Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst.

MT - 31

SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MODEL TEST - 148

APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MODEL TEST - 31
ENGLISH LANGUAGE

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Directions (1-5): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
1. The IBCA was launched by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi /A/ on 9th
ha
April, 2023, during the event ‘Commemorating 50 /B/ years of Project Tiger’. The
Union Cabinet, in its meeting held on/C/ 28th February 2024, approved the
establishing of IBCA with headquarters in India./D/

2.
1) A 2) B

E 3) C 4) D 5) No error
The Sub-Committee shall keep a close watch on the air quality scenario /A/ and
review the situation from time to time for further appropriate /B/ decisions
d
depending upon the air quality in Delhi and forecasting for /C/ meteorological
conditions and air quality index made available by IMD/ IITM./D/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
ee

3. The Union Budget 2025-26 outlines a significant push towards/A/ nuclear energy
as part of India’s long-term energy transition strategy./B/ The government has
set an ambitious target of 100 GW nuclear/C/ power capacity by 2047, positioned
C
nuclear energy as a major pillar in India’s energy mix. /D/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
4. Recognizing nuclear power has a critical component/A/ of energy security and
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sustainability, /B/ the government has introduced the Nuclear /C/ Energy Mission
for Viksit Bharat./D/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
5. MCA21 is the first Mission Mode e-Governance Project under the National /A/
eGovernance Plan (NeGP). The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has been handling /
B/ it end-to-end for registry and incorporation-related services for Companies
and /C/ LLPs for 2006, and corporates have been making filings on this portal
C
since then. /D/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
Directions (6-13): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
India’s apex auditor is building the necessary infrastructure and processes
to harness artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning for auditing processes
and to audit AI applications themselves as the country aims to become a USD 30-
trillion economy by 2047, CAG K Sanjay Murthy said. Speaking at the World
Forum of Accountants hosted by ICAI on Saturday, Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG) Murthy said a USD 30-trillion economy will be necessarily digital, as
organisations expand into emerging areas, and global champions are born.
Accounting and auditing professionals will have to provide the required support.
“Adopting new technologies would help bring required efficiencies in the accounting
and auditing processes. Taking a leadership role in developing and adapting
innovative technological practices would also help Indian firms to become global
champions,” he said, while addressing the Institute of Chartered Accountants of
India (ICAI) programme here on Saturday.
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

Underlining the key role of digital technology as a major enabler as well as

disrupter, the CAG said the range of technological solutions that are now available
have transformed the scale and potential at which organisations can achieve
higher performance outcomes. “For us, it’s an exciting challenge as the India of
2025 moves towards becoming a Viksit Bharat of 2047 which aspires to have an
economy of USD 30 trillion. More companies and larger government budgets cannot
be handled by physically replicating existing structures and processes. Technology
will have to be leveraged to keep up and deliver,” he said. The CAG’s address
covered the gamut of technology and innovation in auditing and accounting, pointing
out how AI, machine learning, robotic automation and blockchain technology have

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revolutionised the field. “The evolution of technology and adaptation will require
a transformation in intellectual and infrastructural capacities,” he said. Referring
to the recent ‘The Future of Jobs Report 2025’ by the World Economic Forum,
Murthy noted how it has highlighted the drivers of transformation and skillsets
needed in coming years. “We have embarked upon a comprehensive digitisation
ha
journey. We are committed to further integrating advanced technologies to bolster
audit capabilities. Recognising the transformative potential of AI and ML, we have
already taken the leap of faith and started building necessary infrastructure and

E
processes to harness these technologies to use them in auditing processes and to
audit AI applications themselves,” he said.
d
Talking about the CAG’s digitisation journey, he said a major development is
the implementation of the One IAAD One System (OIOS), an end-to-end Audit
Information Management System (AIMS) and a webenabled IT application that
ee

supports multiple languages, offers offline functionality, and includes a mobile

application for audits in a fully digital environment. Digital initiatives in areas of
internal administration, including eHRMS and eOffice, have also been
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mainstreamed. He said the CAG has also implemented state-of-the-art data
analytic capabilities through its dedicated centre to enable analysis-driven audits.
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Remote sensing techniques and image analytics have also been widely used. It
will be our endeavour to access other applications for smoothening the process of
auditing for greater transparency, Murthy added. The World Forum of Accountants
is an annual conference, and it was ICAI’s turn as host this year. The World
Forum of Accountants brings together some of the brightest minds from among
accountants, auditors, and finance professionals, business leaders and regulators
of the accounting and auditing profession.
C
6. According to CAG K Sanjay Murthy, why is digital transformation essential for
India’s goal of a USD 30-trillion economy?
1) Physical replication of existing structures will be impractical
2) The global economy demands a shift to cryptocurrency-based auditing
3) Traditional audit methods have been banned by international organizations
4) AI applications will make manual audits obsolete
5) Digital infrastructure requires minimal investment
7. What challenge does the CAG anticipate with an increasing number of companies
and larger government budgets?
1) The need for more auditors to manually review financial records
2) The necessity of leveraging technology to handle growth efficiently
3) The risk of AI replacing human auditors entirely
4) The redundancy of financial oversight in a fully digital economy
5) The requirement for higher taxation to support auditing costs

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

8. Why is the CAG investing in AI-driven audits?

1) To replace human auditors with autonomous systems
2) To integrate AI not just in auditing but also in government policies
3) To ensure audits keep pace with India’s expanding economy
4) To develop a regulatory framework for AI in private sector auditing
5) To align India’s auditing practices with European standards
9. What does the mention of the ‘Future of Jobs Report 2025’ suggest?
1) The auditing profession will become obsolete
2) AI will replace the need for regulatory compliance
3) AI will lead to massive job losses in the auditing sector

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4) The demand for auditing professionals will decline sharply
5) Future skill requirements will evolve due to technological advancements
10. What is the underlying reason for integrating robotic automation and blockchain
in auditing?
1) To reduce government spending on financial oversight
ha
2) To limit external auditors’ access to sensitive information
3) To prevent AI from being used in fraud detection
4) To increase transparency and efficiency in auditing processes

11.

E
5) To comply with outdated financial regulations
What is the synonym of “harness” as used in the passage?
d
1) Control 2) Remove 3) Abandon 4) Simplify 5) Restrict
12. What is the opposite of “leveraged” in the given passage?
1) Utilized 2) Ignored 3) Strengthened4) Applied 5) Maximized
ee

13. Fill the blank with suitable word to make the sentence grammatically and
contextually correct based on passage.
The implementation of AI in auditing is expected to ______ efficiency and
C
transparency.
1) Diminish 2) Obscure 3) Bolster 4) Impede 5) Undermine
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Directions (14-17): Rearrange the following four sentences (P), (Q), (R) are (S) in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions
given below.
14. P. with the objective that data and information are uniformly
Q. represented, provide clarity on the data sources, collection
R. methods and enhance discoverability of data sets
S. the National Metadata Structure (NMDS 2.0) is designed
C
1) PRSQ 2) SRPQ 3) PRQS 4) SPRQ 5) SPQR
15. P. reducing import dependency, and ensuring
Q. energy security for the nation
R. the Ministry of Coal remains unwavering in its
S. commitment to augmenting domestic coal production,
1) RSPQ 2) SRQP 3) RQSP 4) QSPR 5) SPQR
16. P. the critical role of wetlands in environmental conservation,
Q. year’s theme of ‘Protecting Wetlands for our Common Future’
R. biodiversity, and sustainable livelihoods, aligning with this
S. the World Wetlands Day 2025 celebrations highlighted
1) QPRS 2) QSRP 3) RQPS 4) SPRQ 5) SPQR
17. P. would be the major driving factors for equity markets
Q. this week, analysts said adding that the impact of
R. the Union Budget could linger on this week
S. RBI’s interest rate decision, quarterly earnings and global cues
1) SQPR 2) SRPQ 3) PSRQ 4) PRQS 5) SPQR

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

Directions (18-21): In each of the questions given below four words are given in
bold these four words may or may not be in their correct position. Find the correct
combination of words that replace each other.
18. Paraphrasing Abraham Lincoln, Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Sunday
middle (A) the Union Budget as “by the people, for the people, of the people”, and
said Prime Minister Narendra Modi was fully described (B) the idea to cut taxes
for the convince (C) class but it took time to behind (D) the bureaucrats.
1) ABCD 2) BDAC 3) CADB 4) ADBC 5) BADC
19. Industry experts hailed (A) steps for boosting clean energy like nuclear mission,
renewable (B) for critical minerals and presented (C) equipment in the Budget

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incentives (D) on Saturday by Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharman.
1) ABCD 2) BDAC 3) CADB 4) ADBC 5) BADC
20. As the United Nations turns 80 this year, it is imperative (A) for it to be fit for
purpose, UN General Assembly President Philemon Yang has said, including (B)
on all member states to “engage actively” and commit (C) to reform, calling (D) of
the Security Council.
1) ADCB 2) BDAC
ha 3) CADB 4) ADBC 5) BADC
21. India has experienced “remarkable transformation” in the last decade (A), UN

E
General Assembly President Philemon Yang has said, underlining (B) that his
upcoming visit to the country will give him an innovation (C) to see how digital
d
and technological opportunity (D) has “fuelled this change”.
1) ABCD 2) BDAC 3) CADB 4) ADBC 5) ABDC
Directions (22-26): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
ee

been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
22. The MCA21 V3 platform facilitates Ease of Doing Business, and has introduced
C
web-based forms, _________ real-time validation of the data entered by stakeholders.
1) enabling 2)establishing 3) giving 4) initiating 5) encouraging
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23. The security and confidentiality of information __________ through the MCA21
portal are ensured by adhering to established data security standards, including
the MEITY guidelines, CERT-In regulations, ISO 27001, and Information Security
Protocols.
1) subjected 2) submitted 3) surrendered 4) succumbed 5) suggested
24. Multi-factor authentication has been introduced to verify the _________ of users
accessing the system.
C
1) similarity 2) equality 3) identity 4) congruity 5) affinity
25. Participants in the Trailer Making Competition will ________ various recognitions
and rewards based on their performance.
1) retrieve 2) rewind 3) reaffirm 4) receive 5) reassure
26. The Delhi Roadshow was a testament to the transformative power of storytelling
and video editing, setting the stage for an/a _________ conclusion to this nationwide
competition.
1) tedious 2) dreary 3) lonely 4) wearying 5) exciting
Directions (27-30): Which phrase should replace the phrase HIGHLIGHTED in
the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
27. Microsoft gadgets can make your computer life easier, but overusing gadgets will
run down both your mind and your computer.
1) bog down 2) pin down 3) tone down
4) No correction required 5) squash down

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

28. Most staff will never want to breeze through the manuals that come with the
software.
1) pull through 2) follow through 3) No correction required
4) plough through 5) talk through
29. It took three years for the two countries to weed out an agreement.
1) dole out 2) No correction required 3) ferret out
4) break out 5) hammer out
30. The plan would cost so much that the company would have to hush up its prices.
1) No correction required 2) fess up 3) jack up
4) mop up 5) rake up

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NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction([Link]-35) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and choose the appropriate option:
31. I. X2 = 25 II. Y2 - 8Y + 15 = 0
1) X < Y 2) X > Y

4) X  Y 5) X  Y
ha
3) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established

E
2
32. I. 3X - 16X + 21 =0 II. 3Y2 - 11Y + 10 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X > Y
3) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
d
4) X < Y 5) X  Y
2
33. I. 3X - 17X + 20 = 0 II. 2Y2 - 19Y + 44 = 0
ee

1) X  Y 2) X > Y 3) X < Y
4) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established 5) X  Y
34. I. 2X2 + 15X + 27 = 0 II. Y2 + 5Y + 4 = 0
C
1) X  Y 2) X < Y 3) X  Y
4) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established 5) X > Y
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35. I. X2 + 11X + 28 = 0 II. 2Y2 + 9Y + 10 = 0

1) X > Y 2) X  Y 3) X  Y 4) X < Y
5) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
Direction([Link]-40) : Refer to the graph and answer the given question:
Data given are regarding number of girls and boys
in five different schools in the year 2018.
C
300
Number of students (Girls / Boys)

250 240 260 250

200
180 170
150 150 140
120
100
100
80 Girls
50
Boys
0
A B C D E
Schools
36. The number of students (both boys and girls) in school E are what percent less
than that in school C?
1) 25 2) 15 3) 12.5 4) 20.25 5) 10

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

37. What is the difference between the number of students (both boys and girls) in
school B and that in school D ?
1) 130 2) 160 3) 170 4) 150 5) 190
38. What is the respective ratio between the total number of girls in schools A and B
together and the total number of boys in the same schools together ?
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 4 3) 2 : 5 4) 5 : 6 5) 1 : 3
39. What is the average number of girls in schools C, D and E ?
1) 130 2) 125 3) 120 4) 110 5) 115
40. Out of all the given schools, in which school the difference between the number

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of girls and the number of boys, was the minimum ?
1) E 2) D 3) A 4) C 5) B
Direction (41-50): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
question ?
41. 878.34 - ? + 345.43 = 579.39
1) 693.56 2) 633.33
ha 3) 657.75 4) 653.45 5) 644.38
4.52  3.62
42.
0.92  0.52  ?4
1) 6
1

2) 0.8

E3) 8 4) 0.4 5) 4
d
43. 40% of 1476 + 25% of ? = 12933  20
1) 375 2) 225 3) 285 4) 255 5) 275
ee

44. 135.5  5 + 245  0.5 + 677.5 = 59.1  ?

1) 55 2) 45 3) 35 4) 25 5) 15
45. 1.64 + 0.64 + 0.064 - 0.8 - 0.08 = ?
C
1) 1.688 2) 1.464 3) 1.486 4) 1.488 5) 1.478
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4 3 5 6
46. 4 3 5 6  ?
5 4 6 7
31 31 23 11 41
1) 3 2) 2 3) 5 4) 4 5) 2
360 420 480 420 480
11 13 17 1
C
47. of of of ?  95
51 15 19 3
1) 570 2) 580 3) 596 4) 575 5) 576
48. 1600  576  ?
1) 3600 2) 3844 3) 4624 4) 4096 5) 4356
49. 285.5  2.4 + 24.6  36.4 = ?  0.8
1) 2025.6 2) 1823.4 3) 1975.8 4) 1922.5 5) 1856.4
50. 592 - 492 = 2?  33  5
1) 6 2) 2 3) 5 4) 3 5) 4
51. Ram gives 20% of his monthly salary to Zai and Kim in the respective ratio of 4 :
7. From the money Kim got, she pays 20% as tuition fees, 30% on shopping and is
now left with Rs. 2,800. What is the monthly salary of Ram?
1) Rs. 44,000 2) Rs. 55,000 3) Rs. 38,500 4) Rs. 33,000 5) Rs. 34,100

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

52. The average runs of a cricketer in a tournament, in which he played 14 matches,

are 61. His average runs in the first six matches are 69 and that in the last six
matches are 47. If the runs made by him in 7th match are 89, how many runs did
he make in 8th match ?
1) 69 2) 79 3) 73 4) 75 5) 65
53. Two trains, A and B, travelling in opposite directions (towards each other) can
completely cross each other from the moment they meet in 16 seconds. The
lengths of train A and train B are 332 m and 228 m. If the speed of train A is 75

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kmph, what is the speed of train B (in kmph) ?
1) 47 2) 57 3) 49 4) 53 5) 51
54. Speed of a boat in still water is 18 kmph and speed of the stream is 2 kmph. if the
boat travels from P to Q and back from Q to P in total 3 hours 9 minutes, what is
the distance between P and Q ? (in kilometers)

55.
1) 24 2) 20
ha 3) 36 4) 28 5) 35
A certain sum was invested in scheme A for a certain number of years. Scheme A

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offers simple interest at a certain rate of interest (p.c.p.a.). If the numerical
values of the rate of interest and the number of years for which the sum is
d
4
invested are equal and the interest earned is 28 9 % of the principal, what is the

rate of interest (p.c.p.a) offered by scheme A ?

ee

2 1 1 2 1
1) 5 2) 7 3) 5 4) 4 5) 4
5 3 3 3 5
C
56. In a vessel, containing certain quantity of mixture of milk and water, the respective
ratio of milk and water was 5 : 2. 28 litres of mixture was taken out and 14 litres
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of pure milk was added. As a result respective ratio of milk and water in the
mixture became 6 : 1. What was the initial quantity of water in the mixture ? (in
litres)
1) 8 2) 12 3) 16 4) 13 5) 10
57. At present Dan is 16 years younger than his uncle. Eight years ago, Dan’s age
C
1
was 5 th of his Uncle’s age at that time. If Dan’s sister is 6 years older than Dan,

what is her present age ?

1) 20 years 2) 16 years 3) 18 years 4) 24 years 5) 22 years
2
58. The area of a circle of radius 14 cm, is 588 cm more than the area of a triangle.
If the height of the triangle is equal to half of the radius of the circle, how much
does the base of the triangle measure ? (in centimeters)
1) 8 2) 6 3) 12 4) 4 5) 7
59. The sum of 4 consecutive even numbers and three consecutive odd numbers is
209. If the smallest odd number is 25 less than the smallest even number, what
is the largest odd number ?
1) 19 2) 15 3) 17 4) 23 5) 21

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

60. The denominator of a rational number is 7 more than its numerator, if the
numerator is doubled and the denominator is increased by 7, then the resultant
3
number is 5 . What was the original number ?

9 8 1 6 5
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
16 15 7 13 12
Direction (61-65) : In this question a number series is given. Only one number is

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wrong which doesn’t fit in the series. Find out the wrong number ?
61. 11 6 8 12 26 67.5
1) 6 2) 12 3) 8 4) 26 5) 67.5
62. 1 2 8 33 158 ha 765
1) 765 2) 33 3) 158 4) 2 5) 8
63. 369 128 45 18 9 6
1) 18 2) 45 3) 128 4) 9 5) 6
64. 12
1) 22
22 42 82
2) 82

E
172 322
3) 322 4) 172 5) 42
d
65. 43 48 55 73 103 148
1) 55 2) 148 3) 73 4) 48 5) 103
ee

REASONING
Direction (66-70): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
C
Eight people – P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a square table.
Four of them are sitting at four corners of the table while four are sitting in the
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middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting at corners face the centre
while the ones sitting in the middle of the sides face outside (i.e. opposite to
the centre).
Only two people sit between R and S (either from left or right). V sits immediate
right of S. R does not sit at any corners of the table. Three people sit between P and
U. P sits second to the left of W. Neither U nor S sits immediate to Q.
C
66. How many people sit between W and V from left of W?
1) Three 2) None 3) Two 4) One 5) More than three
67. Who amongst the following person sits immediate right of the one who sits fourth
to the left of P?
1) U 2) W 3) S 4) Q 5) T
68. What is the position of S with respect to Q?
1) Third to the left 2) Second to the right 3) Fourth to the right
4) Third to the right 5) Second to the left
69. Which of the following statement is not true as per the given arrangement?
1) Two people sit between R and V. 2) T sits immediate left of S.
3) W sits at one of the corners of the table.
4) U sits immediate neighbour of R. 5) V sits second to the right of Q.
70. If all the people are arranged in an alphabetical order in clock wise direction
starting from P, then how many people will remain unchanged (excluding P)?
1) Two 2) None 3) Three 4) One 5) More than three

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

Direction (71-73): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I

and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
71. Statements: Only a few Pens are Erasers All Sharpeners are Erasers
No Sharpener is Pencil
Conclusion I: All Pencils can be Erasers.
Conclusion II: No Sharpener is Pen.

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1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
72. Statements: All Glasses are Jars
ha No Glass is Cup
Only a few Bowls are Cups
Conclusion I: All Bowls are Cups is a possibility.
Conclusion II: Some Jars can be Bowls.

E
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
3) Both Conclusions I and II follow
2) Only Conclusion I follows
4) Either Conclusion I or II follows
d
5) Only Conclusion II follows
73. Statements: All Watches are Bangles Only a few Bangles are Chains
Some Chains are Rings
ee

Conclusion I: Some Watches are Chains.

Conclusion II: Some Bangles are not Chains.
1) Either Conclusion I or II follows 2) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
C
3) Only Conclusion II follows 4) Only Conclusion I follows
5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
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Direction (74-78): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
A Certain number of people are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only
two people sit between T and L. M sits third to the left of T. G does not sit
immediate to L. Q sits immediate left of M. Only one person sits between Q and A.
K sits third to the left of G. Only one person sits right of G. R sits exactly between
C
G and T. S sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits
between K and L. The number of people sit between L and K is one more than the
number of people sit between S and A.U sits immediate left of G.
74. How many persons are sitting in the straight line?
1) 18 2) 21 3) 17 4) 19 5) 20
75. How many unknown people sit between A and K?
1) Ten 2) Four 3) Five 4) Seven 5) Six
76. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) Three people sit between K and T. 2) R sits to the left of L.
3) M sits fourth to the right of S. 4) R sits immediate right of K.
5) All the statements are true
77. If D sits fifth to the right of V, then as many known people sit between D and V as
between ____ and ____.
1) A – T 2) R – U 3) K – Q 4) T – S 5) G – M

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

78. What is the position of R with respect to U?

1) Third to the right 2) Fourth to the left 3) Second to the left
4) Fourth to the right 5) Third to the left
79. In the given number ‘72461853’, if ‘1’ is added to all the odd digits and ‘1’ is
subtracted to all the even digits, then what is the sum of the digits of which is
second from the right and third from the left?
1) 8 2) 10 3) 7 4) 9 5) 12
Direction (80-84): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born in eight different

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months viz. January, March, April, May, June, July, August and October of the
same year. Only one person was born in each month. No other person was born in
the given year.
B was born in a month having 30 days. Three people were born between B
and H. C was born immediately after H. As many people were born between E and
ha
B as between F and B. F was born after E. Only one person was born between A
and D. A was not born immediate to B. More than two people were born between F
and H.
80.
2) A

E
Who amongst the following person was born in May?
1) E 3) F 4) C 5) G
d
81. How many people were born between C and D?
1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five 5) One
82. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
ee

1) E was born immediately before G.

2) Two people were born between A and B.
3) D was born on an odd number of days.
C
4) C was born in March.
5) All the statements are true
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83. D was born in which of the following month?

1) June 2) August 3) July 4) April 5) October
84. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) A – B 2) H – G 3) C – B 4) D – E 5) B – F
Direction (85-86): In this question relationship between different elements is
C
shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
appropriate option as your answer.
85. Statements: R < L  N = Y  T < K; X  G > T  V  E = C
Conclusion I: C  N
Conclusion II: K > X
1) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) Either Conclusion I or II is true
3) Both Conclusions I and II are true 4) Only Conclusion I is true
5) Only Conclusion II is true
86. Statements: G  M = D > Y  B = H; R  N > Y  A = K  V
Conclusion I: A  H
Conclusion II: R < M
1) Only Conclusion I is true 2) Both Conclusions I and II are true
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true 4) Only Conclusion II is true
5) Either Conclusion I or II is true

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

87. If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the
first, the fifth, the sixth and the seventh letters of the word “BINOCULAR” using
each letter only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following will
be the third letter of the word so formed from the right end? If no such word can
be formed give ‘M’ as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed give
‘S’ as your answer.
1) L 2) S 3) B 4) U 5) M
Direction (88-92): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eight people - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live on four different floors of a four

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storeyed building where the lowermost floor is numbered one, the one above that
is numbered as two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as four. On each
floor there are two flats.
i. On each floor there are two flats viz. Flat P and flat Q such that flat P is
exactly to the west of flat Q.
ii.
ha
Flat P of floor numbered two is immediately above flat P of floor numbered
one. Similarly, flat Q of floor numbered three is immediately above flat Q of
floor numbered two and so on.

E
iii. Area of each flat on each floor is same.
iv. Only two people live on each floor and only one lives in each flat.
d
E lives in flat-Q but not on an odd numbered floor. Only one floor is between
E and G. C lives south-east of G. D lives north of F and south-west of B. H lives
ee

east of D. F does not live on an even numbered floor.

88. Who amongst the following person lives in flat-P of 2nd floor?
1) D 2) E 3) C 4) G 5) A
C
89. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) D lives north-west of E. 2) Two floors are between G and C.
Sr

3) H and B lives in same flat. 4) A lives west of E.

5) All the statements are true
90. B lives on which of the floor and flat?
1) 1st floor – flat-Q 2) 4th floor – flat-P 3) 2nd floor – flat-P
4) 3rd floor – flat-Q 5) 4th floor – flat-Q
C
91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) B – C 2) D – A 3) G – E 4) H – B 5) F – G
92. Who amongst the following person live north-east of A?
1) H 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) Both 1 and 3
Direction (93-97): Study the given arrangement of digits carefully to answer the
given question:
5 9 1 4 6 7 2 4 1 6 5 3 8 2 4 9 7 1 6 5 9 8 7 3 1 5 5 2 4 6 3
2 8 9 5
93. How many odd numbers are immediately followed by perfect square number
(consider 1 as a perfect square number)?
1) Seven 2) Five 3) Four 4) Six 5) Eight

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 148 / APCOB DCCB Staff Asst. MT - 31

94. How many three multiples are there in the above arrangement between the
digits which is second four multiple from right end and third two multiple from
the left end?
1) Four 2) Three 3) Five 4) Two 5) More than five
95. What will be the sum of the elements which are sixth and thirteen from right and
left respectively?
1) 13 2) 15 3) 14 4) 12 5) 11

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96. How many even numbers are there in the above arrangement which are
immediately followed by a prime number and immediately preceded by a two
multiple?
1) Two 2) None 3) Three 4) One 5) More than three
97.
ha
If all the even numbers are removed in the above arrangement, then which of the
following element is 13th from the right end?
1) 5 2) 9

E 3) 1 4) 7
Direction (98-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
5) 3
d
questions:
Amongst seven people viz. M, N, O, P, Q, R and S, each having a different
ee

weight. Only two persons are heavier than P. M is heavier than S but lighter than
Q. R is lighter than N but heavier than Q. O is just heavier than S. The second
C
heaviest person is 73kgs. The third lightest person is 42kgs.
98. How many persons are heavier than M?
Sr

1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) One 5) More than four

99. Who amongst the following person has 62kgs?
1) Q 2) Either ‘Q’ or ‘R’ 3) O
4) P 5) Either ‘P’ or ‘Q’
C
100. If the sum of the weights of M and S is 67 kgs and the sum of the weights of R and
Q is 121 kgs, then what is the difference between the weights of Q and S (in kgs)?
1) 24 2) 23 3) 21 4) 28 5) 25

KEY
1.4 2.3 3.4 4.1 5.4 6.1 7.2 8.3 9.5 10.4
11.1 12.2 13.3 14.5 15.1 16.4 17.5 18.2 19.4 20.1 SCAN QR FOR
21.5 22.1 23.2 24.3 25.4 26.5 27.1 28.4 29.5 30.3 OUR RESULTS
31.3 32.2 33.1 34.4 35.4 36.3 37.1 38.1 39.3 40.2
41.5 42.1 43.2 44.4 45.2 46.2 47.1 48.4 49.3 50.4
51.1 52.1 53.5 54.4 55.3 56.2 57.3 58.1 59.3 60.4
61.3 62.3 63.3 64.4 65.4 66.3 67.5 68.4 69.1 70.2
71.1 72.5 73.3 74.3 75.3 76.3 77.4 78.5 79.4 80.5
81.1 82.5 83.3 84.5 85.1 86.1 87.1 88.5 89.5 90.5
91.3 92.5 93.4 94.5 95.3 96.1 97.2 98.2 99.5 100.2

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