S.

NO QUESTION ANSWER OPTION A OPTION B OPTION C OPTION D ANSWER

None of the
1 Which of these is an ERP Systems? All the above SAP Oracle All the above C
above
______states that the objective of the auditor is to identify and
None of the
2 assess the risks of material misstatement whether due to fraud SA315 SA330 SA315 SA300 B
above
or error

including the including the excluding the excluding the

including the entity's
As per SA315,understanding the entity and its control entity's internal entity's external entity's internal entity's external
3 internal control A
environment means _____ control control control control
frameworks
frameworks frameworks frameworks frameworks

As per SA315,the auditor has to understand the information Financial

4 Both A & B Communication Either A or B Both A & B D
systems environment relevan to _____ reporting
In Governance Framework,The _______ is the owner of the None of the
5 IT team Business team IT team Either A or B B
application above
In Governance Framework,The _______ is the owner of the None of the
6 Business team Business team IT team Either A or B A
data residing within the application above
The communication lines are strictly drawn between the Chief
7 Information Officer and Chief Financial Officer so as to integrity confidentiality integrity availability All the above B
maintain the ____ of the data within the application
8 The risk in an automated environment are _____ many less many moderate All the above B
due to the
interfaces
number and security within
9 The risk in an automated environment may be ______ All the above between the All the above D
location of the applications
applications
applications

143,internal 143,external
In addtion to SA315,the auditor's in response to Clause (i) of 142,internal 142,external
143,internal financial financial financial
10 Sub-Section 3 of Section _____ of the Companies Act,2013,have controls system controls system B
controls system in place controls system controls system
to report whether the entity has adequate ______ in place in place
in place in place

______ deals with the auditor's respnsibility to design and

None of the
11 implement responses in the form of audit procedures in SA 330 SA 330 SA 300 SA 610 A
above
response to work done as part of SA 315.
unlisted
12 The audit procedures are required for the _______ Both A & B listed companies Either A or B Both A & B D
companies
integrated
A/An ______system inherently means that all the modules Enterprise
integrated Enterprise Enterprise Entity resource None of the
13 within the system are seamlessly connected with each other and resource B
resource planning resource planning above
the transactions flow through the relevant modules planning
planning
In ERP,____Primary set of Books are there and _____
14 one,all one,few many,all one,all many,few C
transactions reside here.

Systems
Systems distributed volume of
Which of these is not the possible reason of why substantive nature of outsourced distributed
15 within the same transactions are D
procedures may not be feasible in ERP? business processes within the same
geographies high
geographies

International International
International Standard Indian Standard Indian Standard
Standard for Standard for
16 ISAE means ______ for Assurance for Assurance for Audit B
Assurance Audit
Engagements Engagements Engagements
Engagements Engagements
Payment Payment
Payment Card Payment Card
Compliance Compliance
Payment Card Industry- Industry-Data Industry-Data
17 PCI-DSS means _____ Industry-Data Industry-Data C
Data Security Standard Security Sensitivity
Sensitivity Security
Standard Standard
Standard Standard

areas where
Involvement of CAATS may be
None of the
18 Which of the following are not the key aspects of SA 300? None of the above key team used as part of All the above D
above
members the audit
procedures

A test of controls is an _____ to test the effectiveness of a

audit None of the
19 control used by a client entity to prevent or detect material audit procuedure audit strategy audit evidence B
procuedure above
missatements

Say whether TRUE or FALSE?

20 When auditors have access to systems,Auditors should always TRUE TRUE FALSE A
request access to the production or live environment

21 The type of access that auditors request should be ______ Both A & B Display-only read-only Either A or B Both A & B D
Auditor should request for _____access for the duration of the priviliged administrative temporary
22 temporary access super user C
audit access access access
None of the
23 General IT controls are known as ____ controls Both A & B pervasive indirect Both A & B C
above
Application
Data center and system
24 Which of the following is not a category of GITC? Access control Program change Access control Network acquisition,deve B
operations lopment and
maintenance
Automated IT-Dependent None of the
25 ______ controls are embedded into IT applications Automated controls Manual controls B
controls controls above
 ______ controls are activities in a business process that are
Automated IT-Dependent None of the
26 performed by individuals or employees without the need to rely Manual controls Manual controls A
controls controls above
on a IT system
______ controls are basically manual controls that make use of
Automated IT-Dependent None of the
27 some form of data or information or report produced from IT IT-Dependent controls Manual controls C
controls controls above
system and application.
Unauthorized
Unauthorized Temporary changes to Direct data
28 Which of the following is not a risk in IT? Temporary access B
access of data access systems or changes
programs
Information
Which of the following is not essential for the effective IT-Dependent None of the
29 Manual controls produced by Manual controls B
implementation and operation of General IT controls? controls above
Entity(IPE)
History of
Which of the following are to be considered for determining the Risk
30 Risk management Types of control Timing of test errors and D
sample size management
expectations

How does IT
Have formal IT communicate
How is the Are the
Are the employees policies and and collaborate
31 Find the odd one out in the IT Governance Review Checklist? department employees D
trained procedures been with other
organised trained
defined business
functions

The objective of program changes is to ensure that modified Internal Financial None of the
32 Financial reporting Both A & B B
systmes continue to meet _____________ objectives reporting reporting above
_____ are changes required in the existing functionality of the
33 normal change Minor change major change normal change data changes C
ERP due to a business need.
______ are changes provided by the vendor of ERP to address
patches and
34 known bugs,security or provide improvements to functionality patches and updates Minor change major change Bug fixes D
updates
to existing ERP.
_____ are high risk because they bypass the application emergency direct data patches and
35 direct data changes major changes B
controls and impact the integrity of financial data changes changes updates
36 Which is the last step in change management process? documentation change request implementation testing documentation D

_______ are provided to the IT department where the systems Approved change All change Approved None of the
37 Major changes B
analysts perform analysis and design requests requests change requests above
system database netwrok
38 A priviliged user may be a _______ All the above All the above D
administrator administrator administrator
In a security log of ERP,if the system default value is OFF it None of the
39 disabled enabled disabled not defined B
indicates the table log are _____ above
Application None of the
40 Environment controls form part of the ______ of access security Physical layer Physical layer Network layer A
layer above
Data transfer Data transfer
When a company has two or more IT systems as an interface between systems between systems
41 Both A & B Either A or B Both A & B D
,what is the risk involved? may be may be
incomplete inaccurate

accuracy of completeness of the validity of

42 The objecive of AAC's are to ensure______ All the above All the above D
data data the transactions
_______ controls come along with the implemented ERP and
43 Inherent Inherent configurable security embedded A
also called as Input control
operation design control communicating
44 ________ may not prevent or detect misstatements design deficiency B
deficiency deficiency deficiency deficiency
As per ________,communicating deficiencies in internal contol
to those charged with governance and management makes it
45 SA 265 SA 315 SA 330 SA 265 SA 300 C
necessary for the auditor to communicate control deficiencies to
the management.
______ controls are implemented by the company at the time of
46 configurable Inherent configurable security embedded B
installing the ERP
47 _____ controls are also known as processing controls Both B & C Inherent configurable embedded Both B & C D
Which of the following are some basic controls in inherent depreciation discount None of the
48 Debit=Credit Debit=Credit A
controls? calculation calculation above
If the GITC's are found to be ineffective,then the auditor will
None of the
49 have to test the auomated controls _______ Balance sheet date on on closer to the Either A or B A
above
to support the opinion on internal financial controls
Do the auditor will have to mention if the deficiencies were
50 yes yes no A
present in the prior periods of audit?
to look into the to look into the
One commonly preferred method for testing design a walkthrough of the a walkthrough None of the
51 process process flow C
effectiveness is control of the control above
narratives diagrams

Entity Auditor to
Personnel to Auditor to test a perform
52 IPE is used by All the above All the above D
perform a relevant control substantive
relevant control procedures
53 The IPE can be in ___ forms 2 2 3 4 1 A
54 How many types of reports can be extracted from ERP systems 3 1 2 3 4 C
These are reports that are available at the time of Standard Customised Database None of the
55 Standard Reports A
implementation of the ERP systems by the entity Reports Reports Queries above
 These reports are created by the entities with respect to their Standard Customised Database None of the
56 Customised Reports B
businesses, revenue streams, divisions etc. Reports Reports Queries above
________ are used to retrieve information or data from a Standard Customised Database None of the
57 Database Queries C
database in a readable format using a SELECT statement Reports Reports Queries above
Standard Customised Database None of the
58 These reports are inbuilt into the systems Standard Reports A
Reports Reports Queries above
ERP comes with a set of reports that can be used as is, if the
59 company has implemented the ERP without too many TRUE TRUE FALSE A
modifications
Cash flow statement is one of the examples of Database None of the
60 Standard Standard Customised A
_________________ reports Queries above
In ___________ reports, the company has followed their own
Standard Customised Database None of the
61 pattern or code for Chart of Accounts (CoA), Vendors, Customised Reports B
Reports Reports Queries above
Customers etc.
______________ can be used to extract payroll information Standard Customised Database None of the
62 Database Queries C
such as leaves available per employee Reports Reports Queries above
Which of the following is not an element for determining the Report
63 Functions Source Data Report Logic Functions D
testing strategy for reports Parameters
Accuracy of Completeness of Accuracy of
64 Validation of Reports includes All the above All the above D
Logic Data Data
The Auditor has to check the ____________ of the data before
65 planning to understand the types of reports and the procedure integrity consistency integrity independency redundancy B
to validate them
Controls in
Controls in
The auditor may limit the test procedures to validate / test the Business
66 Both A and B GITC are Both A and B Either A or B C
reports when ________________ Processes are
effectuve
effective
Which of the folowing indicative commands will be used by the
67 All the above se16 se16n sa38 All the above D
company in SAP to generate reports?
In case of a standard report, the creator/modifier of the report finance
68 vendor vendor company IT personnel A
would be the _____________ controller
The evidence of the creator/modifier of the report can be found change
69 change management alert file backup B
in _________________ logs management
During 1st year of audit of the entity, after ensuring the
creator/modifier value of the report, the auditor needs to then controls, controls, completeness, accuracy,
70 completeness, accuracy C
understand and test the _____________ and ______________ of compliance efficiency accuracy impact
the report

During subsequent years of the audit, when GITCs and relevant

no further reliance can be
Business process controls are tested & effective, and there is no None of the
71 Both A and B testing need to placed on the Both A and B C
change in the creator/modifier value of the standard reports, above
be done report
what need to be done by the auditor?

relied upon by
relied upon by the used by the auditors
for compliance
72 Why to test the reports by the auditors? auditors during the management to during the All the above C
purposes
course of the audit make decisions course of the
audit

adopt
adopt appropriate appropriate adopt
In quarterly review of aging analysis, when report logic is controls based and controls based substantive None of the
73 Either A or B A
working correctly, what is the next step to be done? substantive audit and substantive audit above
procedures audit procedures
procedures

These reports are created by the business/IT persons in the Customised Database Standard
74 Customised Reports Other tools A
company for their use and reporting requirements Reports Queries Reports
The procedure to test the completeness and accuracy of the Standard customized
75 customized reports Both A and B Either A or B B
reports have to be performed every year in ________________ Reports reports
While testing for users who have access to create/modify the
technical
76 custom report, the auditor will have to verify whether the users authorised users end users authorised users programmers B
consultant
are __________
appropriate appropriate appropriate appropriate
If any change to the custom report has happened in the year of appropriate approvals code change date of change approvals report output
77 C
audit, then _____________ should be verified should be should be should be should be
verified verified verified verified
These reports are extracted on ad hoc basis or on as and when Standard Customised Database None of the
78 Database Queries C
basis Reports Reports Queries above
These reports have a high probability of the data being Database Standard None of the
79 Database Queries Custom Reports A
manipulated after creation Queries Reports above
controls in all controls are
controls are ineffective there are no
The auditor cannot rely on just one sample to test the domains of ineffective in all
80 in all domains of relevant C
completeness and accuracy assertions of the report when GITC's are domains of
GITC's deficiencies
effective GITC's
Inclusion of
New ERP
81 The criteria to be used to decide timing of report testing All the above Period and Company Policy All the above D
implementation
Entries
Appropriate
When GITC's are effective, the auditor needs to follow which One Sample in each One Sample in None of the
82 One Sample substantive B
sampling procedure to test a report Scenario each Scenario above
procedures
When there are deficiencies in the reports/IPE that have been
83 2 types 1 type 2 types 3 types 4 types B
tested, the errors at a minimum may be of _______
 ____________ is when a user has the ability to perform critical Authorized
84 Sensitive Access Role Responsibility Sensitive Access D
business activities in an ERP Access
The users who have the business activities that carry a higher
Authorized
85 risk and could have wider impact onoperations are said to have Sensitive Access Sensitive Access Responsibility Role A
Access
_____________

__________ refers to the separation or distribution of job roles

Segregation of
86 among employees in such a way that incompatible or conflicting Segregation of Duties Sensitive Access Roles Profiles B
Duties
job roles are assigned to different persons

___________ are typically regular employees who carry out

87 All the above Normal Users End Users Business Users All the above D
day-to-day business operations and transactions using the ERP
________ users are internally used within the ERP to perform
88 System Users Normal Users System Users End Users Business Users B
automated operations and transactions
These are a type of super users who have very extensive or
Previleged
89 unlimited access to carry out all or several activities in an ERP Previleged Users Normal Users System Users Business Users C
Users
environment
These are the users that come packaged along with the ERP Previleged
90 Default Users Normal Users System Users Default Users D
software Users
_________ represent a title, position, designation or function,
Previleged
91 place or region within a company and do not represent an Generic Users System Users Generic Users Default Users C
Users
individual or person
Temporary
92 These are users who are given user id for a limited time period Temporary Users System Users Generic Users Default Users B
Users
Temporary
93 These are users who do not belong to the company External Users System Users Generic Users External Users D
Users
94 Users access to ERP is based on _______ of respective users Both A and B Job Roles Responsibilities Either A or B Both A and B D
The relationship between ERP Roles and Users is
95 Many to Many One to Many Many to One Many to Many One to One C
__________________
___________ are access control features in an ERP that enable None of the
96 Both A and B Roles Profile Both A and B C
grouping of several related access rights in to a form above
Roles offer an easy to understand, fast and reliable way to
None of the
97 manage user access to an ERP. This feature is known as RBAC RBAC RBFC RBOC A
above
____________
None of the
98 A ________ represents a high-level grouping Role User Role Profile B
above
A _________ is the more granular internal technical grouping
99 of authorisations, permissions and access rights winin the ERP Profile User Profile Either A or B Both A and B B
based on the input derived from the Role
Segregation of duties can be implemented as _____________ None of the
100 Either A or B Preventive Detective Either A or B C
control above
Tool used in implementing and review of segregation of duties
101 All the above SAP GRC Oracle GRC BIZRights All the above D
and sensitive access
Auditing standards require auditors to obtain the evidence for full period of None of the
102 full period of audit point-in-time Either A or B B
_________ audit above
IT dependent application None of the
103 User access controls are like ________ in an ERP environment application controls GITCs C
controls controls above

should evaluate
should evaluate the should report the impact of
When an auditor found deficiencies in User Access Controls, the ignore the record the
104 impact of these deficiency to these D
auditor __________________ deficiency deficiency
deficiencies on the audit management deficiencies on
the audit

The auditor should first gain and understand the ___________

Business
105 before auditing segregation of duties and sensitive access in an Both A and B IT Environment Both A and B Either A or B C
Environment
ERP
106 ______ make it easy to manage user access to an ERP Role Role Profile SA SOD A
Reliability of user access controls in an ERP depend on IT dependent application None of the
107 GITCs GITCs A
effectiveness of __________________ controls controls above
Business rules for implementing segregation of duties should be
108 Company Auditor Company IT Consultant Government B
defined by the ________
Business
109 Which of the following is an example of Generic Users? Sales User Auditors Consultants Sales User C
Partners
Business
110 Which of the following is an example of External Users? Business Partners Auditors Support Users Sales User D
Partners
111 Which of the following is an example of Temporary Users? Auditors Auditors Vendors Sales User Customers A
SAP the purchase and inventory processes are provided in the Procurement Inventory Materials Accounts
112 Materials Management C
module known as____________. Management Management Management Management
____________Where the IT infrastructure including operating
Non-Technical Technical Non-Data
113 system,database,Network or hardware are changed but not Technical Migration Data Migration B
Migration Migration Migration
change in version or functioning of ERP.

The Key Phases in any ERP migration project will consist of Data Data Data
114 Data Conversion Data Migration A
planning,system design,________,Testing and Go Live. Conversion Convergence Configuration
In-House
115 Which of the following is example of an ERP All of the above SAP Oracle R12 All of the above D
Developed
Which of the following activity is part of the system design Allocation of Mock
116 Configuration Configuration All of the above B
phase of a migration Budget Conversion
 Allocation of Mock
117 __________ happens in Planning Phase. Allocation of Budget Configuration All of the above A
Budget Conversion
Allocation of Mock
118 ________is part of Data conversion phase. Mock Conversion Configuration All of the above C
Budget Conversion
119 How many Phases are there in data migration strategy 5 4 5 6 7 B
__________ In this phase of migration the objectives of Data
120 Planning System Design Planning Testing C
migration and the migration strategy are defined. Conversion
At which phase of the migration would rollback procedures be Data Migration
121 Go-Live Planning Go-Live C
triggered,if necessary Conversion Testing
Data Migration
122 Rollback procedure are defined in the ____________ phase. Planning Planning Go-Live B
Conversion Testing
User access and
Which of the following require specific considerations during a
123 All of the above segregation of Open items Master data All of the above D
migration.
duties

During pre-
implementation When reviewing
None of the
124 Where would auditors review migration process and controls. Both A& B /Post- general IT Both A& B C
above
implementation Controls
reivews
___________ should be prepared and maintained for all phases Allocation of Technical
125 Documentation Documentation Configuration A
of migration Budget Migration
In Oracle the purchase and inventory processes are provided in Procurement & Procurement & Material & Migration and None of the
126 A
the __________ module Inventory Inventory Inventory Inventory above
_________ can be used for implementation of a completely new Microsoft
127 QuickBooks QuickBooks Open Bravo All of the above A
accounting system. Dynamics
Information Information Information
Reports and system generated data IPE i.e._________________
128 0 processed by planned by projected by D
could change.
entity entity entity
___________phase of migration process prepares including the Data
129 System Design System Design Planning Go-Live B
process flows,data flows and business process re-engineering. Conversion
__________ phase of migration involves identification of source Data
130 Data Conversion System Design Planning Go-Live A
data,mapping between source and target system Conversion
Intermediary data stores called ____ areas are used to hold Data Mock
131 Staging Integrity Staging C
convert and transfer data. Conversion Conversion
In __________ phase integrity checks are done to ensure Data
132 Data Conversion Sysmen Design Planning Go-Live A
completeness and accuracy of data. Conversion
_____________ are carried out iteratively to rectify errors and Data Mock
133 Mock Conversion Planning Sysmen Design D
data inconsistencies. Conversion Conversion
In ______ phase scenarios and scripts are prepared for the new Data
134 Testing System Design Testing Go-Live B
system. Conversion
A_______________ project provides an opportunity to review
135 and carry forward only the relevant data and discard obsolete Migration Technical Functional Migration Accounts C
data.
The auditor may consider using the work performed by internal
136 SA 610 SA 630 SA 330 SA 310 SA 610 D
auditors in accordance with guidance given in __________
137 How many types of journal entries are there ? 3 3 2 5 4 A
_________transactions pertaining to sales, purchases,
inventory, rent, audit fees, AMC Standard Non Standard Top Down
138 Standard Entries Top up Entries A
expenses, salaries etc. are subject to internal controls as defined Entries Entries Entries
by the company.
_________these entities record nonrecurring,unusual Standard Non Standard Top Down
139 Non Standard Entries Top up Entries B
transactions or adjustment entries in the ERP’s. Entries Entries Entries
__________These entries may not be subject to the same level
Standard Non Standard Top Down
140 of rigour of the internal controls or may not have passed Non Standard Entries Top up Entries B
Entries Entries Entries
through any controls at all.
_____________are residing outside the books – for example in Standard Non Standard Top Down
141 Top up Entries Top up Entries C
excel sheets etc. and may impact the financial statements. Entries Entries Entries

If the journal entries are passed using a specific journal type Material
Manual Journal Missing Journal Match Journal Manual Journal
142 then a list of such entries can be extracted from the system. For Journal D
Vouchers Vouchers Vouchers Vouchers
example, journal types could be MJV i.e._____________ Vouchers

ERP/application should have ________ many fields and the

143 company must be entering data in these fields for them to be 17 17 18 19 20 A
extracted.

_________ the entries passed during the year to the balances in

144 the Trial Balance. The auditor may use ACL/IDEA Roll forward Roll Down Roll forward Roll Back Roll up B
Caseware/MS Access/Excel to perform __________ testing

Using tools such as ______, IDEA Caseware, MS Access, Excel

145 ACL ACL ADL ABL AGL A
etc., the auditor can test the data for completeness
__________ can also help in finding out if there are duplicate
146 All of the above ACL Ms Access CAAT All of the above D
journal numbers used.
147 ______Accounts that are used very infrequently. Seldom Unusual Intercompany Seldom Non General C

Non Standard Journal Non Stimulated Non Standard Non Sensitive Non Segregated
148 What is the expansion of NSJE__________ B
Entries Journal Entries Journal Entries Journal Entries Journal Entries
 The unusual, non-recurring transactions may generally be None of the
149 General Ledger Sub ledgers General Ledger Excel sheets B
directly entered in_________ above
Standard Non Standard None of the
150 Estimates, impairments are generally a type of__________ Non Standard journals Top up journals C
Journals journals above
SA/SOD among Timing of
While understanding the IT/ERP systems used to record Automated or
151 All of the above IT and Business passing the All of the above D
entries, the points to note are___________ Manual entries
teams entries

Personal gain Debts

Some of the fraud risk factors to note which may lead to
152 All of the above Sales Targets such as Bonus, requirements All of the above D
unusual transactions are_____
incentives etc. for banks etc.

A key factor to be kept in mind while making enquiries of Ask open ended Ask close ended No discussions Ask open ended None of the
153 C
personnel are_______ questions questions required questions above

Risk of
Risk of lack of
Risk of Material Risk of Material management Risk of lack of
154 Which is the main risk due to Non Standard Journal entries: segregation of A
misstatement misstatement override of sensitive access
duties.
controls
__________are entries that may be passed as a result of fraud.
155 Hence, this is the main risk. Another risk can also be risk of NSJE NSJE NSVE NSUE NSWE A
management override of controls.
It is possible that a Non-standard journal entry may not have None of the
156 Printed Non-Printed Printed All of the above B
relevant ____________ supporting. above
In industries/sectors, where volume of data is huge,
157 ________________ testing may not be an appropriate way of Roll forward Roll Down Roll forward Roll Back Roll up B
testing completeness of data.
______________ to be achieved may be a key fraud risk factor
Purchase Marketing Operational
158 from an investor/ stock holder perspective leading to Non- Sales Targets Sales Targets C
Targets Targets Target
standard journal entries.
_____________ to be achieved may be a key fraud risk factor Non-Debt Monetary Non-Monetary Debt
159 Debt Requirements D
from a bank/financial institution perspective. Requirements Requirements Requirements Requirements
To bring in efficiencies in the process of extraction and analysis Developer Software Hardware
160 Software Scripts Testing Scripts B
of JE data, the auditor may use ____________ Scripts Scripts Scripts
Automated Automated Automated Automated
Automated command
161 What is the expansion of ACL__________ command control corrected computer A
language
language language language language
To perform un-matched Query, minimum required tables/fields
162 two one two three four B
are
Which of the follwing wild card character is to be represent
163 * + - & * D
more than 1 characters
164 Which of the following symbol is used to write a sub query () [] () {} # B

165 The Sub query must always be written as a SQL Statement TRUE FALSE TRUE B
The where clause can be used in both aggregate and non-
166 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
aggregate query
167 Having clause is used in the aggregate query TRUE FALSE TRUE B
If the sub query is returning more than 1 row, which operator Any one of the None of the
168 Any one of the above IN ANY C
should be sued above above
169 Which of the following is an aggregate function All of the Above Sum() AVG() Count() All of the Above D
170 How many different joins available In Access Databse 3 1 3 2 4 B
In MS-Access, forms help to display, add, modify and delete
171 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
data
In Access form, un-bound coltrols are linked with any field of
172 FALSE TRUE FALSE B
Table/Query
173 In MS-Access, data can be edited in Reports FALSE FALSE TRUE A
Non of the
174 In MS-Access, Report Header is used to print information in Report Header Page Header Report Header All of the Above B
above
Non of the
175 In MS-Access, Page Header is used to print information in Page Header Page Header Report Header All of the Above A
above
parameter
176 A _______________ is a query nested inside another query sub-query select query sub-query group by query C
query
___________________ will return the records from the first Find matched Find unmatched Find unique Find duplicate
177 Find unmatched query B
table which do not have matching values in second table query query query query
other sub
178 Sub queries can be used within ______________________ All of the above select query action query All of the above D
queries
Sub queries in select statement can be the part of Where clause
179 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
or Having clause in Group By query
The queries that can be used for obtaining the aggregated
Find unmatched Find duplicate Group By Parameter
180 results instead of individual records are known as Group By queries C
queries queries queries queries
_______________
A _______________ can be considered as a modified form of
181 Pivot Table Datasheet form Pivot Table Pivot Chart Multiple items B
Crosstab queries
182 Pivot Chart helps visualize a ____________________ All of the above Pivot Table Query Form All of the above D
183 Joins created in a _______ are temporary Query Table Query Either A or B Both A and B B
The __________________ query returns all of the rows from
Right Outer
184 left table, and also those rows from the right table that share a Left Outer Join Left Outer Join Inner Join Cross Join A
Join
common value on both sides of the join
 Access query result is not restricted to the table fields but can
Unbounded Calculated Expression
185 display many other computed columns known as Calculated Fields Bounded Fields C
Fields Fields Fields
_________________
Memory None of the
186 Unbound controls are also known as ____________________ Either A or B Variables Either A or B C
Variables above
Computed results may be bounded to some field in the table or
187 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
may be unbounded
A _______________ is a compact method of presenting a list of
188 Combo box Option Button Check Box Tab Control Combo box D
choices and allows user to enter a value that is not in the list
________ controls are usually graphical objects that do not
189 operate as standalone solutions, and they run only in the Active X Add-in Plug-in Com Add-in Active X D
Windows environment
___________ controls are useful for presenting grouped
190 Tab List Box Tab Calendar Combo Box B
information that can be assembled by category
___________ can be created in forms to display a summary of Form with Sub
191 Pivot Table Pivot Table Linked form Split form A
data form
192 ______________ represents the data in a graphical form Pivot Chart Pivot Table Pivot Chart Multiple Items Modal Dialog B
The calculated values in reports are added using a
193 Text Box Label box Text Box List Box Combo box B
_____________ and specifying an expression
The calculated values in queries are displayed as _______ in
194 Fields Data Variables Fields Values C
reports which use them
______________ is a report that is inserted into another report Unbound
195 Sub-Report Bound Report Child Report Sub-Report D
called the Main report Report
An ___________ is not based on a table or query, but can serve Bound main Unbound main None of the
196 Unbound main report Main report B
as a container for one or more sub-reports report report above
197 _________ are a way of communicating database information Reports Tables Queries Forms Reports D
The best way to display the summary report is to create _____
198 Charts Pivot Table Queries Charts Sub-Report C
to represent the data
The multiple columns for the report can be set using the Report Page
199 Report Page Setup Report Wizard Report Report Print A
___________ property Setup
The report event _______________ can be used to cancel the
200 On No Data On Print Cancel Print Cancel Event On No Data D
printing of report when no data is returned
Tables & Forms &
201 Expressions can be used with ____________________ All the above Macros All the above D
Queries Reports
202 An ___________ is a value on which a calculation is performed Operand Operator Operand Expression Paranthesis B

203 Operands can be _____________ All of the above literals identifiers functions All of the above D
204 Literals are also referred as ______________ Constants Identifiers Operators Constants Operands C
205 Identifiers are ________________ Variables Variables Operators Constants Operands A
0 or any number a single a set of
206 [XYZ] denotes __________ in LIKE Operator a set of characters a single digit C
of characters character characters
The BETWEEN operator cannot be used with ______________ Either A or B or
207 Text Numeric Text Date B
datatype C
Comparison Arithmetic Miscellaneous Boolean
208 Logical Operators are also known as ___________________ Boolean Operators D
Operators Operators Operators Operators
______________ are used to override the default order of Operator None of the
209 Parentheses Orders Parentheses C
precedence Precedence above
Expression
210 A text box in which expressions are written Expression Box Code Builder Macro Builder Expression Box C
Elements
Among +, <>, MOD, AND operator which operator has the
211 MOD + MOD AND <> B
highest priority
A _________ allows you to automate tasks and add
212 Macro Function Expression Macro Module C
functionality to your forms, reports, and controls
In Access, ___________ can be considered as a simplified
213 Macros Expressions Macros Modules Switchboard B
version of VBA programming
MS Access 2010 provides a _________ that contained large list
Action Catalog
214 of actions to be chosen, enabling a wide range of commands that Action Catalog Pane Task Pane Navigation Pane Action Pane C
Pane
can be performed
Macros can automate responses to many types of __________ Either A or B or
215 events events queries controls A
without using a programming language C
The Where condition is applicable as an argument for the OpenForm, OpenTable, OpenTable, OpenQuery, OpenForm,
216 D
macro actions __________ and ___________ OpenReport OpenQuery OpenForm OpenReport OpenReport
____________ provide a good flexibility to place complex
217 Macros Query Advanced Filter Macros Switchboard C
validation
A ______________ is a Microsoft Office Access 2010 form that
Tabbed None of the
218 facilitates navigation in Access and access to different parts of Switchboard Navigation Pane Switchboard B
Windows above
an application
_______________ forms are an invaluable way to keep users
219 Switchboard Switchboard Split Columnar Pivot Table A
focused on using the database as intended
Switchboard Manager only allows a maximum of ____________
220 8 6 7 8 9 C
command buttons on a switchboard
Open Form in Edit Mode allows any record to be
221 Both A and B added edited Either A or B Both A and B D
_______________
Displaying the ______________ at startup helps to implement a
None of the
222 level of security by hiding the key elements of the interface from Switchboard Switchboard Login Form Password A
above
the user
 When same table is being used for the main query and sub- None of the
223 aliases prefix aliases suffix B
query, it is mandatory to provide __________ to the tables above
The _______ option creates a query that reports which records
Unmatched Duplicate Crosstab Group by
224 in a table are duplicated by matching one or more fields in the Duplicate Queries B
Queries Queries Queries queries
table
To calculate the count of orders placed for each product and
Pivot Table
225 arrange them in descending order of the counts, which query Total Query Sub Query Crosstab Query Total Query C
Query
should be created?
A criterion in Total queries can be created against Non-Aggregate
226 All the above Group By Aggregate Total All the above D
___________ fields Total
For the Non-Aggregate Total field, the criteria can only be
227 where where group by having order by A
specified using the ______ clause
For Group By and Aggregate Total, criteria can be mentioned
228 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
using Criteria tab of Query Design window
This is a special type of query that can be created to describe Unmatched
229 Crosstab Query Sub Query Totals Query Crosstab Query C
one numerical quantity in terms of two other fields Query
Yes, include
This option allows the inclusion of the grand total of values in Yes, include Yes, include row Yes, include
230 Yes, include row sums column grand B
the row as a column in the query result column sums sums Grand Total
total
A _______________ is a view in Access Queries that allows
231 Pivot Table Crosstab Query Totals Query Pivot Chart Pivot Table D
summarising and examining data in a datasheet form
Expansion Expansion EXtensible EXtensible
EXtensible Markup
232 XML stands for_________ Markup Makeup Markup Makeup C
Language
Language Language Language Language
233 XML is a ___________ Recommendation W3C W3C W1C W2C W4C A
234 XML is a language that’s very similar to ____________ HTML C HTML C++ JAVA B
235 XML Tag names are not case sensitive. 0 TRUE FALSE C
Document Type Document Type Data Type
236 DTD stands for ___________ Direct to Direct Data to Data B
Definition Definition Definition
237 XML Tools would be available in Add-Ins Add-Ins Developer Data Review A
238 XML data file extension is (.xml) (.xsd) (.xml) (.mlx) (.xlm) B
239 XML group available in____________Tab. Developer Review Add-Ins Developer Data C
240 XML tags are predefined FALSE TRUE FALSE B
241 Schema files extension is __________________. (.xsd) (.xml) (.xsd) (.xlm) (.mlx) B
Visual Basic for Visual Basic for Visual Basic for Visual Basic for Visual Basic for
242 VBA stands for_______________ A
Application Application Applets Apple Auto Mobile
243 Macro written in___________ Visual Basic Java Visual Basic V++ C++ B
244 Macro enabled workbook file extension is ___________ . .xlsm .xlsx .xlsm .xlsv .xlsw B
Analysis of Analysis of Analog of Analysis of
245 ANOVA stands for___________ Analysis of Variance D
Value Varity Variance Variance
246 _______function doesn’t require an argument. TODAY() DATE() TODAY() MONTH() YEAR() B

For calculation For calculation For calculation

For calculation
For calculation of of depreciation of depreciation of depreciation
of depreciation
247 SLN function is used _________________ depreciation as per as per Sum of as per Variable as per Double B
as per Straight
Straight Line Method. Years’ Digit Declining Declining
Line Method.
Method Balance Method Balance Method

For calculation For calculation For calculation

For calculation
For calculation of of depreciation of depreciation of depreciation
of depreciation
248 SYD function is used ______________________. depreciation as per Sum as per Sum of as per Variable as per Double A
as per Straight
of Years’ Digit Method Years’ Digit Declining Declining
Line Method.
Method Balance Method Balance Method

For calculation For calculation

For calculation of For calculation For calculation
of depreciation of depreciation
depreciation as per of depreciation of depreciation
249 DB function is used ______________________. as per Sum of as per Double C
Declining as per Straight as per Declining
Years’ Digit Declining
BalanceMethod. Line Method. BalanceMethod.
Method Balance Method

calculate calculate
calculate calculate
calculate depreciation depreciation as depreciation as
depreciation as depreciation as
250 DDB is used to _______________ as per Double Declining per Sum of per Double D
per Straight per Declining
Balance Method Years’ Digit Declining
Line Method. BalanceMethod.
Method Balance Method
 calculate For calculation
calculate depreciation For calculation For calculation
depreciation as of depreciation
as per Variable of depreciation of depreciation
251 VDB function is used ______________________. per Variable as per Double A
Declining Balance as per Straight as per Declining
Declining Declining
Method Line Method. BalanceMethod.
Balance Method Balance Method

Point Volume Point Varaiance Profit Volume Profit Variance

252 PV Ratio stands for _______________________ Profit Volume Ratio C
Ratio Ratio Ratio Ratio
Balance sheet Break Even Balance sheet Break Equal
253 BEP stands for __________________________ Break Even Point B
Even Point Point Equal Point Point
Excel provides a readymade template for preparation of
254 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
personal monthly budget
255 Discounting Factor formula is ___________________ = 1 / (1+r) ^ n = n / (1+a) - r = 1 + (1/r) * n = 1 / (1+a) ^ 2 = 1 / (1+r) ^ n D
256 In excel-Protect sheet option, Password is not optional. FALSE TRUE FALSE B
257 In which tab, Data Validation is available? Data Formulas Insert Data Developer C
Which of the following function categorie is not available in
258 Trignometrical Statistical Engineering Math & Trig Trignometrical D
excel
____________ is the area under the normal curve that is outside Region of Region of None of the
259 Region of uncertainty Region of curve A
of the region of certinty uncertainty certainty Above
260 Normally bank transactions are also considered in cash budget. TRUE TRUE FALSE A
planning for planning for planning for planning for
261 Budget stands for _______________________ planning for future. B
Expenditure. future. Event. Meeting.
________________ is considered as non cash expenditure and
262 Depreciation Cash Flow Depreciation Fund flow Expenditure B
occupies a prominent place in Profit & Loss Account.
Digits of the
263 what function is used for Sum of Years’ Digits? SYD SOYD SYD None C
Year

____________ method of depreciation is one of the accelerated

depreciation techniques which are based on the assumption that Sum of the
264 Sum of the years' digits SLN DB VDB D
assets are generally more productive when they are new and years' digits
their productivity decreases as they become old.

declining
265 _______method uses a fixed rate to calculate depreciation declining balance VDB SYD SLN A
balance
Virtual Variable variable
variable declining
266 VDB stands for ______________ Declining Discounting declining None C
balance
Balance Balance balance
Double
Double Declining Variable Straight Line
267 The VDB function uses the______ method by default. Declining Costing Method A
Balance Decling Balance Method
Balance
__________ stands for change in the total cost that arises when
268 marginal cost marginal cost Fixed Cost Variable cost Contribution A
the quantity produced has an increment by unit.

269 Excel can also be used for taking decision on ___________ Marginal cost Fixed Cost Marginal cost Both A& B None B
____________ is prepared for planning for future as far as Capital
270 Cash budget Cash budget Both A& B Actual Budget B
movement of cash is concerned. Budgeting
Standard
___________ is an estimate of pupulation Standard Deviation Standard none of the
271 Standard Error Standard Error population B
from data taken from a samples Deviation above
deviation
____________ is the process of determining the present value of
Marginal Capital
272 a payment or a stream of payments that is to be received in the Discounting Discounting None C
costing Budgeting
future.

____________ is one of the core principals of finance and is the

Marginal
273 primary factor used in pricing a stream of cash flows, such as Discounting Discounting PMT None B
costing
those found in a traditional bond or annuity.
Which function is used to calculate the principal portion in
274 PPMT IPMT PPMT PMT None B
every installment
________ is a process used in statistical analysis in which a
Snowball Systematic Simple random
275 predetermined number of observations will be taken from a Sampling Sampling B
sampling sampling sampling
larger population.
In this Method, Individuals are selected at regular intervals Clustered Systematic Simple random
276 Systematic sampling Sampling C
from a list of the whole population. sampling sampling sampling
In this case each individual is chosen entirely by chance and
Simple random Snowball Convenience Systematic Simple random
277 each member of the population has an equal chance, or D
sampling sampling sampling sampling sampling
probability, of being selected.
_____________________ is the area under the normal curve Region of Region of None of the
278 None of the above Region of curve D
that corresponds to the required level of confidence. uncertainty confidence above

This method is commonly used in social sciences when Snowball Simple random
279 Snowball sampling Quota Sampling Sampling C
investigating hard to reach groups. sampling sampling
It is a process in which a business determines whether projects
Business Capital
280 such as building a new plant or investing in a long-term venture Capital Budgeting IRR NPV B
Investment Budgeting
are worth pursuing.
Popular methods of capital budgeting include payback period discounted cash internal rate of net present
281 All the above All the above D
and _________________. flow return value
 _________ is the value of all future cash inflows less future cash Net present
282 Net present value Working capital IRR PMT A
outflows as on today. value
___________is the process of defining and analyzing the
Sensitivity Qualitative risk Scenario
283 dangers to individuals, businesses and government agencies Risk analysis Risk analysis B
analysis analysis analysis
posed by potential natural and human-caused adverse events.
__________ which is used more often, does not involve Qualitative risk Sensitivity Qualitative risk Scenario
284 Risk analysis C
numerical probabilities or predictions of loss. analysis analysis analysis analysis
________ are generally used to present information in a simple
285 and better way and also be used to analyse the risk in a better Charts Graphs Sparklines Both A& B Charts D
way.
It is a technique used to determine how different values of an
Decision Tree Sensitivity
286 independent variable will impact a particular dependent Sensitivity analysis Both A& B Neither A &B B
analysis analysis
variable under a given set of assumptions.
_______ involves computing different reinvestment rates for
Scenario Sensitivity Decision Tree
287 expected returns that are reinvested during the investment Scenario analysis None A
analysis analysis Analysis
horizon.
A typical value that represents all the data points is called as Arithmatic
288 Arithmatic Mean Median all the above None B
___________ Mean
__________ is a computerized mathematical technique that Personal
Finanical Monte Carlo Corporate
289 allows people to account for risk in quantitative analysis and Monte Carlo simulation Finance B
Planning simulation Planning
decision making. planning
Personal
________ is the process of meeting the financial goals through Corporate Monte Carlo Financial
290 Financial planning Finance C
the proper management of finances. planning simulation planning
planning
___________ can be defined as the process of setting the
Monte Carlo Corporate Decision Tree Sensitivity
291 procedures in the organization for achieving the predefined Corporate planning B
simulation planning analysis analysis
goals.
292 Add_in is default Tab in Excel FALSE TRUE FALSE B
293 By default all the cells in any excel sheet are locked. TRUE TRUE FALSE A
Total Number of Total Principal Total Interest Total Number
294 NPER stands for______________________________ Per value D
Periods Value Value of Periods
A __________ is a series of commands and functions that are
295 stored in a Microsoft Visual Basic module and can be run Macro Pivot Table Solver Scenario Macro D
whenever the user need to perform the task
296 Consolidate is a What-If Analysis Tool. FALSE TRUE FALSE B
Which function that is used to calculate the payment for specific none of the
297 pmt sumif pmt countif B
loan terms ____________ above
wild card none of the
298 _________ are not allowed in a macro name spaces spaces symbols A
characters above
The wizard that is used to create and edit charts pivot table convert text to
299 chart wizard chart wizard tip wizard B
_______________ wizard columns wizard
Which one of the following will be the tool that provides a way
300 to view and compare the results of all the different variations Data table. Goal seek Pivot table Solver Data table. D
together on the worksheet ?
The ______ generates a summarised report in tabular form in Scenario
301 Pivot table Data table Pivot table Solver B
an interactive manner Manager
The _________ wizard separates contents in a cell into different convert text to columns text import convert text to
302 tip wizard function wizard B
cells wizard wizard columns wizard
A cell reference that does not change during a copy operation is
303 absolute absolute relative mixed constant A
known as ________ .
What-if
304 Circle Invalid Data option is available in ____________ Data Validation Consolidate Calculate Sheet Data Validation D
Analysis
The wizard that is used to import text files text import convert text to
305 text import wizard tip wizard function wizard A
is_________________ wizard columns wizard
A ___________ is a summary of the financial position of a
Income &
306 business at a specific point in time, showing all assets, liabilities, Balance Sheet Balance Sheet Profit & Loss None A
Expenditure
and equity.
This ratio shows ability of company to pay back long term loans
Debt Assets Interest Total Fund
307 along with interest or other charges from generation of profit Interest Coverage Ratio None B
Ratio Coverage Ratio Ration
from its operations
Which ratio indicate efficiency with which company used its Return on Interest Total Fund Net Profit
308 Return on Investment A
capital ( Equity as well as debt) Investment Coverage Ratio Ration Margin Ratio

It is the simplest method of comparing different stocks at a Earnings Per Fixed Asset Price Earnings Gross Profit
309 Price Earnings Multiple C
point of time to make investment decisions share Over ratio Multiple Ratio
Du Point Return on Profitability
310 ________helps to break down the Return on Equity Du Point Analysis None A
Analysis Investment Ration
_______ is a common method for financing property, facilities,
311 Leasing Mortagage Leasing Rent All the above B
and equipment.
None of the
312 xml schema file extention is _______ .xsd .xml .xmd .xsd C
Above
313 In hypothesis test, when we can reject the H0(Null Hypothesis) p-value<= a p-value> a p-value>=a p-value< a p-value<= a D

In Hypothesis test, when we can reject the H1 (alternate Test statistic < critical Test statistic >= Test statistic Test statistic <
314 p-value<= a C
hypothesis) value critical value <=critical value critical value
 A product is purchased for Rs 400000, the salvage value of the
product is 50000 after 10 years. Now I want to findout the VDB(400000,50000,10, VDB(400000,50 VDB(400000,50 VDB(50000,400 VDB(50000,400
315 A
depreciation value of first 4 years. In the given following which 1,4) 000,10,1,4) 000,1,4) 000,10,4) 000,10,1,4)
would be the currect function.
316 In VDB function what is the "factor" if it is omitted? 2 4 1 3 2 D
when the stright
line
depreciation is "no_switch"
When VDB function calculate the depreciation by using Stright
317 Both A and B greater than the argument is Both A and B either A or B C
line method?
declining 'FALSE'
balance
calculation.

A machine was purchased for Rs.1000000 in EMI at 8%

PMT(8%,5,- PMT(8%/12,60, PMT(8%,60,-
interest rate. Planned to repay the loan in 5 Years. In total cost PMT(8%/12,60,100000 PMT(8%,60,10
318 1000000,100000 1000000,- 1000000,100000 C
Rs.100000 paid at the time of purchase . What is the correct 0,-100000,1) 00000,100000,0)
,1) 100000,1) ,0)
function to calculate the monthly installment amount.

A businessman planned to get a loan Rs.1800000. If he get a

loan at 8% interest for 6 years, Monthly Installment will be
scenario None of the
319 Rs.31599.83. he calculate the same for various interest rates Data Table Goal seek Data Table C
manager Above
and loan repayment periods. Which Excel option will you
suggest to him to make it easy.

In Data table, at a time how many arguments maximum can be

320 2 3 1 4 2 D
used for analysis?

In a business, Intial cost of investment one year from today is

Rs.10000, return from 1st yeare is 3000, from 2nd year Rs.4200 NPV(10%,1000 NPV(10,-10000,- NPV(10%,- NPV(10%,-
NPV(10%,-
321 and from third year Rs.6800. Annual discount rate is 10%. 0,3000,4200,680 3000,-4200,- 10000,6800,420 10000,3000,420 D
10000,3000,4200,6800)
Then to find Net Present Value of this investment what would 0) 6800) 0,3000) 0,6800)
be the correct function in the given following?

322 ______ file cannot be easily converted into Excel PDF XML CSV PDF TEXT C
______ function is used to calculate the present values of all
323 NPV FV PV NPV IRR C
future cashflows.
324 _____ is the rate of discounting at which NPV=0 IRR FV PV NPV IRR D
If Guess parameter is not specified by the user in IRR,Excel
325 0.1 0.09 0.14 0.1 0.13 C
assumes it to be ___
In case if the cash flows occur unevenly,then we may use ____ None of the
326 XNPV & XIRR PV & IRR XNPV & XIRR NPV & IRR B
and ____ in excel above
_____ Function is used for calculating depreciation as per None of the
327 DB SLN DB All the Above B
Written Down Value Method above
_______ Function can be used while verifying depreciation None of the
328 DB DB SLN All the Above A
expense claimed by the auditee above
None of the
329 _____ Function is used for calculationg maturity dates None of the above Date Month NetworkDays D
above
In EOMONTH() , if the second argument(months) is defined as None of the
330 after 2 months before 2 months after 2 months #N/A B
2 it will yield month end date ______ above
Will the EOMONTH() will take the leap year factor into
331 YES YES NO A
account?
EDATE() returns the date with the _____ which is specified None of the
332 same day Next day previous day same day C
number of months before and after the start date. above
EDATE() can be used to derive schedule of dates at
333 equal unequal equal Either A or B Neither A or B B
_____intervals
Which of these is/are mandatory arguments in
334 Both A & B start date end date Either A or B Both A & B D
NETWORKDAYS()?
excluding including
In NETWORKDAYS(), holidays argument will contain the excluding Saturday & None of the
335 Saturday & Saturday & A
holidays list______ Sunday above
Sunday Sunday
Which of these function can be used,If we had to calculate the
NETWORKDA [Link] [Link] None of the
336 working days where the weekends are treated as Friday and None of the above D
YS() T() TR() above
Saturday?
None of the
337 The output of WORKDAY() will be a ______ Date Number Date Number or Date B
above
In WORKDAY(),if we want to go backwards and derive a date None of the
338 Negative Zero Positive Negative C
in the past,then we must specify days as_____ above
If you wish to obtain the days remaining after casting out None of the
339 MOD() QUOTIENT() MOD() Either A or B B
completed weeks,then which of these function can be used? above
If you wish to obtain the completed weeks,then which of these None of the
340 QUOTIENT() QUOTIENT() MOD() Either A or B A
function can be used? above
Which of these operator can be used for joining two or more
341 ampersand comma ampersand space hash B
text strings together?
342 Can we perform a non case-sensitive comparison? YES YES NO A
343 _____searches for a value in first column of data/table array Vlookup Hlookup Vlookup Match Index B
In VLOOKUP(),the search of the lookup value is performed in
344 Left Left Right Either A or B Neither A or B A
the ____ most colum of the table array
 The search is The column
Lookup value is always index number All the four
All the four arguments
the value which performed in should be the arguments are
345 Which of these is incorrect with respect to VLOOKUP()? are mandatory D
is to be searched the leftmost relative position mandatory
arguments
in table array column of the of the respect arguments
tavle array column

In VLOOKUP(),if the lookup_value being searched in a APPROXIMATE EXACT APPROXIMAT

346 Either A or B Neither A or B B
slab/range of numbers then_____should be used MATCH MATCH E MATCH
While using Approximate match type in VLOOKUP(),the table descending
347 ascending order ascending order Either A or B Neither A or B A
should be sorted in ______ on the basis of the leftmost column. order
col_index_numb row_index_num
348 Which of these is not an argument in HLOOKUP()? Both A & B lookup_array Both A & B D
er ber
______function returns the value or reference at the
349 Index Hlookup Vlookup Match Index D
intersection of a specified row and column,from an array.
None of the
350 Which of the following is an optional argument in MATCH()? match type Lookup value lookup array match type C
above
multiple rows or
Only one one row or one
351 Lookup array means you can select ______ one row or one column Only one row multiple C
column column
columns
If we need to perform right to left lookup in a table,then _____
352 Both A or B INDEX() MATCH() Both A or B Either A or B C
can be used

The processing
requirement is
Which of the following is not an advantage of Index match It performs left to right It performs left It can also be It avoids data
353 lower as A
combination? lookup to right lookup used as Hlookup redundancy
compared to
Vlookup

354 _____ returns the reference specified by a text INDIRECT() INDEX() MATCH() INDIRECT() All the above C
355 IFERROR() is a brilliant function introduced in Excel _____ 2007 2010 2007 2013 2003 B
In IFERROR(),value if error argument will be executed if value
356 #VALUE? #REF! #VALUE? #N/A #DIV/0! B
argument generates _____
None of the
357 Countblank function is the reverse of _____function COUNTA() COUNTA() COUNTIFS() COUNTIF() A
above
where data
Countblank could be used in detectinig cells which have None of the
358 Both A & B remained blank entry is Both A & B C
inadverently _________ above
incomplete
_____ function returns the kth largest number from a list of None of the
359 LARGE MAX LARGE Either A or B B
numbers. above
Which of these helps us to understand the interelationship Trace Trace
360 Both A & B Either A or B Both A & B D
between the cells Precedents Dependents
If the cell is deleted without bothering about tracing its None of the
361 #REF! #NAME? #N/A #REF! C
dependents,then the resultant cell will carry _______ error above
Trace Trace
362 _____ is a dedicated tool for tracking down the errors Error Checking Go to special Error Checking D
Dependents Precedents
Error checking feature will not identify errors in the
363 logic syntax logic Either A or B Both A & B B
____behind formula construction
If we want a quick evaluation of only one of the parts of the Evaluate
364 F9 F9 Either A or B Both A & B B
formula,we can make use of ____ formula
365 Which of these operators will be executed 2nd in Excel? Exponents Brackets Addition Exponents Division C
By using Conditional Formatiing,you can hghlight cells
366 Both A & B duplicate unique Either A or B Both A & B D
containing _____values
367 Remove Duplicates is introduced in Excel___ 2007 2010 2007 2003 2013 B
368 In Excel,Using Number Filters,We cannot extract______ values Bottom 10 Top 10 Bottom 10 Above Average Below Average B
In Date Filter, all dates in the period option helps to obtain
369 All the above months quarters years All the above D
records for different____
For using Pivot tables,we need to have a dataset in ______
370 Either A or B rectagular flat Either A or B Neither A or B C
format
371 In Excel,Which of the following is not a field in Pivot Table? Filter field Report Filter Column Labels Row Labels Filter field D
Which of the following cannot be computed in value fields of
372 large large max min sum A
pivot table?
Say whether TRUE or FALSE
373 FALSE TRUE FALSE B
In Pivot table, we cannot eliminate blank cell from data section

We cannot If the number of Pivot Tables

Pivot Tables Update insert rows or records are Update
374 Which of the following is not a limitation of Pivot Table? themselves,We neednot columns in very large,Pivot themselves,We All the above C
refresh them between a Pivot table may neednot refresh
Table report respond slowly them

If we want a list of the missing invoice numbers,we can make None of the
375 VLOOKUP() VLOOKUP() MATCH() INDEX() A
use of _______ above
[Link] None of the
376 Benford's law was propounded by _____ Frank Benford Frank Benford Mark Benford B
Nigrini above
377 Benford's Law is also known as law of _____digit first second first third last B
 As per Benford's law,Conventional probability says that the
None of the
378 probability of a particular digit being the 1st digit of a number None of the above 0.2222 0.3333 0 D
above
is ____
Benford observed that the probability of 1st digit being 9 is the None of the
379 least highest least most probable B
____ among all digits above
Stratification involves breaking _____ data into _____ groups heterogeneous,homogen heterogeneous,h homogeneous,he humongous,hom None of the
380 A
called as strata eous omogeneous terogeneous ogeneous above
381 Which of the following is not a result of descriptive statistics? MOD MEAN MEDIAN MOD LARGE C
An _____________ is a group of people with a common goal,
382 having certain resources at its disposal to achieve the common Enterprise Company Enterprise Organization Concern B
goal
________________ include money, manpower, materials,
383 Resources Costing Production Sales Resources D
machines, technologies etc.
A _______________ is a collection of activities that make one or
Business Business Business
384 more kinds of input and creates an output that is of value to the Business Process Business Model C
Function Process Operation
customer

Information systems can be designed so that accurate and Integrated Isolated Non-Integrated Non-Isolated
Integrated Information
385 timely data are shared between functional areas. These systems Information Information Information Information A
Systems
are called _______________________________ Systems Systems Systems Systems

The approach to ERP is to first develop a

Business Business Business
386 ____________________ comprising the business processes or Business Model Business Model A
Function Process Operation
activities that are the essence of a business
The business model is represented in the graphical form using flowcharts, flow smart art, clip flowcharts, flow
387 charts, pictures graphs, shapes C
______________ and ________________ diagrams art diagrams
Online Online
Online Analytical Online Analysis None of the
388 OLAP stands for _________________ Analytical Analytical B
Processing Processing above
Processing Programming

________________ is a tool that refers to skills, processes,

Data Business Business
389 technologies, applications and practices used to facilitate better, Business Intelligence Data Modeling D
Warehousing Modeling Intelligence
accurate and quicker decision making

Integrated Decision Non-Isolated

Business Intelligence Systems are data-driven Decision Support Information
390 Information Support Information C
___________________ Systems Systems
Systems Systems Systems
___________________ technology is the process of creating and Data Business Business
391 Data Warehousing Data Modeling A
utilizing the company's historical data Warehousing Modeling Intelligence
______________ can be defined as subject-oriented,
Data Operational
392 integrated, time-variant, non-volatile collections of data used to Data Warehouses Data Models Data Mines B
Warehouses Data
support analytical decision making
________________ databases contain detailed data that is
Non- Subject-
393 needed to satisfy processing requirements but which has no Operational Operational Informational A
Operational Oriented
relevance to management or analysis
Data in the Data Warehouse is ______________, not Non-Volatile,
394 Static, Dynamic Dynamic, Static Volatile, Static Static, Dynamic D
____________ Static
Operational Optional Data Operational Optional Data
395 ODS stands for _______________________________ Operational Data Store C
Data Storage Storage Data Store Store
____________ data contains an historical perspective that is not Informational, Operational, Operational, Informational, Informational,
396 D
generally used by the _____________ systems Operational Informational Static Static Operational

Establishing a
Identifying and Defining the
data warehouse
prioritizing correct level of
help desk and
subject areas to summarization
397 Which of the following is/are the data warehousing activity? All of the above training users to All of the above D
be included in to support
effectively
the Data business
utilize the
Warehouse decision making
desktop tools

The definition of data elements in the data warehouse and in the

398 data sources, and the transformation rules that relate them, are Metadata Masterdata Detaileddata Metadata Basedata C
referred to as ___________
Data warehouses are not the optimal environment for
399 Unstructured Structured Unstructured Informational Operational B
____________ data
400 Maintenance Costs are high for Data Warehousing TRUE TRUE FALSE A
Credit Card Insurance Logistics
401 Data Warehousing can be used for All of the above All of the above D
Churn Analysis Fraud Analysis Management
_________________ is the process of extracting patterns from Data
402 Data Mining Data Analysis Data Mining Data Modeling C
data Warehousing
Business Online Product Life
___________________ is an approach to quickly answer multi- Online Analytical Supply Chain
403 Processing Analytical Cycle B
dimensional analytical queries Processing Management
Management Processing Management
The Output of an OLAP query is typically displayed in a
404 Matrix Matrix Columnar Stepped Outline A
___________ format
Business Online Product Life
___________________ is the succession of strategies used by Product Life Cycle Supply Chain
405 Processing Analytical Cycle C
management as a product goes through its life cycle Management Management
Management Processing Management

A _____________ is a network of facilities and distribution

options that performs the functions of procurement of
Online Analysis Business Product Life
406 materials, transformations of these materials into intermediate Supply Chain Supply Chain C
Processing Processing Cycle
and finished products and the distribution of these finished
products to the customer
 _______ integrates supply and demand mangement within and
407 SCM BPM SCM PLM CRM B
across companies
__________ includes transportation from Suppliers and Inbound Outbound Sourcing Production
408 Inbound Operations A
receiving inventory Operations Operations planning planning
Asset
409 Which of the following is not the service area of SCM? CRM Logistics PLM CRM D
Management
______________ CRM provides support to "front office" Consumer
410 Operational Operational Analytical Social A
business processes Relationship
_____________ CRM covers aspects of a company's dealings
Consumer
411 with customers that are handled by various departments within Collaborative Operational Collaborative Social B
Relationship
a company, such as sales, technical support and marketing
Really simple Really simple Really super Rare simple Rare super
412 RSS stands for _____________________ A
syndication syndication syndication syndication syndication
Revenue on Return on None of the
413 ROI stands for _____________________ Return on Investment Both A & B B
Investment Investment above
______________ companies is planning to support tens of
414 B2C B2B B2C C2B C2C B
millions of customers with just hundreds of employees
Network as Architecture of None of the
415 Which of the following is the decisive feature of the framework? Both A & B Both A & B C
platform participation above
Unsuitable for
Increased Legal
416 Which of the following is the limitation of Open Source ERP? All of the above conventional All of the above D
Complexities Complexities
applications
417 Which of the following is not an Open ERP software? Open-Project Openbravo SQL-Ledger Open-Project ERP5ERP C
_____ is the process of integrating all the business functions and None of the
418 ERP EDI ERP BPM B
processes in an organization to achieve numerous benefits above
________ must consider the fundamental issues of system Top
Either A or B or
419 integration by analyzing the organization's vision and corporate Manager Manager Auditor Management A
C
objectives Commitment
ERP ________________ requires organizations to reengineer
their key business processes reengineering of the existing
None of the
420 processes, integration of ERP with other business information Implementation Traps Security Audit Implementation C
above
systems, selection of right employees, and training of employees
on the new system
The more the number of __________, the longer the
421 units modules process package units D
implementation time
In which step of the ERP implementation, educating and
422 Step 2 Step 1 Step 2 Step 3 Step 4 B
recruiting end users will be involved
The system ____________ process will address issues such as
423 software configuration, hardware acquisition and software installation implementation upgradation installation migration C
testing
A __________________ review is recommended to ensure that
pre under process post None of the
424 all business objectives established during the planning phase post implementation C
implementation review implementation above
are achieved
In _________________ stages, auditors have access to
post pre
425 rudimentary ERP tools and capabilities for auditing security post implementation Both A & B Either A Or B A
implementation implementation
configurations
Customization of ERP systems is one of the major challenges in
426 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
auditing ERP security
__________ is the World's one of the fastest and most powerful
None of the
427 concurrent multi-lingual business accounting and inventory [Link] 9 Tally [Link] 9 Both A & B B
above
management software
Immediate posting and updation of books of accounts as soon as Interactive Immediate Real Time Business
428 Real Time Processing C
the transactions are entered. This is called as __________ Processing Processing Processing Processing
[Link] 9 provides graphical analysis of data which helps the
429 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
user to perform deeper analysis
The user can ________ the company data into multiple
430 Split Import Export Split Backup C
companies as per financial periods required
E-Filing of Returns refers to the process of electronically filing Any of the
431 Internet Intranet Internet Extranet B
your tax returns through the ___________ above

Select Alt+E
from the
We can fill up
required
the details
Return/Form/A
432 Which of the following is true? Either A or B online and Either A or B Neither A Nor B C
nnexure to
submit eVAT
export to .xls
returns
format and then
upload the same

[Link] 9 does not allows you to export the ETDS forms in

433 NSDL compliant formats as well as facilitates printing of TDS FALSE TRUE FALSE B
Forms in Physical Form. True or False
Form 26Q,
Which of the following ETDS forms are available in [Link] Form 26, Form 27,
434 All of the above Annexure to All of the above D
9? Annexure to 26 Annexure to 27
26Q
The exported eTDS file from [Link] 9 can be validated
File Validation File Validation File Valuation File Valuation
435 through NSDL's freely downloadable utility called File Validation Utility B
Program Utility Program Utility
__________________
 The ETCS forms available in [Link] 9 are _________ and
436 Form 27E Form 27E Form 27 Form 26 All of the above A
____________
[Link] 9 allows accounting with the regular names without
437 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
any account codes
A multi-user version of [Link] 9 can be installed on a
network, having any number of computers with different
438 TRUE TRUE FALSE A
operating systems such as win 95, 98, NT, 2000, XP, Vista,
Windows 7, Windows 8, etc.,
With ______________ technology the characters are reduced in
breadth and user is allowed to input additional characters
439 Tally Fit Tally Fix Tally Adjust Tally Fit Tally AutoFit C
which would make the account name, entity complete and
readable
The [Link] 9 __________________ provides the user with
HTTP-XML
administrator rights and the capability to check the entries User-defined Unlimited multi-
440 Audit Feature based data Audit Feature D
made by the authorised users and alter these entries, if Security user support
interchange
necessary
[Link] 9 offers a data encryption option called Tally Data Tally Data Tally Data
441 Tally Vault Tally Vault C
_______________ Encryption Encoding Conversion
Oracle Oracle
Open Database Open Database Open Database
442 ODBC stands for ___________________________ Database Database B
Connectivity Connection Connectivity
Connection Connectivity
___________________ is the process of exchanging [Link] 9 Asynchronizatio
443 Synchronization Serialization Randomization Synchronization C
data between two or more locations n
444 Which of the following is the not the previous version of Tally? Tally 6.4 Tally 4.5 Tally 6.4 Tally 7.2 Tally 8.1 B
445 Can data of new version be migrated to old version? No Yes No B
The Tally website offers _______________, by which a user can
446 communicate with a Tally representative and get required Tally Chat Tally Forum Tally FAQ Tally Support Tally Chat D
information

__________________ is an enabling framework which

Direct Web
447 establishes a connection through which the remote user can [Link] Web Publishing [Link] Email facility C
Browser Access
access the Client's data without copying/transferring the data
[Link] use _______________ for centralised Account Administration
448 Control Centre Data Centre Control Centre Cloud Centre B
Management Centre
The data is transferred between the remote location and the
449 Encryption Encoding Decoding Encryption Decryption C
server using a secured mechanism called __________________

_____________ works as an interface between the user and

[Link] 9 installed at different sites, it enables the user to Administration
450 Control Centre Control Centre Data Centre Cloud Centre A
centrally configure and administer site / user belonging to an Centre
account
A chartered accountant as an __________________ is exposed
to various operational risk factors viz., time, increasing travel
451 Entrepreneur Administrator Auditor Expert Entrepreneur D
& people costs, limited availability of skilled manpower, intense
audit periods
The ____________ edition provides the Chartered Accountants
with Tax Audit and Statutory Compliance tools which equips Educational
452 Auditor Silver Gold Auditor D
him/her to retrieve the required information on the basis on Mode
which he form an opinion
Generate Annexure for Tax Audit under Sec _____ using
453 Auditors' Edition of [Link] 9, a Chartered Accountant can 44AB 44A 44B 44AB Both A & B C
provide services to their clients

Concurrent Data Reliability

Which of the following is one of the Technological Features in Data Reliability and Real time Accounting
454 multi-lingual and Automatic C
[Link] 9? Automatic Recovery processing without Codes
capability Recovery

Which of the following is one of the salient features of Codeless user Graphical Split Company
455 Scalability Scalability D
[Link] 9? interface analysis of data Data
Configuring
To utilize [Link] in [Link] 9, which of the following is Creating Authorizing
456 All of the above [Link] All of the above D
the pre-requisite? Remote Users Remote Users
features
457 What is the short cut key for [Link] features? F4 F1 F2 F3 F4 D
Which of the following will be displayed in the List of
458 All of the above Company Name Account ID Serial Number All of the above D
Companies screen?
If we want the company to be connected automatically for Allow to
Contact On None of the
459 remote access on load, the property __________ needs to be set Contact On Load Connect Either A or B B
Load above
it as Yes Company
Allow to
In order to enable [Link] in [Link] 9, the ___________ Enable Contact On Security
460 Security Controls Connect C
needs to be set to "Yes" [Link] Load Controls
Company
A message "Company connected successfully" is displayed in
461 Calculator Calculator Version License Configuration A
the ________________ panel
The remote users are broadly classified into _____ security
462 two two three four five A
levels
To create Remote Users, the security level should be None of the
463 Standard User Owner Standard User Either A or B B
_________________ above
None of the
464 [Link] ID has to be a valid _________ only Email ID Account ID User Name Email ID C
above
______________ enables the user to centrally configure and Administration
465 Control Centre Data Centre Control Centre Cloud Centre B
administer Site / User belonging to an account Centre
 Surrender,
Confirm or Manage Jobs Create users
466 Which of the following is the advantage of the Control Centre? All of the above Reject and with predefined All of the above D
activation of a Recruitments security levels
site
Which of the following is not the predefined security levels in [Link] [Link]
467 [Link] Owner Owner [Link] User C
[Link] 9? Owner Auditor
The Account _________________ is authorised to surrender,
468 confirm a site license or Reject the request received on Administrator Administrator Owner Auditor User A
activation from another site
On starting [Link] 9 the Gateway of Tally screen appears
displaying the Edition and Users are under Version block, and Information None of the
469 Information Panel Horizontal Bar Vertical Bar B
the Serial Number and Account ID under License block of the Panel above
______________

______________________ enables user to enter the essential User Change Account Profile Licensing &
470 Profile Management C
information related to the Account/Site ID Management Admin Management Configuration

_______________ enables user to change the Account User Change Account Profile Licensing &
471 Change Account Admin B
Administrator's ID Management Admin Management Configuration
Want to set can be Want to set
Set ___________________ to "Yes" to create a fresh set of Enable ODBC None of the
472 client/server overridden client/server C
configuration Server above
configuration locally configuration
Alter Account Manage
473 Which one of the following is not an access right? Manage Passwords Manage Sites Manage Users D
Admin Passwords
[Link] [Link]
[Link] [Link] [Link]
474 _________________ should be set to "No" for local users Auditor Auditor B
Authentication Authorisation Authentication
Authorisation Authentication
WEIGHTAGE OF EXAM
Weightage
Subje No. of Que. In
[Link] No. of Que. Given Weightage Hrs based on no. of
cts Exam
hours
Auditi
ng in
an
ERP 1-161 161 54 27 24 26.66666667
Envir
onme
nt
Adva
nced
162-231 70 26 13 12 13.33333333
DBM
S
Adva
nced 232-321 90 40 20 18 20
Excel
Excel
as an
322-381 60 40 20 18 20
audit
tool
ERP 382-474 93 40 20 18 20
474 200 100 90 100
1) Forensic Accounting is defined as:
a. The practice of applying defined financial ratios to investigate a company’s
financial health.
b. The use of law enforcement to subpoena financial records to determine
unlawful actions.
c. The application of investigative and analytical skills for the purpose of
resolving financial issues in a manner that meets standards required
by courts of law.
d. The investigatory arm of the Securities and Exchange Commission.

2) If your actions are the result of misleading, intentional actions or inaction

(including misleading statements and the omission of relevant information to
gain an advantage, then you have committed:
a. Perjury.
b. Contempt.
c. Treason.
d. Fraud.

3) When the auditor tests the documents by keeping them side by side then it is
known as
a. Test of impossibility
b. Test of absurdity
c. Juxtaposition test
d. None of the above

4) As per the study of ACFE, following category of individuals commit highest

frauds (in monetary terms)
a. Low level management
b. Mid level management
 c. Senior level management
d. All of the above

5) ___________ are the elements of fraud

a. The individual must know that the statement is untrue
b. There is an intent to deceive the victim
c. The victim relied on the statement & The victim is injured financially or
otherwise
d. All of the above

6) A type of fraud where forged emails, forged websites are used to defraud the
user are known as
a. E frauds
b. Forgery
c. Phishing
d. None of the above.

7) _________ happens when the fraudster avails multiple loans for the same
property simultaneously for a total amount in excess of the actual value of the
property.
a. Phishing
b. Window dressing
c. Shot gunning
d. Skimming

8) Pressure, opportunity & _________ are the aspects of a fraud triangle.

a. Rationalization
b. Creation
c. Commitment
d. None of the above

9) A _________ is termed as an indication of a danger or a warning signal

a. Red flag
b. Green flag
c. Amber flag
d. White flag
10) A ________ is a flag which denotes a “too good to be true scenario”.
a. Red flag
b. Green flag
c. Amber flag
d. White flag

11) Significant increase in working capital borrowing as a percentage of turnover

is a
a Red flag
b. Green flag
c. Amber flag
d. White flag

12) A case where an employee doesn't take travel advance but always pays from
his pocket is a
a. Red flag
b. Green flag
c. Amber flag
d. White flag

13) Analysing non verbal cues is important for a forensic auditor while
a. Interviewing a suspect
b. Interrogating a suspect
c. a & b both
d. None of the above

14) A model categorizing known frauds which lists about 49 different individual
fraud schemes grouped by categories and sub categories is known as
a. Fraud triangle
b. Fraud square
c. Fraud model
d. Fraud tree

15) When the fraudster is able to give a personal justification of dishonest actions,
it is known as
a. Pressure
 b. opportunity
c. rationalization
d. All of the above

16) Various frauds in banking sector are:

a. Appraisal fraud
b. Mortgage fraud
c. Shot gunning
d. All of the above

17) Fraudsters may alter cheques to change the name or the amount on the face of
cheques. This is called
a. Phishing
b. Forgery
c. Disbursement fraud
d. Skimming

18) Ratio analysis is one of the key aspects which a forensic auditor has to look
at.
a. Correct
b. Incorrect

19) The principle of 3D vision includes

a. Time dimension analysis
b. Space dimension analysis
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

20) “Fraud is a deliberate act of omission or commission by any person, carried

out in the course of a banking transaction or in the books of accounts
maintained manually or under computer system in banks, resulting into
wrongful gain to any person for a temporary period or otherwise, with or
without any monetary loss to the bank” is a definition given by:
a. SEBI
b. RBI
c. ICAI
d. ACFE
21) Which of the following is a method used to embezzle money a small amount
at a time from many different accounts?
a. Data diddling
b. Pretexting
c. Spoofing
d. Salami technique
22) Payment to vendors who are not on approval list is a
a. Management red flag
b. Red flag in purchase
c. Red flag in payroll
d. Red flag in AR

23) Theftof an employer’s property which was not entrusted to employee will be
defined as:
a. Lapping
b. Larceny
c. Check Kitting
d. None of the above

24) Weakness in internal control environment will lead which kind of fraud-
a. Employee Red Flag
b. Management Red Flag
c. General Red Flag
d. None of above

25) _______________ is the practice of concealing a file, message, image, or

video within another file, message, image, or video.
a. Imaging
b. Encryption
c. Steganography
d. Data hiding

26) Thebasic principles used in identifying red flags are:

a. Distrust the obvious
b. 3 D vision
 c. Inverse logic
d. All of the above

27) The purpose of the Red Flags Rule is:

a. To detect the warning signs – or “red flags” – of identity theft in day-to-
day operations
b. Take steps to prevent the crime
c. Mitigate the damage it inflicts.
d. All of the above

28) Which among the following are the three payroll fraud schemes
a. Ghost employees
b. Falsifying wages
c. Falsifying commission
d. All of the above
29) Stealing money from one customer’s account and crediting it into another
customer’s account is known as:
a. Larceny
b. Skimming
c. Lapping
d. None of the above

30) Which of the following scheme referes to the falsification of personnel or

payroll records, causing paychecks to be generated to someone who does not
actually work for the victim company?
a. Falsified Salary scheme
b. Record alteration scheme
c. Ghost employee scheme
d. Inflated commission scheme

31) The main difference between forgery and cheating is that

a. In cheating, the deception is in writing whereas in forgery it is oral
b. Deception can be described as merely the means whereas, the end being
forgery
c. In cheating the deception is oral while in forgery it is in writing
d. None of the above
32) Why Do People Commit Financial Statement Fraud
a. To conceal true business performance
b. To preserve personal status/control
c. To maintain personal income/wealth
d. All the above

33) The interrelationship among auditing, fraud examination, and financial

forensics is:
a. Established and maintained by legal structures and justice processes
b. Constant even while social and cultural pressures are exerted on it
c. Cased on the SOX Act and SAS 99
d. Dynamic and changes over time

34) Financial statement fraud is easiest to commit in organizations that:

a. have democratic leadership.
b. have a large internal audit department.
c. have a board of directors comprised primarily of outsiders.
d. have complex organizational structures.

35) The process by which several bidders conspire to split contracts up and ensure
each gets a certain amount of work is called
a. Bid pooling
b. Fictitious suppliers
c. Kickback payments
d. Bidding agreements

36) Which of the following types of organizations typically use Forensic

Accountants?
a. Publicly held corporations.
b. Private/non-profit corporations.
c. Federal/State Agencies.
d. All of the above.

37) RedFlag procedures must be implemented by individual departments. That

means:
a. The procedures just have to be written and accessible to everyone.
 b. The procedures have to be written and everyone needs to be trained
to use them.
c. The procedure & policy will be drafted
d. A & B Both
38) _________ can be described as the use of that stolen identity in criminal
activity to obtain goods or services by deception
a. Identity fraud
b. Deception
c. Theft
d. None of the above

39) White collar crimes are the ones which damage the organisation:
a. Many times
b. Many times & in huge amounts
c. Less times
d. Less times but in huge amounts

40) TheFraud Exposure Rectangle includes:

a. Rationalization
b. Perceived pressure
c. Relationships with others
d. All of the choices are included in the Fraud Exposure Rectangle

41) Motivation for Financial Statements Fraud can be:

a. Increasing stock prices
b. Maximising management bonus
c. Pressure on management to perform
d. All of the above

42) Management & directors, relationship with others, organization & industry,
financial results & operating characteristics are components of:
a. Fraud Tree
b. Fraud Exposure Rectangle
c. Fraud Triangle
d. None of the above
43) Relationship of the management with auditors, bankers, lawyers, regulatory
authorities etc is to be checked while analyzing
a. Management & Directors
b. Relationship with Others
c. Organisation & Industry
d. Financial Results & Operating Characteristics

44) _________ among the following is an example of red flag.

a. Very friendly, but self centered and egoistic
b. Unfriendly and an introvert
c. Surly and angry but good in work
d. Very slow in work that he/she is used to doing for years together

45) Introduction, rapport, questioning, summary & close are elements of:
a. Interview
b. Investigation
c. Interrogation
d. None of the above

46) Voice Analysis can detect?

a. Temperament of a person during the interview
b. Whether person is lying
c. Whether he is telling the facts
d. All of the above

47) Allof the following are methods that organization can adopt to proactively
eliminate fraud opportunities EXCEPT:
a. Accurately identifying sources and measuring risks
b. Implementing appropriate preventative and detective controls
c. Creating widespread monitoring by employees
d. Eliminating protections for whistle blowers

48) Professional Skepticism refers to

a. An alert Mind
b. A questioning Ming
c. A & B Both
d. None of the above
49) Weak internal controls in an organization will affect which of the following
elements of fraud?
a. Motive
b. Opportunity
c. Rationalization
d. None of the above

50) If
a company wishes to improve detection methods, they should do all of the
following except:
a. Use forensic accountants
b. Conduct frequent audits
c. Conduct surprise checks
d. All of the above improve detection of fraud

51) Fraudulent financial reporting is most likely to be committed by whom?

a. Line employees of the company
b. Outside members of the company’s board of directors
c. Company management
d. The company’s auditors

52) Confrontational Interviews and recording of any interviews should be done

a. With the advice of legal counsel only if there is need to prosecute the
fraudster later.
b. With the advice of legal counsel to get proper legal guidance to
protect the interviewer, the Company, Directors/Management and
prosecute the fraudster later if needed.
c. Without the advice of legal counsel since the confidentiality of strategy
is compromised.
d. Without the advice of legal counsel since they have no role to play till
the fraud is established.

53) ______________ is an equitable remedy designed to deter future violations of

the securities laws and to deprive defendants of the proceeds of their wrongful
conduct.
a. Disgorgement
b. Penalty
 c. Insider information
d. Proceedings

54) Whenindividually any financial items/ transactions are not much relevant,
however if used wisely together to commit a fraud, it is known as:
a. Combined fraud
b. Gunpowder effect
c. Lapping
d. None of the above

55) Theterm “razor” used in the Theory of Occam’s razor signifies

a. Shaving off illegal data
b. Shaving of backdated data
c. Shaving off unnecessary data
d. None of the above.

56) Disaster situation, incomplete information, disorderliness are:

a. Red flags at macro level
b. Red flags at micro level
c. Green flags at macro level
d. Green flags at micro level

57) Orphan funds, excess knowledge, close nexus with vendors etc are:
a. Red flags at macro level
b. Red flags at micro level
c. Green flags at macro level
d. Green flags at micro level

58) While conducting an interview, as a general rule,

a. One person should be interviewed at a time
b. Two persons should be interviewed at a time
c. Three persons should be interviewed at a time
d. None of the above.

59) Types of questions that could be asked in an interview could be

 a. Open ended
b. Closed ended
c. Leading
d. All of the above

60) Atype of question wherein the Interviewer provides an answer within the
question is know as:
a. Open ended
b. Closed ended
c. Leading
d. All of the above

61) A question which requires a narrative response is known as _______ question:

a. Open ended
b. Closed ended
c. Leading
d. All of the above

62) A question which requires a yes/ no answers is known as _______ question:

a. Open ended
b. Closed ended
c. Leading
d. All of the above

63) In cases where the interviewee in constantly denying the charges against him,
a. Detain him in a room
b. Present partial evidences
c. Make a direct accusation
d. None of the above.

64) Things to be avoided during an interview include:

a. Threatening
b. Detaining the person
c. Negotiating
d. All of the above
65) Among the following which would be red flags for payroll?
a. Overtime charged during a slack period
b. Large number of write offs
c. Unjustified transactions
d. All of the above

66) The most cost effective way to minimize the cost of fraud is:
a. Prevention
b. Detection
c. Investigation
d. Prosecution

67) An act of unintentional mistake is known as

a. Fraud
b. Deception
c. Error
d. Forgery

68) While conducting a an interview, the interviewer analyses:

a. Verbal clues
b. Non verbal clues
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

69) An employee not taking a single holiday during the entire year is
a. Red flag at macro level
a. Red flag at micro level
b. Green flag
c. None of the above

70) Excessive competition in the market leads to

a. Rationalisation
b. Opportunity
c. Pressure
 d. None of the above

71) Lack of rotation of duties will come under ____________ component of a

fraud triangle
a. Rationalisation
b. Opportunity
c. Pressure
d. None of the above

72) Recording a suspect’s interview will help in

a. Gathering evidence in the case
b. Taking e notes instead of handwritten notes
c. Assist you in case the interviewee changes his/ her statement at a later
stage
d. All of the above

73) Which of the following entities are/ were involved in frauds

a. Enron
b. Tyco International
c. WorldCom
d. All of the above

74) Having excess stock as compared to that recorded in books of accounts is a

a. Red flag
b. Amber flag
c. Green Flag
d. None of the above

75) Excessive payment to consultants & auditors is an example of

a. Red flag
b. Amber flag
c. Green Flag
d. None of the above

76) Reporting
of identified frauds is covered as per
a. SA 240
 b. Sec 143(12) of Companies Act 2013
c. CARO, Clause x
d. All of the above.

77) Section 143(12) deals with reporting frauds committed by

a. Officers of the company
b. Employees of the company
c. Third parties
d. Only a & b

78) As per the study of ACFE, following category of individuals commit highest
frauds (in monetary terms)
a. Low level management
b. Mid level management
c. Senior level management
d. All of the above

79) ___________ are the elements of fraud

a. The individual must know that the statement is untrue
b. There is an intent to deceive the victim
c. The victim relied on the statement & The victim is injured financially or
otherwise
d. All of the above

80) The principle of 3D vision includes

a. Time dimension analysis
b. Space dimension analysis
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

81) The basic principles used in identifying red flags are:

a. Distrust the obvious
b. 3 D vision
c. Inverse logic
d. All of the above
82) Why Do People Commit Financial Statement Fraud
a. To conceal true business performance
b. To preserve personal status/control
c. To maintain personal income/wealth
d. All the above

83) White collar crimes are the ones which damage the organisation:
a. Many times
b. Many times & in huge amounts
c. Less times
d. Less times but in huge amounts
84) Areas which are difficult to corroborate is perceived as _____________ by a
fraudster
a. Pressure
b. Opportunity
c. Rationalisation
d. Threat

85) Excessive related party transactions are considered as

a. Red flag
b. Amber flag
c. Green Flag
d. None of the above

86) Things to be avoided during an interview include:

e. Threatening
f. Detaining the person
g. Negotiating
h. All of the above

87) Among the following which would be red flags for payroll?
e. Overtime charged during a slack period
f. Large number of write offs
g. Unjustified transactions
h. All of the above
88) The most cost effective way to minimize the cost of fraud is:
e. Prevention
f. Detection
g. Investigation
h. Prosecution

89) Satyam case was filled with

a. Ghost employees
b. Fake sales
c. Inflated Cash & bank balances
d. All of the above

90) Aforensic auditor can get opportunities in

a. Banking sector
b. Insurance Sector
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

91) Auditor’s responsibility relating to fraud in financial statements is covered in:

a. SA 200
b. SA 240
c. SA 250
d. SA 299

92) Atype of question wherein the Interviewer provides an answer within the
question is know as:
a. Open ended
b. Closed ended
c. Leading
d. All of the above

93) The concealment of the origins of illegally obtained money, typically by

means of transfers involving foreign banks or legitimate businesses is known
as
a. Slicing
b. Spoofing
c. Money Laundering
 d. All of the above

94) A red flag indicates that the alert is

a. New
b. Old
c. Follow up
d. Outdated

95) Existence of orphan funds comes under ____________ component of a fraud

triangle
a. Rationalisation
b. Opportunity
c. Pressure
d. None of the above

96) An entity running on an auto pilot mode can be perceived as __________ by

a fraudster.
a. Rationalisation
b. Opportunity
c. Pressure
d. None of the above

97) When individually any financial items/ transactions are not much relevant,
however if used wisely together to commit a fraud, it is known as:
a. Combined fraud
b. Gunpowder effect
c. Lapping
d. None of the above

98) While conducting an interview, as a general rule,

a. One person should be interviewed at a time
b. Two persons should be interviewed at a time
c. Three persons should be interviewed at a time
d. None of the above.

99) Examples of few simple forensic audit tests are

 a. Test of absurdity
b. Test of impossibility
c. Juxtaposition test
d. All of the above

100) Good traits of a forensic auditor are:

a. Maintaining professional skepticism
b. Being a good observer
c. Using multiple cues to analyze any area
d. All of the above.

1. What is the objective of using CAAT

a. Data Mining
b. Data Analysis
c. Data Analytics
d. Data Wrangling
Answer: C
2. Which functionality is NOT present in CAAT
a. Comparison
b. Statistics
c. Monetary unit
d. Split
Answer: D
3. Which of the following is not the outcome of joining two databases
a. Complete join
b. Partial join using look-up field
c. Selective join using look-up field
d. Merging
Answer: C
4. ………………………… refers to collection of information pertinent to
project
a. Data gathering
b. Data exporting
c. Data embedding
d. Data importing
Answer: A
5. Development costs for a computer based information system include/s
a. Salaries of the system analysis
b. Cost of converting and preparing data
c. Cost of testing and documenting
d. All A, B, C
Answer: D

6. Which of the following is NOT a sampling technique provided in CAAT

a. Attribute
b. clustered
c. Random
d. Monetary unit
Answer: B
7. developing a logical flow of fraud detection it is a good idea to
a. develop a physical flow
b. develop a system flow chart
c. determine the contents of all data stores
d. find out user’s preferences
Answer: A
8. A data store in a CAAT represents
a. a sequential file
b. a disk store
c. a repository of data
d. a random access memory
Answer: C

9. Which of the following is not a criticism of the use of CAAT

a. It reinforces the idea that code-and-retrieve is the only way to conduct
qualitative analysis
b. It results in the fragmentation of data and a loss of narrative flow
c. It may not be suitable for focus group data
d. It is not very fast or efficient at retrieving sections of data
Answer: D
10. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using CAAT in different types
of projects
a. It makes the process of qualitative data analysis more transparent
b. It is faster and more efficient than analysing by hand
c. It involves learning skills that are specific to each program
d. It helps you to map out the relations between ideas and themes in the data
Answer: C
11. Which of the following is a kind of search that can be carried out in CAAT
a. Boolean
b. Proximity
c. Wildcard
d. All of above
Answer: D
12. Which of the following is not the capability of CAAT in statistics?
a. Probability
b. Correlation
c. Trend Analysis
d. Time Series
Answer: A
13. Which of the following is not a valid Benford test in CAAT
a. First two digit
b. Last two digit
c. First three digit
d. Last three digit
Answer: D

14. Which characteristics of data is not preserved in CAAT

a. Integrity
b. Source format
c. Indexed order
d. Originality
Answer: B
15. Which of the below is not an advantage of using CAAT
a. The audit team may not require the knowledge or training needed to
understand the results of the CAAT
b. Independently access data stored on a computer without dependence on the
client
c. Test the reliability of client software
d. Increase the accuracy of audit tests
Answer: A
16. Which of the below is a PRIMARY limitation of using CAAT
a. Potential incompatibility with the client's computer system
b. The audit team may not have sufficient IT skills and knowledge to create
the complex data extracts and programming required
c. Client permission and cooperation may be difficult to obtain
d. The audit team may not have the knowledge or training needed to
understand the results of the CAATs
Answer: C
17. Which of the following are two broad categories of CAAT
a. Audit software and exception reporting module of clients software
b. Audit software and test data
c. BI tools and Integrated test facility
d. Test data and embedded audit software in SAP/ERP
Answer: B
18. Of the following which is the specific purpose for which CAAT is used:
a. Sampling
b. File management
c. Report generation
d. Log maintenance
Answer: D
19. CAAT is used for which of the following type of data analytics
a. Cognitive analysis
b. Predictive analysis
c. Diagnostic analysis
d. Prescriptive analysis
Answer: C
20. CAAT performs following functions:
a. Data Presentation
b. Data queries
c. Data Stratification
d. Data Extraction
Answer: A

1. Which of the file systems for Microsoft system provides the most
security?
a. NTFS
b. FAT
c. FAT32
d. FAT16

2. The chain of custody should be able to answer the following questions

except:

a. Who collected the evidence?

b. How and where is the evidence stored?
c. Who took possession of the evidence?
d. Who created the chain of custody document?

3. The different ways in which the network can be attacked except?

a. availability
b. confidentiality
c. integrity
d. durability

4. Where do routers reside in relationship to the OSI model?

a. Layer 1
 b. Layer 2
c. Layer 3
d. Layer 4

5. The term is used to describe espionage conducted for commercial

purposes on companies and governments, and to determine the activities
of competitors:
a. company espionage
b. corporate espionage
c. government espionage
d. business espionage

6. What is the main motive behind corporate spying?

a. personal relations
b. disgruntled employees
c. easy money
d. all of the above

7. The major technique used for corporate spying is :

a. social engineering
b. dumpster diving
c. phone eavesdropping
d. all of the above

8. An Internet standard protocol that is used to synchronize the clocks of

client computers is called:
a. Network Time Protocol (NTP)
b. Time Sync Protocol (TSP)
c. Server time Protocol (STP)
d. Client time Protocol (CTP)

9. The process of tracking unauthorized activity using techniques such as

inspecting user actions, security logs, or audit data is called:
a. Intrusion Prevention
b. Intrusion Detection
 c. Host Detection
d. Host Prevention

[Link] unique 48-bit serial number assigned to each network interface card,
providing a physical address to the host machine is called:
a. MAC
b. NAC
c. IAC
d. HAC

11.A record of the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and

disposition of physical and electronic evidence is called:
a. Chain of Evidence
b. Chain of History
c. Chain of Custody
d. Chain of Forensics

[Link] attack that overloads a system’s resources, either making the system
unusable or significantly slowing it down, is called:
a. Denial-of-service attack
b. Network Denial attack
c. Resource Denial attack
d. Server down attacks

[Link] wilful act of stealing someone’s identity for monetary benefits is

called:
a. Data Theft
b. Privacy Theft
c. Identity Theft
d. Person Theft
[Link] did both the houses of the Indian Parliament passed the
Information Technology Bill in 2000?
a. Jan 2000
b. Mar 2000
c. May 2000
d. Aug 2000

[Link] February 2016, which Bank of Bangladesh suffered a major cyber-

attack losing millions of dollars?
a. EBL Bank
b. United Commercial Bank
c. Grameen Bank
d. Bangladesh Bank

[Link] section of IT Act 2000 hands out Punishment for Sending

Offensive Messages through Communication Service etc.?
a. Sec 66A
b. Sec 66B
c. Sec 66C
d. Sec 66D

[Link] section of IT Act 2000 deals with Cyber Terrorism?

a. Sec 66A
b. Sec 66B
c. Sec 66C
d. Sec 66F

[Link] administrators of the DDoS marketplace [Link] were

arrested on 24 April 2018 as part of which global Operation?
a. Operation Power Zero
b. Operation Power Off
c. Operation Power On
d. Operation Power Global
[Link] stands for:
a. Internet of Tech
b. Internet of Times
c. Internet of Tomorrow
d. Internet of Things

[Link] per global study, most cyber-attacks on corporates are performed by:
a. Outsiders
b. Insiders
c. Vendors
d. Unknown Hackers

[Link] write-blocker that sits between evidence drive & forensic

workstation is called:
a. Software Write Blocker
b. Hardware Write Blocker
c. Hybrid Write Blocker
d. Forensic Write Blocker

[Link] write-blocker that is built into a computer forensic suite or OS

configured is called:
a. Software Write Blocker
b. Hardware Write Blocker
c. Hybrid Write Blocker
d. Forensic Write Blocker

[Link] process of making a partition visible to an OS is called:

a. Partitioning
b. Mounting
c. Loading
d. Plugging

[Link] process of changing the caller ID to any number other than the
calling number is called:
a. Caller ID Tagging
b. Caller ID Changing
c. Caller ID Spoofing
 d. Caller ID Rigging

25.A specific type of phishing attack that appears to come from a trusted
source is also known as:
a. Target Phishing
b. Spear Phishing
c. Knife Phishing
d. Sword Phishing

26.A general term for any encrypted overlay network that you can only
access with specific types of software, or authorization, or protocols, or
ports, is called:
a. Underground
b. Darkweb
c. Unknown Web
d. HardWeb

27.A system that is attractive to an attacker and serves no other purpose than
to keep attackers out of critical systems and observe their attack methods,
is known as:
a. Honeypot
b. Honeytoken
c. Sandbox
d. Sandtrap

[Link] Internet protocol designed for accessing e-mail on a mail server is:
a. POP
b. ICMP
c. IMAP
d. TCP

[Link] Internet protocol used to retrieve e-mail from a mail server is:
a. POP
 b. ICMP
c. IMAP
d. TCP

30.A set of duplicate data that is stored in a temporary location to allow

rapid access for computers to function more efficiently, is known as:
a. Boot Record
b. Metadata
c. Swap
d. Cache

31.A service provided by a server in which the server assigns a client

machine an IP address upon request, is called:
a. TCP
b. IP
c. DHCP
d. ICMP

[Link] asymmetric key cryptography, the private key is kept by:

a. Sender
b. Receiver
c. sender and receiver
d. all the connected devices to the network

[Link] is the inclusion of a secret message in otherwise unencrypted text or

images.
a. Masquerade
b. Steganography
c. Spoof
d. Hashing

[Link] a user needs to provide message integrity, what options may be

best?
a. Send a digital signature of the message to the recipient
b. Encrypt the message with a symmetric algorithm and send it
c. Encrypt the message with a private key so the recipient can decrypt
with the corresponding public key
d. Create a checksum, append it to the message, encrypt the
message, then send to recipient.
[Link] kind of hacker uses hacking to send social, religious, and political,
etc messages, usually, done by hijacking websites and leaving a message
on the hijacked website?
a. Hacktivist
b. Phone phreaker
c. White hat hacker
d. Grey hat hacker

[Link] kind of hacker gains access to systems with a view to fix the
identified weaknesses?
a. Black hat hacker
b. Purple hat hacker
c. White hat hacker
d. Grey hat hacker

[Link] kind of program allows the attacker to control the user's computer
from a remote location?
a. Virus
b. Trojan Horse
c. Malware
d. Keylogger

[Link] is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to un-
authorized resources?
a. Ethical Hacking
b. Social Engineering
c. Caller ID Spoofing
d. Reverse Engineering

[Link] many numbers of bits are used by IPv6?

a. 64
b. 32
c. 24
d. 128

[Link] many numbers of bits are used by IPv4?

a. 64
 b. 32
c. 24
d. 128

[Link] service runs on port 21?

a. HTTP
b. HTTPS
c. FTP
d. SMTP

[Link] service runs on port 80?

a. HTTP
b. HTTPS
c. FTP
d. SMTP

[Link] service runs on port 443?

a. HTTP
b. HTTPS
c. FTP
d. SMTP

[Link] can be used to intercept packages as they are transmitted over the
network?
a. MAC flooding
b. Active Sniffing
c. Passive Sniffing
d. Network Sniffing

[Link] attack is used to crash Web Server?

a. SQL Injection
b. ARP poisoning
c. DOS attack
d. Cross Site Scripts

[Link] attack involves eavesdropping on a network and capturing sensitive

information?
a. Man-in-the-Middle
 b. Sniffing
c. DoS Attack
d. SQL Injection

[Link] of the following best describes a distributed denial-of-service

attack?
a. A DoS against an entire subnet, affecting multiple systems
b. A DoS against multiple systems across an enterprise network
c. DoS against similar systems in different target networks
d. A DoS carried out by multiple systems

[Link] no longer provide adequate authentication to online services

because:
a. People typically choose simple and easy to guess passwords
b. People share passwords
c. People reuse passwords across multiple accounts
d. All of the above

[Link] authentication process allows a user to enter one name and password
to access multiple applications.
a. RADIUS
b. security ID
c. SSO
d. user profile

[Link] best describes metadata?

a. Data that is important to the investigation

b. Data about data
c. Data that is hidden
d. Operating system data

[Link] type of encryption uses a different key to encrypt the message than
it uses to decrypt the message?

a. private key
b. asymmetric
 c. symmetric
d. secure

[Link] of the following are the two types of write protection?

a. Fast and slow

b. Windows and Linux
c. Hardware and software
d. Forensic and non-forensic

[Link] is Digital Forensic?

a. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation
of evidence in court.
b. The application of computer science and investigative
procedures for a legal purpose involving the analysis of digital
evidence after proper search authority, chain of custody,
validation with mathematics, use of validated tools,
repeatability, reporting, and possible expert presentation.
c. A process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer
questions about digital events.
d. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment
of the facts or evidence in a court of law

[Link] of the following is NOT focus of digital forensic analysis?

a. Authenticity
b. Comparison
c. Proving
d. Enhancement

[Link] of the following is FALSE?

a. The digital forensic investigator must maintain absolute objectivity
b. It is the investigator’s job to determine someone’s guilt or
innocence.
c. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the
relevant facts of a case.
d. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the
results of an investigation on only a “need to know” basis.

[Link] do you do to a computer that is turned off?

 a. Turn it on
b. Leave it off
c. Start typing
d. Flip the switch

[Link] should you do if the computer is turned on?

a. Shut it down
b. Unplug it
c. Start typing
d. Log the user off

[Link] happens when first securing the area?

a. Start looking for evidence
b. Make sure that the crime scene is safe
c. Gather evidence
d. Make sure computer is on

59.A system for locating phones by determining its distance from 3 different
towers.
a. Arson Can
b. Cell site
c. Dead spots
d. Triangulation

[Link] of the following is NOT a service level for the cloud?

a. Platform as a service
b. Infrastructure as a service
c. Virtualization as a service
d. Software as a service

[Link] is not a valid method of deployment for a cloud

a. community
b. public
c. targeted
d. private

[Link] password recovery method uses every possible letter, number, and
character found on a keyboard?
 a. rainbow table
b. dictionary attack
c. hybrid attack
d. brute-force attack

[Link] your tools and verify your evidence with ____ to ensure its
integrity.
a. hashing algorithms
b. watermarks
c. steganography
d. digital certificates

64.E-mail administrators may make use of ???, which overwrites a log file
when it reaches a specified size or at the end of a specified time frame
a. log recycling
b. circular logging
c. log purging
d. log cycling

[Link] ___ tool is an updated version of BackTrack, and contains more than
300 tools, such as password crackers, network sniffers, and freeware
forensics tools
a. Kali Linux
b. Ubuntu
c. OSForensics
d. Sleuth Kit

[Link] ___ command line program is a common way of examining network

traffic, which provides records of network activity while it is running, and
produce hundreds of thousands of records
a. netstat
b. ls
c. ifconfig
d. tcpdump

[Link] method below is NOT an effective method for isolating a mobile

device from receiving signals?
a. placing the device into a plastic evidence bag
b. placing the device into a paint can, preferable one previously
containing radio-wave blocking paint
 c. placing the device into airplane mode
d. turning the device off

[Link] of the most noteworthy e-mail scams was 419, otherwise known as
the?
a. Nigerian Scam
b. Lake Venture Scam
c. Conficker virus
d. Iloveyou Scam

[Link] is a search query that can help identify some of the individuals
and/or companies associated with a given domain name, including the
registrant, when the domain was created, etc.
a. Email
b. Google
c. Whois
d. Cookies

[Link] is a small text file that is deposited on a user's computer by a web

server? They are used to track sessions as well as remember a user's
preferences for a particular web site.
a. Browser
b. Spoofing
c. Whois
d. Cookies

[Link] is responsible for mapping domain names to specific IP address?

a. Static web page
b. Message ID
c. Dynamic web page
d. Domain Name Server

[Link] is used primarily as a means to share files?

a. Peer-to-Peer
b. Browser
c. Web Cache
d. Cookies
[Link] system is Base 16 that use 0-9 A, B, C, D, E, F can go 0-15?
a. Octal
b. Decimal
c. Binary
d. Hexadecimal

[Link] option below is an example of a platform specific encryption tool?

a. GnuPG
b. TrueCrypt
c. BitLocker
d. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP)

[Link] a computing investigation, the ability to perform a series of steps

again and again to produce the same results is known as ???
a. repeatable findings
b. reloadable steps
c. verifiable reporting
d. evidence reporting

[Link] of the following scenarios should be covered in a disaster recovery

plan?
a. damage caused by lightning strikes
b. damage caused by flood
c. damage caused by a virus contamination
d. all of the above

[Link] passwords are typically stored as one-way _______ rather than in

plaintext?
a. hex values
b. variables
c. hashes
d. stack spaces
[Link] program serves as the GUI front end for accessing sleuth kit's
tools?
a. detectiveGUI
b. autopsy
c. kde
d. smart

[Link] term describes rooms filled with extremely large disk systems that
are typically used by large business data centers?
a. storage room
b. server farm
c. data well
d. storage hub

[Link] is the purpose of the reconstruction function in a forensics

investigation?
a. re-create a suspect's drive to show what happened during a
crime or incident
b. prove that two sets of data are identical
c. copy all information from a suspect's drive, including information
that may have been hidden
d. generate reports or logs that detail the processes undertaken by a
forensics investigator

[Link] option below is not a recommendation for securing storage

containers?
a. the container should be located in a restricted area
b. only authorized access should be allowed, and it should be kept to
a minimum
c. evidence containers should remain locked when they aren't under
direct supervision
d. rooms with evidence containers should have a secured wireless
network

[Link] is the name of the Microsoft solution for whole disk encryption?
a. drivecrypt
b. truecrypt
c. bitlocker
d. FileVault
[Link] is the name of the Mac solution for whole disk encryption?
a. drivecrypt
b. truecrypt
c. bitlocker
d. FileVault

[Link] virtual machine software supports all Windows and Linux OSs as
well as Macintosh and Solaris, and is provided as shareware?
a. KVM
b. Parallels
c. Microsoft Virtual PC
d. VirtualBox

[Link] a ___ attack, the attacker keeps asking your server to establish a
connection, with the intent of overloading a server with established
connections
a. smurf
b. SYN flood
c. spoof
d. ghost

86.A Nibble is made of:

a. 4 bits
b. 8 bits
c. 12 bits
d. 16 bits

87.A computer network that spans a relatively large geographical area and
consists of two or more interconnected local area network (LAN)?
a. Network Share
b. Wide Area Network (WAN)
c. Local Area Network (LAN)
d. Cloud Network

88."A sender and receiver share a single, common key to encrypt and
decrypt the message" is called?
a. Anti-Forensics
 b. Swap Partition
c. Public-Key Encryption
d. Symmetric-Key Encryption

89.A basic unit of communication over a digital network is called?

a. Payload
b. Packets
c. BIOS
d. Carrier

[Link] practice of examining large databases in order to generate new

information?
a. Tunneling
b. Sandboxing
c. Degaussing
d. Data Mining

91."A network of personal computers, each of which acts as both client and
server, so that each can exchange files and email directly with every other
computer on the network. "?
a. Peer-to-Peer Network
b. Local Area Network
c. Hypervisor
d. Brute-Force Attack

92."An efficient, isolated duplicate of a real machine." Is called?

a. Visualization
b. File Carving
c. Data Mining
d. Virtual Machine (VM)

[Link] a very large magnet to destroy the magnetic data on the disk?
a. Sandboxing
b. Tunneling
c. Degaussing
d. Data Mining
[Link] assumes that the password is a dictionary word or some variant of
one. The tool simply does a replacement of the password until it finds the
one that fits?
a. Metadata
b. Brute-Force Attack
c. Network Share
d. Dictionary Attack

95."A process of allowing an unknown executable to run in a specially

prepared and instrumented environment, so that its capabilities and
actions can be observed”?
a. Degaussing
b. Sandboxing
c. Spoofing
d. Tunneling

96.A computer virus that replicates and spreads itself is also known as?
a. virus
b. worm
c. bot
d. zombie

[Link] describes an examination of a system while it is still running?

a. live analysis
b. crackers
c. hackitvists
d. steganography

[Link] who would like to be hackers but don't have much technical
expertise?
a. hackitvists
b. rootkit
c. crackers
d. script kiddies

[Link] process of keeping track of all upgrades and patches you apply to
your computer's OS and applications is called
a. Configuration Management
b. Hardware Management
 c. Software Management
d. Server Management

100. Which one is a Network forensics tool?

a. EnCase
b. Autopsy
c. nMap
d. Volatility

101. Which one is a Data Capture forensics tool?

a. EnCase
b. Wireshark
c. nMap
d. Volatility

102. Which one is a RAM forensics tool?

a. EnCase
b. Autopsy
c. nMap
d. Volatility

MCQs on CAAT
1. What is the objective of using CAAT
a. Data Mining
b. Data Analysis
c. Data Analytics
d. Data Wrangling
Answer: C
2. Which functionality is NOT present in CAAT
a. Comparison
b. Statistics
c. Monetary unit
d. Split
Answer: D
3. Which of the following is not the outcome of joining two databases
a. Complete join
b. Partial join using look-up field
c. Selective join using look-up field
d. Merging
Answer: C

4. ………………………… refers to collection of information pertinent to

project
a. Data gathering
b. Data exporting
c. Data embedding
d. Data importing
Answer: A
5. Development costs for a computer based information system include/s
a. Salaries of the system analysis
b. Cost of converting and preparing data
c. Cost of testing and documenting
d. All A, B, C
Answer: D

6. Which of the following is NOT a sampling technique provided in CAAT

a. Attribute
b. clustered
c. Random
d. Monetary unit
Answer: B
7. developing a logical flow of fraud detection it is a good idea to
a. develop a physical flow
b. develop a system flow chart
c. determine the contents of all data stores
d. find out user’s preferences
Answer: A

8. A data store in a CAAT represents

a. a sequential file
b. a disk store
c. a repository of data
d. a random access memory
Answer: C

9. Which of the following is not a criticism of the use of CAAT

a. It reinforces the idea that code-and-retrieve is the only way to conduct
qualitative analysis
b. It results in the fragmentation of data and a loss of narrative flow
c. It may not be suitable for focus group data
d. It is not very fast or efficient at retrieving sections of data
Answer: D
10. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using CAAT in different types
of projects
a. It makes the process of qualitative data analysis more transparent
b. It is faster and more efficient than analysing by hand
c. It involves learning skills that are specific to each program
d. It helps you to map out the relations between ideas and themes in the data
Answer: C
11. Which of the following is a kind of search that can be carried out in CAAT
a. Boolean
b. Proximity
c. Wildcard
d. All of above
Answer: D
12. Which of the following is not the capability of CAAT in statistics?
a. Probability
b. Correlation
c. Trend Analysis
d. Time Series
Answer: A
13. Which of the following is not a valid Benford test in CAAT
a. First two digit
b. Last two digit
c. First three digit
d. Last three digit
Answer: D

14. Which characteristics of data is not preserved in CAAT

a. Integrity
b. Source format
c. Indexed order
d. Originality
Answer: B
15. Which of the below is not an advantage of using CAAT
a. The audit team may not require the knowledge or training needed to
understand the results of the CAAT
b. Independently access data stored on a computer without dependence on the
client
c. Test the reliability of client software
d. Increase the accuracy of audit tests
Answer: A
16. Which of the below is a PRIMARY limitation of using CAAT
a. Potential incompatibility with the client's computer system
b. The audit team may not have sufficient IT skills and knowledge to create
the complex data extracts and programming required
c. Client permission and cooperation may be difficult to obtain
d. The audit team may not have the knowledge or training needed to
understand the results of the CAATs
Answer: C
17. Which of the following are two broad categories of CAAT
a. Audit software and exception reporting module of clients software
b. Audit software and test data
c. BI tools and Integrated test facility
d. Test data and embedded audit software in SAP/ERP
Answer: B
18. Of the following which is the specific purpose for which CAAT is used:
a. Sampling
b. File management
c. Report generation
d. Log maintenance
Answer: D
19. CAAT is used for which of the following type of data analytics
a. Cognitive analysis
b. Predictive analysis
c. Diagnostic analysis
d. Prescriptive analysis
Answer: C

20. CAAT performs following functions:

a. Data Presentation
b. Data queries
c. Data Stratification
d. Data Extraction
Answer: A
21. In an audit of Journal Vouchers (JVs) how will you derive for potential
duplicate JVs booked on the same date to the same head of account combination
for round sum amounts?
a. Direct Extraction
b. Duplicate key Detection
c. Publish PDF
d. All of the above
Answer: D
22. In the audit of JVs how will you identify JV narrations containing key
words like 'adjustment', accommodate' and others?
a. Manage Project
b. Gap Detection
c. Search
d. Go To
Answer: C

23. You are required to pick up random JVs per cost centre within the JV file
so that all cost centres are covered in the review. Which function will assist you
with the same?

a. Stratification - Numeric
b. Stratified Random Sampling - Character
c. Pivot Table
d. Stratified Random Sampling - Numeric
Answer: B

24. How will you capture JVs booked on Saturday/Sundays with an all
numeric narration (non-standard narrations)?

a. Field Statistics
b. Criteria
c. Save As Selected
d. All of the above
Answer: D
25. Which function will you apply in IDEA to look for a sudden drop in the
count of month ending JVs for accruals?

a. Pivot Table
b. Top Records Extraction
c. Control Total
d. Find Next
Answer: A
26. In a data file of Goods and Service Tax (GST) levy and payment how will
you check for product sales within State A but where Inter State GST has been
incorrectly levied and paid
a. Export
b. Print
c. Direct Extraction
d. Field Manipulation
Answer: C
27. In the GST data file, you need to re-compute the Central and State GST
levied and paid on the Invoice value to check whether the application system is
correctly computing the same. How will you perform this in IDEA?
a. Modify Field
b. Append Field
c. Remove Field
d. Hide Field
Answer: B
28. You are presented with the GST data file from the GSTIN portal which
contains GST returns filed by your Vendors over the last year. You need to
reconcile the portal file with your GST data file to identify entries in the portal
file based on Vendor Code and Vendor Invoice Number not in your GST data
file. How will you set about doing this in IDEA?
a. Join
b. Append Database
c. Stratification
d. Systematic Sampling
Answer: A
29. You are required to match the Vendor Code wise total of Inter State GST
levies for the current month from your data with the portal data to identify Vendor
wise mismatches on Inter State GST. Which function in IDEA will assist?
a. Criteria
b. Compare - CORRECT ANSWER
c. Send Email
d. Summarization
Answer: B

30. In your GST data how will you check for the Vendor Invoice number
containing special characters other than numbers and letters in IDEA?
a. Data - Append - use @split
b. Data - Append - use @left
c. Data - Append - use @strip
d. Data - Append - use @age
Answer: C
31. You are required to allocate a single Digital Advertisement Expense bill
for 12 months to various branch locations based on the number of walk in
customers in each branch. You have a file with 275 branches and the total walk
in count (footfall) per branch for 12 months. Which function in IDEA will you
apply for the Expense allocation branch wise
a) Key Value Extraction
b) Append Databases
c) Append Field
d) Gap Detection
Answer: C
32. How will you go about identifying in IDEA specific branches having a
rising footfall but falling Digital Advertisement Expense allocation or vice - versa
a) Trend Analysis
b) Correlation
c) Duplicate Key Exclusion
d) Search
Answer: B
33. How will you identify branches having a total footfall of 100 customers
and below in the entire 12 month’s period and below using IDEA
a) Publish to PDF
b) Create Project
c) Stratification
d) Summarization
Answer: D
34. Which function in IDEA will you apply to identify the 25 branches having
the highest Digital Advertisement Expense allocation
a) Bottom Records Extraction
b) Top Records Extraction
c) Group Records
d) Indexed Extraction
Answer: B
35. To capture manipulation in footfall data for any given branch how will you
identify in IDEA branches having the same footfall for 12 months
a) Duplicate Key Exclusion
b) Import
c) Save As
d) Duplicate Key Detection
Answer: D
36. You have been provided with an online content - TV Serial, Movie
Streaming website data file with the following key fields -
o Customer Number
o Plan Reference
o Date of Visit (DD-MMM-YY Format)
o Time of Visit (HH:MM:SS Format)
o Online Content Duration in Standard Minutes
o Actual State Time of Viewing (HH:MM:SS Format)
o Actual Stop Time of Viewing (HH:MM:SS Format)
o Standard Stop Time of Viewing (HH:MM:SS Format)
o Content Unique Serial Number
o Genre - Comedy, Horror, Action, Family Drama
o Category - Serial, Movie
o IP Number of Streaming Device
o Buffering Speed - Low, Medium, High

A. How will you identify Customers who have stopped watching content before
the Standard End Time for a Serial/Movie owing to Low Buffering Speed

a) Join
b) Export Databases
c) Direct Extraction
d) Save As
Answer: C
B. Which function in IDEA will you apply to identify the top content watching
Customer's based on count of Serial's watched per day

a) Direct Extraction
b) Summarization
c) Top Records Extraction
d) All of the Above
Answer: D
C. How will you report on Customers watching content from multiple devices on
the same date like Tablets, Smart Phones, Laptops etc.
a) Duplicate Key Exclusion
b) Duplicate Key Detection
c) Gap Detection
d) Field Manipulation
Answer: A
D. To identify Customers who use the Streaming site only less than 3 times a
month which Function in IDEA will help

a) Add Comments
b) Summarization
c) Stratification
d) Set Working Folder
Answer: B
F. To report on which Serial and Genre has minimum viewership online per
month how will you use IDEA
a. Summarization
b. Bottom Records Extraction
c. Export Databases
d. All of the Above
Answer: D

Q. Question - Suggested Answer

No.
1 Forensic Accounting is essentially ……………………
a) Accounting in a way to detect fraud
b) Auditing in a way to gather evidence
c) Investigating in a way to get different evidence
d) Combination of accounting, auditing, and investigative skills to gather evidence usable in a
court of law

2 What is the AutoComplete feature of Excel?

a) It automatically completes abbreviated words
b) It completes text entries that match an existing entry in the same column
c) It completes text and numeric entries that match an existing entry in the same column
d) It completes text entries that match an existing entry in the same worksheet

3 A circular reference is ………………….

a) Geometric modeling tool
b) A cell that points to a drawing object
c) A formula that either directly or indirectly depends on itself
d) Always erroneous

4 Which of the following is a correct order of precedence in formula calculation?

a) Multiplication and division exponentiation positive and negative values
b) Multiplication and division, positive and negative values, addition and subtraction
c) Addition and subtraction, positive and negative values, exponentiation
d) All of above

5 You want to track the progress of the stock market on a daily basis. Which type of chart should
you use?
a) Pie Chart
b) Bar Chart
c) Line Chart
d) Column Chart

6 Except for the ……………………. function, a formula with a logical function shows the word “TRUE” or
“FALSE” as a result.
 a) IF
b) AND
c) OR
d) NOT

7 Which function will calculate the number of workdays between 6/9/2017 and 8/12/2018?
a) Workday
b) Date
c) Networkdays
d) All of the above

8 _____________ is an interactive data summarisation tool in Excel.

a) CONSOLIDATE
b) PIVOTTABLE
c) SUBTOTAL
d) POWER QUERY

9 _____________ is done to identify the missing items in a sequence or series.

a) Gap Testing
b) Relative Size factor Analysis
c) Fuzzy Logic Matching
d) Sort

10 Which of the following errors will not be traced by Error Checking?

a) Inconsistent manner of defining formulas
b) Errors like #N/A, #REF! etc.
c) Numbers stored as text
d) Error in the logic of defining the formula

11 Which of the following functions is totally irrelevant for performing aging analysis?
a) IF Function
b) AND Function
c) TODAY Function
d) LEFT Function

12 In order to prevent identity thieves from finding personally identifiable information by looking
through your trash, you should:
a) Put your sensitive documents in your neighbors trash bin.
b) Shred, or otherwise destroy all account statements, account applications, cancelled checks or
other documents or information that contain personally identifiable information.
c) Never throw out any sensitive information. Keep it in a safe place within your home.
d) Take your sensitive information directly to the dump.

13 You're exposing yourself to potential credit card fraud if you:

a) Sign your cards as soon as they arrive.
 b) Leave cards or receipts lying around.
c) Void incorrect receipts.
d) Carry your cards separately from your wallet, in a zippered compartment, a business card
holder, or another small pouch.

14 Which of the following are not recommended security practices when setting up a wireless
network in your home?
a) Place your router in a secure location in your home.
b) Change the name of your router from the default.
c) Change your router's pre-set password.
d) Turn on the encryption feature of your wireless routers.

15 Which of the following is not considered to be "personally identifiable information"?

a) Credit card numbers
b) Vehicle registration plate number
c) Name of the school you attend or your workplace
d) Date of birth

16 Which of the following is a characteristic that asset hiders generally look for in the financial vehicles
they use to conceal assets?
a) Transparency
b) Inaccessibility
c) Liquidity
d) None of the above

17 Which of the following is a step in the general process for tracing illicit transactions?
a) Selecting a response team
b) Building a financial profile
c) Implementing litigation hold procedures
d) Establishing reporting protocols

18 When determining a subject's net worth for asset-tracing purposes, all assets should be valued at
current market value to eliminate any question about estimates.
a) True
b) False

19 Sachin is currently being prosecuted for financial statement fraud for allegedly intentionally over-
reporting earnings. Although Sachin did over-report income, he did not do so on purpose. Under
these facts, which of the following defenses, if any, would likely benefit Sachin as a defense?

a) Mistake
b) Ignorance
c) Duress
 d) All of the above

20 Akbar works as a cashier in an antiques store. Since the merchandise lacks barcodes, he has to
enter the prices manually. One customer purchased a piece of furniture that cost Rs. 2500 and
paid in cash. Akbar recorded the sale at Rs. 2000 and pocketed the Rs. 500 bill. What type of fraud
did Akbar commit?
a) A cash larceny scheme
b) Lapping of receivables
c) An unrecorded sales (skimming) scheme
d) An understated sales (skimming) scheme

21 Amar, a fraud examiner, is conducting textual analytics on emails sent to and from specific
employees that his client has identified as fraud suspects. He is using the Fraud Triangle to come
up with a list of fraud keywords to use in his search. Which of the following words found in email
text might indicate a fraudster is rationalizing his actions?
a) Write off
b) Deserve
c) Override
d) Quota

22 If an information thief has long range interest in monitoring of a company, he might place a spy in
that target company as a permanent employee. This employee is known as ………………….

a) Sleeper
b) Mole
c) Detective
d) Insider Spies

23 The existence of the following might indicate presence of Ghost Employees:

a) Employees with no withholding
b) No employees with same address
c) No employye with same PAN
d) No employee with same account number

24 In Health Care Fraud, ………………………….. reimbursement occurs when providers receive payment
for each service rendered.
a) Capitation
b) Fee for Service
c) Episode of Care
d) None of the above

25 Which of the following are the best for a comprehensive investigation …………………
a) Data vouching, trend analysis
b) Trend analysis and tests of logic and absurdities
c) Data vouching and tests of impossibilities
 d) All of the above to the extent possible in every case

26 Luhn’s algorithm is ………………….

a) A tool to find out valid credit card numbers
b) A tool to find out invalid debit card numbers
c) A tool to find valid or invalid debit cards/credit cards
d) None of the above

27 Which of the following is not an indication of Money laundering?

a) Use of third party cheque for making purchases
b) Lump sum payment made by wire transfer
c) Willingness to provide normal information
d) Request to borrow maximum cash value of a single premium policy soon after paying for the
policy.

28 An employee has duty to cooperate during internal investigation irrespective of nature of

investigation.
a) True
b) False

29 Which situation will not give rise to sanctions for failing to preservce evidence include intentionally
or accidentally?
a) Erasing computer file relevant to unanticiapated litigation
b) Destroying physical evidence relevant to existing litigation
c) Losing documents relevant to anticipated litigation
d) Failing to suspend routine destruction of electronic data relevant to existing litigation

30 …………………. refers to defamatory statements in writing.

a) Slander
b) Human Rights
c) Libel
d) Breach of Privacy

31 To establish libility for public disclosure of private facts, the plaintiff must prove following
elements:
(i) The defendant made public statements about another party's private life.
(ii) The statements were not of public concern.
(iii) The statements would be highly offensive to a reasonable person.
a) (i) only
b) (i) and (ii) only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
32 ……………………… software gives investigators the ability to image a drive and preserve it in a forensic
manner.
a) Stego Suite
b) Forensic Toolkit (FTK)
c) Recovery Toolkit
d) Encase Forensic

33 Which is not a process for tracing illicit transactions?

a) Collect Information
b) Profile the subject
c) Interview the subject
d) Review information for leads

34 Fraud Assessment questioning is a non-accusatory interview technique used as a part of normal

audit.
a) True
b) False

35 Following employee can be exempted from Fraud Awareness Training program -

a) Top Level staff
b) Middle Level Staff
c) Lower Level Staff
d) None of the above

36 ………………………. is the impression a writing instrument leaves on sheets of paper below the sheet
that contains the original writing.
a) Indented Writing
b) Freehand Forgeries
c) Autoforgeries
d) Imitator style

37 To avoid smudging and contamination, fraud examiners should use …………………… when handling
latent finger print evidence.
a) Protective Gloves
b) Acid free paper envelopes
c) Dusting powder
d) None of the above

38 While interviewing, Amar, forensic auditor, locks the door of interview room. This can be claimed
as ……………………………. by the interviewee.
a) Human Right Violation
b) Actual Imprisonment
c) False Imprisonment
 d) True Imprisonment

39 While doing interview, Amar, forensic auditor, was doing covert recording of interview process. It
helps Amar to deny the recording when asked without taking ownership of recording.

a) True
b) False

40 ……………………… is a defence mechanism that protects an individual from items that would cause
anxiety by prevneting the items from becoming concious.
a) Etiquette
Ego Threat
c) Depression
d) Repression

41 Amar, a Certified Fraud Examiner, has obtained an oral confession from Vijay, a fraud suspect.
Amar wants to probe Vijay for additional details. Which of the following is the most appropriate
question Amar should ask Vijay to find out if there are any remaining proceeds that can be used
to reduce losses?
a) "Did you spend everything?"
b) "What do you have left?"
c) "Is there anything left?"
d) "It’s all gone, isn’t it?"

42 Amar, a Certified Fraud Examiner, is conducting an admission-seeking interview of Vijay, a fraud

suspect. Amar has a great deal of documentary evidence that he plans on using to diffuse Vijay's
alibis. The proper technique for using the evidence is for Amar to display it all at once so that Vijay
will be demoralized by the overwhelming amount of evidence.
a) True
b) False

43 In interview situations, it is sometimes recommended that the interviewer shake hands with the
respondent. What is the purpose of this?
a) Social courtesy
b) Professional courtesy
c) To establish the interview purpose
d) To break down psychological barriers

44 Forensic analysis can be performed directly on suspect devices because doing will not alter or
damage digital evidence.
a) True
 b) False

45 Which is not a Red Falg associated with Fictitious Revenue?

a) An unusually large amount of long overdue accounts receivable
b) Rapid growth or unusual profitability
c) Significant sales to entities whose substance not known
d) Inventory totals appear forced

46 Vijay, a manager at a major company, is suspected of financial statement fraud. During an

admission-seeking interview with Vijay, the investigator states: "A lot of employees count on the
company doing well. I know you only did this to help the company succeed. Isn’t that right?”
This technique is known as:

a) Genuine need
b) Extrinsic rewards
c) Altruism
d) Depersonalizing the victim

47 Vijay, a fraud suspect, has confessed to Amar, a Fraud Examiner, that he has embezzled funds.
Amar is unsure whether Vijay had an accomplice. Which of the following is the most appropriate
question concerning accomplices?
a) "Who else knew about this besides you?"
b) "Was anyone else involved?"
c) "Did someone else know?"
d) "We have evidence someone else is involved. Who is it?"

48 Which of the following is a good practice for taking notes during an interview?
a) Slow down the interview process if necessary to take accurate notes.
b) Avoid making notes regarding opinions or impressions about a witness
c) Write down verbatim all responses given by the subject during the interview.
d) Make any necessary additions to interview notes within several weeks of the interview

49 During the introductory phase of the interview, the interviewer should avoid terms such as:
a) Investigation
b) Review
c) Inquiry
d) All of the above

50 Whenever possible, make a list of questions to be asked during the interview. It helps in maintaing
the flow of interview.
a) True
b) False
51 if the interviewer has reason to believe that the respondent is being deceptive, he should begin
asking ………………………..
a) Direct Questions
b) Closing Questions
c) Admission seeking Questions
d) Assessment Questions

52 Which of the following is not the objective of Introductory questions ?

a) Establish Rapport
b) Establish Interview Theme
c) Observe reactions
d) Reconfirm Facts

53 What is your digital footprint?

a) A scanned image of your foot
b) All the information online about a person that is stored online.
c) A photograph of your shoe
d) Having a blog, facebook or twitter page

54 We use Cryptography term to transforming messages to make them secure and immune to
……………………..
a) Change
b) Idle
c) Attacks
d) Defend

55 Confidentiality with asymmetric-key cryptosystem has its own …………………….

a) Entities
b) Data
c) Problems
d) Translator

56 In a ____________ scheme, the fraudster leave malware infected USB flash drive in places where
people will find them easily.
a) Baiting
b) Pharming
c) Malware
d) Malicious Insider

57 Why would a hacker use a proxy server?

a) To create a stronger connection with the target.
b) To create a ghost server on the network.
c) To obtain a remote access connection.
 d) To hide malicious activity on the network.

58 What type of attack uses a fraudulent server with a relay address?

a) NTLM (NT LAN Manager)
b) MITM (Man-in-the-middle)
c) NetBIOS (Network Basic Input/Output System)
d) SMB (Server Message Block)

59 Which phase of hacking performs actual attack on a network or system?

a) Reconnaissance
b) Maintaining Access
c) Scanning
d) Gaining Access

60 Social engineering is one of the most successful attack methods of cybercriminals. What is
regarded as a form of social engineering?
a) Cryptoware
b) Denial of Service (DOS) attack
c) Phishing
d) Spam

61 Biometrics become ever more important as a means to verify the identity of users. Which feature
of biometrics represents a major consideration for organizations that want to implement it?

a) The so-called crossover error rate, which is the rate at which both acceptance and rejection
errors are equal.
b) The way users swipe their tablet or smartphone can be used as a behavioral mechanism for
biometrics.
c) The so-called crossover error rate, which is the rate at which both acceptance and rejection
errors are within acceptable levels.
d) Face recognition cannot be used as a biometric mechanism, because it is very inaccurate.

62 Digital certificates represent an important component in any Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). What
should never be included in a digital certificate?
a) The digital signature of the certificate authority (CA) that has issued the digital certificate.
b) The private key of the party to whom the digital certificate is tied.
c) The identity of the party that owns the digital certificate.
d) The start and end date of the period, in which the digital certificate is valid.

63 What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?

a) Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
b) To execute a Trojan on a system
c) To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d) To shutdown services by turning them off
64 How is IP address spoofing detected?
a) Installing and configuring a IDS that can read the IP header
b) Comparing the TTL values of the actual and spoofed addresses
c) Implementing a firewall to the network
d) Identify all TCP sessions that are initiated but does not complete successfully

65 Phishing is a form of ……………………….

a) Spamming
b) Identify Theft
c) Impersonation
d) Scanning

66 Keyloggers are a form of ……………………....

a) Spyware
b) Shoulder surfing
c) Trojan
d) Social engineering

67 Having individuals provide personal information to obtain a free offer provided through the
Internet is considered what type of social engineering?
a) User-based
b) Computer-based
c) Human-based
d) Web-based

68 SQL injection is an attack in which …………………… code is inserted into strings that are later passed
to an instance of SQL Server.
a) Non malicious
b) Clean
c) Redundant
d) Malicious

69 Which of the following is a proper acquisition technique?

a) Disk to Image
b) Disk to Disk
c) Sparse Acquisition
d) All of the above

70 Which duplication method produces an exact replica of the original drive?

a) Bit-Stream Copy
b) Image Copy
c) Mirror Copy
d) Drive Image

71 What should you do if the computer is turned on?

 a) Shut it down
b) Unplug it
c) Start typing
d) Log the user off

72 What happens when first securing the area?

a) Start looking for evidence
b) Make sure that the crime scene is safe
c) Gather evidence
d) Make sure computer is on

73 The risk of contamination of evidence is controlled and/or minimised by ……………………...

a) Minimising the number of people handling the evidence.
b) Storing packages in a dedicated secure area.
c) Opening each package in an area other than where it was originally sealed.
d) Using chain of custody labels.

74 Corroborative evidence is ……………………...

a) Evidence that links an individual with a particular location.
b) Evidence that associates an individual with another individual.
c) Evidence that refutes other evidence.
d) Eidence that supports other evidence.

75 What is the most significant legal issue in computer forensics?

a) Preserving Evidence
b) Seizing Evidence
c) Admissibility of Evidence
d) Discovery of Evidence

76 As a good forensic practice, why would it be a good idea to wipe a forensic drive before using it?

a) No need to wipe
b) Chain of Custody
c) Different file and operating systems
d) Cross-contamination

77 SQL Injection is ………………………

a) Physical Threat
b) Application Threat
c) Malicious Code
d) Mobile Code

78 Cyber Forensic Investigation Process consists of ……………………….

a) Imaging - Copy - Analysis - Communication.
b) Imaging - Cloning - Documenting - Communication.
 c) Identification - Preservation - Collection - Analysis - Communication.
d) Searching - Extracting - Imaging - Cloning - Analysis.

79 Signature forgery can best be spotted by …………………….

a) Juxtaposition and Comparison of signatures on two documents
b) Juxtaposition and Comparison of a signature on a document with specimen signature
c) Juxtaposition and comparison of signatures on several documents
d) Any of the above

80 When a hash function is used to provide message authentication, the hash function value is
referred to as ………………………
a) Message Field
b) Message Digest
c) Message Score
d) Message Leap

81 The main difference in MACs and digital signatures is that, in digital signatures, the hash value of
the message is encrypted with a user’s public key.
a) True
b) False

82 In which the database can be restored up to the last consistent state after the system failure?

a) Backup
b) Recovery
c) Both
d) None

83 Most backup and recovery commands in ………………….. are executed by server sessions.
a) Backup Manager
b) Recovery Manager
c) Backup and Recovery Manager
d) Database Manager

84 Which of the following is not a recovery technique?

a) Deferred update
b) Immediate update
c) Two-phase commit
d) Recovery management

85 Failure recovery and media recovery fall under ......................

a) Transaction recovery
b) Database recovery
 c) System recovery
d) Value recovery

86 ………………………. means repeated acts of harassment or threatening behavior of the cyber criminal
towards the victim by using internet services.
a) Cyber Stalking
b) Pornography
c) Web Hijacking
d) Hacking

87 …………………….. register domain name identical to popular service provider’s name. So as to attract
their users and get benefit from them.
a) Cyber squatters
b) Phishing Attack
c) Identity Theft
d) Cyber Defamation

88 …………………… involves changing data prior or during input into a computer.

a) Forgery
b) Cyber Defamation
c) Email spoofing
d) Data diddling

89 As per ………………….., the auditor’s report should state whether the company has adequate Internal
Financial Control system in place and the operating effectiveness of such controls.
a) Section 134
b) Section 137
c) Section 143
d) Section 177

90 Fraud reporting should be done to Central Govt. in …………………

a) Form ADT-1
b) Form ADT-2
c) Form ADT-3
b) Form ADT-4

91 …………………. dealing with compensation for failure to protect data.

a) Section 41
b) Section 43-A
c) Section 65
d) Section 66

92 Section 66E deals with ………………………

a) Sending offensive messages
b) Cheating by personation
 c) Privacy violation
d) Cyber terrorism

93 ……………….deals with publishing or transmitting obscene material in electronic form.

a) Section 43
b) Section 65
c) Section 66
d) Section 67

94 Section 75 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with …………………

a) Public Documents
b) Private Documents
c) Certified copies of Public Documents
d) Proof of other official documents

95 A witness who is unable to speak is called ……………………….

a) Deaf Witness
b) Dumb Witness
c) Hostile Witness
d) Unreliable Witness

96 Entries in the books of accounts regularly kept in the course of business are admissible under
section 34 of Evidence Act
a) If they by themselves create a liability
b) If they by themselves do not create a liability
c) Irrespective of whether they themselves create a liability or not
d) Either (a) or (b)

97 Amar, a Forensic Auditor, has obtained an oral confession from Vijay, a fraud suspect. Vijay
confessed to committing fraud, and he admitted to smuggling drugs in an unrelated case. How
should Amar handle these admissions in Gamma's written confession?
a) Amar should omit the information concerning the drug smuggling
b) Amar should take separate statements for each of the unrelated crimes
c) Amar should include both crimes in the same statement
d) None of the above

98 Amar, a Fraud Investigator, is investigating Vijay, who is active on an online social networking site
in which he voluntarily shares information about himself. Amar wants to search and extract
information from Vijay's social network profile. Which of the following is the most accurate
statement about the privacy of information Vijay shared through his social network profile?

a) To search for information that Vijay posted and made available to the public through his social
network profile, Amar must provide Vijay notice before hand.
b) To access any information posted on Vijay's social network profile, Amar must obtain some type
of legal order from the jurisdiction in which Vijay resides.
 c) The Privacy of Social Networks Treaty is an international law that makes it illegal for Amar to
seek the login credentials from Vijay's social networking account.
d) Amar could be liable for violating Vijay's privacy rights if he hacks or breaks into areas of the
social networking site Vijay has designated as private

99 What is Mutual Legal Assistance (MLA)?

a) A process by which countries request and provide assistance in law enforcement matters
b) A letter whereby a criminal defendant requests that the government release exculpatory
information
c) A formal request by the courts of one country seeking judicial assistance from the courts of
another country
d) A formal request by the government of a country seeking information from a defendant residing
in another country

100 In most common law jurisdictions, for a document to be admitted into evidence, it must be
properly __________ that is, the party offering the document must produce some evidence to
show it is, in fact, what the party says it is.
a) Validated
b) Marked
c) Certified
d) Authenticated
SNO question ans
In different data types in excel, which is used to represent
1 boolean type ? true false
2 _________ function returns true if majority conditions is false not()
In the cells A1 and A2 , we have the values 20 and 10
respectively. In the cell A3 we have the formula A3= A1/A2, if we
3 copy the cell A3 and paste it in B1, what is the resuilt? #REF
4 How many number of price lists can be created in Tally ERP 9? any number
Rapid encryption of sensitive files on a corporate network is best Advanced Encryption Standard
5 known as ? (AES)
6 What is the default extension of latest Excel versions? .xlsx
The ______returns the serial number of the last day of the month
7 before or after a specified number of months eomonth()
8 which of the following has the lowest priority?
Which option is used to paste ceertain attributes such as values,
9 formulas, formatting etc.? paste special

When companies receive a job work from third party for

10 manufacturing of electronic cooker, which process will take place? job work in
_______ voucher is used to transfer the goods from one location
11 to another location. stock journel voucher
The TCS report the contains the details of collectee(s) and challan
details relating to deposit of tax with the income tax department
12 is form 27eq
13 Array formula should be entered in ______ {}
Which function is used to return the future value of an annuity
14 based on periodic fixed paymets and fixed interest rate? FV()
 ____ is the process of conversion of raw materials/ components
15 into finished goods ? Manufaturing Journal
display -statement of accounts-
16 We can check the interest calculation report from ? outstandings
Unadjusted Forex Gain/Loss is reflected under_______account
17 head Current Liabilities
18 For these items we donot need BOM trading

19 Which of the following flag is a symptom of early warning signal? red flag
After exporting e-TCS form, the text file created must be validated
20 through? file validation utility
records with common data in
21 Inner join returns … both tables
22 Remove duplicates option is in _____group of data tab in Excel Data Tools
23 ______is monthly Income Tax Return generated in Tally ITR I
Which of the following funtion extracts the name of the month
24 from the data time functions ? MonthName()
COMPANY INFO MENU-ALTER-
YES TO AUDIT AND
COMPLIENCE OR USER
25 for enabling Tally Audit Features_____ SECURITY TO YES
26 Idea AgeTime function is used to _________
What is the default column data format in function Text to
27 Columns General

28 Which option should be use to delete any file in IDEA Software?

If a formula is having the following address =A$2 then this cell
29 reference has the type ? Mixed Addressing
 To accept all the transactions by the administrator while doing
30 Audit, the short cut key is F7
DISPLAY -PAYROLL REPORTS -
STATUTARY REPORTS-
31 Path to view the Income Tax Reports in Payroll INCOMETAX
This Forensic accounting technique or methodology is used for
detecting errors and also heightlights all unusual fluctutions which
32 may be routed from fraud or genuine errors TRUE
33 The result of Right("Accoutant") is _________ t
34 The function in IDEA Software begins with the @
Which of the following tab is not visible by default in the Ribbon in
35 MS Excel? Developer Tab

36 It is the rate at which the Foreign Currency is traded in te market STANDARD

37 Timelines can be applied of which type of fields? date/time data type fields
In a VLOOKUP formula what does the argument Column Index
38 number mean ? return value column no.
39 It is used to Compare trends over a perioed of time LINE OR AREA CHART
Job work registeR under the job work out reports does not give
40 details about
41 Which filter gives a different filtered value every day? DATE FILTER TODAY()
In this type of Synchronization, the client and sever companies
42 need not be online at the same time ON DEMAND SYNC
This function sums a range of cells based on more than one
43 condition or criteria Sumifs()
Cost Estimation is a statement that gives a value of the cost
44 incurred in the manufacturing of______ FINISHED GOOD
 Starting with a and remaining
45 The criteria Expression like a* means any letters
46 Job work charges are under the group DIRECT EXP
47 Which function converts a text string into a cell reference ? Indirect()
48 Steps to create Security Controls for a Tally .Net User ALT+F3
Sequence of steps in Data-to-Decision Framework for BADIR
49 Framework
50 In Table data, Excel uses a special formula syntax called
51 In Stratification, a value band represents A RANGE
52 By Default Microsoft Excel uses________advanced Encryption 128 bit
The PayHead type for children Education Allowence must be set
53 to____ earning to employees
1048576 ROWS AND XFD
54 every worksheet has _________rows and _________columns (16384 COLS)
55 Which of the following factor is a part of the Fraud Dimond
56 Which report is not available through job work out reports?

57 By Default Microsoft Excel Macro recorder records _______steps

To Protect a workbook you can supply a password of up to ____
58 characters 255
The exported e-TDS file from Tally can be validated through
59 NSDL's freeely downloadable utility called _____ FVU
60 ____stops all currently running macros.
61 Full form of CAAT __ Computer Aided Audit Tools
Stock report under the Job Work Out Reports displays details AGING ANALYSIS AND WITH
62 about? JOB WORKER REPORTS
The Excel____ feature allows you to set up rules that restrict or
63 validate what can be entered into a cell. DATA VALIDATION
 Proffessional Tax Report is divided into which two types of COMPUTATION REPORT AND
64 reports? STATEMENT
Which of the following is not included in Optimization Model which
65 can be specified using the Solver?
66 Which operator is used instead of Concatenate ()? &
67 Equation editor option is available in which tab?
68 Employee salary details are shown in ___?
In order to compute TDS liability under the salary every month, by
default the tax calculation basis under income tax configuration
69 has to be set to ____
70 Which one of the following is not a valid cell reference?
71 How many V's are there in Big Data?
In DGET() , if number of records match the criterion the DGET()
72 returns ___ error #NUM
In case of Multi User Lisence, Number of Tally .Net Users which
73 can be configured for remote access 10
Which of the following is not a type of relate feature in IDEA
74 Software?
WHOLE SALE AND RETAIL
75 Price list generally used by organizations which deal in ___ SALES
We can use Senario Manager to perform analysis by varying as
76 many as____ input cells
77 It is a tool used for graphical analysis of data chart tool
78 How to enable TCS feature in Tally ? F11-F3-TCS -YES

_____ is a Microsoft Office Access Form that facilitates navigation

79 in MS Access and access to different parts of an application NAVIGATION FORM
 Salary projection provides projection of ____and displays the
80 actual if payroll is already processed for any given month
This can be used to filter the contents of the pivot table on more
81 than one fields slicers
82 Strcomp("Access","Excel") will return __ FALSE
Which function in IDEA can return all numbers (leading or trailing
83 ) from the specified value @JUSTNUMBERS()
84 Unmatched query is used for _____

85 _____function returns the nearest integer for a negative number

What function ought to be utilized to round the number248.3546
86 to 248.36 roundup()
87 Bank frauds may not include___
You can create a graphical representation of data from options
88 available under the____ tab of Excel insert

In order to configure House Rent Declaration, Name and PAN of

89 the Landlord are mandatory, if the rent declared is more than ___ MORE THAN 100000
90 Which Income Tax Challan is used to deposit TCS? ITNS 281
91 In which formats,IDEA can make output reports?
Switchboard Manager only allows a maximum of ______command
92 buttons on the switchboard 8
93 Price List is referred at the time of making _____ SALES
_____ function checks a value and if it is #N/A, then it will return
94 true else it will return false ISNA()
95 ______represents the data in Spreadsheet form datasheet view
________is used to generalize the population drawing inference
96 from the samples INFERENCIAL STATISTICS
 DISPLAY-PAYROLL REPORTS -
Which report displays the employee wise income tax computation STATUTARY REPORTS-INCOME
97 details in form 16 format TAX - E -RETURNS
98 BOM represents Bills Of Materials
The extraction task is used to ____ records that meet the
specified criteria from an existing database and place them in
99 another database COPY
100 Letter E in ETL (in Data Analysis ) stands for____ EXTRACT
 Ans A B C D
Which Error In E-Tds Return File Can Be
1 Ascertained By Fvu Program By Nsdl? Format level
which of the following is not a part of the
optimization model which can be answer using
2 the solver? input cells constraints target cells changing cells
what is the default column data format in the
3 function text to column ? general text number date general
_____ is the process of conversion of raw
4 material/components into Finished Goods? Manufacturing process
Short cut key use to accept interest parameters
5 screen ? ctrl+ A Alt+A ctrl+Alt+A Alt+ctrl+ A
if the criteria is written in different columns &
6 single row it would be____ OR condition AND condition either OR condition Exclusive or condition
Option use to check the TDS balance payable
7 amount? path of tds reports
_____ is a Microsoft Office Access Form that
facilitates navigation in MS Access and access to
8 different parts of an application
Salary projection provides projection of ____and
displays the actual if payroll is already processed
9 for any given month 12 months
details area (please check
10 Pivot table which area has to be numeric only this)
Sequence of steps in Data-to-Decision Framework
11 for BADIR Framework FULL FORM
In table data excel uses a special formula syntax
12 called ? Structured Refrence

13 Fraud triangle and Fraud diamond components

How can you create a new tab in ribbon in MS
14 Excel? customize>new tab
 In Excel, which combination turns a regular
15 formula into an array formula? Ctrl+Shift+Enter
Steps to create Security Controls for a Tally .Net
16 User ALT+F3
The PayHead type for children Education
17 Allowence must be set to____ Earinings to employee
18 flash fill short cut key ctrl+E
19 Operator use for Concantenate &
In different data types in excel, which is used to
20 represent boolean type ? TRUE,FALSE
In the cells A1 and A2 , we have the values 20 and
10 respectively. In the cell A3 we have the
formula A3= A1/A2, if we copy the cell A3 and
21 paste it in B1, which error will be show? #REF
How many number of price lists can be created in
22 Tally ERP 9? any number
23 which of the following has the lowest priority? OR AND XOR NOT

Which option is used to paste ceertain attributes

24 such as values, formulas, formatting etc.? paste special

The TCS report the contains the details of

collectee(s) and challan details relating to
25 deposit of tax with the income tax department is form 27eq
Which function is used to return the future value
of an annuity based on periodic fixed paymets
26 and fixed interest rate fv()
27 For these items we donot need BOM trading
______is monthly Income Tax Return generated
28 in Tally ITR I

Which of the following funtion extracts the name

29 of the month from the data time functions ? MonthName()
 which of the following is not by default in Quick
30 access toolbaar copy undo redo save copy
31 The result of Right("Accoutant") is _________ t
32 The function in IDEA Software begins with the @
Which of the following tab is not visible by
33 default in the Ribbon in MS Excel? Developer Tab
It is the rate at which the Foreign Currency is
34 traded in te market STANDARD

35 Timelines can be applied of which type of fields? date/time data type fields
Job work registeR under the job work out reports
36 does not give details about
This function sums a range of cells based on more
37 than one condition or criteria Sumifs()
Starting with a and remaining
38 The criteria Expression like a* means any letters
39 Job work charges are under the group DIRECT EXP
Which function converts a text string into a cell
40 reference ? Indirect()
Computer Assisted Audit
41 Full form of CAAT __ Technique
Which of the following is not included in
Optimization Model which can be specified using
42 the Solver?
In DGET() , if number of records match the
43 criterion the DGET() returns ___ error #NUM
In case of Multi User Lisence, Number of Tally
.Net Users which can be configured for remote
44 access 10
45 It is a tool used for graphical analysis of data chart tool
_____ is a Microsoft Office Access Form that
facilitates navigation in MS Access and access to
46 different parts of an application
 This can be used to filter the contents of the pivot
47 table on more than one fields slicers

48 Which Income Tax Challan is used to deposit TCS? ITNS 281

49 Price List is referred at the time of making _____ SALES

The extraction task is used to ____ records that

meet the specified criteria from an existing
50 database and place them in another database

51 Letter T in ETL (in Data Analysis ) stands for____ transform

52 ETL full form extract transform load
To accept all the transactions by the
administrator while doing Audit, the short cut key
53 is F7