) Red algae
d) Salvinia molesta
Answer: B) Forked fanwort
Explanation: Forked fanwort, a submerged aquatic plant native to Central and South America, has caused
water bodies in Kerala to turn pink due to its excessive growth.
What is Forked Fanwort?
• Scientific Name: Cabomba furcata
• Description: Forked fanwort is a submerged perennial aquatic plant that grows in slow-moving or
stagnant freshwater bodies. Its fan-shaped leaves and striking pink or purple hues make it visually
distinctive.
• Native Region: It is native to Central and South America.
• Forked fanwort was introduced to India as an ornamental plant for aquariums and decorative ponds.
• Without natural predators, it spread uncontrollably into natural water bodies.
• In some parts of Kerala, the excessive growth of forked fanwort has painted water bodies pink due to
its vibrant coloration.

46) What substance is used to clean up oil spills and resembles sawdust?
a) Bregoli
b) Oil zapper
c) Activated charcoal
d) Microorganisms
Answer: A) Bregoli
Explanation:
• Bregoli is a by-product of the paper industry, resembling sawdust in appearance.
• It is specifically used to clean up oil spills by absorbing the oil floating on the water surface.
• Once applied, it helps in collecting the oil for removal, making it a cost-effective and eco-friendly
method for managing oil spills.
o Although oil zapper can be used in some oil spill scenarios, it is not a sawdust-like substance
and does not physically absorb oil like bregoli.
o Its role is more suited to degrading hydrocarbons over time rather than immediate cleanup.
o Activated charcoal is not specifically used for oil spills. While it can adsorb hydrocarbons, it
is expensive, not practical for large-scale marine oil spills, and doesn't resemble sawdust in
appearance or function.

47) Consider the following statements about oil spills:

1. Oil spills form a thin film on the water surface, cutting off oxygen to aquatic organisms.
2. Birds and marine mammals die due to starvation caused by oil ingestion.
3. Oil spills can be cleaned using microorganisms.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct. Oil spills cover the water surface, cutting off oxygen and suffocating marine life.
Statement 2 is Correct. Birds and mammals ingest oil-coated prey, causing metabolic disorders and poisoning.
Statement 3 is Correct. Microorganisms, bregoli, and oil zappers are effective tools for cleaning oil spills.

48) Consider the following statements about methylmercury concentration in fish:

1. Methylmercury levels in seawater have decreased since the 1990s.

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2. Ocean warming increases fish metabolism, leading to higher methylmercury concentration in predatory
fish.
3. Dietary shifts caused by overfishing contribute to higher methylmercury levels in predatory fish.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. Methylmercury, a toxic organic form of mercury, originates from natural sources
(volcanoes, erosion) and human activities (coal combustion, industrial discharge).
o Since the 1990s, stricter environmental regulations and a global reduction in mercury emissions
have led to a decline in methylmercury levels in seawater.
• Statement 2: Correct. Ocean warming increases the metabolic rate of fish because fish are ectothermic
(cold-blooded). Higher temperatures speed up biochemical processes, requiring fish to consume more
food to meet their energy needs. Predatory fish higher in the food chain consume larger quantities of
smaller, methylmercury-laden prey, amplifying bioaccumulation and biomagnification.
• Statement 3: Correct. Overfishing has depleted populations of smaller fish, which are typically lower in
methylmercury concentration. Predatory fish are now forced to feed on larger prey higher up the food
chain, which tend to have higher concentrations of methylmercury due to biomagnification.

49) What is the term for nutrient enrichment of lakes caused by human activities at an accelerated rate?
a) Natural eutrophication
b) Cultural eutrophication
c) Oligotrophic ageing
d) Mesotrophic enrichment
Answer: B) Cultural eutrophication
Explanation:
• Cultural eutrophication specifically describes human-induced nutrient enrichment that accelerates
the natural ageing process of lakes.
• Human activities like agricultural runoff (fertilizers), industrial discharges, and untreated sewage
add excessive amounts of nutrients (e.g., nitrogen and phosphorus) to water bodies, causing rapid algae
and plant growth.
• This accelerated process:
o Depletes oxygen levels (due to algae decomposition).
o Alters ecosystems.
o Causes the lake to fill with organic matter and detritus much faster than it would under natural
conditions.
Option Definition Why Incorrect?
A) Natural Slow, natural nutrient enrichment Does not involve human activities or rapid
Eutrophication over millennia nutrient input.
C) Oligotrophic Gradual transformation of a nutrient- Refers to a natural process, not the rapid
Ageing poor lake enrichment caused by humans.
D) Mesotrophic Increase in nutrient content of a Not a widely recognized term; the question
Enrichment moderately nutrient lake refers to human-induced rapid enrichment.

50) Which of the following is a visible effect of eutrophication in water bodies?

a) Increased transparency
b) Loss of turbidity
c) Formation of algae blooms
d) Reduced detritus accumulation
Answer: C) Formation of algae blooms
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Explanation:
• Eutrophication leads to an excessive nutrient supply (especially nitrogen and phosphorus) in water
bodies.
• These nutrients promote rapid growth of algae and cyanobacteria on the surface of water bodies,
resulting in visible algae blooms.
• Algae blooms are a hallmark of eutrophication and are easy to spot as discolored patches of green, red,
or yellow on the water surface.
• Algae blooms are the most visible effect of eutrophication.
• They directly reduce sunlight penetration, oxygen levels, and overall water quality, impacting aquatic
ecosystems.
• This visible indicator is often used to measure the severity of eutrophication in lakes and rivers.
Option Effect of Eutrophication Why Incorrect?
A) Increased Transparency decreases due to algae Eutrophication reduces transparency,
Transparency blooms and turbidity. making this option incorrect.
B) Loss of Turbidity Turbidity increases due to algae Eutrophication causes more turbidity,
blooms and organic matter. not less, so this option is wrong.
C) Formation of Algae Algae blooms are the most visible Correct answer—this is a direct and
Blooms indicator of eutrophication. visible effect of nutrient enrichment.
D) Reduced Detritus Detritus accumulation increases due Eutrophication leads to more detritus,
Accumulation to organic matter deposition. not less, so this is incorrect.

51) Which environmental factor contributes to the appearance of bioluminescent tides?

a) High dissolved oxygen levels
b) Low dissolved oxygen levels and eutrophication
c) Increased pH levels
d) Reduced nitrogen in seawater
Answer: B) Low dissolved oxygen levels and eutrophication
Explanation: Blue tides occur in areas with low dissolved oxygen (due to climate change) and high nitrogen
content, often resulting from eutrophication caused by human activities.
• Blue tides occur when bioluminescent organisms, such as dinoflagellates, emit light through chemical
reactions in their proteins.
• These tides are often observed in areas where environmental conditions are significantly altered,
particularly along polluted coastlines.
Low Dissolved Oxygen Levels:
o Cause: Climate change and pollution reduce dissolved oxygen in seawater.
o Effect: Low oxygen levels create stress in marine ecosystems, which favors the growth of
certain organisms like bioluminescent dinoflagellates.
o Relation to Blue Tides: Low oxygen conditions create a suitable environment for the
proliferation of dinoflagellates, leading to bioluminescent blue tides.
Eutrophication:
o Cause: Eutrophication occurs due to excessive nutrients (primarily nitrogen and phosphorus)
entering water bodies from sources like agricultural runoff, sewage, and industrial discharge.
o Effect: Nutrient enrichment promotes the growth of dinoflagellates and other microorganisms
that contribute to the blue tide phenomenon.
o Relation to Blue Tides: The high nutrient content supports the dense growth of bioluminescent
organisms, making the phenomenon more pronounced.

52) What is the role of Bacillus flexus in bioremediation?

a) Degrades oil spills
b) Detoxifies arsenate in contaminated soil
c) Enhances nitrogen fixation in soil
d) Cleans up heavy metal spills
Answer: B) Detoxifies arsenate in contaminated soil
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Explanation:
Bacillus flexus is a bacterium used in bioremediation of arsenic-contaminated soil.
• Bacillus flexus contains a special gene that helps it detoxify arsenate, a highly toxic form of arsenic
commonly found in contaminated environments.
• It exhibits arsenate resistance, meaning it can survive and thrive in environments with high levels of
arsenic, breaking it down into less harmful forms.

53) Which technique involves the injection of air under pressure to enhance the degradation of contaminants in
groundwater?
a) Bioventing
b) Biosparging
c) Bioaugmentation
d) Composting
Answer: B) Biosparging
Explanation: Biosparging involves injecting air below the water table to increase oxygen levels, promoting
microbial degradation of contaminants.
Key Differences Between the Options
Option Process Involved Why Incorrect?
A) Bioventing Injects oxygen into the Targets soil, not groundwater. Does not inject air
unsaturated soil zone below the water table.
B) Biosparging Injects oxygen below the Correct Answer—Targets groundwater
water table contaminants by increasing oxygen levels.
C) Bioaugmentation Introduces microorganisms to Does not involve air injection; focuses on
the contaminated site microbial introduction.
D) Composting Aerobic degradation in ex-situ Ex-situ process; unrelated to groundwater or in-
compost piles situ air injection.

54) What is the main advantage of using ozone over chlorine for water disinfection?
a) It is less expensive than chlorine.
b) It does not cause taste or odour problems.
c) It leaves a residue in disinfected water.
d) It combines with organic compounds to produce chloroform.
Answer: B) It does not cause taste or odour problems.
Explanation:
Ozone as a Disinfectant:
• Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent used for disinfecting water by killing bacteria, viruses, and other
pathogens.
• Unlike chlorine, ozone does not combine with organic compounds in water to form by-products that
alter taste or odour.
Key Advantage:
• The use of ozone ensures that treated water remains free of the unpleasant taste or odour often associated
with chlorination, making it more suitable for human consumption.
• Ozone treatment is significantly more expensive than chlorination due to:
o The need for on-site ozone generation (ozone is unstable and cannot be stored).
o Higher energy consumption during production.
o Chlorine is much more economical and widely used for large-scale water treatment.
o Ozone does not leave any residual disinfectant in the water after treatment.
o Chlorine, not ozone, reacts with organic compounds in water to form chloroform and other
trihalomethanes (THMs), which are potentially harmful by-products.

55) Which of the following statements about coagulation in water treatment is correct?
a) Coagulation is a biological process used to remove organic contaminants.
b) Coagulation involves the addition of coagulants like alum to cause particles to clump together.
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c) Coagulation is only effective in removing dissolved salts from water.
d) Coagulation does not require any chemical additives.
Answer: B) Coagulation involves the addition of coagulants like alum to cause particles to clump together.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect: Coagulation is a chemical process related to the treatment of water and wastewater,
primarily aimed at removing suspended particles
Option B is correct During coagulation, chemicals called coagulants, such as alum (aluminum sulfate), ferric
chloride, or polymeric substances, are added to untreated water. These chemicals cause small, charged
particles in the water to aggregate into larger particles called flocs, making it easier to remove them by
sedimentation or filtration
Option C is incorrect: Coagulation is not used to remove dissolved salts, but rather suspended solids.
Option Dis incorrect: Coagulation involves the use of chemical additives such as alum or ferric chloride.
Additional Information:
Coagulation is used to remove fine particles, colloids, and impurities in water. It destabilizes suspended
particles, allowing them to clump together (flocculation). Often followed by flocculation, where these larger
particles (flocs) are allowed to further aggregate before being removed by sedimentation or filtration.

56) What is the primary purpose of a bio-digester in a bio-toilet?

a) To store wastewater
b) To facilitate anaerobic digestion of human waste
c) To oxidize organic matter using aerobic bacteria
d) To filter solid waste
Answer: B) To facilitate anaerobic digestion of human waste
Explanation:
• A bio-digester is a specially designed steel or concrete shell used in bio-toilets for the anaerobic
digestion of human waste.
• Anaerobic Digestion:
o This process occurs in the absence of oxygen.
o Microorganisms (anaerobic bacteria and inoculums) break down biodegradable waste into
simpler forms, producing methane (biogas), carbon dioxide, and biofertilizer as by-products.
o It helps in degrading human waste efficiently while minimizing foul odours.
• Primary Function: It facilitates the breakdown of human waste into environmentally safe by-products.
• It eliminates the need for manual handling of waste and prevents contamination of soil and water.

57) What type of bacteria can survive both in the presence and absence of oxygen?
a) Aerobic bacteria
b) Anaerobic bacteria
c) Facultative bacteria
d) Methanogenic bacteria
Answer: C) Facultative bacteria
Explanation:
Facultative bacteria are microorganisms that can adapt their metabolism to survive and grow in both aerobic
(oxygen-present) and anaerobic (oxygen-absent) environments.
• In aerobic conditions, facultative bacteria use oxygen for respiration to break down organic matter.
• In anaerobic conditions, they switch to alternative metabolic pathways, such as fermentation or
anaerobic respiration, using compounds like nitrates (NO₃) or sulfates (SO₄) instead of oxygen.
• Their versatility allows them to function in environments where oxygen levels fluctuate, making them
critical in bio-digester systems, sewage treatment plants, and bioremediation processes.

58) When was the Ganga Action Plan (GAP) launched?

a) 1980
b) 1985
c) 1990

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d) 2000
Answer: B) 1985
Explanation: The Ganga Action Plan was launched in 1985 by the Ministry of Environment and Forests
(MoEF) as a centrally sponsored scheme aimed at reducing pollution in the Ganga River. The initial objective
of GAP was to improve water quality to acceptable standards. Later, this goal was recast to meet the Bathing
Class standard. GAP Phase-II extended the programme to the major tributaries of the Ganga, namely
Yamuna, Gomti, and Damodar. Under GAP’s Bathing Class standard, the maximum permissible BOD level
is 3 mg/l.

59) Who is the Chairperson of the National Ganga Council (NGC)?

a) Union Minister for Jal Shakti
b) Union Minister for Environment
c) Prime Minister
d) Vice-Chairperson of NITI Aayog
Answer: c) Prime Minister
Explanation: As per the River Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management) Authorities Order, 2016,
the Prime Minister serves as the Chairperson of the National Ganga Council. National Ganga Council replaced
the NGRBA in 2016. NGC oversees the rejuvenation and management of the Ganga River Basin.
The council is a high-level authority, and the Prime Minister of India is designated as its Chairperson. This
reflects the importance and priority given to the mission of cleaning and rejuvenating the Ganga, a river of
immense ecological, cultural, and spiritual significance.
This authority is empowered to coordinate between the central government, state governments (especially those
through which the Ganga and its tributaries flow), and other stakeholders.
The high-level involvement of the Prime Minister ensures leadership and accountability for the success of
initiatives like the Namami Gange Programme, implemented through its operational arm, the National
Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG).
The NMCG, being the implementation wing of the National Ganga Council, is registered as a society under the
Societies Registration Act, 1860.

60) Which of the following facilities are improved under the SIP initiative of Swachh Bharat Mission?
a) Water vending machines
b) Solid and liquid waste management
c) Beautification of parks and road maintenance
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Initiatives under SIP(Swachh Iconic Places) include improved sewage infrastructure,
sanitation facilities, water vending machines, solid and liquid waste management, lighting arrangements,
beautification of parks, road maintenance, and better transport facilities.
The Swachh Iconic Places initiative was launched under the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation, which
has been part of the Ministry of Jal Shakti since 2019, as part of the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM).
SIP aims to raise Swachhata (cleanliness) and sanitation standards at iconic places and their surroundings,
focusing on comprehensive improvements like sewage infrastructure, waste management, and beautification.

61) Which of the following is a common source of microbeads?

a) Industrial wastewater
b) Health and beauty products
c) Agricultural runoff
d) Oceanic oil spills
Answer: b) Health and beauty products
Explanation: Microbeads are tiny plastic particles used in products like cleansers and toothpaste for
exfoliation or as "cooling crystals."
While industrial wastewater may contain microplastics or secondary fragments from larger plastic breakdowns,
microbeads are not directly released from industrial processes.

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Agricultural runoff typically carries fertilizers, pesticides, and organic waste, not microbeads.
Oil spills introduce hydrocarbons into the environment, causing pollution, but they are unrelated to microbeads,
which are manufactured solid plastic particles.

62) Consider the following statements regarding microplastics:

1. Microplastics are intentionally produced and used in industrial scrubbers and cosmetics.
2. They are found in the food chain and can cause starvation in marine organisms.
3. The World Health Organization (WHO) considers microplastics in drinking water a severe health risk
with extreme toxicity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. Microplastics are used in cosmetics, personal care products, and industrial
scrubbers.
• Statement 2: Correct. Microplastics in the marine environment disrupt the food chain and can starve
tiny marine organisms.
• Statement 3: Incorrect. WHO reported that microplastics in drinking water are not yet considered a
severe health risk but mentioned the potential for nano-sized particles to be absorbed by the body.

63) Which toxic is released during the burning of PVC?

a) Methanol
b) Dioxin
c) Benzene
d) Styrene
Answer: b) Dioxin
Explanation:
The burning of PVC (Polyvinyl Chloride) releases dioxin, a highly toxic by-product. Dioxins are persistent
organic pollutants (POPs) that are extremely harmful to humans and the environment. They are classified as
carcinogenic and can bioaccumulate in the food chain.
Methanol is not a by-product of PVC burning. Methanol is a simple alcohol commonly associated with
industrial production, solvents, and fuels, but it does not result from PVC combustion
Benzene is a volatile organic compound (VOC) and a known carcinogen. While it is a by-product of certain
combustion processes, it is not specific to PVC burning.

64) Consider the following statements about Polyethylene (PE):

1. Polyethylene is biodegradable and decomposes easily in the environment.
2. It is primarily used for packaging materials like plastic bags and bottles.
3. Certain bacteria species are capable of degrading polyethylene.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Incorrect. Polyethylene is not readily biodegradable and accumulates in soil.
Polyethylene is a highly durable polymer, making it resistant to natural degradation processes.
o It takes several decades or even centuries to decompose in the environment, leading to its
accumulation in soil and causing environmental issues.

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• Statement 2: Correct. Polyethylene is one of the most commonly used plastics globally, accounting
for a significant portion of plastic production.
o Its low cost, lightweight properties, and versatility make it ideal for packaging materials,
including:
o Plastic bags
o Films
o Containers
o Bottles
• Statement 3: Correct. Some bacteria species can degrade polyethylene over time, though this process
is slow. Research has shown that certain bacteria and fungi, such as Ideonella sakaiensis and species
of Pseudomonas, have the ability to degrade polyethylene under specific conditions.

65) What was the minimum thickness for plastic carry bags mandated by the 2021 amendment for the end of
December 2022?
a) 75 microns
b) 120 microns
c) 50 microns
d) 100 microns
Answer: b) 120 microns
Explanation:
The Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021, notified by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and
Climate Change (MoEFCC), introduced significant changes to regulate plastic pollution in India. One of the
key provisions was the incremental increase in the minimum thickness of plastic carry bags.
• 2016 Rules: The minimum thickness for plastic carry bags was 50 microns.
• 2021 Amendment: The rules mandated the following timeline for thickness increases:
• From 50 microns to 75 microns by 30th September 2021.
• Further increase to 120 microns by 31st December 2022.
• This phased increase was designed to discourage the use of thinner, low-cost plastic bags that are more
prone to littering and are harder to recycle

66) What is the primary goal of sanitary landfills?

a) Dump sanitary waste
b) Hygienic disposal of waste with leaching prevention
c) Burning of garbage to reduce waste volume
d) Extraction of metals from solid waste
Answer: b) Hygienic disposal of waste with leaching prevention
Explanation: Sanitary landfills are designed to dispose of waste hygienically by lining them with
impermeable materials to prevent leaching of pollutants into the soil and water.
Key Features of Sanitary Landfills
1. Hygienic Disposal of Waste:
o Sanitary landfills are engineered to hygienically dispose of waste, ensuring minimal impact on
public health and the environment.
o Unlike open dumping, sanitary landfills involve the daily covering of waste with soil or other
inert materials, which prevents exposure of waste to the environment.
2. Prevention of Leaching:
o A key feature of sanitary landfills is the use of impermeable liners made of clay or plastic to
prevent leachate (polluted liquid formed when waste decomposes) from seeping into the
surrounding soil and groundwater.
o Leachate management systems collect and treat this liquid to reduce environmental
contamination.
3. Reduction of Disease Risk:
o Covering waste daily prevents the breeding of flies, rodents, and other disease vectors
commonly associated with open dumps.
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o This significantly reduces health risks for nearby populations.
4. Controlled Gas Management:
o Landfills are equipped with systems to capture methane gas generated by decomposing organic
waste. This gas can be flared or used as an energy source.

67) Consider the following statements regarding solid waste treatment methods:
1. Composting involves decomposing organic waste using microorganisms in the presence of oxygen.
2. Pyrolysis involves decomposition of organic materials in a controlled low-oxygen environment
3. Plasma gasification produces syngas and slag as by-products.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: b) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. Composting is an aerobic (oxygen-requiring) process where microorganisms
such as bacteria and fungi break down organic materials (like food waste, leaves, and manure) into
humus-like material.
o This method is eco-friendly and produces nutrient-rich compost that improves soil fertility,
water retention, and plant growth.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. Pyrolysis is the process of thermal decomposition of organic materials in the
absence of oxygen or in a controlled low-oxygen environment.
o It does not involve burning (which requires oxygen); instead, it breaks down carbon-based
materials like wood, plastic, or agricultural waste into:
o Charcoal
o Liquid products (tar, methanol, and oils)
o Gases (e.g., methane and carbon monoxide).
• Statement 3: Correct. Plasma gasification is a high-temperature waste treatment technology that uses
plasma arcs (a combination of electricity and high temperatures) to break down organic and inorganic
waste without combustion.
o Organic materials are converted into syngas (a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide),
which can be used as a fuel for generating electricity or other energy applications.

68) What are the three streams of waste segregation mandated under the 2016 Rules?
a) Organic, Inorganic, and Hazardous
b) Wet, Dry, and Domestic Hazardous
c) Wet, Dry and Plastic
d) Residential, Industrial, and Agricultural
Answer: b) Wet, Dry, and Domestic Hazardous
Explanation: The 2016 Rules mandate the segregation of waste into Wet (Biodegradable), Dry (Plastic, Paper,
Metal, etc.), and Domestic Hazardous Waste (Diapers, napkins, cleaning agent containers, etc.).

69) What must be phased out within two years under the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, 2016?
a) Single-use syringes
b) Chlorinated plastic bags, gloves, and blood bags
c) Non-biodegradable waste containers
d) Sharp objects like needles
Answer: b) Chlorinated plastic bags, gloves, and blood bags
Explanation:
• Chlorinated plastic products like bags and gloves release harmful dioxins and furans during
incineration, which are persistent organic pollutants (POPs).

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• The rules mandate their phasing out within two years from 2016 to ensure eco-friendliness in waste
disposal practices.

70) Which system is required for bags or containers containing bio-medical waste to track waste disposal?
a) GPS tracking
b) Bar-code system
c) RFID chips
d) Manual logging
Answer: b) Bar-code system
Explanation: A bar-code system is mandatory under the 2016 rules to ensure traceability of bio-medical waste
from the point of generation to its treatment and disposal. This system minimizes chances of illegal recycling
or improper disposal.

71) Under which scheme was the Lakshya Zero Dumpsite Project launched?
a) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
b) Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 (SBM-U 2.0)
c) Smart Cities Mission
d) AMRUT 2.0
Answer: b) Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 (SBM-U 2.0)
Explanation:
The Lakshya Zero Dumpsite Project is a key initiative under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0 (SBM-
U 2.0), launched in 2021. It aims to address the issue of legacy waste—solid waste accumulated over decades
in dumpsites—and ensure their scientific remediation.
Key Objectives:
1. Remediation of Legacy Waste:
o The project targets the remediation of 16 crore metric tons of legacy waste that have
accumulated across urban areas in India.
o Legacy dumpsites occupy nearly 15,000 acres of city land.
2. Creation of Garbage-Free Cities:
o SBM-U 2.0 envisions Garbage-Free Cities by 2026 by remediating old waste, improving waste
management systems, and ensuring proper disposal of municipal waste.
3. Land Reclamation:
o The project seeks to reclaim urban land currently occupied by waste dumps, enabling its reuse
for productive purposes such as parks, urban development, or infrastructure.

72) Which of the following statements about Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) under the Stockholm
Convention is/are correct?
1. POPs are chemical substances that persist in the environment for an extended period, bioaccumulate
through the food web, and pose a risk to human health and the environment.
2. The Stockholm Convention mandates all signatory countries to ban the use of DDT under any
circumstances.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct. POPs are highly toxic and persist in the environment, bioaccumulating in
organisms and moving through the food [Link], Heptachlor, and Hexachlorobenzene are examples
of POPs primarily used as pesticides.
• Statement 3 is incorrect. The Stockholm Convention allows the restricted use of DDT in specific cases,
such as controlling malaria, under strict WHO guidelines.

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73) Consider the following substances listed under the Stockholm Convention on POPs:
1. Hexachlorobenzene
2. Aldrin
3. Endrin
4. Polychlorinated Biphenyls
Which of the above were primarily used in agriculture or pest control?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation: Hexachlorobenzene, Aldrin, and Endrin were all primarily used in agriculture and pest control.
Polychlorinated Biphenyls (PCBs), on the other hand, were used in industrial applications for their insulating
and stable properties.

74) Which of the following statements about the Basel Convention is/are correct?
1. The United States has signed but not ratified the Basel Convention.
2. The Basel Convention bans the movement of radioactive waste between nations.
3. Alang Ship Breaking Yard in Gujarat is one of the largest ship-breaking yards globally, dealing with
hazardous waste.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct. The United States has signed but not ratified the Basel Convention.
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The Basel Convention does not address radioactive waste.
• Statement 3 is correct. Alang Ship Breaking Yard is one of the largest ship-breaking yards in the world,
creating hazardous waste challenges

75) The Rotterdam Convention promotes the prior informed consent (PIC) procedure for:
a) Export of hazardous chemicals and pesticides
b) Recycling of ships
c) Plastic waste trade
d) Hazardous radioactive waste
Answer: A) Export of hazardous chemicals and pesticides
Explanation: The Rotterdam Convention, officially known as the Rotterdam Convention on the Prior
Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade,
is a multilateral treaty that was adopted on September 10, 1998, and entered into force on February 24, 2004.
Its main objective is to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among parties in the international
trade of certain hazardous chemicals. It achieves this through a mechanism known as the Prior Informed
Consent (PIC) procedure. The Rotterdam Convention promotes shared responsibilities in the international trade
of hazardous chemicals and pesticides through the prior informed consent (PIC) procedure.

76) Which of the following chemicals was listed in Annex A without exemptions under COP9 of the Stockholm
Convention?
a) Dicofol
b) PFOA
c) Acetochlor
d) Hexabromocyclododecane
Answer: A) Dicofol

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Explanation:
• Dicofol is an organochlorine pesticide chemically related to Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
(DDT), a well-known banned pesticide. It has been used extensively in agriculture, particularly on crops
like cotton and citrus.
• Under COP9, Dicofol was listed in Annex A without any exemptions. This means its production and
use are completely prohibited globally under the Stockholm Convention. No exceptions or special
permissions are allowed

77) Assertion (A): Burning plastics found in e-waste releases dioxins and furans, which are carcinogenic.
Reason (R): Brominated Flame Retardants (BFR) used in circuit boards, cables, and PVC components release
hazardous compounds upon burning.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, and R is true.
Answer: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Burning plastics containing Brominated Flame Retardants (BFRs) found in e-waste releases
carcinogenic dioxins and furans into the environment, causing severe health hazards.
E-waste contains plastics, which are used in circuit boards, PVC cables, and components like enclosures
and connectors. When burned (especially in informal recycling), they release toxic compounds.
Two of the most harmful compounds released are dioxins and furans, which are highly carcinogenic and can
cause severe damage to human health.

78) Which metal found in e-waste, commonly found in devices like laptops, smartphones and is toxic to
humans?
a) Tungsten
b) Sodium
c) Lithium
d) Carbon
Answer: C) Lithium
Explanation: Lithium-ion batteries are a common component of e-waste. They are found in devices like
laptops, smartphones, electric vehicles, and other electronics.
These batteries contain lithium, along with other metals like cobalt, nickel, and manganese, which are toxic.
Lithium compounds can cause skin and eye irritation and pose risks to human health if not disposed of
scientifically. Improper disposal of lithium-ion batteries can also lead to environmental contamination, as
lithium reacts with water and air to produce corrosive by-products.

79) Which of the following are correct regarding the health hazards of materials found in e-waste?
1. Phthalates are toxic to the reproductive system.
2. Sulphuric and hydrochloric acids used in separating metals from circuit boards cause respiratory
problems.
3. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) used in transformers and plastics are carcinogenic.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Phthalates are chemicals added to plastics (especially PVC plastics) to make them flexible. Exposure to
phthalates is linked to reproductive toxicity, including hormone disruption and decreased fertility

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• In informal e-waste recycling, sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid are used to extract valuable metals
(e.g., gold, silver, and copper) from circuit boards. The fumes from these acids contain corrosive
chlorine and sulfur dioxide, which can cause severe respiratory problems, including lung damage and
irritation.
• PCBs are toxic, carcinogenic, and persist in the environment, posing long-term risks

80) Which rule introduced Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) in e-waste management in India?
a) E-Waste Management Rules, 2011
b) E-Waste Management Rules, 2016
c) E-Waste Management Rules, 2019
d) E-Waste Management Rules, 2022
Answer: A) E-Waste Management Rules, 2011
Explanation: The E-Waste Management Rules, 2011, introduced the concept of Extended Producer
Responsibility (EPR), placing the onus on producers for managing their products at the end of their life cycle
in an eco-friendly manner. Later amendments strengthened EPR provisions.

81) Which of the following are correct about the E-Waste Management Rules, 2016?
1. Compact Fluorescent Lamps (CFLs) and mercury-containing lamps were included under its purview.
2. The rules included the provision of financial penalties for improper management of e-waste.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 correct: The 2016 rules widened the scope of e-waste management by including CFLs
and mercury-containing lamps under Schedule-I.
• Statement 2 correct: Financial penalties were introduced for improper management of e-waste.

82) How many categories of industries are classified as Highly Polluting Industries (HPIs) by the MoEF?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 17
d) 20
Answer: C) 17
Explanation: The Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) has classified 17 categories of industries
as Highly Polluting Industries (HPIs), including iron & steel, thermal power stations, sugar, cement, and
pharmaceuticals. These industries are monitored closely for their environmental impacts

83) Which of the following regions in India has been severely affected by deforestation leading to ravine
formation?
a) Western Ghats
b) Chambal Valley
c) Sunderbans
d) Nilgiri Hills
Answer: B) Chambal Valley
Explanation:
• The Chambal Valley, located in parts of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh, has
witnessed severe deforestation over decades.
• Trees and vegetation act as natural binders for soil particles, preventing soil erosion. When forests are
cleared, the soil becomes loose and prone to erosion, particularly in regions with heavy rainfall or strong
winds.
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• In Chambal, the absence of tree cover has allowed water runoff to erode the land, carving deep gullies
and ravines over time.
• These ravines, often referred to as "badlands," degrade the soil and render large areas unfit for
agriculture or habitation
• The Western Ghats, though affected by deforestation, are not known for ravine formation.
• The Sunderbans in West Bengal is a mangrove forest ecosystem and faces threats like mangrove
deforestation, rising sea levels, and soil salinity.
• The Nilgiri Hills in Tamil Nadu and Kerala face deforestation due to plantation agriculture (tea, coffee,
and eucalyptus).
• The issues here include habitat loss, biodiversity decline, and soil erosion but not ravines or gullies.

84) Assertion (A): Sulphur dioxide emissions from copper smelting are often converted to sulphuric acid.
Reason (R): Sulphuric acid is a key raw material used in fertilisers, pharmaceuticals, and petroleum refineries.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, and R is true.
Answer: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation:
• Assertion (A): During smelting, sulphur-based ores release sulphur dioxide (SO₂). To prevent
environmental pollution, industries convert SO₂ into sulphuric acid.
• Reason (R): Sulphuric acid is widely used in industries like fertilisers, pharmaceuticals, paper bleaching,
and petroleum refineries. Hence, R correctly explains A.

85) Consider the following statements regarding red mud:

1. Red mud is a hazardous by-product of the aluminium extraction process using the Bayer method.
2. Historically, red mud was entirely disposed of in landfills, but it is now used in road construction and
cement production.
3. Red mud has no beneficial applications in soil improvement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. Red mud is a hazardous, highly alkaline residue generated during the Bayer
process of aluminium extraction.
• Statement 2: Correct. While historically dumped in landfills, red mud is now repurposed for road
construction, iron-rich cement production, and other uses.
• Statement 3: Incorrect. Red mud can be applied to soils for ameliorating acidity, improving
phosphorus cycling, and aiding in carbon sequestration.

86) Assertion (A): The caustic soda industry is categorized as one of the highly polluting industries in India.
Reason (R): The production process involves the use of mercury, chlorine vapours, and hydrogen, which pose
significant environmental and safety risks.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, and R is true.
Answer: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
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Explanation:
• Assertion (A): Correct. The caustic soda industry is classified as highly polluting due to its significant
environmental risks.
• Reason (R): Correct. The use of mercury, chlorine vapours, and hydrogen during the production
process poses both environmental and safety concerns, leading to its inclusion in the list of 17 highly
polluting industries

87) What is the leading environmental concern associated with tanneries?

a) Carbon dioxide emissions
b) Chromium discharge in solid waste and wastewater
c) Radioactive waste generation
d) Soil erosion
Answer: B) Chromium discharge in solid waste and wastewater
Explanation: The leading environmental concern in tanneries is the discharge of chromium-containing solid
waste and wastewater, which poses a severe threat to ecosystems and human health.
• Tanneries are not major contributors to carbon dioxide emissions; their pollution is primarily due to
wastewater and heavy metals.
• Tanneries do not produce radioactive waste; this is associated with industries like nuclear power.
• Soil erosion is not directly caused by tanneries, although contamination of soil with chromium is a
concern.

88) Consider the following statements regarding Grossly Polluting Industries (GPIs):
1. GPIs are industries that discharge wastewater of more than 100 kilolitres a day.
2. Pesticides, pharmaceuticals, and petrochemicals industries are included under GPIs.
3. GPIs are required to connect their effluent treatment plants (ETPs) to a central monitoring system under
OCEMS.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. GPIs discharge more than 100 kilolitres of wastewater daily or use hazardous
chemicals under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• Statement 2: Correct. Industries like pesticides, pharmaceuticals, and petrochemicals are included
under GPIs due to their high pollutant load.
• Statement 3: Correct. GPIs must connect their Effluent Treatment Plants (ETPs) to the Online
Continuous Emissions/Effluents Monitoring Systems (OCEMS) for central monitoring by SPCBs
and CPCB

89) Consider the following statements regarding deforestation:

1. Shifting cultivation has become unsustainable due to population pressure on forests.
2. Mining and plantations like coffee and palm oil are major contributors to tropical deforestation.
3. Deforestation has led to an increase in closed forests globally.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 Correct.
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Shifting cultivation, also known as slash-and-burn agriculture, is a traditional agricultural practice. In this
system:
• A patch of land is cleared by cutting and burning vegetation.
• Ash is used to enrich the soil, and the land is cultivated for 2-3 years.
• Once the soil fertility declines, the patch is abandoned, and a new area is cleared.
• However, with population growth, the demand for agricultural land has increased, forcing farmers to
Reduce the fallow periods, Clear more forest land. This makes shifting cultivation unsustainable and
contributes significantly to deforestation, especially in northeastern India and other tropical regions
Statement 2 Correct.
• Mining activities involve clearing forests to access mineral resources.
• Opencast mining causes large-scale deforestation as vast tracts of forest land are removed to extract
resources like coal, bauxite, and iron ore.
• Mining-related deforestation is rampant in central and eastern India (e.g., Jharkhand, Odisha,
Chhattisgarh).
• Plantation Agriculture:
o The demand for cash crops like coffee, palm oil, rubber, sugarcane, and tea has led to
extensive deforestation, particularly in tropical rainforests in countries like Brazil, Indonesia,
and parts of Africa.
o In India, coffee plantations in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu have contributed to forest
clearing.
o Palm oil plantations in Southeast Asia are a global concern due to their destructive impact on
biodiversity and forests.
Statement 3 Incorrect.
• Closed Forests:
o These are dense forests with a canopy cover greater than 40%,, limiting sunlight penetration to
the forest floor .They act as carbon sinks, absorbing CO₂ from the atmosphere.
• Impact of Deforestation on Closed Forests:
o Deforestation has reduced closed forests, converting them into degraded forests or barren lands.
o Degraded forests act as carbon sources by releasing stored CO₂ into the atmosphere due to tree
removal and subsequent soil degradation.

90) Which of the following measures can help control desertification?

1. Intensive tree plantation in transition zones.
2. Mulching shifting sand dunes with plant species.
3. Extensive irrigation of sandy and wastelands.
4. Controlled grazing and pasture development.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1, 2, and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: A) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is Correct. Tree plantation in transition zones stabilizes soil and prevents desert encroachment.
Statement 2 is Correct. Mulching sand dunes with plant species acts as a barrier against wind erosion.
Statement 3 is Incorrect. Over-irrigation can worsen salinity and alkalinity problems, leading to soil
degradation.
Statement 4 is Correct. Controlled grazing allows vegetation recovery, and pasture development provides
alternatives for livestock grazing.

91) Which of the following is NOT one of the three pillars of sustainable development as recognized by the
2002 World Summit on Sustainable Development?
a) Economic Development

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b) Social Development
c) Environmental Protection
d) Technological Advancement
Answer: D) Technological Advancement
Explanation: The 2002 World Summit on Sustainable Development identified three interdependent and
mutually reinforcing pillars of sustainable development: economic development, social development, and
environmental protection. Technological advancement, while important, is not recognized as a separate pillar.

92) Consider the following statements regarding the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
1. The SDGs were adopted in 2015 as a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and
ensure prosperity for all by 2030.
2. There are a total of 17 SDGs, each with specific targets to be achieved.
3. SDG 13 focuses on "Life Below Water."
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 2 Correct
• The SDGs were officially adopted in September 2015 at the United Nations Sustainable Development
Summit in New York.
• The 17 Goals and 169 targets provide a blueprint for global cooperation to achieve a sustainable future.
Statement 3 Incorrect Statement
• SDG 13 is Climate Action, which focuses on urgent actions to combat climate change and its impacts.
• The correct SDG for "Life Below Water" is SDG 14, which aims to conserve and sustainably use the
oceans, seas, and marine resources.

93) Assertion (A): Sustainable development aims to meet the needs of the present without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
Reason (R): This approach ensures that economic growth is prioritized over environmental and social
considerations.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: C) A is true, but R is false.
Explanation: The assertion correctly defines sustainable development as meeting present needs without
compromising future generations' ability to meet their own needs. However, the reason is false because
sustainable development seeks a balance between economic growth, social inclusion, and environmental
protection, rather than prioritizing economic growth over other considerations

94) Identify the correct statements regarding the components of sustainable development:
1. Economic sustainability promotes long-term economic growth while preserving social, environmental,
and cultural well-being
2. Social sustainability focuses on maintaining the health of ecosystems and biodiversity.
3. Environmental sustainability emphasizes the equitable distribution of resources and opportunities
among all societal groups.
Options:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only

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d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Economic sustainability involves practices that support long-term economic growth
without negatively impacting social, environmental, and cultural aspects of the community.
Statement 2 is incorrect because social sustainability focuses on social equity and community development,
not directly on ecosystems and biodiversity. Statement 3 is incorrect because environmental sustainability is
concerned with the health of ecosystems and biodiversity, while the equitable distribution of resources pertains
to social sustainability.

95) The Earth Summit 2002 (Rio+10) led to the adoption of which important global commitment?
a) The Paris Agreement
b) The Johannesburg Declaration
c) The Kyoto Protocol
d) The Bali Action Plan
Answer: B) The Johannesburg Declaration
Explanation:
• The Johannesburg Declaration on Sustainable Development was adopted at Rio+10 (2002), reaffirming
global commitment to Agenda 21 and promoting sustainable development.
• Incorrect Options:
o Paris Agreement (A) → Came later in 2015 as an outcome of UNFCCC COP21.
o Kyoto Protocol (C) → Adopted in 1997 and focused on climate change mitigation, not directly
linked to Rio+10.
o Bali Action Plan (D) → Adopted in 2007 at UNFCCC COP13 to initiate post-Kyoto
negotiations.
• While the Johannesburg Declaration (2002) reaffirmed existing commitments from Rio 1992, it was
followed by the Rio+20 Summit (2012), which introduced new initiatives.
Feature Johannesburg Declaration (2002) Rio+20 Declaration (2012)
Main Outcome Commitment to Agenda 21 and Introduction of Sustainable
poverty eradication Development Goals (SDGs)
Climate Change Reaffirmed Kyoto Protocol (1997) Emphasized Paris Agreement (2015)
Water and Sanitation MDG target to halve water scarcity by Continued under SDG 6 (Clean Water
2015 and Sanitation)
Corporate Social Strengthened business accountability Further promoted sustainable
Responsibility (CSR) business practices
Biodiversity Protection Targeted biodiversity loss reduction by Expanded under SDG 15 (Life on
2010 Land)

96) Which of the following are considered safeguards under the REDD+ framework?
1. Respect for the knowledge and rights of indigenous peoples and local communities
2. Transparent and effective national forest governance structures
3. Actions to address the risks of reversals
4. Promotion of large-scale commercial agriculture
Select the correct answer using the code below:
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1,2 and 3 are correct: The REDD+ framework includes several safeguards to ensure that its
activities do not have negative social or environmental impacts. These safeguards encompass respect for the
knowledge and rights of indigenous peoples and local communities, transparent and effective national forest
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governance structures, and actions to address the risks of reversals (i.e., ensuring that emission reductions are
permanent).
Statement 4 incorrect Promotion of large-scale commercial agriculture is not a safeguard under REDD+ and
is often a driver of deforestation

97) Consider the following statements regarding the Warsaw Framework for REDD+:
1. It was established during COP19 of the UNFCCC.
2. It provides guidelines for national forest monitoring systems.
3. It mandates legally binding emission reduction targets for developing countries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Warsaw Framework for REDD+ was established during the 19th Conference of the Parties
(COP19) to the UNFCCC. It provides comprehensive guidelines for implementing REDD+ activities, including
the development of national forest monitoring systems.
Statement 3 incorrect: However, it does not impose legally binding emission reduction targets on developing
countries; instead, it encourages voluntary participation and provides a framework for results-based payments.

98) Which of the following UN agencies is responsible for coordinating global environmental activities?
a) UNDP - United Nations Development Programme
b) UNEP - United Nations Environment Programme
c) UNFCCC - United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
d) UNCCD - United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification
Answer: B) UNEP
Explanation:
• The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the primary UN agency responsible for
coordinating global environmental policies and activities.
• While UNDP (A) focuses on sustainable development, UNFCCC (C) deals specifically with climate
change, and UNCCD (D) addresses desertification, UNEP has overall responsibility for environmental
issues within the UN framework

99) Consider the following statements regarding UNEP:

1. UNEP was responsible for establishing the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in
collaboration with the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
2. UNEP serves as an implementing agency for the Global Environment Facility (GEF).
Which of the statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None
Answer: Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
• Statement 1: Correct. IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) was established in 1988
by UNEP (United Nations Environment Programme) and WMO (World Meteorological
Organization).
o To provide scientific assessments on climate change, its impacts, risks, and potential response
strategies.
o To offer guidance based on peer-reviewed scientific research to policymakers worldwide.

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• Statement 2: Correct. UNEP is one of the implementing agencies of the Global Environment
Facility (GEF), which funds environmental projects worldwide. Global Environment Facility (GEF)
was established in 1991 to fund environmental projects globally.
• It provides grants, technical support, and policy guidance to projects related to:
• Biodiversity conservation
• Climate change mitigation and adaptation
• Combatting land degradation
• Ozone layer protection
• Pollution reduction (Persistent Organic Pollutants, mercury, etc.)

100) Consider the following statements regarding the Earth Summit 1992 (UNCED):
1. UNCED led to the adoption of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC).
2. The Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement are direct outcomes of Earth Summit 1992.
3. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature under the aegis of the Earth
Summit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is Correct. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
was one of the key legally binding international agreements opened for signature at the 1992 Earth
Summit United Nations Conference on Environment and Development(UNCED) in Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect. Kyoto Protocol (1997) and Paris Agreement (2015) are part of the broader
UNFCCC process, they were not direct outcomes of the 1992 Earth Summit. The Kyoto Protocol
emerged from COP3 (1997), and the Paris Agreement from COP21 (2015)—both were later
developments under the UNFCCC framework.
• Kyoto Protocol (1997):
o It set legally binding targets for industrialized (Annex I) countries to reduce greenhouse gas
(GHG) emissions.
o It introduced carbon markets and mechanisms like the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).
• Paris Agreement (2015):
o It replaced the Kyoto Protocol and made all countries, including developing nations, responsible
for reducing emissions.
o It set the goal of limiting global warming to below 2°C, preferably 1.5°C above pre-industrial
levels.
• Statement 3 is Correct. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature
during the Earth Summit in 1992

101) Match the following SDG Goals with their respective Targets:
Column A (SDG Goal) Column B (Key Target/Objective)
A. SDG 6 1. Ensure universal access to modern energy services
B. SDG 7 2. Achieve universal and equitable access to safe drinking water
C. SDG 10 3. Reduce inequalities within and among countries
D. SDG 12 4. Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns
Options:
a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
c) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
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d) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
Answer: B) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Explanation:
• SDG 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation) → Ensuring universal access to safe drinking water (Target 6.1).
• SDG 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy) → Ensuring universal access to modern energy services (Target
7.1).
• SDG 10 (Reduced Inequality) → Reducing inequalities within and among countries (Target 10.1).
• SDG 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production) → Ensuring sustainable consumption and
production patterns (Target 12.1)

102) Consider the following statements regarding the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs):
1. MDGs were established after the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000.
2. The MDGs aimed to be achieved by 2030.
3. The MDGs focused on eradicating extreme poverty, promoting education, and ensuring environmental
sustainability.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1: Correct. The MDGs (Millennium Development Goals) were formulated at the Millennium Summit
of 2000 and aimed to address global development challenges.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The MDGs had a target year of 2015, not 2030. The Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs) replaced MDGs in 2016 and set Agenda 2030 as their target.
Statement 3: Correct. The eight MDGs aimed at eradicating extreme poverty, achieving universal education,
improving gender equality, reducing child mortality, improving maternal health, combating diseases, ensuring
environmental sustainability, and fostering global partnerships.

103) Match the following UNFCCC COP Summits with their key outcomes:
List I (COP Summit) List II (Key Outcome)
A) COP 3 (1997) 1) Adoption of the Paris Agreement
B) COP 21 (2015) 2) Kyoto Protocol legally ratified
C) COP 11 (2005) 3) Adoption of the Kyoto Protocol
D) COP 26 (2021) 4) Glasgow Climate Pact
Options:
a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
d) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
Answer: B) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Explanation:
COP Summit Key Outcome
A) COP 3 (1997) - 3) Adoption of the Kyoto Protocol – Established legally binding emission
Kyoto, Japan reduction targets for developed countries.
B) COP 21 (2015) - 1) Adoption of the Paris Agreement – Aimed to limit global warming below 2°C
Paris, France (preferably 1.5°C).
C) COP 11 (2005) - 2) Kyoto Protocol legally ratified – Marked the first official commitment period
Montreal, Canada of Kyoto Protocol.
D) COP 26 (2021) - 4) Glasgow Climate Pact – Focused on phasing down coal, increasing climate
Glasgow, UK finance, and strengthening 2030 emission reduction targets.

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104) Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas covered under the Kyoto Protocol?
a) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
b) Methane (CH₄)
c) Sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
d) Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
Answer: C) Sulfur dioxide (SO₂)
Explanation:
• The Kyoto Protocol targets six greenhouse gases (GHGs):
o Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
o Methane (CH₄)
o Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
o Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆)
o Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
o Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
• Sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is an air pollutant contributing to acid rain, but it is not classified as a greenhouse
gas under Kyoto Protocol.

105) Assertion (A): The Kyoto Protocol divides countries into Annex I, Annex II, Annex B, and Non-Annex I
categories.
Reason (R): This categorization is based on how countries are effected by environmental degradation
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, and R is true.
Answer: C) A is true, but R is false.
Explanation:
Assertion (A): Correct. Kyoto divides countries into four categories:
• Annex I: Developed countries + economies in transition.
• Annex II: Developed countries required to provide financial and technical support.
• Annex B: Countries with legally binding GHG reduction targets.
• Non-Annex I: Developing countries, including LDCs.
Reason (R): Incorrect. The classification is based on historical emissions (developed countries polluted more
since the Industrial Revolution) and their financial capability to reduce emissions

106) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Carbon Trading’:

1. Carbon trading allows the exchange of emission permits between countries or companies.
2. Under cap-and-trade, carbon credits are earned by investing in low-emission projects.
3. India is a net buyer of carbon credits.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C) 1 only
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Carbon trading involves the buying and selling of emission permits between
entities.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Cap-and-trade allows the selling and purchasing of carbon credits, while
baseline-and-credit (offset trading) is where credits are earned by investing in low-emission projects.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: India is a net seller of carbon credits due to its renewable energy projects and
low per capita emissions.

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107) The Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) were first discussed in which of the following
COP summits?
a) COP 17 – Durban
b) COP 18 – Doha
c) COP 19 – Warsaw
d) COP 21 – Paris
Answer: C) COP 19 – Warsaw
Explanation:
The concept of INDCs was first discussed in Warsaw Summit (COP 19, 2013), where countries were asked
to outline their intended actions for reducing emissions before the Paris Summit (COP 21, 2015).
• Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) refer to the climate action plans that each
country voluntarily submits outlining its intended efforts to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions
and adapt to climate change.
• The objective of INDCs is to limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels,
as per the Paris Agreement.

108) Consider the following statements regarding current India’s INDC commitments:
1. India aims to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 33-35% by 2030 from 2005 levels.
2. India has pledged to achieve 40% of its total electricity capacity from renewable energy sources.
3. India plans to create an additional carbon sink of 4.5 billion tonnes of CO2 through afforestation by
2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) None
Answer: D) None
Explanation:
India had submitted its first pledge in 2015. India’s first pledge had three primary targets:
• Reduce emissions intensity of the economy by 33–35% below 2005 levels;
• Have 40% of installed electric power from non-fossil-based energy resources by 2030;
• Create an additional (cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5-3 gigatonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent
(GtCO2e) by 2030 through additional forest and tree cover.
In 2021, the Prime Minister of India had announced a new 5-point set of targets at COP-26 (Panchamrit)
• India will increase its non-fossil fuel energy capacity to 500 gigawatt (GW) by 2030;
• It will meet 50% of its energy requirements from renewable sources by 2030;
• The total projected carbon emissions will be reduced by 1 billion tonnes from now through 2030;
• The carbon intensity of its economy will be brought down to less than 45%;
• India will achieve its target of Net Zero by 2070.

109) What is the primary difference between INDCs and NDCs under the Paris Agreement?
a) INDCs are voluntary, while NDCs are legally binding
b) INDCs were submitted before Paris Agreement, while NDCs are updated versions post-Paris
c) INDCs focus only on mitigation, whereas NDCs focus only on adaptation
d) INDCs are applicable to developed nations, while NDCs apply only to developing nations
Answer: B) INDCs were submitted before Paris Agreement, while NDCs are updated versions post-Paris
Explanation:
INDCs (Intended NDCs) were voluntary national commitments submitted before the Paris Agreement (COP
21, 2015), while NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions) are the updated versions that countries formally
commit to after ratifying the Paris Agreement.

110) Which of the following countries have already achieved Carbon Neutrality?
a) Sweden and UK

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b) Bhutan and Suriname
c) China and India
d) France and Norway
Answer: B) Bhutan and Suriname
Explanation:
Carbon Neutrality (Net Zero Carbon Footprint) means that the amount of greenhouse gases (GHGs) emitted
into the atmosphere is equal to the amount removed through natural or technological means.
Bhutan – The World's First Carbon-Negative Country
✔ Bhutan is not just carbon-neutral but carbon-negative, meaning it absorbs more CO₂ than it emits.
✔ The country's total emissions are estimated at 1.5 million tonnes of CO₂ annually, while its forests absorb
over 6 million tonnes.
✔ Reasons for Bhutan's Carbon Neutrality:
• 72% of Bhutan is covered in forests, making it a massive carbon sink.
• Hydropower-based electricity: Bhutan generates nearly all its electricity from renewable hydropower
and exports excess energy to India.
• Strict environmental policies: Bhutan's Constitution mandates that at least 60% of the country must
remain forested.
• Sustainable Agriculture & Transportation: Bhutan promotes organic farming and plans to transition to
electric vehicles.
Suriname – The Second Carbon-Negative Country
✔ Suriname became carbon-negative in 2014 due to its vast rainforest coverage and low industrial activity.
✔ The country absorbs 8.8 million tonnes of CO₂ annually, while emitting only 7 million tonnes.
✔ Reasons for Suriname's Carbon Neutrality:
• 93% of Suriname’s land is covered in tropical rainforests, acting as a massive carbon sink.
• Low industrial emissions: Suriname has a small population (~600,000 people) and minimal heavy
industry.
• Use of hydropower: Renewable hydropower accounts for over 75% of Suriname’s electricity.
• Government commitment: Suriname has pledged to maintain at least 92% forest cover and implement
sustainable land-use policies.

111) What was the agreed annual climate finance target for developing countries by 2035, as decided in
COP29?
a) $100 billion
b) $200 billion
c) $300 billion
d) $500 billion
Answer: C) $300 billion
Explanation: At the 29th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP29) held in Baku, Azerbaijan, in
November 2024, developed nations committed to mobilizing at least $300 billion annually by 2035 to assist
developing countries in addressing climate change impacts and transitioning to sustainable energy sources.
This commitment represents a tripling of the previous $100 billion annual target set for 2020. However, it falls
short of the estimated $1.3 trillion per year that experts and developing nations deem necessary to effectively
combat climate change.

112) Assertion (A): COP29 was the first United Nations Climate Change Conference hosted in a post-Soviet
country.
Reason (R): Azerbaijan, a major oil and gas producer, hosted COP29 in its capital city, Baku.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

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Answer: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: COP29, held in Baku, Azerbaijan, marked the first time a United Nations Climate Change
Conference was hosted in a post-Soviet country. Azerbaijan, known for its significant oil and gas production,
served as the host nation

113) Which COP session is known for establishing the "Santiago Network" to support countries in addressing
loss and damage associated with climate change impacts?
a) COP 25
b) COP 26
c) COP 27
d) COP 28
Answer: A) COP 25
Explanation: COP 25, held in Madrid in 2019, established the Santiago Network to provide technical assistance
to countries for addressing loss and damage associated with the adverse effects of climate change

114) What is the meaning of one carbon credit?

a) 100 kg of CO₂ reduction
b) 1 tonne of CO₂ reduction
c) 10 tonnes of CO₂ reduction
d) 100 tonnes of CO₂ reduction
Answer: (b) 1 tonne of CO₂ reduction
Explanation: A carbon credit represents the right to emit one metric tonne (1000 kg) of carbon dioxide
(CO₂) or the equivalent amount of another greenhouse gas. This credit can be earned through activities like
afforestation, CO₂ sequestration, methane capture, and traded in international markets. The Kyoto Protocol
introduced the carbon market, which allows countries with excess emissions to buy credits from those who
emit less.

115) Which of the following is NOT a function of the Central Pollution Control Boards?
a) Preventing and controlling water pollution
b) Regulating effluent standards for industries
c) Overseeing the implementation of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980
d) Coordinating the activities of State Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs)
Correct Answer: (c) Overseeing the implementation of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980
Explanation: The CPCB’s principal functions include water and air pollution control, formulating effluent
standards, and coordinating SPCBs. However, forest conservation falls under the Ministry of Environment,
Forest, and Climate Change (MoEFCC) and the Forest Conservation Act, 1980 is implemented by State Forest
Departments.

116) Match List-I (Environmental Reports) with List-II (Publishing Organizations)

List-I (Reports) List-II (Organizations)
A. Global Risk Report 1. UNEP
B. State of Global Air Report 2. World Economic Forum (WEF)
C. Global Climate Risk Index 3. Health Effects Institute (HEI) & WHO
D. Emissions Gap Report 4. German watch
Options:
a) A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1
b) A → 3, B → 1, C → 2, D → 4
c) A → 4, B → 3, C → 1, D → 2
d) A → 1, B → 2, C → 3, D → 4
Correct Answer: (a) A → 2, B → 3, C → 4, D → 1
Explanation:
Global Risk Report → World Economic Forum (WEF)
• The Global Risk Report is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

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• It assesses global risks across economic, environmental, geopolitical, societal, and technological
aspects.
State of Global Air Report → Health Effects Institute (HEI) & WHO
• The State of Global Air Report is published by the Health Effects Institute (HEI) in partnership with
the World Health Organization (WHO).
• It provides data on air pollution, PM2.5 levels, and their health impacts globally.
Global Climate Risk Index → Germanwatch
• The Global Climate Risk Index is published by Germanwatch, a non-profit environmental
organization.
• It analyzes the impact of climate-related disasters (storms, floods, heatwaves) on different countries.
• The ranking is based on long-term data (20 years) and short-term data (annual).
Emissions Gap Report → UNEP
• The Emissions Gap Report is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• It tracks the difference between current national pledges (NDCs) and the required emissions
reductions to meet the Paris Agreement goals.

117) Which of the following Acts was passed to generate financial resources for the CPCB and SPCBs?
a) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
b) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
c) The Water Cess Act, 1977
d) The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
Correct Answer: (c) The Water Cess Act, 1977
Explanation: The Water Cess Act, 1977 was enacted to generate financial resources for CPCB and SPCBs by
imposing a cess (tax) on industries and local authorities for wastewater discharge. The funds collected support
pollution control measures.

118) Which of the following projects does NOT require an Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) clearance
under the 2006 Notification?
a) Cement factories
b) Electroplating industries
c) Mining projects larger than 5 hectares
d) Rural roads and small-scale community projects
Correct Answer: (d) Rural roads and small-scale community projects
Explanation:
Under EIA Notification 2006, several small-scale projects such as rural roads, minor irrigation, and
community works are exempted from EIA clearance to promote ease of development.

119) Consider the following statements regarding the Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process in
India:
1. The Impact Assessment Agency (IAA) in the MoEFCC grants environmental clearance (EC) for
projects.
2. The EIA process includes a mandatory public hearing where local communities and environmental
groups can express concerns.
3. The EIA Notification 2006 introduced decentralized environmental clearance, classifying projects into
Category A (National level clearance) and Category B (State level clearance).
4. The 2020 Draft EIA Notification proposed a complete removal of the public hearing process.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:

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Statement 1 is correct: The MoEFCC’s Impact Assessment Agency (IAA) grants EC based on EIA reports.
Statement 2 is correct: Public hearings are mandatory for most projects, except some exempted categories.
Statement 3 is correct: EIA Notification 2006 decentralized the clearance process into Category A (national)
and Category B (state-level).
Statement 4 is incorrect: Draft EIA 2020 weakened public participation but did not eliminate it entirely.

120) Which of the following is NOT a stage in the EIA process?

a) Screening
b) Scoping
c) Public Hearing
d) Green Credit Allocation
Correct Answer: (d) Green Credit Allocation
Explanation:
The Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) process follows a structured methodology to evaluate the
potential environmental consequences of a proposed project before granting approval. It ensures that
development activities do not cause significant harm to the environment.
Key Stages of the EIA Process (as per EIA Notification 2006):
1. Screening
o Determines whether a project requires an EIA or not, based on the scale, nature, and
location of the project.
o Projects are categorized into:
▪ Category A (National-Level Appraisal by MoEFCC)
▪ Category B (State-Level Appraisal by SEIAA/SIEAC)
o Example: Large-scale mining projects automatically require EIA, but small-scale industries
may not.
2. Scoping
o Identifies likely environmental impacts and sets the terms of reference (ToR) for EIA studies.
o Defines the zone of influence and mitigation strategies.
o Example: A hydroelectric dam project may affect river flow, biodiversity, and surrounding
communities.
3. Baseline Data Collection & Impact Prediction
o Involves collecting environmental data (air quality, water quality, biodiversity, etc.) in the
project area.
o Predicts positive and negative environmental impacts, including reversible vs. irreversible
and temporary vs. permanent effects.
4. Mitigation Measures & Environmental Management Plan (EMP)
o Proposes strategies to reduce, compensate, or eliminate environmental damage.
o Example: Afforestation programs to offset deforestation caused by a construction project.
5. Public Hearing
o Conducted to involve local communities, environmental groups, and affected stakeholders.
o Affected groups have the right to express concerns.
o Example: A coal-fired power plant in a tribal area must consult local communities before
clearance.
6. Decision-Making
o Based on the EIA Report, EMP, and Public Hearing feedback, authorities decide whether to
grant or deny Environmental Clearance (EC).
o Impact Assessment Agency (IAA) at MoEFCC makes the final call.
7. Post-Clearance Monitoring & Compliance
o Ensures the project adheres to the stipulated environmental conditions.
o Regular inspections and compliance reports are required.

121) In 2024, which disease did the World Health Organization declare India had eliminated as a public health
problem?

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a) Malaria
b) Trachoma
c) Leprosy
d) Tuberculosis
Answer: B) Trachoma
Explanation: In October 2024, the World Health Organization declared that India had eliminated Trachoma
as a public health problem, making it the third country in the South-East Asia Region to achieve this milestone.
Trachoma is a contagious bacterial infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, primarily affecting the eyes. It
spreads through contact with eye, nose, or throat secretions from infected individuals, as well as via flies that
have been in contact with these secretions.
Environmental factors such as poor hygiene, overcrowded living conditions, and inadequate access to clean
water and sanitation facilities contribute to its transmission.
Repeated infections during childhood can lead to scarring of the inner eyelids, causing them to turn inward—a
painful condition known as trachomatous trichiasis.
India's battle against trachoma began in 1963 with the launch of the National Trachoma Control Program,
supported by WHO and UNICEF. This initiative focused on community-based interventions, including surgical
treatments, antibiotic distribution, and the promotion of water, sanitation, and hygiene (WASH) practices

122) Consider the following statements regarding India's progress in malaria elimination as of 2024:
1. Both malaria cases and deaths have dropped by around 80% from 2015 to 2023.
2. In 2023, only two states, Mizoram and Tripura, remained in the high-burden category for malaria.
3. Ladakh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry reported zero indigenous malaria cases in 2023.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: All three statements are correct. Between 2015 and 2023, India achieved an approximate 80%
reduction in both malaria cases and deaths. In 2023, only Mizoram and Tripura remained in the high-burden
category. Additionally, Ladakh, Lakshadweep, and Puducherry reported zero indigenous malaria cases in 2023

123) Assertion (A): In 2024, India reported its first case of the fast-spreading clade 1b strain of mpox in a
traveler from the United Arab Emirates.
Reason (R): The clade 1b strain of mpox is known for its higher transmission rate compared to other strains.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: In September 2024, India reported its first case of the fast-spreading clade 1b strain of mpox in
a 38-year-old man from Kerala who had traveled from the United Arab Emirates. The clade 1b strain is
recognized for its higher transmission rate compared to other strains

124) In 2024, which mock drill was conducted under India's National One Health Mission to assess pandemic
preparedness?
a) Operation Viral Shield
b) Vishanu Yuddh Abhyas
c) Project Epidemic Guard
d) Pandemic Response Exercise
Answer: B) Vishanu Yuddh Abhyas

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Explanation: In August 2024, under the National One Health Mission, India conducted a comprehensive
national mock drill named "Vishanu Yuddh Abhyas" in Ajmer district, Rajasthan, to assess pandemic
preparedness
The primary aim of "Vishanu Yuddh Abhyas" was to evaluate the readiness and response capabilities of the
National Joint Outbreak Response Team (NJORT), which comprises experts from human health, animal
husbandry, and wildlife sectors. This aligns with the One Health approach, recognizing the interconnectedness
of human, animal, and environmental health.

125) Assertion (A): In 2024, India set a target to eliminate leprosy by 2027, three years ahead of the World
Health Organization's target.
Reason (R): Leprosy cases in India have been consistently declining, and the disease is no longer a public health
concern.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: C) A is true, but R is false.
Explanation: The assertion is correct; in 2024, India announced its aim to eliminate leprosy by 2027, ahead of
the WHO's 2030 target. However, the reason is incorrect. Despite efforts, leprosy remains a public health
concern in India, with challenges such as limited training for healthcare providers, halted vaccination rollouts,
and a lack of awareness campaigns contributing to its persistence.

126) In 2024, which Indian state reported the highest prevalence of non-communicable diseases (NCDs), with
272 per 1,000 population affected?
a) Odisha
b) Bihar
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Gujarat
Answer: A) Odisha
Explanation: In 2024, Odisha reported the highest prevalence of non-communicable diseases among Indian
states, with 272 per 1,000 population affected. Factors contributing to this high prevalence include air pollution,
low physical activity, imbalanced diet, stress, and obesity.
• Non-Communicable Diseases (NCDs) such as cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, chronic respiratory
diseases, and cancer are among the leading causes of mortality in India.
• According to the National Health Profile 2024, NCDs account for nearly 65% of all deaths in the
country.

127) Consider the following statements regarding India's progress in universal health coverage as of 2024:
1. The National Health Policy 2017 set a target of increasing health expenditure to 2.5% of GDP by 2025.
2. The Ayushman Bharat scheme aims to provide health insurance coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family
per year.
3. Despite these initiatives, out-of-pocket expenditure remains above 70% of total health expenditure.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The National Health Policy 2017 set a target to increase health
expenditure to 2.5% of GDP by 2025. The Ayushman Bharat scheme provides health insurance coverage of up
to ₹5 lakh per family per year.
Statement 3 is incorrect; out-of-pocket expenditure has decreased to below 50% of total health expenditure,
reflecting progress in financial protection

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128) Consider the following statements regarding India's healthcare infrastructure developments in 2024:
1. The government launched the "National Telemedicine Initiative" to enhance remote healthcare services.
2. A new policy was introduced to integrate traditional medicine systems with modern healthcare
practices.
3. The "Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission" was expanded to include electronic health records for all
citizens.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: In 2024, India made significant strides in healthcare infrastructure:
1. The "National Telemedicine Initiative" was launched to provide remote healthcare services, especially
in rural and underserved areas.
2. A policy was introduced to integrate traditional medicine systems, such as Ayurveda, with modern
healthcare practices to offer a holistic approach to treatment.
3. The "Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission" was expanded to include electronic health records for all
citizens, aiming to streamline healthcare delivery and improve patient outcomes.

129) The "Nirogi Rajasthan" initiative in 2024 aims to combat which of the following?
a) Non-communicable diseases
b) Tuberculosis
c) Leprosy
d) Both B and C
Answer: A
Explanation: In 2024, the state of Rajasthan launched the "Nirogi Rajasthan" initiative aimed at combating the
rising prevalence of non-communicable diseases (NCDs). The program focuses on preventive healthcare
measures, including regular health screenings, public awareness campaigns about healthy lifestyles, and the
promotion of physical activity among residents. The initiative also aims to strengthen the state's healthcare
infrastructure to better manage and treat NCDs.

130) Consider the following statements about India's vaccination programs in 2024:
1. The "Mission Indradhanush 2.0" was launched to target unvaccinated and under-vaccinated children in
remote areas.
2. A nationwide HPV vaccination program was initiated to prevent cervical cancer among adolescent girls.
3. The COVID-19 vaccination drive was concluded, with booster doses administered to the entire eligible
population.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: In 2024, India undertook significant vaccination initiatives:
1. The "Mission Indradhanush 2.0" was launched to target unvaccinated and under-vaccinated children,
especially in remote and hard-to-reach areas, aiming to improve immunization coverage.
2. A nationwide Human Papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination program was initiated to prevent cervical
cancer among adolescent girls, marking a significant step in women's health.
However, statement 3 is incorrect. While the COVID-19 vaccination drive made substantial progress, it was
not fully concluded in 2024, and booster doses were still being administered to priority groups based on
emerging guidelines.

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131) Which of the following best defines the term "greenhushing"?
a) The practice of companies exaggerating their environmental efforts to appear more sustainable than
they are.
b) The deliberate underreporting or concealment of a company's environmental initiatives to avoid scrutiny
or criticism.
c) The act of shifting environmental responsibility from corporations to consumers.
d) The process of companies setting unattainable environmental goals without a clear plan to achieve them.
Answer: B
Explanation:
• conceal, or remain silent about their environmental and sustainability efforts.
• This is done to avoid external scrutiny, regulatory oversight, or accusations of "greenwashing" (which
is the exaggeration or false representation of sustainability claims).
Why Companies Engage in Greenhushing:
• Fear of backlash from consumers, investors, or regulatory bodies if their sustainability claims are not
perceived as credible.
• Avoiding lawsuits, negative media attention, or regulatory penalties for not meeting sustainability
targets.
• Concern that disclosing sustainability progress could invite additional scrutiny from stakeholders or
competitors.

132) Which of the following statements is correct regarding food banks?

a) Food banks primarily focus on food distribution and have minimal impact on greenhouse gas emissions.
b) By redistributing surplus food, food banks significantly reduce methane emissions that would otherwise
result from food waste decomposition in landfills.
c) Food banks contribute to greenhouse gas emissions through their transportation activities.
d) The role of food banks is limited to addressing hunger and does not intersect with environmental
concerns.
Answer: B
Explanation: Food banks play a crucial role in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions by intercepting edible
food before it reaches landfills, where it would decompose and release methane—a potent greenhouse gas. This
process not only addresses hunger but also contributes to environmental conservation

133) Which Indian state achieved the highest score in the SDG India Index 2023-24?
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Gujarat
Answer: A) Kerala
Explanation: In the SDG India Index 2023-24, Kerala maintained its top position among Indian states,
reflecting significant progress across various Sustainable Development Goals
Key Highlights from the Report:
1. Overall Performance:
o Kerala achieved the highest composite score in the Index, indicating its leading role in advancing
the SDGs within the country.
2. Health and Well-being (SDG 3):
o The state continues to excel in health metrics, contributing to its top ranking.
3. Quality Education (SDG 4):
o Kerala's high literacy rate and educational initiatives have been pivotal in its sustained
performance.
4. Reduced Inequalities (SDG 10):
o The state's efforts in promoting social equity have been recognized as significant contributors to
its overall score.
5. Climate Action (SDG 13):

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o Kerala's proactive measures in environmental conservation and climate resilience have
positively impacted its ranking.

134) What was the theme for World Ozone Day 2024?
a) "Montreal Protocol: Fixing the Ozone Layer and Reducing Climate Change"
b) "Montreal Protocol: Advancing Climate Action"
c) "Ozone for Life: 35 Years of Ozone Layer Protection"
d) "Keep Cool and Carry On"
Answer: B) "Montreal Protocol: Advancing Climate Action"
Explanation:
World Ozone Day, observed annually on September 16th, commemorates the signing of the Montreal Protocol
in 1987, a landmark agreement aimed at phasing out substances that deplete the ozone layer. Each year, a
specific theme is chosen to highlight different aspects of ozone layer protection and the broader environmental
impacts of the Protocol.
The theme for World Ozone Day 2024 was "Montreal Protocol: Advancing Climate Action," highlighting the
Protocol's role in both protecting the ozone layer and mitigating climate change.

135) Consider the following statements regarding the SDG India Index:
1. The SDG India Index is released annually by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
2. The Index evaluates the progress of States and Union Territories towards achieving the Sustainable
Development Goals.
3. The Index includes a dashboard that provides detailed insights into goal-wise performance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: The SDG India Index is released by NITI Aayog, not the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation, making statement 1 incorrect. MoSPI does contribute by collecting statistical data, but it does
not release this Index.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct as the Index assesses the progress of States and Union Territories and includes
a dashboard for detailed goal-wise performance analysis. The core objective of the SDG India Index is to
evaluate and measure the progress of Indian States and Union Territories towards the 17 Sustainable
Development Goals outlined by the United Nations 2030 Agenda.
The dashboard also highlights "Front Runners" and "Aspirants" among states based on their scores.

136) Consider the following statements regarding the European Union's climate targets:
1. The EU aims to achieve climate neutrality by 2050.
2. The European Climate Law mandates a 55% reduction in net greenhouse gas emissions by 2030
compared to 1990 levels.
3. The 2040 climate target serves as an intermediate step towards the 2050 goal.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: All three statements are correct. he European Union has set an ambitious goal to become climate-
neutral by 2050, meaning that by this year, it aims to have net-zero greenhouse gas emissions. This objective
is a central component of the European Green Deal, which outlines the EU's strategy for a sustainable and
climate-friendly economy

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The European Climate Law, which was enacted to provide a legal framework for the EU's climate objectives,
sets a binding target to reduce net greenhouse gas emissions by at least 55% by 2030, relative to 1990 levels.
This target serves as a significant milestone towards achieving the overarching goal of climate neutrality by
2050
The 2040 target of a 90% reduction is an intermediate step towards achieving the 2050 climate neutrality goal

137) In which Indian state was the Chandipura virus first identified?
a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Karnataka
Answer: B) Maharashtra
Explanation: The Chandipura virus was first identified in 1965 in the village of Chandipura in Maharashtra
state, India. The Chandipura virus (CHPV) is an emerging zoonotic virus belonging to the Rhabdoviridae
family and the Vesiculovirus genus. It was first identified in 1965 from samples taken in the village of
Chandipura, located in Maharashtra, India.
The virus is of significant concern due to its association with acute encephalitis syndrome (AES), particularly
affecting children under 15 years of age, with a high fatality rate.

138) Which Indian state reported multiple cases of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) caused by
Naegleria fowleri in 2024?
a) Kerala
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Maharashtra
d) West Bengal
Answer: A) Kerala
Explanation:
In 2024, Kerala experienced a notable increase in cases of primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) caused
by Naegleria fowleri, commonly known as the "brain-eating amoeba." This free-living amoeba thrives in warm
freshwater environments and can cause severe brain infections when contaminated water enters the nasal
passages.

139) Consider the following statements regarding West Nile Virus (WNV):
1. WNV is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes.
2. Birds serve as the main reservoir hosts for WNV.
3. Human-to-human transmission of WNV is common.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: B) 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 incorrect: West Nile Virus is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected
mosquitoes, particularly those of the genus Culex, not Aedes.
The Aedes genus (which includes Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus) is primarily associated with diseases
like dengue, chikungunya, Zika, and yellow fever.
Statement 2 correct: Birds are the main reservoir hosts for WNV. Reservoir hosts are species that harbor the
virus and allow it to amplify in nature.
• In the case of WNV, birds (especially crows, jays, and other passerines) serve as the reservoir hosts.
• When an infected Culex mosquito feeds on a bird, the virus replicates within the bird’s bloodstream,
and when another mosquito bites this bird, it becomes infected and can further spread the virus.
Statement 3 incorrect: Human-to-human transmission is extremely rare and not common.

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WNV is not normally transmitted from one human to another because:
1. The virus is vector-borne, requiring a mosquito bite for transmission.
2. Humans develop low-level viremia (low viral load in blood), making it highly unlikely for a mosquito
to pick up the virus from an infected person and transmit it further.
Rare exceptions of human-to-human transmission:
• Blood transfusion & organ transplant: Cases have been reported where infected blood or organs led
to WNV transmission.
• Vertical transmission: Rare reports of transmission from mother to fetus.
• Breastfeeding: There is a theoretical risk, though rare.

140) Consider the following statements regarding the transmission of leptospirosis:

1. Leptospirosis is primarily transmitted through direct contact with the blood of infected animals.
2. The bacteria can enter the human body through intact skin.
3. Occupational groups such as agricultural workers are at higher risk of contracting leptospirosis.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: C) 3 only
Explanation: Leptospirosis is primarily transmitted through contact with water or soil contaminated by the
urine of infected animals, not directly through blood.
The bacteria typically enter the human body through cuts or abrasions in the skin or through mucous
membranes, not through intact skin.
Agricultural workers are indeed at higher risk due to their exposure to contaminated environments

141) Assertion (A): Kala-azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis.

Reason (R): The disease manifests with cutaneous lesions on exposed parts of the body.
Choose the correct option:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Explanation:
The assertion is correct: Kala-azar is also known as visceral leishmaniasis.
The reason is incorrect: Kala-azar affects internal organs like the liver and spleen, not the skin. Cutaneous
leishmaniasis, a different form of the disease, causes skin lesions

142) Which existing legislation does the proposed Public Health Emergency Management Act (PHEMA) aim
to replace due to its inadequacies in handling modern public health crises?
a) The Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897
b) The National Health Act of 2002
c) The Disaster Management Act of 2005
d) The Public Safety Act of 1950
Answer: A) The Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897
Explanation: The proposed PHEMA seeks to replace the outdated Epidemic Diseases Act of 1897, which has
been deemed inadequate for managing contemporary public health emergencies. The new act aims to provide
a comprehensive legal framework to address modern challenges in public health crisis management
PHEMA proposes the creation of a special fund for Pandemic Preparedness and Emergency Response (PPER)
and aims to establish health cadres at both national and state levels to strengthen public health emergency
management.

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PHEMA includes provisions for compulsory screenings and quarantines to control the spread of diseases during
public health emergencies.
Under PHEMA, the Empowered Group of Secretaries (EGoS) is proposed to be chaired by the Cabinet
Secretary to coordinate pandemic preparedness and emergency response efforts

143) Consider the following statements regarding the "Zero Draft" of the Pandemic Treaty:
1. The draft emphasizes equity as a guiding principle in pandemic prevention, preparedness, and response.
2. It proposes the establishment of a global supply chain and logistics network for pandemic-related
products.
3. The draft allows for reservations by member states on specific provisions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The "Zero Draft" underscores equity as a guiding principle and proposes the establishment of a
WHO Global Pandemic Supply Chain and Logistics Network.
• One of the core guiding principles of the Zero Draft is equity, which means fair and just access to
pandemic-related resources (vaccines, treatments, diagnostics, medical supplies).
• The draft acknowledges the failures of global equity during COVID-19, where many low- and
middle-income countries (LMICs) struggled to access vaccines, medicines, and essential healthcare.
However, it explicitly states that no reservations or exceptions may be made unless expressly permitted by
other articles. This means member states cannot selectively agree or reject parts of the treaty; they must
accept the treaty as a whole once ratified.

144) In which year did the World Health Organization (WHO) establish the Coronavirus Network (CoViNet)
to enhance global surveillance of coronaviruses?
a) 2020
b) 2022
c) 2024
d) 2025
Answer: C) 2024
Explanation:
• The World Health Organization (WHO) launched the Coronavirus Network (CoViNet) in March 2024.
• CoViNet aims to facilitate and coordinate global expertise and capacities for the early and accurate
detection, monitoring, and assessment of SARS-CoV-2, MERS-CoV, and novel coronaviruses of public
health importance.
• This initiative expands upon the previous WHO COVID-19 reference laboratory network, broadening
its scope to address a wider range of coronaviruses.

145) Consider the following statements regarding the Patient Safety Rights Charter:
1. It outlines ten fundamental patient safety rights.
2. It was developed under the framework of World Patient Safety Day 2023.
3. The charter is legally binding for all World Health Organisation member states.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The charter outlines ten fundamental patient safety rights and
was developed under the framework of World Patient Safety Day 2023.

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• The WHO Patient Safety Rights Charter provides ten key patient rights related to safety, which are
designed to empower individuals and ensure quality healthcare.
• These rights emphasize safety, dignity, privacy, transparency, and timely treatment.
• This aligns with the WHO's Global Patient Safety Action Plan 2021-2030.
• World Patient Safety Day is observed on 17th September annually
However, statement 3 is incorrect; the charter serves as a guiding document and is not legally binding for WHO
member states.

146) Consider the following statements regarding the One Health approach in India:
1. The One Health approach recognizes the interdependence of human, animal, and environmental health.
2. The National Centre for Disease Control (NCDC) houses a dedicated Centre for One Health to promote
this approach.
3. The One Health approach focuses solely on zoonotic diseases, excluding environmental factors.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The One Health approach acknowledges the interconnectedness
of human, animal, and environmental health, and the NCDC has established a Centre for One Health to promote
this integrated approach.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the One Health approach encompasses environmental factors in addition to
zoonotic diseases.

147) Assertion (A): The decline in vulture populations in India may lead to increased human mortality rates.
Reason (R): Vultures play a crucial role in disposing of animal carcasses, preventing the spread of zoonotic
diseases.
Options:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: The decline in vulture populations in India has been linked to increased human mortality rates
due to the accumulation of animal carcasses, which fosters the spread of zoonotic diseases. Vultures are
efficient scavengers, and their decline disrupts this natural disposal system, leading to health hazards.

148) Assertion (A): Zika virus infection during pregnancy can cause infants to be born with microcephaly.
Reason (R): Zika virus is primarily transmitted through Culex mosquitoes
Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer: C) A is true, but R is false.
Explanation: Zika virus infection during pregnancy is known to cause infants to be born with microcephaly
and other congenital malformations. However, Zika virus is primarily transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, not
through culex mosquitoes

149) As of January 2024, how many whole genome sequences from diverse Indian populations have been made
accessible for research purposes through the Indian Biological Data Centre (IBDC)?
a) 5,000

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b) 7,500
c) 10,000
d) 12,500
Answer: C) 10,000
Explanation: By January 2024, the Genome India Project successfully completed the whole genome
sequencing of 10,000 individuals from various Indian populations. This data is archived at the Indian Biological
Data Centre (IBDC) and is available for research purposes both within India and globally.
• The Genome India Project (GIP) was launched by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT),
Government of India in 2020.
• The project aims to sequence the whole genome of 10,000 individuals across diverse ethnic groups in
India.
• The goal is to create a comprehensive reference genome for the Indian population, aiding in precision
medicine, disease research, and personalized healthcare.
• As of January 2024, the Genome India Project has successfully completed the sequencing of 10,000
whole genomes.
• IBDC functions as India’s first national repository for life sciences data, developed under the DBT’s
Biotechnology Information System Network (BTISNet).

150) Consider the following statements regarding the regulatory framework for xenotransplantation in India:
1. The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has issued specific guidelines for conducting
xenotransplantation clinical trials.
2. The Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is responsible for approving xenotransplantation clinical
trials.
3. Ethical clearance from the Central Ethics Committee on Human Research (CECHR) is mandatory for
xenotransplantation studies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: All three statements are correct.
Xenotransplantation is the process of transplanting, implanting, or infusing cells, tissues, or organs from one
species into another. Typically, this involves transferring tissues or organs from animals to humans. The goal
is to provide solutions for the shortage of human organs available for transplant
• The ICMR has issued specific guidelines for conducting xenotransplantation clinical trials. The DCGI
is responsible for approving these trials, and ethical clearance from the CECHR is mandatory.
• The ICMR has been at the forefront of establishing ethical guidelines for biomedical research involving
human participants in India. In its "National Ethical Guidelines for Biomedical and Health Research
Involving Human Participants," the ICMR provides comprehensive directives to ensure that research is
conducted ethically and responsibly.
• The DCGI operates under the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) and is the
primary regulatory authority for approving clinical trials and the importation or manufacture of new
drugs in India. According to the "Guidance on Approval of Clinical Trial & New Drugs," any new drug,
including those involved in xenotransplantation, must receive approval from the DCGI before clinical
trials can commence
• The Central Ethics Committee on Human Research (CECHR) , established by the ICMR, is responsible
for overseeing the ethical aspects of biomedical research in India. The committee has formulated the
"Ethical Guidelines for Biomedical Research on Human Subjects," which provide a framework for the
ethical conduct of research involving human participants

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