Page 1 Sample Paper 01 CBSE 10th English

Sample Paper 01
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10

1. While pollution of land, sea, and air has been thoroughly documented, a newer and less
recognized form of pollution is the rising tide of noise, which is affecting both urban and
rural areas. This growing issue has long-term effects on the environment, public health,
and productivity, particularly in a fast-developing nation like India.
2. Unlike other forms of pollution, noise is invisible and often goes unnoticed, dismissed
as a minor annoyance. However, data shows that noise pollution poses serious threats,
causing various complications. In some industries, reduced worker productivity has been
directly linked to constant exposure to high noise levels.
3. A pioneering survey by the All India Institute of Medical Sciences on noise’s impact
on health has shown that noise disrupts both physical and psychological functions. It
has been associated with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, pain, hypertension, and
cardiovascular problems.
4. A study from the Post Graduate School of Basic Medical Sciences in Chennai supports
these findings. It found that in half of the industries studied, workers exposed to higher
noise levels became more irritable, short-tempered, and impatient, often leading to unrest
and disruption of production. This was observed in major industrial areas surrounding
the four metropolitan cities.
5. Another concerning aspect is recreational noise, which is becoming more widespread
in cities and towns. Loudspeakers are frequently used at full volume during events like
weddings, festivals, and musical programs, particularly at night, with little consideration
for others. Even a sound level of 50 decibels can wake someone from deep sleep.
Experiments have shown that loudspeakers producing sound between 60 and 80 decibels

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can cause a person’s pupils to dilate and increase oxygen intake, leading to palpitations.
These effects are more intense in narrow streets. Additionally, TV sets are often played
at high volumes during prime viewing hours, disturbing neighbors. Making noise has
become a status symbol, whether in election campaigns, slogan-shouting, or even to
show off owning a TV.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what does the phrase “the swelling tide of noise which is engulfing urban
as well as rural areas” imply about the spread of noise pollution? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option from the two given. 1
Noise is less likely to be perceived as a threat because :
(a) it does not have a visible form and is easily dismissed
(b) it is only harmful in very high concentrations
(paragraph 2)

iii. Support the writer’s claim that noise pollution has significant health impacts. 2
(paragraph 3)

iv. Select the option that best reflects the psychological impact of noise pollution on
workers: 1
(a) Noise causes irritation and decreases patience, making workers more likely to be
frustrated and disrupt production.
(b) Noise in industries results in increased motivation and productivity due to
heightened alertness.
(paragraph 4)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Recreational noise, such as loudspeakers at festivals, can affect people’s sleep and cause
health complications.
(paragraph 5)

vi. The writer mentions recreational noise in paragraph 5. 1

Which of the following is an example of recreational noise?
(A) Noise caused by construction work in residential areas.
(B) Loudspeakers used at a night festival without considering the disturbance caused
to others.
(C) Noise from machinery in a manufacturing unit.
(D) Traffic noise during peak hours in the city.

vii. List any two effects of noise pollution on human health, as mentioned in the passage. 2
(paragraph 3)

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viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option from those given. 1
In the phrase “noise-making seems to have become the latest status symbol,” the word
“status symbol” refers to : _____.
(A) An object or action that indicates a person’s wealth or importance.
(B) A method used to block out other sounds.
(C) A common annoyance in public spaces.
(D) A new trend in manufacturing.
(paragraph 5)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. In a recent study examining the relationship between biodiversity and agriculture,
scientists observed that regions practicing traditional farming methods exhibited a
richer diversity of both plant and animal species. These areas also demonstrated more
resilience to environmental changes, such as droughts and pest invasions.
2. It was noted that around 70% of traditional farming practices across the globe are found
in regions where communities have lived in harmony with nature for generations. These
methods often involve crop rotation, agroforestry, and the use of natural fertilizers.
3. On the other hand, only about 20% of modern, intensive farming regions reported similar
levels of biodiversity, highlighting the negative impact of monocultures and chemical
fertilizers on local ecosystems. However, around 10% of modern farms are beginning to
adopt sustainable practices, attempting to restore balance to the environment.
4. Among the traditional farming communities, approximately 60% of the species diversity
comes from multi-cropping systems, where farmers grow various crops on the same land.
Another 30% stems from the preservation of native flora and fauna. The remaining 10%
of biodiversity is attributed to organic farming techniques that avoid the use of synthetic
chemicals.
5. Further research into how traditional knowledge can be integrated with modern farming
techniques is essential. This will not only enhance biodiversity but also ensure food
security and sustainable agricultural practices for future generations.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase ‘richer diversity’ by the writer, in paragraph 1, indicate
about their observation? 1
(A) The writer is emphasizing a problem.
(B) The writer is highlighting a beneficial outcome.
(C) The writer is questioning the results.
(D) The writer is presenting a challenge.

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ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below. 1
Assertion : Traditional farming methods help preserve biodiversity.
Reason : These methods rely on crop rotation and agroforestry.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the word in the passage that suggests the negative effects of modern farming
methods on biodiversity. 1

iv. How do traditional farming practices contribute to environmental sustainability? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the
blank. 1
Lila’s village, a farming method that avoids synthetic chemicals is widely practiced.
The percentage of traditional farming techniques this would fall under is _____
(60% / 30% / 10%).

vi. What does the higher percentage of biodiversity stemming from multi-cropping systems
suggest about traditional farming methods? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

The widespread use of natural fertilizers in traditional farming techniques demonstrates
_____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason. 1

The most likely reason the writer believes traditional knowledge should be integrated
with modern farming techniques is because it can. _____.

ix. In the context of the last paragraph, describe the significance of integrating traditional
knowledge with modern farming techniques in achieving sustainable agriculture. 2

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SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete.

Social media played a huge part in adding fuel to the communal fire that _____ in
Leicester city igniting communal riots between two religious communities.
(a) kept flaring (b) flared up
(c) had flared up (d) would flare up

ii. Read the conversation between a doctor and his patient. Complete the sentence by
reporting the dialogue.
Inspector : What are the arrangements made by the school for feeding these children?
Principal : Each one of the students is given a nutritious mid-day meal every day.
To the query of the inspector about the arrangements made by the school to feed the
children, the Principal replied that _____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from an article from a health
magazine. She _____ put her mind on her work for she had a very sick feeling in the
bottom of her stomach.
(a) could not (b) might not
(c) need not (d) dare not

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from a news report :
According to a health survey, carbonated drinks are harmful to health and children are
so addicted to fizzy drinks as adults to nicotine.
Option No. Error Correction
(a) a the
(b) to for
(c) so as
(d) addicted addictive

v. Complete the given narrative, by filling in the blank with the correct option :
Priest : Trust and compassion can reform a person more than punishment.
Ira : Don’t you think the reverse of this approach is more effective?
When a priest told Ira that trust and compassion can reform a person more than
punishment, she asked him if _____.

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(a) didn’t he think that the reverse of that approach was more effective.
(b) did he not think that the reverse of that approach could be more effective.
(c) he didn’t think that the reverse of that approach is more effective.
(d) he didn’t think that the reverse of that approach was more effective.

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given
portion of a letter. Subject: Complaint regarding defective TV
I regret to inform you that the TV has started giving me trouble only after three days
and _____(develop) some technical snags.

vii. A primary student reported the poor behaviour of some of his classmates to his teacher.
Change the voice in the statement:
They were laughing at the new student.

viii. Identify the error in the given sentence, from a school magazine report and supply the
correction.
The heavy dose of chemicals that we ingest with every bite of fast food and carbonated
drinks are a lethal combination for our health.
Use the given format for your response
Error Correction

ix. An author and his friend were talking. The writer said to his friend, “My first novel
would be out in a day. Report the question of the friend.

x. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
I need not talk to her when she is in bad mood.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

xi. Select the correct options to complete the blanks in the dialogue between two people.
A : _____ of these arguments is valid.
B : Why don’t you tell me _____ correct perspective, then?
(a) either, the (b) neither, the
(c) neither, (a) (d) either, (a)

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xii. Identify the error on a shop’s hoarding and supply the correction, for the following sales
offer :
Illegally parked vehicles will be fine.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

WRITING 10

Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and created for
assessment purpose.

4A. You are Suman/Suraj of 496, Mayur Vihar-I, Delhi. You purchased a colour TV from
M/S Rahul Electronics, Ring Road, Lajpat Nagar, Delhi. Write a letter in about 120
words to the Sales Manager complaining about TV which is not functioning properly.


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4B. You are Anshul/Anshika, a student of class X and resident of 56 D, Ring Road, ITO,
New Delhi, and wants to be a choreographer. Write a letter in about 120 words to the
Director, National Institute of Choreography, Noida, seeking information about their
online course, admission procedure, eligibility criteria and other necessary details.

5A. Read the following lines on the harmful effects of carbonated drinks. 5
‘According to a health report, the soft carbonated drinks are harmful to health. A latest
research has revealed that it is not safe for children. Unfortunately children are addicted
to soft drinks nowadays.

Write an analytical paragraph in about 120 words on ‘Harmful Effects of Soft Drinks’.

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5B. The government of India has started a drive “Tourism for All.’ Its objectives are to
generate more and more employment opportunities from tourism and thus boost its
contribution to the national economy. Enlisting some of the latest facilities being offered
to the tourists coming to India and using the figures in the bar graph given below, draft
a paragraph.

SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A. I was still a thief when I met Anil. And though only 15, I was an experienced and fairly
successful hand. Anil was watching a wrestling match when I approached him. He was
about 25-a tall, lean fellow-and he looked easy-going, kind and simple enough for my
purpose. I hadn’t had much luck of late and thought I might be able to get into the
young man’s confidence.
“You look a bit of a wrestler yourself,” I said. A little flattery helps in making friends.
“So do you,” he replied, which put me off for a moment because at that time I was rather
thin.
(The Thief ’s Story)

i. State any one inference about Hari from the given context.
“I was an experienced and fairly successful hand.”

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ii. What effect does the interaction between Hari and Anil, as described in the lines below,
have on Hari?
“You look a bit of a wrestler yourself,” I said. A little flattery helps in making friends.
“So do you,” he replied, which put me off for a moment because at that time I was rather
thin.
Choose the most suitable option.
(a) embarrasses (b) motivates
(c) confuses (d) frustrates

iii. Hari found Anil ‘simple enough for my purpose’. What does he mean by this? Elaborate
in about 40 words, with reference to the extract.

iv. Which phrase would correctly substitute ‘easy-going’, in the given sentence from in the
extract?
He was about 25-a tall, lean fellow-and he looked easy-going, kind and simple enough for
my purpose.

B. At twelve, he was sent away for schooling in the Hindu sacred scriptures and years later
he returned home to marry a princess. They had a son and lived for ten years as befitted
royalty.
At about the age of twenty-five, the prince here to fore shielded from the sufferings of
the world, while going out on hunting, chanced upon a sick man, then an aged man,
then a funeral procession, and finally a monk begging for alms. These sights so moved
him that he at once became a beggar and went out into the world to seek enlightenment
concerning the sorrows he had witnessed.
(The Sermon at Benares)

i. What was the unintended effect of the sights Buddha saw?

(a) He felt dejected and sorrowful
(b) He renounced royalty
(c) He decided to become an ascetic
(d) He decided to consult a pandit

ii. At what age did the prince return home to marry a princess?

iii. What did the sights Gautama witnessed at the age of twenty-five years drive him to?
Answer in about 40 words.

iv. Why was Prince Siddhartha sent away at the age of twelve?

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7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. He stalks in his vivid stripes
The few steps of his cage
On pads of velvet quiet
In his quiet rage
He should be lurking in shadow
Sliding through long grass
Near the water hole where plump deer pass.
(A Tiger in the Zoo)

i. Fill the blank with one word.

The poetic device used in the first line of the given extract is _____ because the poet
has used ‘He’ for the tiger.

ii. What is the significance of the use of the phrase “quiet rage” to describe the mood of
the tiger in the poem and how does this word choice contribute to the overall mood and
tone of the poem? Answer in about 40 words.

iii. According to the extract, the poet wishes for the tiger to be ‘sliding’ through the foliage
as this would _____.
(a) keep the prey unsuspecting of the predator’s footsteps
(b) aid in camouflaging the presence of the predator before it rushes in
(c) help the predator pounce on the prey comfortably without getting tired
(d) support the predator’s vision as it eyes its prey

iv. Identify the type of imagery used in the lines of the poem.

B. Belinda giggled till she shook the house,

And Blink said Weeck! which is giggling for a mouse,
Ink and Mustard rudely asked his age,
When Custard cried for a nice safe cage.
Suddenly, suddenly they heard a nasty sound,
And Mustard growled, and they all looked around.
(The Tale of Custard, the Dragon)

i. In what way does the dragon’s desperate wish to remain in a cage challenge the traditional
behaviour of dragons?

ii. What is the significance of the use of the words ‘giggled’ and ‘weeck’ to describe laughter
in the poem and to what effect is this word choice used by the poet? Answer in about
40 words.

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iii. What can you infer from the repetition ‘suddenly, suddenly’ in the above extract?
(a) There was an immediate change in the scene.
(b) It focuses on the hasty attack and the loud noise.
(c) It emphasises that an unexpected noise was heard.
(d) It draws our attention to the loud cry that occurred.

iv. Identify the contrasting belief about dragons that does not apply to Custard in the
poem.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12

i. What were the destructions caused by the hailstorm?

(A Letter to God)

ii. How did Anne Frank’s friends behave just before the declaration of the exam results?
(From the Diary of Anne Frank)

iii. What was the most fascinating thing for Valli?

(Madam Rides the Bus)

iv. What message does the poet wish to convey through “The Ball Poem”?

v. In the poem “How to Tell Wild Animals”, how does the poet caution the reader regarding
the danger of animals?

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6

i. What happened at the ball? Was Matilda’s dream fulfilled?

(The Necklace)

ii. Is Max menacing or vulnerable? Comment with reference to “The Midnight Visitor”.

iii. Why did Bholi agree to the unsuitable match at first?

(Bholi)

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. “I’ll take the risk.” The narrator did take the risk. What difficulties did he face ? Who
do you think must have helped him ? As a pilot what would you do in such a situation
? Take risk or take a wise decision ?
(Two Stories About Flying)

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ii. “The sun shall never set on so glorious a human achievement.”

If you had to use the message of the above quote from Nelson Mandela (Nelson Mandela
Long Walk to Freedom) to portray the liberation of women and what it signifies (The
Trees), what would you include in it? Also, evaluate what we can take from the notion.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. Write a character sketch of Horace Danby.

(A Question of Trust)

ii. What was the impact of the book ‘The Travels of Monarch X’ on Richard Ebright ?
(The Making of a Scientist)

******

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Sample Paper 02
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10

1. There is no denying that technological advancements, such as mobile phones and the
internet, have reached unprecedented heights. Today, people can explore the universe
virtually without leaving their seat, thanks to smart devices and other modern technology.
Even though mobile internet access is often fast-paced and brief, it still offers essential
internet features such as notifications, weather updates, email services, search engines,
instant messaging, and downloading games or music.
2. With smartphones becoming increasingly accessible, communication has become faster
and more efficient. People can now connect with loved ones across the globe instantly
and affordably. Adults, in particular, are enthusiastic about these gadgets, adopting new
technology with ease. Moreover, smartphones have enabled young people to expand their
knowledge and improve their skills by conducting research online. For instance, students
use smartphones to find definitions of unfamiliar words, and universities offering online
courses allow students to submit assignments conveniently through mobile devices.
3. In emergencies, mobile phones have proven to be lifesavers for many. Additionally,
smartphones play a crucial role in crime prevention, as they enable citizens to quickly
provide vital information to security forces.
4. However, for young people, smartphones can become addictive, leading to misuse. There
is also the risk of engaging in inappropriate activities online, which can negatively
impact academic performance. Therefore, it is essential that young users are supervised
and educated about the potential harmful effects of smartphone misuse.
5. The popularity of mobile phones is also driven by the availability of prepaid or pay-as-
you-go services, which can be purchased in phone shops or online stores. These services

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allow users to add credits to their phones using credit cards, debit cards, or prepaid
cards from their network provider. For those who prefer an alternative, subscription
plans with monthly payments are available.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the phrase “people can explore the universe virtually without leaving their
seat” imply about the accessibility of modern technology? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Smartphones have made communication more efficient because :
(a) they are always available at low prices.
(b) they allow instant and cost-effective global connectivity.
(paragraph 2)

iii. How does the writer support the claim that mobile phones can be lifesaving in
emergencies? 2
(paragraph 3)

iv. Choose the correct option that describes the negative impact of mobile phones on young
people: 1
(a) Young people misuse phones to improve their academic performance.
(b) Smartphones can become addictive for young people and lead them to undesirable
activities.
(paragraph 4)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False : 1

Prepaid services can only be purchased from a physical phone shop.
(paragraph 5)

vi. Which of the following is an example of prepaid service availability mentioned in the
passage? 1
(A) Monthly subscription plans available with major network providers.
(B) Using a prepaid card purchased online to top up airtime.
(C) Buying a second-hand smartphone from an online retailer.
(D) Subscribing to a yearly internet package.
(paragraph 5)

vii. List any two reasons why smartphones are beneficial for students, as mentioned in the
passage. 2
(paragraph 2)

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viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

In the phrase “smartphones have proven to be lifesavers for many,” the word “lifesavers”
refers to :
(A) Devices that provide entertainment and social connectivity.
(B) Tools that assist people during critical situations, such as emergencies.
(C) Phones that are used for online shopping and financial transactions.
(D) Gadgets that help people avoid boredom during downtime.
(paragraph 3)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The Amazon Rainforest, often referred to as the “lungs of the Earth,” plays a vital role
in regulating the global climate. It absorbs large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO2) and
produces approximately 20% of the world’s oxygen. This vast tropical forest spans nine
countries in South America, with the majority located in Brazil.
2. The Amazon is home to an extraordinary diversity of life. It harbors around 10% of all
known species, including plants, animals, and insects, many of which are found nowhere
else on Earth. Its biodiversity makes it one of the most important ecosystems in the
world.
3. Unfortunately, deforestation is a growing threat to the Amazon. Over the past few
decades, large areas of the forest have been cleared for agriculture, mining, and logging.
This destruction not only threatens wildlife but also contributes to increased CO2
emissions, accelerating global warming.
4. Efforts to curb deforestation have been made by several countries and international
organizations. Reforestation projects, stricter enforcement of environmental laws, and
sustainable farming practices are some of the measures being taken to preserve the Amazon.
However, illegal logging and land-grabbing continue to undermine these efforts.
5. Scientists warn that if deforestation continues at the current rate, the Amazon may
reach a tipping point where it can no longer sustain itself. This would have catastrophic
consequences, including the loss of biodiversity and the release of enormous amounts of
CO2 into the atmosphere, further exacerbating climate change

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the phrase “lungs of the Earth” in paragraph 1 suggest about the Amazon
Rainforest? 1
(A) It is the only source of oxygen for the planet.
(B) It plays a key role in producing oxygen and regulating the climate.
(C) It consumes most of the world’s CO2.
(D) It is crucial for agriculture.

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ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below. 1
Assertion : The Amazon Rainforest is one of the most biodiverse ecosystems on Earth.
Reason : It is home to around 10% of all known species.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the primary cause of deforestation mentioned in the passage. 1

iv. How do deforestation and global warming relate, according to the passage? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the
blank: 1
The Amazon Rainforest is home to an extraordinary variety of life, including many
species found nowhere else on Earth.
The percentage of the Amazon’s biodiversity that is home to all known species is _____
(10% / 20% / 30%).

vi. What do reforestation projects aim to achieve, according to the passage? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1
The Amazon’s biodiversity is important because _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Deforestation contributes to climate change because _____.

ix. Based on paragraph 5, describe the potential consequences of the Amazon reaching a
tipping point. 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
The bridge is being _____ at the moment so it can’t be used.
(a) repaired (b) repairing
(c) repair (d) repairs

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ii. Read the conversation between Raman and Anitha. Complete the sentence by reporting
Anitha’s reply correctly.
Raman : What’s the matter, Anitha?
Anitha : Oh, nothing. You cannot help me. I only want that blue umbrella.
Raman asked Anitha what the matter was. She replied that it was nothing and he could
not help her as _____

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line.
_____ I suggest a slight change in your plan ?
(a) May (b) Would
(c) Must (d) Will

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following line:
The people of India show remarkable unity at the time of Kargil Conflict.
Option No. Error Correction
(a) time times
(b) conflict conflicts
(c) show showed
(d) The A

v. Complete the given sentence, by filling in the blank with the correct option :
When I was a child, I _____ to school everyday instead of going by cycle.
(a) walked (b) have been walking
(c) had walked (d) have walked

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket.
Many a student _____ (try) hard to pass his entrance exam.

vii. Report the dialogue between Gardener and Dev, by completing the sentence :
Gardener: Did you water the plant today?
Dev: No, but I will, today.
Gardener: Then tomorrow I will get a sapling of sunflower.
The Gardener asked Dev if he had watered the plant that day. Dev replied negatively
but said he would that day. Then the gardener said that _____

viii. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
Diwali, well known as the festival of lights, is a festival that is celebrate in almost all
parts of India.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

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ix. Transform the following direct speech into reported speech :

The beggar said to the old man, “Can you tell me the way to the nearest temple?”

x. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
You have a large number of shirts. You can not buy any more.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

xi. Rohit and Rajat are discussing their plans for the weekend. Complete the dialogue below
by choosing the correct option.
Rohit : How do you like the idea of going to the zoo?
Rajat : That sounds good, But I _____ my parent’s permission.
(a) needs to take (b) need not to take
(c) needs not to take (d) need to take

xii. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
At the age of seventeen, Galileo know that he had discovered an important law- a law
of a pendulum.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

WRITING 10

Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and created for
assessment purpose.

4A. Write a letter to the editor of a newspaper highlighting the problem of traffic jam near
Chinpumi Temple Crossing and suggesting some remedy for it. 5

O

4B. You are Neelam/Rakesh, Store Incharge Diksha Stores, 32/54, Rajeev Nagar, Delhi.
Your school requires school bags and accessories in bulk for the commencement of the
new session. Write a letter of inquiry to the Sales Manager, Sky Bags Industries Ltd.
15/3, Ravi Nagar, Delhi enquiring about the details of goods manufactured.

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5A. The two maps below show an island, before and after the construction of some tourist
facilities. Write an analytical paragraph in about 120 words by selecting and reporting
the main features, and making comparisons where relevant. 5

O

5B. Study the concept chart from a recent study by WHO that has described some positive
effects of quitting smoking.

Write an analytical paragraph in about 120 words, analysing the given information.

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SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A. Oop: I haven’t a clue. I’ve been to seven galaxies, but I’ve never seen anything like this.
Maybe they’re hats. (He opens a book and puts it on his head.) Say, maybe this is a
haberdashery!
Omega: (bowing low) Perhaps the Great and Mighty Think-Tank will give us the benefit
of his thought on the matter.
Think-Tank : Elementary, my dear Omega. Hold one of the items up so that I may
view it closely. (Omega holds a book on the palm of her hand.) Yes, yes, I understand
now. Since Earth creatures are always eating, the place in, which you find yourselves is
undoubtedly a crude refreshment stand.
(The Book that Saved the Earth)
i. Why did Omega bow low before Think-Tank?

ii. What effect does Think-Tank’s observation, as described in the lines below, have on Omega?
Omega: (bowing low) Perhaps the Great and Mighty Think-Tank will give us the benefit
of his thought on the matter.
Choose the most suitable option.
(a) confuses (b) entertains
(c) reassures (d) alarms

iii. What is Think-Tank proud of? Answer with reference to the extract in about 40 words.

iv. What does Think-Tank intend to convey with the phrase “Elementary, my dear Omega”?

B. On the day of the inauguration, I was overwhelmed with a sense of history. In the first
decade of the twentieth century, a few years after the bitter Anglo-Boer war and before
my own birth, the white skinned peoples of South Africa patched up their differences
and erected a system of racial domination against the dark-skinned peoples of their own
land. The structure they created formed the basis of one of the harshest, most inhumane,
societies the world has ever known.
(Nelson Mandela : Long Walk to Freedom)
i. The system of racial domination against the dark-skinned people was called as _____.
(a) the policy of apartheid (b) racial discrimination
(c) inhumane system (d) harshest system
ii. Why did the speaker call that structure ‘one of the harshest and the most inhumane’ ?
Answer in about 40 words.
iii. Fill in the blank with ONE WORD only.
Mandela is filled with _____ in the given extract.

iv. With what sense was the speaker overwhelmed during the inauguration?

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7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. If ever you should go by chance
To jungles in the East;
And if there should to you advance
A large and tawny beast,
If he roars at you as you’re dyin’
You’ll know it is the Asian Lion ....
(How to Tell Wild Animals)
i. Fill in the blank with ONE word only.
A person’s heart begins to beat when the lion roars because he is _____.

ii. What does the poet mean by ‘Jungles in the East’ ?

(a) Forests in East direction (b) Forests of India
(c) Forests in Asian countries (d) Forest in the East of London

iii. What does the poet say about the Asian Lion in this extract? Answer in about 40 words.

iv. Which genre is most appropriate for the poem?

B. The fog comes on little cat feet.

It sits looking over harbour and city
on silent haunches and then moves on.
(Fog)
i. Highlight any two characteristics of fog from its description in the poem.

ii. How does the poet compare fog to a cat? Answer in about 40 words.

iii. Why do you think fog is a free verse poem?

(a) It has only six lines.
(b) It has no regular rhyme scheme.
(c) It is divided in two paragraphs.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

iv. Comment, in detail, on the significance of the closing phrase of the poem- ‘moves on’.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12

i. Why does the postmaster send money to Lencho? Why does he sign the letter ‘God’ ?
(A Letter to God)

ii. What special characteristic of Mijbil did Maxwell learn after he took him to the
bathroom?
(Mijbil the Otter)

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iii. Why did the Buddha ask Kisa Gotami to bring a handful of mustard seeds?
(The Sermon at Benares)

iv. Describe the method Anne Gregory suggested in order to prove that she is loved for who
she is.
(For Anne Gregory)

v. “Fire and Ice” project a pessimistic outlook. Comment.

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6

i. Why was Tricki an uninteresting object for other dogs at the surgery?
(A Triumph of Surgery)

ii. Henry unintentionally saved Ausable’s life. Briefly comment.

(The Midnight Visitor)

iii. How did the Loisels react when they realized that the necklace had been lost?
(Necklace)

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. Valli was sensitive, but at the same time, she was fearless and quite determined. Think
of another character from your textbook, First Flight, who displayed similar character
traits. Compare and contrast the lives of Valli and the other character.

ii. Explain the phrase “the forest that was empty all these days”. After reading the poem
“The Trees”, for whom do you think are the forests needed ? Imagine you are a tree in
a forest, what values would you like the humans to learn from the tree?

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. “And in her smiling eyes was the right of deep satisfaction that an artist feels when he is
contemplating the completion of his masterpiece.” Imagine you are Bholi’s teacher. You
are overwhelmed with a sense of satisfaction to see the conversion of ‘Bholi’ to ‘Sulekha’.
Express your feelings in the form of a diary entry.

ii. Give a character-sketch of Hari Singh.

(The Thief ’s Story)

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Sample Paper 03
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10

1. In the classroom, expanding your thought process can involve focusing on something
known as problem-based learning. This method involves the teacher posing a problem or
question that doesn’t have an obvious or clear solution, and students are encouraged to
think creatively and explore different ways to solve it.
2. Wallace believes that problem-based learning helps students think in a scientific way. He
recalls an example from his own classroom where he had students read about fruit flies
that were missing an enzyme – a molecule that speeds up chemical reactions – needed to
break down alcohol. “I had seven groups of students, and each came up with a different
method to measure it,” he explains. “That’s what I call creativity in a science class.”
3. “Being creative means taking risks and not fearing mistakes,” Andrews says. Many
educators agree with her, suggesting that unexpected results provide valuable learning
experiences. A good scientist, Andrews says, would ask questions like “Why did this
happen?” and “What’s going on here?”
4. Engaging in discussions with others and working in teams also promote associative
thinking, a process where thoughts can flow freely from one idea to another, which
DeHaan explains is vital for creativity. Teamwork introduces a concept called distributed
reasoning, often referred to as brainstorming, where reasoning is shared among a group
of people.
5. “Creativity in science isn’t about drawing something nice to explain an idea,” Andrews
emphasizes. “It’s about asking what we can imagine together, what’s possible, and how
we could figure it out. That’s exactly what scientists do.”

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6. While arts and crafts can sometimes be helpful in presenting ideas, Smith points out
that this isn’t the same as recognizing the creativity that’s an inherent part of science.
“We often overlook the fact that science itself is a creative process,” she says.
7. Smith continues by explaining, “The creativity in science lies in ideas, representations,
and discoveries. It’s different from creating something like a papier-mâché globe and
painting it to represent the Earth.”
8. At the end of the day, educators and scientists agree that anyone can learn to think like
a scientist. “In schools, students often get the impression that science is only for a highly
gifted group of people,” says Herschbach. But he strongly believes that this is not the case.
9. “Scientists don’t have to be exceptionally intelligent,” Herschbach adds. “If you put in
the effort, the knowledge is there waiting for you. By working hard, you’ll have a great
opportunity to contribute to our species’ collective adventure of discovering more about
the world.”

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what does the term “problem-based learning” imply about the teaching
approach in classrooms? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Problem-based learning encourages students to :
(a) Find a clear and straightforward solution.
(b) Think creatively and explore multiple solutions to a problem.
(paragraph 1)
iii. How does Wallace’s example of fruit flies without an enzyme illustrate creativity in
scientific learning? 2
(paragraph 2)
iv. Choose the option that best reflects Andrews’ view on creativity in science : 1
(a) Creativity in science is about taking risks and not being afraid of mistakes.
(b) Creativity in science involves drawing appealing representations of ideas.
(paragraph 3)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Working with others and discussing ideas fosters associative thinking, which contributes
to creativity in science.
(paragraph 4)
vi. The writer mentions “distributed reasoning” in paragraph 4. Which of the following is
an example of distributed reasoning? 1
(A) Individual reflection on a problem before solving it.
(B) Group brainstorming where ideas are shared among team members.
(C) Analyzing scientific data by oneself.
(D) Referring to past experiences to solve an issue.

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vii. List any two points that differentiate arts and crafts from scientific creativity, as
mentioned by Smith. 2
(paragraphs 6 and 7)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

Herschbach believes that scientific thinking is accessible to everyone because :
(A) Science is a special gift for the exceptionally talented.
(B) Anyone who works hard can learn to think like a scientist.
(C) Science requires artistic skills to explain ideas visually.
(D) Scientific discovery depends entirely on intelligence.
(paragraph 8 and 9)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Coral reefs, often called the “rainforests of the sea,” are some of the most diverse
ecosystems on the planet. They support a vast range of marine life, providing shelter,
food, and breeding grounds for numerous species. Coral reefs cover less than 1% of the
ocean floor but are home to more than 25% of marine species.
2. Coral reefs are not only important for marine biodiversity but also for humans. They
protect coastlines from erosion and storm surges, and they support fishing industries
and tourism, providing jobs and income for millions of people worldwide.
3. Unfortunately, coral reefs are under severe threat due to climate change, overfishing,
and pollution. Coral bleaching, caused by rising ocean temperatures, weakens the reefs
and makes them more vulnerable to disease and death. Studies estimate that if current
trends continue, more than 90% of the world’s coral reefs could be lost by 2050.
4. Efforts are being made globally to protect and restore coral reefs. Marine protected
areas, sustainable fishing practices, and coral farming are some of the methods being
employed to preserve these ecosystems. However, without significant action to reduce
carbon emissions and curb global warming, these efforts may not be enough.
5. Scientists emphasize the urgency of addressing climate change to save coral reefs.
Protecting these ecosystems is not only essential for marine life but also for the millions
of people who depend on them for their livelihood.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the phrase “rainforests of the sea” in paragraph 1 suggest about coral
reefs? 1
(A) They grow trees underwater.
(B) They are as biodiverse as rainforests.
(C) They occupy a large part of the ocean.
(D) They protect the planet from global warming.

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ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below. 1
Assertion : Coral reefs are vital for marine biodiversity.
Reason : Coral reefs protect coastlines from erosion.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of the ocean floor that coral reefs cover, as mentioned in the
passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two major human-related benefits of coral reefs? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the
blank: 1
The current global scenario, coral reefs are under threat from climate change, pollution,
and overfishing. Scientists predict a significant loss of coral reefs in the coming decades.
The percentage of coral reefs that could be lost by 2050 is _____ (60% / 90% / 75%).

vi. What are some of the methods mentioned in the passage that are being used to protect
and restore coral reefs? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Coral bleaching is caused by .

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Scientists believe coral reefs are essential because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is reducing carbon emissions important for the
survival of coral reefs? 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
At one time, Mr. Nigel _____ this supermarket.
(a) owned (b) used to own
(c) had owned (d) was owing

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ii. Read the conversation between Nisha and Anjali. Complete the narration by reporting
Anjali’s reply correctly.
Nisha : I want to improve my command over the English language.
Anjali : For that you need to do a lot of reading in English.
Nisha said she wanted to improve her command over the English language. Anjali said
that _____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line.
Principal to a student : You _____ with bad girls.
(a) must not mix (b) cannot mix
(c) may not mix (d) None of these
iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line:
We, here in India have so many religions, we eat so many different foods, we wear so
much different kinds of dresses.
Option No. Error Correction

(a) much many

(b) eat ate
(c) have has
(d) wear wears

v. Complete the given sentence, by filling in the blank with the correct option :
Two years have passed since he _____ here.
(a) has come (b) come
(c) came (d) had come

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket.
They _____ (wish) me on my birthday every year.

vii. Report the dialogue between Parul and Nikhil, by completing the narration:
Parul : Where did you spend your holidays?
Nikhil : I went to many hill stations.
Parul asked Nikhil _____. Nikhil replied that he had gone to many hill stations.

viii. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
I like to drinking juice in the morning, and tea at lunchtime.
Use the given format for your answer:
Error Correction

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ix. Transform the following direct speech into reported speech:

“Who now”, they had asked, “will listen to our troubles and protect us from the
crocodiles?”

x. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
The father divided his property among his three sons lest they will quarrel afterwards.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

xi. Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue between Arthur and
Kevin.
Arthur : Kevin, are you going to the hospital again? Is your mother okay?
Kevin : My mother is now better. Thank God, she has been back to normal since Friday.
Arthur asked Kevin if he was going to the hospital again. He also asked him whether his
mother was okay. Kevin replied that _____ and thanking God, the boy said that his
mother had been back to normal since.
(a) his mother was better now
(b) his mother had been better now
(c) his mother is better now
(d) his mother has been better now

xii. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
I walk 3 kilometres each day to reach my school.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

WRITING 10

Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and created for
assessment purpose.

4A. You are Nitish /Nikita, the Head Boy/ Girl of Tagore Public School, Agra. Write a letter
to Messers New Star Sports, Kalkaji, New Delhi asking them to send sports equipment
for the games and sports department of your school. 5


O

4B. Write a letter to the editor of a local daily complaining against the school-bus drivers
for rash-driving and overcrowding of buses causing risk to the lives of innocent school
children. You are Dipti/Deepak of C-156, Janakpuri, New Delhi.

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5A. The following table gives information about some of the world’s most studied languages.
Write an analytical paragraph summarizing the given information by analyzing and
reporting the main and relevant information. 5
S. Languages No. of people Native speakers of Speakers in
No. studying a language a language
1. English 1.5 billion 527 million 101
2. French 82 million 118 million 51
3. Chinese 30 million 1.39 billion 33
4. Spanish 14.5million 389 million 31
5. Italian 8 million 67 million 29
6. Japanese 3 million 123 million 25

O

5B. Look at the given bar graph which shows the result of a survey conducted in the
public and government schools of Mathura. The graph depicts the types of activities the
teenagers from the age of 14 years to 19 years are involved in during their leisure time.

Write an analytical paragraph highlighting the result of the survey, including all the
main points and relevant information.

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SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A. It was only when I began to learn that my boyhood freedom was an illusion when I
discovered as a young man that my freedom had already been taken from me, that I
began to hunger for it. At first, as a student, I wanted freedom only for myself, the
transitory freedoms of being able to stay out at night, read what I pleased and go where
I chose. Later, as a young man in Johannesburg, I yearned for the basic and honourable
freedoms of achieving my potential, of earning my keep, of marrying and having a family
- the freedom not to be obstructed in a lawful life.
(Nelson Mandela: Long Walk to Freedom)

i. What effect does the experience, as described in the lines below, have on the narrator?
It was only when I began to learn that my boyhood freedom was an illusion when I
discovered as a young man that my freedom had already been taken from me, that I
began to hunger for it.
Choose the most suitable option.
(A) frustrates (B) motivates
(C) discourages (D) liberates

ii. Why was freedom an illusion for the speaker?

iii. Why do you think the speaker mentions some freedoms as ‘transitory’ ? Answer in about
40 words.

iv. From where does the speaker’s hunger for freedom begin?

B. “Marriage gifts are meaningless without the sweet bread known as the ‘bol’ just as a
party or a feast loses its charm without bread. Not enough can be said to show how
important a baker can be for a village. The lady of the house must prepare sandwiches
on the occasion of her daughter’s engagement. Cakes and ‘bor are a must for Christmas
as well as other festivals. Thus, the presence of the baker in the village is absolutely
essential.”
(Glimpses of India)

i. Breads are a very important part of the culture of the people in Goa.
Which of the given options does not corroborate the statement?
(a) Bols are central to marriage celebrations and festivals.
(b) Festivals especially Christmas are incomplete without cakes.
(c) Every house has their own furnace in Goa.
(d) Special sandwiches are made on a daughter’s engagement.

ii. What makes the marriage gifts meaningless? Answer in about 40 words.

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iii. What is the name of the sweet bread that is essential for marriage gifts in the village
according to the passage?

iv. What is the traditional name of bakers in Goa and what made them different from other
people in appearance?

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. An ultimate shaking grief fixes the boy
As he stands rigid, trembling, staring down
All his young days into the harbour where
His ball went. I would not intrude on him;
A dime, another ball, is worthless.
Now he senses first responsibility
In a world of possessions.
(The Ball Poem)
i. Fill the blank with one word.
The boy’s ball went into the dark waters of the _____.

ii. What is the significance of the use of the words ‘All his young days into the harbour’ to
describe the loss of the ball in the poem and how does this word choice contribute to the
overall mood and tone of the poem?

iii. Complete the statement with correct facts :

‘I’ will not intrude on the boy because _____.
(a) he won’t like the intrusion.
(b) ‘I’ wants him to face the situation.
(c) another ball can be given to him.
(d) the boy is stubborn.

iv. Comment on the poet’s use of language in these lines.

B. He stalks in his vivid stripes

The few steps of his cage,
On pads of velvet quiet,
In his quiet rage.
He should be lurking in shadow,
Sliding through long grass
Near the water hole
Where plump deer pass.
(A Tiger in the Zoo)

i. Why is the tiger in a ‘quiet rage’ ?

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ii. Complete the following sentence with the appropriate option.

The meaning of the line ‘in his quiet rage’ is _____.
(a) The tiger is hungry
(b) The tiger is sleepy
(c) The tiger is unhappy and controlling his anger
(d) The tiger is lazy

iii. How does the tiger show his presence?

iv. Why does a tiger express his rage quietly ? Answer in about 40 words.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12

i. Mr. Keesing was a strict but kind teacher. Explain the truth of this statement.
(From the Diary of Anne Frank)

ii. What does Natalya say about the dog named Guess?
(The Proposal)

iii. How did the young seagull try to catch the attention of his family?
(Two Stories About Flying)

iv. How would a life on a tower be different from a life anywhere else for Amanda ?
(Amanda!)

v. Do you think the trees are justified in the revolt? State two values which man should
possess to stop the revolt.
(The Trees)

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6

i. How and when did Matilda find the borrowed necklace missing ?
(The Necklace)

ii. “The two boys stared in surprise at the fresh muddy imprints of a pair of bare feet.” What
did the bewildered boys observe while looking at these footprints ?
(Footprints Without Feet)

iii. Had Anil really forgiven Hari Singh ? Support your answer with evidence.
(The Thief ’s Story)

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10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. “So, in order not to shake the writer’s faith in God, the postmaster came up with an idea
to answer the letter”.
What does this statement tell us about the postmaster? Was his idea successful ? How
did the receiver react?
(A Letter to God)

ii. Being impressed by Custard’s feat, the young seagull’s sister wrote a letter to Custard seeking
advice on addressing the situation with her young brother. Write Custard’s response to this
letter. Base the advice from his experiences.
You may begin like this :
Dear Ms Seagull,
Thank you for seeking me out. I am humbled. Based on my limited experiences I feel...
(The Tale of Custard the Dragon)

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. After reading the story ‘Bholi’ by the author K.A. Abbas, what impression do you form
of the protagonist of the story Bholi?

ii. “Horace had some hope because she seemed to be amused at meeting him.” Why did
Horace feel so? Did he consider the young lady compassionate towards him? Did he find
her free from biases? Discuss the values Horace should have imbibe understanding of the
person.
(A Question of Trust)

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Sample Paper 04
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Just like bad news or the common cold, allergies can appear without warning. A few
years ago, I suddenly developed an allergy to Cronin (Paracetamol), despite using it my
entire life for everything from headaches to fevers and toothaches. A friend of mine, who
loved seafood, found himself struggling to breathe after eating Thai food. After several
costly tests, doctors concluded that his chest tightness was due to a newfound shellfish
allergy, something he had been eating regularly without any prior reaction.
2. Common symptoms of an allergic reaction include a runny or congested nose, frequent
sneezing, itchy throat, rashes, sinus issues, ear pain, difficulty breathing, stomach
cramps, and red, itchy, or watery eyes. Pollen, dust, and polluted air are some typical
environmental allergens, along with indoor triggers such as dust mites, cigarette smoke,
and mould. Other culprits include medicines, paint, and chemicals in household cleaners
and cosmetics. Among foods, eight major allergens – milk, soy, wheat, eggs, peanuts,
tree nuts, fish, and shellfish – account for 90% of food allergies.
3. Many mistakenly think allergies only appear in childhood or that people are born with
them. In reality, allergies can develop at any point in life, and experts note that their
incidence among adults is increasing. While many adults with allergies have had some
allergic reactions before, either to the same or a different trigger, others may develop
allergies with no prior history of sensitivity.
4. In cases of acute immune reactions, the allergy trigger might be singular, but the
symptoms usually arise from a combination of factors. Stress, overly sterile environments
that limit the body’s ability to develop natural immunity, and lifestyle-induced hormonal
imbalances are believed to be some triggers. Clinical studies support this, showing that

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women are more prone to developing allergies during puberty, after pregnancy, and at
menopause, pointing to hormonal changes as a cause.
5. Avoiding the allergen and promptly taking anti-allergy medication after exposure is the
best form of prevention. Since pollen levels are usually highest in the morning, people with
respiratory sensitivities or asthma should delay outdoor exercise until later in the day or
opt for indoor workouts. This is because aerobic exercise increases breathing depth and
rate, causing more pollen and dust to be inhaled, which can harm the airways and lungs.
6. Allergies in adults can be treated with anti-allergy medications. For those who don’t
respond to conventional treatment, allergy shots can help the immune system build
tolerance to the allergen. However, in most cases, simply identifying and avoiding the
allergen is enough to manage symptoms.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what does the comparison between allergies and bad news or the common
cold suggest about how allergies can develop? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Allergies can sometimes develop later in life because :
(a) People are always allergic from birth but don’t notice it until adulthood.
(b) Allergies can emerge unexpectedly, even in those with no previous reactions.
(paragraph 3)

iii. Support the writer’s claim that multiple factors can contribute to allergy symptoms,
even when only one trigger is present. 2
(paragraph 4)
iv. Select the option that best reflects the idea of avoiding allergens to prevent symptoms : 1
(a) People with allergies should identify triggers and avoid them completely to prevent
reactions.
(b) Taking medication is more important than identifying and avoiding allergens.
(paragraph 5)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
Women are more likely to develop allergies during certain hormonal changes, such as
puberty and menopause.
(paragraph 4)

vi. The writer mentions that some people might not respond to standard anti-allergy
treatment. 1
Which of the following is an alternative treatment option mentioned in the passage?
(A) Switching to natural remedies.
(B) Taking higher doses of the same medication.
(C) Receiving a series of allergy shots to build tolerance.
(D) Using painkillers for symptom relief.
(paragraph 6)

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vii. List any two examples of common environmental allergens mentioned in the passage. 2
(paragraph 2)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

In the phrase “identifying and avoiding the allergen is enough to stay free of trouble,”
the word “trouble” refers to :
(A) The hassle of allergy testing.
(B) Experiencing allergy symptoms and reactions.
(C) Having to take medication daily.
(D) Managing lifestyle changes due to an allergy.
(paragraph 6)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Wetlands are among the most productive ecosystems on Earth, providing essential
services such as water filtration, flood control, and habitat for a wide variety of species.
They act as natural sponges, absorbing excess rainfall and reducing the impact of floods
on surrounding areas.
2. Wetlands also play a critical role in improving water quality by filtering pollutants and
sediments from water before it enters rivers, lakes, or oceans. Many species of fish, birds,
and insects rely on wetlands for food, shelter, and breeding grounds.
3. However, wetlands are disappearing at an alarming rate due to human activities such as
agriculture, urbanization, and industrial development. Over the last century, nearly 50%
of the world’s wetlands have been lost.
4. Conservation efforts are underway to protect and restore wetlands. These efforts include
creating protected areas, enforcing stricter regulations, and promoting sustainable land
use practices. Communities are also being educated about the importance of wetlands
for their health, economy, and environment.
5. Scientists warn that continued loss of wetlands will not only lead to a decline in
biodiversity but also increase the risk of floods, water pollution, and loss of livelihoods
for millions of people who depend on these ecosystems.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the phrase “natural sponges” in paragraph 1 suggest about wetlands? 1
(A) They produce water.
(B) They absorb excess rainfall, reducing floods.
(C) They are artificial environments.
(D) They are used for agriculture.

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ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below. 1
Assertion : Wetlands are important for water quality.
Reason : Wetlands absorb pollutants and sediments before water reaches rivers, lakes,
or oceans.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of the world’s wetlands that have been lost, as mentioned in the
passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two essential services provided by wetlands? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Ravi’s town, a wetland area was restored to prevent flooding and improve water quality.
The percentage of global wetlands lost over the last century that this restoration helps
to reverse is _____ (50% / 20% / 70%).

vi. What are some of the methods mentioned in the passage that are being used to protect
and restore wetlands? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Wetlands help improve water quality by.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Scientists believe wetland conservation is important because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is the continued loss of wetlands a serious concern? 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete an online update.
The mystery of why, home _____ biggest tech cos, can’t solve visa backlog.
(a) for world’s (b) to world’s
(c) of world’s (d) on world’s

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ii. Read the conversation and complete the passage given below :
Gardener : Did you water the plant today?
Dev : No, but I will today.
Gardener : Then tomorrow I will get a sapling of sunflower.
The gardener asked Dev whether he had watered the plant that day. Dev replied
negatively but further informed that _____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from an International
front.
UN World Population Prospects 2022 predict that on November 15, global population
will cross 8 billion, and during 2023, India will take over China’s.
(a) is predicting (b) had predicted
(c) predicts (d) has predicted

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from an article:
Environment pollution has posed a serious threat not only on man but also among all
living beings.
Option No. Error Correction
(a) has had
(b) threat threatened
(c) on in
(d) among amongst

v. Complete the given narrative, by filling in the blank with the correct option:
A. J. Cronin was a Scottish novelist and physician whose _____ combining realism
with social criticism won a large Anglo-American readership.
(a) was working (b) will be working
(c) works (d) has been working

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given
portion of a letter:
Subject: Bullying of a Class X student
Respected Sir/Madam,
With due respect, I bring to your notice that my brother, Ashutosh Roy, of Class X D,
_____ (stay) in dormitory No. 20 for last 6 months.

vii. Report the dialogue, by completing the sentence:

Reena : Do you know how to swim?
Surbhi : Yes, I know. I have learnt it during this summer vacation.
Reena asked Surbhi whether she knew how to swim. To this, Surbhi replied _____.

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viii. Identify the error in the given sentence, from a magazine report and supply the correction.
Of all the honours bestowed in Indian Cinema, Dada Sahib Phalke award is a jewel in
the crown.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

ix. Place the correct form of the word in the blank:

A metaphor is a figure of speech that, for _____ (rhetoric) effect, directly refers to
one thing by mentioning another.

x. Read the slogan by the Ministry of Forest. Identify the error and supply the correction.
The little effort towards saving the environment is better than no effort.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

xi. Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue between Umar and
his friend, Lalit.
Umar : Where have you been all these days, Lalit?
Lalit : I was a little occupied with my board’s preparation.
Umar asked Lalit where he had been all those days. In response to the question, he
replied _____.
(a) he has been a little occupied with his board’s preparation.
(b) that he had been a little occupied with his board’s preparation.
(c) if he has been a little occupied with his board’s preparation.
(d) that he has been a little occupied with his board’s preparation.

xii. Identify the error on a newspaper headline and supply the correction. In 5 years, the web
of ropeways could help end Shimla city’s traffic woes.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

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WRITING 10

Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and created for
assessment purpose.

4A. Your school had organised an educational trip to Fatehpur Sikri and Agra. You notice
the dilapidated condition of some of the monuments. Write a letter to the Municipal
Chairman of Agra mentioning the condition and requesting him to take urgent steps for
the prevention of this valuable heritage. You are Anuj/Anju, 40 Civil Lines, New Town.
(100-120 words)


O
4B. You are Anshul/ Anshika, a student of Grade X and a resident of 36 D Ring Road, ITO,
New Delhi, wants to be a choreographer. Recently you came across an advertisement by
Set Fire Dance Academy, MG Road, New Delhi, which offers various forms of dancing.
Write an enquiry letter seeking information about the course and its package. (100-120
words)

5A. The given chart shows the division of household tasks by gender in Great Britain. Write
an analytical paragraph describing the chart, in not more than 100-120 words.

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O
5B. Given below is a tabular statistic showing the quality of life in five countries, assessed
under specific parameters.
Write an analytical paragraph on the given information by selecting and reporting the
main features, and make comparisons where relevant. Write in 100-120 words.
Country GNP per head Daily calorie Life expectancy Infant mortality
(1982 : US supply per at birth (years) (per 1000 live
dollars) head births)
Bangladesh 140 1877 40 132
Bolivia 570 2086 50 124
Egypt 690 2950 56 97
Indonesia 580 2296 49 87
USA 13160 3653 74 12

SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5

A. The moon was coming up in the east, behind me, and stars were shining in the clear sky
above me. There wasn’t a cloud in the sky. I was happy to be alone high up above the
sleeping countryside.
(Two Stories about Flying)

i. What feeling does the pilot experience, as described in the lines below?
“The moon was coming up in the east, behind me, and stars were shining in the clear
sky above me. There wasn’t a cloud in the sky. I was happy to be alone high up above
the sleeping countryside.”
Choose the most suitable option :
(a) loneliness
(b) contentment
(c) anxiety
(d) confusion

ii. What is the significance of not a single cloud in the sky?

iii. What was the pilot flying?

iv. How did the pilot feel after calling the Paris Control the first time? Answer in about 40
words.

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B. “It was only when I began to learn that my boyhood freedom was an illusion, when
I discovered as a young man that my freedom had already been taken from me, that
I began to hunger for it. At first as a student I wanted freedom only for myself the
transitory freedoms of being able to stay out at night, read what I pleased and go where
I chose. Later; as a young man in Johannesburg, I yearned for the basic and honourable
freedoms of achieving my potential, of earning my keep, of marrying and having a
family-the freedom not to be obstructed in a lawful life.”
(Nelson Mandela: Long Walk to Freedom)

i. The speaker’s attitude towards his freedom when he was in his boyhood can be summed
up as _____.
(a) being self- centered
(b) being naive
(c) being foolish
(d) being indifferent to others

ii. How does Nelson Mandela understand the concept of “transitory freedoms”? Answer in
about 40 words.

iii. In the statement, ‘I discovered as a young man that my freedom had already been taken
from me, that I began to hunger for it,’ what was Mandela hungering after?

iv. If ‘Point of View’ is the narration of a story that can be told from a first, second, or third
person’s point of view, the given extract is told _____.

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. “Ink trickled down to the bottom of the
household and little mouse Blink
strategically mouseholed. But up jumped
Custard, snorting like an engine, Clashed
his tail like irons in a dungeon, With a clatter
and a clank and a jangling squirm, He went
at the pirate like a robin at a worm.”
(The Tale of Custard the Dragon)

i. Complete the sentence appropriately.

It is clear that the figure of speech used in ‘With a latter and a clank and a jangling
Squirm’ is Onomatopoeia because _____.

ii. What is the poet’s purpose in using the onomatopoeic words given in the extract?
(a) To emphasise the boldness of Custard
(b) To introduce the character
(c) To impress upon the readers
(d) To make Custard bold enough

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iii. The extract mentions ‘irons’ in dungeons.

According to this extract, what does ‘irons’ refer to?

iv. ‘He went at the pirate like a robin at a worm. Why has this comparison been used here?
Answer in about 40 words.

B. If strolling forth, a beast you view,

Whose hide with spots is peppered,
As soon as he has lept on you,
You’ll know it is the Leopard.
‘Twill do no good to roar with pain,
He’ll only lep and lep again.
(How to Tell Wild Animals)
i. In what way does the language used in this line challenges the traditional ideas of how
poetry should be written?
“I will do no good to roar with pain, He’ll only lep and lep again.”

ii. What is the significance of humour while describing the wild beasts in the poem and
how does this contribute to the overall mood and tone of the poem? Answer in about 40
words.

iii. Complete the sentence with the appropriate option.

The contextual meaning of the word ‘peppered’ in the stanza _____.
(a) refers to the spots of the leopard
(b) refers to the camouflage of the leopard
(c) means that the leopard has spotted you
(d) means that you have spotted the leopard

iv. Why does roaring with pain will not do any good?

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12

i. Chubukov says of Natalya: “... as if she won’t consent! She’s in love; egad, she’s like a
lovesick cat...” Would you agree? Find reasons for your answer.
(The Proposal)

ii. Why does the poet say that ‘Money is external’ ?

(The Ball Poem)

iii. How is the fog like a cat? What three things does the poem suggest?
(Fog)

iv. Why did Maxwell call the airhostess “the very queen of her kind”?
(Mijbil the Otter)

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v. ‘Paper has more patience than people.’ Do you agree/disagree? Give reason.
(From the Diary of Anne Frank)

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6

i. “But there was one thing I could do-collect things”. What collection did Ebright make?
When did he start making collection?
(The Making of a Scientist)

ii. The best way to defend is to offend, but the same thing is not seen by Noodle. How does
he manage to do that?
(The Book That Saved the Earth)

iii. “Guilty mind is always conscious”. Do you think the thief was on the contrary obliged
to Anil? Substantiate your answer.
(The Thief ’s Story)

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. Imagine a software engineer meets Buddha and communicates the modern age anxiety
and the threat of livelihood. Suggest some philosophical tools which Buddha must have
preached him to handle the same.
(The Sermon at Benares)

ii. “Not enough can be said to show how important a baker can be for a village”. How were
the services of the baker required on various occasions?
(Glimpses of India)

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. Our sins never go unpunished. Horace Danby ultimately had to go to prison. This shows
that in spite of planning a crime intelligently and carefully, a criminal can’t escape the
law. Explain.
(A Question of Trust)

ii. Bholi and Matilda, both are distinct characters, wherein one gave importance to self-
instinct and the other gave importance to her beauty. Assume they both meet each other
at Bholi’s wedding and had a conversation over the greed of Bishamber.
Write this conversation as per your understanding of ‘Bholi’ and The Necklace’.
You may begin like this:
Matilda : Are you fine now?
Bholi : Ya! much relieved.
(Bholi)


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Sample Paper 05
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10

1. In December, a young man decided to leave Facebook after more than three years of
being active on the platform. With this decision, he silently cut ties with over 300
contacts he had added during that time. Like many of his peers, the 20-year-old used to
visit the site daily, sharing photos and updates. However, Facebook’s introduction of a
new feature called Timeline made him rethink the benefits and downsides of staying on
the platform.
2. “Everyone has personal things they’d rather not have displayed, and I’m not comfortable
with Facebook digging up my past and putting it on display for everyone,” says the
young man, who joined the site in July 2007 while in 11th grade.
3. The Timeline feature on Facebook condensed his activity on the site and presented
it in a neat, chronological order. While he initially appreciated the organization, he
didn’t like how older posts, which were once buried under recent updates, were now
easily accessible. By simply clicking on a date, anyone could scroll back in time and see
comments, links, or photos that he would prefer to leave in the past.
4. “I think it’s a bad idea,” he remarks. “In 2007, I made some posts that seemed fine at
the time, but now, four years later, I’ve moved on and don’t want those moments publicly
available for everyone.”
5. He’s not alone. Many other users, concerned about how their online activities on Facebook
might affect their personal lives, are choosing to leave the platform, a phenomenon often
referred to as “Facebook suicide.” Some users are worried about privacy, while others
feel that instead of fostering meaningful connections, Facebook reduces friendships to
superficial interactions.

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6. “Just ‘poking’ or ‘liking’ someone’s post isn’t enough to maintain a real friendship,”
says a business analyst who left Facebook three years ago. She prefers face-to-face
interactions with her close friends rather than reading their trivial updates online.
“People on Facebook exaggerate daily matters like what they ate or where they went,”
adds the analyst, who still uses Twitter.
7. “Facebook became a waste of time, and I couldn’t justify the hours spent on it,” the
young man reflects. “I now spend more time calling or meeting friends and family in
person, and I don’t regret the change.” Currently, Facebook boasts over 800 million
users globally, with 37 million users from India. The platform has become a core part
of many users’ identities, and those who decide to leave often experience withdrawal
and eventually return. Aware of its addictiveness, Facebook allows users to deactivate
accounts but stores their data, making it easy for them to come back anytime.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, what prompted the young man to reconsider his decision to stay on
Facebook? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

The Timeline feature on Facebook made the young man uneasy because :
(a) It made it difficult to find older posts.
(b) It revealed older posts that were previously hidden, making them easily accessible
to others.
(paragraph 3)
iii. How does the young man justify his discomfort with Facebook’s new Timeline feature? 2
(paragraph 3 and 4)

iv. Select the option that best reflects the concern of Facebook users who are leaving the
platform : 1
(a) They are worried that Facebook is becoming obsolete.
(b) They are concerned about privacy and feel that Facebook reduces friendships to
shallow interactions.
(paragraph 5)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
The business analyst believes that Facebook helps maintain real friendships.
(paragraph 6)
vi. The writer mentions that many users experience “withdrawal symptoms” after leaving
Facebook. 1
Which of the following is a factor that makes it easy for users to return?
(A) Facebook deletes all account information immediately.
(B) Facebook stores user data, allowing users to reactivate their accounts easily.
(C) Facebook prevents users from leaving the platform permanently.
(D) Facebook offers rewards to users who return.
(paragraph 7)

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vii. List two reasons why some people decide to quit Facebook, as mentioned in the
passage. 2
(paragraph 5 and 6)
viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1
The phrase “Facebook suicide” refers to :
(A) The act of deleting a Facebook account permanently.
(B) Taking a break from Facebook by deactivating the account temporarily.
(C) Leaving Facebook due to concerns about privacy or the superficiality of interactions.
(D) Using Facebook less frequently but keeping the account active.
(paragraph 5)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Forests are one of the most important ecosystems on Earth, covering approximately 31%
of the world’s land area. They provide essential services such as carbon storage, oxygen
production, and habitat for countless species. Forests also play a key role in regulating
the water cycle and preventing soil erosion.
2. Forests support biodiversity by providing shelter and food for a wide variety of plants,
animals, and microorganisms. Many indigenous communities also depend on forests for
their livelihoods, utilizing forest resources for food, medicine, and building materials.
3. However, deforestation is happening at an alarming rate, driven by agricultural expansion,
logging, and infrastructure development. Over the past 50 years, nearly 20% of the world’s
forests have been lost. This not only threatens biodiversity but also contributes to global
warming by reducing the number of trees available to absorb carbon dioxide.
4. Conservation efforts are underway to reduce deforestation and restore forested areas.
These include reforestation projects, stricter logging regulations, and promoting
sustainable farming practices. Educational programs are also being implemented to raise
awareness about the importance of forests for the environment and human well-being.
5. Scientists warn that continued deforestation could result in severe environmental
consequences, including the loss of biodiversity, increased carbon emissions, and
disruption of the global climate.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the phrase “carbon storage” in paragraph 1 suggest about forests? 1
(A) They produce carbon.
(B) They absorb and store carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
(C) They release carbon into the atmosphere.
(D) They contribute to global warming.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below. 1
Assertion : Forests are essential for maintaining biodiversity.
Reason : Forests provide shelter and food for a variety of species.

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(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of the world’s land area covered by forests, as mentioned in the
passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two major services provided by forests? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Lila’s region, a forested area was replanted to help reduce carbon emissions and restore
wildlife habitat.
The percentage of the world’s land area currently covered by forests is _____
(20% / 31% / 50%).

vi. What are some of the methods mentioned in the passage that are being used to combat
deforestation? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Forests help regulate the water cycle by _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Scientists believe forest conservation is important because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is continued deforestation a serious concern? 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
When the third entered the house, the inmates _____ in the hall.
(a) were slept (b) were sleeping
(c) slept (d) had been sleeping

ii. Read the conversation between Harry and Cobbler. Complete the sentence by reporting
cobbler’s reply correctly.
Harry : Can you polish my shoes?
Cobbler : Yes sir. But I will take 10 rupees for each shoe.
Harry asked the cobbler if he could polish his shoes. The cobbler replied affirmatively
but said that _____

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iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line.
You _____ work hard if you want to get good marks.
(a) must (b) might
(c) can (d) should

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from a news report:
Our soldiers are better equipped than that of Pakistan.
Option No. Error Correction

(a) are is
(b) equipped equip
(c) that those
(d) of at

v. Complete the given sentence, by filling in the blank with the correct option:
Rohit _____ when we arrived at the party.
(a) had already left (b) has already left
(c) have already left (d) was already left

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket.
The Sushi and the pasta _____ (look) delicious.

vii. Report the dialogue between a doctor and patient, by completing the narration:
Doctor : You should take this medicine every day.
Patient : Should I take it before dinner or after dinner?
Doctor : No, you should take it after breakfast.
The Doctor advised the patient that he should take that medicine every day. The patient
further asked _____. The doctor replied negatively and then said that he should take
it after breakfast.

viii. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
The boys were played in the park when it started raining.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

ix. Transform the following direct speech into reported speech:

The principal said, “Why didn’t you attend the flag hoisting ceremony, Anuj ?”

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x. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
The German force lost no time in retreat lest they might be cut off and surrounded.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

xi. Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue between Sunita and
Neetu.
Sunita : Tomorrow is your birthday, what do you want as a gift?
Neetu : That is a lovely thought but I don’t want anything.
Sunita asked Neetu since the next day was her birthday, what she wanted as a gift.
Neetu replied that that was a lovely thought but _____.
(a) she do not want anything.
(b) she did not wanted anything.
(c) she did not want anything.
(d) she wants something.

xii. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
Have you got some proof that he committed the crime?
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

WRITING 10

Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and created for
assessment purpose.

4A. Increase in the number of private vehicles coupled words to the editor of a local daily
urging people with the lack of civic sense has led to several road to use public transport
and to have patience while accidents in your city. Write a letter in 100-120 words. You
are Ram/Rama, 4 Raja Road, Karnal.

O

4B. You are Parvati/Praveen, Store In-Charge of Aman Stores, 32/54, Ravi Nagar, Delhi.
Your school requires school bags and accessories in bulk for the commencement of the
new session. Write a letter of enquiry to the Sales Manager, Duckback Industries Ltd.
13/4, Maharajpur, Delhi enquiring about the details of goods manufactured.

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5A. The following pie-chart shows the comparison of different kinds of energy production in
France in two different years.

Study the pie-charts and summarise them into an analytical paragraph of 100-120 words.

O
5B. Study the given line graph carefully and summarise it into a paragraph of 100-120
words.

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SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A. Coorg, or Kodagu, the smallest district of Karnataka, is home to evergreen rainforests,
spices and coffee plantations. Evergreen rainforests cover thirty per cent of this district.
During the monsoons, it pours enough to keep many visitors away. The season of joy
commences from September and continues till March. The weather is perfect, with some
showers thrown in for good measure. The air breathes of invigorating coffee. Coffee
estates and colonial bungalows stand tucked under tree canopies in prime corners.
(Glimpses of India)

i. What type of narrative style is used in the given extract to describe Coorg?
Choose the most suitable option:
(a) Dialogue-based discussion
(b) Poetic verses with rhymes
(c) Descriptive, focusing on scenery and atmosphere
(d) Argumentative, presenting conflicting viewpoints
ii. What do you understand by the term colonial bungalow?

iii. What can be inferred from the given line?

“During the monsoons, it pours enough to keep many visitors away”

iv. Which is the best time to visit Coorg? Answer in about 40 words.

B. “But, please, Stephen Stepanovitch, how can they be yours? Do be a reasonable man!
My aunt’s grandmother gave the Meadows for the temporary and free use of your
grandfather’s peasants. The peasants used the land for forty years and got accustomed
to it as if it was their own, when it happened that.....
(The Proposal)
i. Why did the peasants treat the land as their own?
(a) They used the land for forty years.
(b) They got accustomed to using the land.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
ii. Who is the speaker of the above lines? What light do these lines throw on the speaker’s
character? What reaction did his words get? Answer in about 40 words.

ii. How long did the peasants get accustomed to using the meadows?

iv. Why did his aunt’s grandmother give the meadows?

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7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. “Ink trickled down to the bottom of the household,
And little mouse Blink strategically mouseholed.
But up jumped Custard, snorting like an engine,
Clashed his tail like irons in a dungeon,
With a clatter and a clank and a jangling squirm,
He went at the pirate like a robin at a worm.”
(The Tale of Custard the Dragon)

i. Fill in the blank with suitable words on the basis of your understanding of the given
lines.
The outcome of the clash between Custard and the pirate was that _____.

ii. What is the significance of the use of the words - ‘trickled down’ and ‘mouseholed’ to
describe the reactions of Belinda’s pets and how does this word choice contribute to the
overall situation in the poem?
iii. Match the figures of speech with their correct definitions that have been used by the
poet in the given extract.
Column A Column B
A. alliteration 1. words like ‘and’ like’ used repetitively
B. repetition 2. repetition of the sounds ‘k’ and ‘s’
C. onomatopoeia 3. repetition of the sounds ‘n’ and ‘el’
D. consonance 4. use of sound words like clatter, snorting, jangling,
etc.

A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2 1

iv. Comment on the poet’s use of language in these lines.

B. What is the boy now, who has lost his ball,

What, what is he to do? I saw it go
Merrily bouncing, down the street, and then
Merrily over-there it is in the water!
(The Ball Poem)
i. In what way does the language used in this poem challenge traditional ideas of what
poetry should be?

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ii. What is the significance of the use of no punctuation after the words ‘What is the boy
now, who has lost his ball,’ and the use of a dash in ‘Meetly over-there it is in the water!’
in the poem and how does this contribute to the overall mood and tone of the poem?
Answer in about 40 words.

iii. Complete the sentence with the appropriate option.

The poet seems to have indicated the merry bouncing of the ball to _____.
(a) create a sense of rhythm in these lines.
(b) support the happiness of the experience of playing.
(c) contrast with the dejected feeling of the boy.
(d) indicate the cheerful mood of the boy.

iv. Identify the use and purpose of repetitive sounds used in the given lines of the poem.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12

i. Do you consider Amanda’s mother to be a nagging mother?

(Amanda!)

ii. How did Anne justify her being a chatterbox in her essay?
(From the Diary of Anne Frank)

iii. How does the tiger walk in the cage?

(A Tiger in the Zoo)

iv. After achieving political emancipation what does Mandela want to do in South Africa?
(Nelson Mandela : Long Walk to Freedom)
v. “He disappeared at high speed down the aircraft.” What did Mij do when he came back
to Maxwell’s seat ?
(Mijbil the Otter)

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6

i. Do you think Mr. Loisel had an enjoyable evening at the ball?

(The Necklace)

ii. How does Think-Tank interpret the library found by his crew on earth ? Why does he
ask Omega to eat a book?
(The Book that Saved the Earth)

iii. Why did the police arrest Horace Danby when he had not kept the jewels stolen from
Grange safe?
(A Question of Trust)

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10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. Valli was a young girl yet she shows the characteristics of a mature and practical person
which were beyond her years. Justify the statement by giving the character sketch of her
personality.
(Madam Rides the Bus)

ii. ‘Departure is painful’. So is the departure of the trees painful for the poetess. What will
happen after their departure?
(The Trees)

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6

i. Dr. James Herriot was a competent veterinary surgeon. His practical approach and
common sense helped in the rapid recovery of Tricki. Comment.
(A Triumph of Surgery)

ii. Love, human sympathy and education can transform even a thief. How could Anil bring
such a change in Hari Singh?
(The Thief ’s Story)

******

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Sample Paper 06
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10
1. A 2021 report from UNICEF highlighted that approximately 100 million girls worldwide
are at risk of child marriage in the coming decade. The COVID-19 pandemic has
exacerbated this issue by causing “school closures, economic strain, service disruptions,
pregnancies, and parental deaths,” which has left an additional 10 million girls vulnerable
to the threat of child marriage.
2. In Rajasthan, civil society organizations are actively combating the practice of child
marriage and empowering young girls. One such initiative, Naubat Baja, was launched
on International Women’s Day in 2019. The campaign capitalizes on the widespread use
of mobile phones, which have reached even the most remote areas of India, making it the
preferred mode of communication for the youth, especially in regions with limited access
to television or the internet.
3. The term “Naubat Baja” refers to an ancient ensemble of musical instruments used to
capture people’s attention. In the digital age, Naubat Baja has evolved into a campaign
that broadcasts messages against harmful traditions like child marriage and gender
discrimination. Through Naubat Baja Missed Call Radio, a cloud-based telephone radio
service in Rajasthan, messages against early marriage are spread. This initiative also
addresses adolescent health, empowerment, and well-being. Volunteers and leaders of
adolescent groups who help with the campaign are called champions.
4. Girls can call the Naubat Baja number and receive a callback, offering a 15-minute
recorded session of free entertainment. This includes Hindi film songs, short stories, and
audio dramas that focus on social issues, often using humor and satire. Additionally, job
opportunity updates, general knowledge, and government welfare schemes are shared.
The dramas deliver messages on topics such as child marriage, domestic violence, health,
menstrual hygiene, gender equality, and financial awareness.

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5. The programme is regularly updated and managed by UNFPA representatives. It is

produced in studios by a team of researchers and content creators, who work alongside
professional audio makers. The initiative is promoted through social media, graffiti, and
awareness campaigns in both rural and urban areas, supported by volunteers, community
leaders, Panchayats (local governing bodies), Anganwadi centers, and ASHA workers
(community health workers).
6. Efforts are ongoing in Rajasthan to engage more partners, such as the Nehru Yuva
Kendra Sangathan (NYKS), one of the world’s largest youth networks, to help popularize
Naubat Baja’s messages. As these strategies take effect, countless ordinary girls will find
the courage to dream of a better future.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what factors have increased the vulnerability of girls to child marriage
during the pandemic? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Naubat Baja uses mobile phones to :
(a) Connect girls to television programs about child marriage.
(b) Spread messages against harmful practices like child marriage and gender
discrimination.
(paragraph 2)
iii. How does Naubat Baja’s Missed Call Radio service convey important messages to
adolescent girls? 2
(paragraph 4)
iv. Select the option that best reflects the meaning of “champions” in the context of Naubat
Baja : 1
(a) Celebrities who promote the campaign in cities.
(b) Volunteers and adolescent leaders who help spread the campaign’s message.
(paragraph 3)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Naubat Baja’s content is created and distributed without any professional oversight or
involvement.
(paragraph 5)
vi. The writer mentions that Naubat Baja is promoted through various channels. 1
Which of the following is not one of those channels?
(A) Social media (B) Graffiti
(C) Printed newspapers (D) Awareness campaigns
(paragraph 5)

vii. List any two topics covered by Naubat Baja’s audio dramas that are aimed at educating
adolescent girls. 2
(paragraph 4)

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viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

The involvement of the Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS) aims to :
(A) Spread awareness about child marriage through television programs.
(B) Encourage youth participation in popularizing Naubat Baja’s messages.
(C) Organize music festivals to promote Naubat Baja.
(D) Provide financial aid to adolescents.
(paragraph 6)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Urban green spaces, such as parks, gardens, and forests, are crucial for improving
the quality of life in cities. These areas provide benefits like reducing air pollution,
moderating urban temperatures, and offering recreational opportunities. Green spaces
absorb approximately 40% more carbon dioxide than built-up areas, helping to mitigate
the urban heat island effect, where cities can be 5-7°C warmer than nearby rural areas.
2. Research shows that urban green spaces positively impact mental and physical health.
People who live within 1 kilometer of a green space have a 15% lower risk of mental
health issues like anxiety and depression. Additionally, access to parks promotes physical
activity, reducing the risk of chronic diseases such as obesity and cardiovascular disorders.
3. Despite their importance, many cities are losing green spaces due to rapid urbanization.
Over the past 20 years, cities globally have experienced a 30% decrease in available
public green areas, largely because of construction and development pressures.
4. Urban planners are increasingly working to address this issue by implementing initiatives
to protect existing green spaces and create new ones. These include vertical gardens,
rooftop parks, and the development of green corridors. Cities that prioritize these
solutions have seen improvements in air quality and overall public health.
5. Experts emphasize the need for sustainable urban planning to ensure future cities remain
livable. By maintaining and expanding green spaces, cities can better cope with the
challenges posed by climate change, air pollution, and population growth.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What percentage of carbon dioxide do green spaces absorb more than built-up areas, as
mentioned in paragraph 1? 1
(A) 20% (B) 30%
(C) 40% (D) 50%
ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Green spaces help reduce the risk of chronic diseases.
Reason : Access to parks and natural areas encourages physical activity, improving
overall health.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

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iii. What percentage decrease in public green areas have cities experienced globally over the
past 20 years, as mentioned in the passage? 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two major benefits of urban green spaces? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Many cities are implementing creative solutions to restore urban green areas and counter
the impacts of urbanization.
The percentage of carbon dioxide absorbed more by green spaces compared to built-up
areas is _____ (20% / 30% / 40%).

vi. What are some of the methods mentioned in the passage that urban planners are using
to protect and expand green spaces? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Urban green spaces help promote public health by _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Urban planners emphasize the importance of green spaces because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is sustainable urban planning essential for the future
of cities? 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.
i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
This time tomorrow, I _____ on the beaches of Hawaii away from the noise of
civilisation.
(A) will lie (B) will be lyeing
(C) will be lying (D) would have lied

ii. Read the conversation between two friends. Complete the sentence by reporting their
conversation.
Herman said : ‘If I were a king, I would travel all over the world!’
Pulkit said : ‘You are just day dreaming, my friend.’
Herman said that if he had been a king, he would travel all over the world. Pulikt, on
hearing his friend commented that _____.
iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from an environmental
magazine.
Over the past thirty years or so the quality of many people’s lives _____ in some
respect because of technological progress.
(A) had worsened (B) have suffered
(C) has deteriorated (D) was worse

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 06 Page 5

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from a short ghost story :
So who helped me to arrive there safely without a compass or a radio, but without any
more fuel in my tanks?
Option No. Error Correction
(A) who whom
(B) a the
(C) but and
(D) tank tanks

v. Complete the given narrative, by filling in the blank with the correct option.
Worse still, much of our building effort _____ into the construction of more and more
large office blocks at the expense of much needed housing for the growing urban population.
(A) has been channelled
(B) have been channelled
(C) are channelled
(D) were channelled

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given
portion of a letter.
Through the columns of your reputable newspaper, I wish _____ the people aware
of the growing need for alternate sources of energy and the advantages of solar power.

vii. Report the dialogue between a, by completing the sentence.

“Let us go and look at the school ground,” said the sports teacher.
“Are we going to play the final match today?” asked the students.
When the sports teacher invited the students to have a look at the school ground, they
asked him _____.

viii. Identify the error in the given sentence, from a school magazine report and supply the
correction.
The weather was too risky for neither any movement in the sky or on land.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

ix. Report the following dialogue between a parent and a child watching an eclipse.
Child : Let us go out and see the solar eclipse.
Parent : Don’t look directly at the sun. Wear your tinted glasses.
A child suggested his parent that they should go out and see the solar eclipse. The
parent advised him _____ and _____.

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x. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
I left my purse at home. should you lend me ‘a hundred bucks’ ?

Use the given format for your response.

Error Correction

xi. Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue.
I said, ‘I am not going to school.’
Mother said, ‘OK, finish all the household chores today and I will rest.’
When I told mother that _____, she told me to finish all the household chores and
that _____ rest.
(A) I am not going to school, she would
(B) I was not going to school, she would
(C) I will not be going to school, she will
(D) I shall not be going to school, she planned to

xii. Identify the error on a signboard in a parking lot and supply the correction :
Please pay your parking fee before existing.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

WRITING 10
Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and
created for assessment purpose.
4A. Though there is a movement like ‘Sam Shiksha Abhiyan’ and enrolling of underprivileged
children in schools, there are still many children, who do not go to school, rather have
never seen a school. It is indeed disturbing. You decide to write a letter to the Editor of a
newspaper expressing your views and the steps to be taken. Write the letter in about 120
words. Sign yourself as Siddharth Singh.

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O
4B. Write a letter to the Editor of an English daily in about 120 word, making a plea to the
common people to switch over to solar energy to conserve electricity and limit electricity
bills. You are Divyansh of 147, Mayur Vihar-I.
5A. Study the chart given below, which is the result of the survey conducted in the public
schools and government schools of Delhi. This depicts the types of activities the teenagers
(Age 13-19 years) are involved during their leisure time. Write an analytical paragraph
in about 120 words.

O
5B. The following data in the form of histogram shows that death due to violence has
increased considerably during recent years. Write an analytical paragraph in about 120
words on how educated youth can play a major role in establishing peace in society.

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SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A. But Horace found that the flowers were hindering him in his work He buried his face in
his handkerchief Then he heard a voice say from the doorway, “What is it? A cold or
hay fever?”
Before he could think, Horace said, “Hay fever,” and found himself sneezing again.
The voice went on, “You can cure it with a special treatment, you know, if you find out
just what plant gives you the disease. I think you’d better see a doctor, if you’re serious
about your work. I heard you from the top of the house just now.”
(A Question of Trust)
i. State any one inference about Danby from the given context. But Horace found that the
flowers were hindering him in his work.

ii. What effect does the interaction, as described in the lines below, have on Horace?
But Horace found that the flowers were hindering him in his work. He buried his face in
his handkerchief. Then he heard a voice say from the doorway, “What is it? A cold or
hay fever?”
Choose the most suitable option.
(A) surprises (B) embarrasses
(C) motivates (D) confuses

iii. What advice did the lady give Horace regarding his hay fever? Was she really interested
in his health? Elaborate in about 40 words, with reference to the extract.
iv. Which phrase would correctly substitute ‘buried’ as given in the extract?
He buried his face in his handkerchief
B. “Now we’re really going to get some water, woman.” The woman who was preparing
supper, replied, “Yes, God willing”. The older boys were working in the field, while the
smaller ones were playing near the house until the woman called to them all, “Come for
dinner”. It was during the meal that, just as Lencho had predicted, big drops of rain
began to fall. In the north- east, huge mountains of clouds could be seen approaching.
The air was fresh and sweet. The man went out for no other reason than to have the
pleasure of feeling the rain on his body, and when he returned, he exclaimed, “These
aren’t raindrops falling from the sky, they are new coins. The big drops are ten cent
pieces and the little ones are fives.”
(A Letter to God)
i. “These aren’t raindrops falling from the sky, they are new coins. The big drops are ten
cent pieces and the little ones are fives.”
In which of the following examples has the same figure of speech been used to describe
raindrops in the above lines?
(A) She looked as fresh as morning dew.
(B) Waves heaved heavily.
(C) Glow worms are tiny lights floating around in the forest.
(D) Break, break, break On thy cold gray stones, O Sea!

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ii. How does Lencho’s mood progress along with the progress of the rain? Answer in about
40 words.

iii. Fill in the blank with the correct word from the bracket.
The word ‘coins’ in the line “These aren’t raindrops falling from the sky, they are
new coins” indicates that Lencho viewed the rain as a symbol of _____ (wealth/
destruction).

iv. In the statement, ‘The man went out for no other reason than to have the pleasure of
feeling the rain on his body’ use one word to replace the underlined part of the sentence.

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. Some say that the world will end in fire,
Some say in ice.
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favour fire.
But if it had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
to say that for destruction ice
is also great
and would suffice.
(Fire and Ice)

i. Fill the blank with one word.

According to the poet, fire refers to violent desires passion and _____.

ii. What does the poet wants to convey through the poem?

iii. Identify the most likely tone of the poet in the given lines :
‘to say that for destruction ice is also great’
(A) Sarcastic (B) Humorous
(C) Optimistic (D) Encouraging

iv. How does Robert Frost caution the common man? Answer in about 40 words.

B. All night the roots work

to disengage themselves from the cracks
in the veranda floor.
The leaves strain toward the glass
small twigs stiff with exertion
long-cramped boughs shuffling under the roof
like newly discharged patients
half-dazed, moving
to the clinic doors.
(The Trees)

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i. In what way does the language used in this extract challenge traditional ideas of what
poetry should be?

ii. What is the significance of the use of the word ‘roots’ and ‘disengage’ to describe the
social change in the poem and how does this word choice contribute to the overall mood
and tone of the poem? Answer in about 40 words.

iii. The leaves strain through the glass, small twigs are stiff with exertion and long-cramped
boughs are shuffling under the roof- all indicate the presence of these poetic devices:
(A) metaphors and imagery. (B) enjambment and allusion.
(C) allusion and alliteration. (D) personification and imagery.

iv. Complete the following suitably.

The words ‘in the veranda floor’ clearly suggest that the change is taking place _____
and _____.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12
i. Who invites the comment-’he is dressed like a Pader’ ? Why?
(Glimpses of India)
ii. Why does the postmaster send money to Lencho? Why does he sign the letter ‘God’ ?
(A Letter to God)

iii. How was Amanda behaving when the poem starts? What did the speaker ask her not to
do?
(Amanda!)
iv. How does the fog spread over the harbour and the city?
(Fog)
v. What was Lomov’s opinion about Squeezer?
(The Proposal)

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6

i. How did Monsieur Loisel manage to buy another necklace?

(The Necklace)
ii. How was Ebright as a student in the school?
(The Making of a Scientist)

iii. Why was Bholi’s Father worried about her?

(Bholi)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 06 Page 11

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. Amanda is totally distraught by her mother’s behaviour. She wants to leave everything
and go to her own world. Then she happens to meet Anne and the latter tries to tell
how parents always worried about their children’s behaviour. Prepare a set of dialogues
between Amanda and Anne based on the poem ‘Amanda!’ and ‘The Diary of Anne
Frank’. You may begin like this :
Amanda : I hate every one at home. How can they pester a child so much.
Anne : Amanda, How can you even think like that. _____.

ii. “The message conveyed in the chapter The Sermon at Benaras, People must understand
that thinking about bound situations will increase one’s stress and lead to sorrow was
diligently followed by the pilot in The Black Aeroplane as he religiously followed the
plane and did not raise a question on its presence. If you had to use the message with
reference to both the chapters how will you elaborate it? Also, how it is relevant to both.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. “Once bitten twice shy.” Do you think Horace would ever be able to believe any one ever
in his life? Comment.
(A Question of Trust)

ii. Curiosity and motivation are the basic foundation for becoming a successful scientist.
These qualities have brought the best out of Ebright. Comment.
(The Making of a Scientist)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 07 Page 1

Sample Paper 07
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10
1. They have achieved tremendous academic success. However, this is part of a complex
cultural phenomenon where the single-minded pursuit of educational excellence can have
adverse effects on other aspects of life, such as spending time outdoors. Eye health experts
warn that neglecting outdoor activities can negatively impact eye health.
2. In low and middle-income countries, such as Bangladesh and India, myopia rates in
adults remain relatively lower, around 20-30%. However, this is beginning to change.
In Africa, for instance, myopia was once rare, but over the past decade, childhood
myopia has risen rapidly. While improving literacy rates in these countries is a positive
development, experts caution that without concerted efforts to provide eye tests and
corrective glasses, the prevalence of myopia could increase.
3. Interestingly, attending school itself isn’t necessarily the root cause of the problem,
as shown during the Covid-19 pandemic. When lockdowns were implemented, schools
worldwide were closed, yet children’s eye health deteriorated further. This is likely due
to children staying indoors for extended periods, spending hours in front of screens for
online classes or entertainment.
4. Myopia is a complex issue, where its increase seems to correlate with generally positive
trends like education and higher income. However, higher income doesn’t translate to
better eye health. On the contrary, children from wealthier families, who are provided
with more indoor activities like learning music, playing video games, and watching TV,
are less likely to spend time outdoors, leading to worsening eye health.
5. Is there a potential solution? In China, innovative trials have been carried out to
simulate outdoor learning environments inside classrooms. These bright, greenhouse-like
classrooms were preferred by both students and teachers. However, the light intensity in
summer was close to impractical for daily use, and these classrooms are also significantly
more expensive to build due to the materials and cooling systems required.

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6. The most effective way to prevent myopia is surprisingly simple and applies to all
countries regardless of wealth : spending more time outdoors. While researchers are
still studying the exact reasons why natural light helps prevent myopia, the current
understanding is that it does. The key challenge is ensuring children spend enough time
outdoors to benefit from this natural prevention method.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, what is the potential downside of prioritizing educational success over
other activities like spending time outdoors? 1
ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1
The increase in myopia rates in low and middle-income countries is likely because :
(a) People are spending more time outdoors.
(b) Improved literacy rates have led to less time spent outdoors and more indoor activities.
(paragraph 2)
iii. How did the Covid-19 lockdowns impact children’s eye health, even though schools were
closed? 2
(paragraph 3)
iv. Select the option that best reflects the paradox between higher income and children’s eye
health: 1
(a) Higher income leads to improved well-being and eye health.
(b) Higher income contributes to more indoor activities, leading to poorer eye health.
(paragraph 4)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
The trials in China to simulate outdoor learning in classrooms were well-received, but
building these classrooms is more cost-effective than traditional ones.
(paragraph 5)
vi. The writer mentions that the best prevention strategy for myopia is low-tech. 1
What is this strategy?
(A) Using corrective glasses.
(B) Spending more time outdoors.
(C) Building greenhouse-like classrooms.
(D) Limiting screen time during the day.
(paragraph 6)
vii. List two reasons why myopia is increasing in children, as mentioned in the passage. 2
(paragraphs 2 and 4)
viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1
In the passage, the most important challenge mentioned is to _____.
(A) Ensure all children have access to glasses.
(B) Encourage children to spend more time outdoors.
(C) Create new indoor activities to replace outdoor time.
(D) Provide expensive classrooms to simulate outdoor learning.
(paragraph 6)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 07 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Renewable energy sources, such as solar, wind, and hydropower, have become critical for
addressing global energy needs and combating climate change. Solar energy, for example,
is growing rapidly, with global solar capacity increasing by 20% each year for the past
decade. Wind energy, on the other hand, accounts for 8% of global electricity generation.
2. Renewable energy has significant environmental benefits, including reducing greenhouse
gas emissions. Unlike fossil fuels, renewables generate power without releasing harmful
pollutants into the atmosphere. It is estimated that switching to renewable energy can
reduce global CO2 emissions by 40%.
3. Despite these benefits, challenges remain in the widespread adoption of renewable energy.
High initial costs and the need for better energy storage solutions are two key obstacles.
Additionally, the inconsistent availability of sunlight or wind in some regions makes it
difficult to rely solely on renewables.
4. Governments and private sectors are investing in research and development to make
renewable energy more affordable and efficient. Innovations such as advanced battery
storage and floating solar farms are being explored. Several countries have set ambitious
goals, aiming to source at least 50% of their energy from renewable sources by 2050.
5. Experts believe that the transition to renewable energy is essential for long-term
sustainability. By continuing to develop and implement these technologies, the world can
reduce its reliance on fossil fuels and create a cleaner, more sustainable energy future.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase ‘critical for addressing global energy needs’ by the
writer, in paragraph 1, tell us about the importance of renewable energy? 1
(A) The writer is emphasizing the essential role of renewable energy.
(B) The writer is downplaying the significance of renewable energy.
(C) The writer is questioning the reliability of renewable energy.
(D) The writer is expressing doubt about the future of renewable energy.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Renewable energy sources do not contribute to climate change.
Reason : Renewables generate power without releasing greenhouse gases or other harmful
pollutants.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of the potential reduction in global CO2 emissions that can be
achieved by switching to renewable energy, as mentioned in the passage. 1

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iv. According to the passage, what are two major challenges that hinder the widespread
adoption of renewable energy? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Global solar capacity has increased by 20% each year for the past decade, showing rapid
growth in renewable energy.
The percentage of global electricity generation currently sourced from wind energy is
_____ (5% / 8% / 12%).

vi. What are some of the innovative methods mentioned in the passage that are being
developed to make renewable energy more efficient and reliable? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

The transition to renewable energy is essential because _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts emphasize the importance of renewable energy because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is the transition to renewable energy crucial for long-
term sustainability? 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the online update.
By the next month, we shall _____ the project.
(A) has completed
(B) completing
(C) completed
(D) have completed

ii. Read the conversation between a traveller and a peasant. Then complete the following
in the reported speech.
Traveller : Can you tell me the way to the nearest inn?
Peasant : You must go to the Aheli inn.
The traveller asked the peasant if he could tell him the way to the nearest inn to which
the peasant suggested him _____.

iii. Select the option to fill in the blank for the given line.
He is our colleague. We _____ invite him.
(A) can (B) must
(C) dare to (D) will

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 07 Page 5

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from a news report:
The State police have launched a special drive against tractors and trolleys which created
chaos in residential areas these days.
Option No. Error Correction
(A) Against For
(B) Have Has
(C) Tractors Has
(D) These This

v. Complete the given narrative by filling in the blank with the correct option.
I _____ this book since morning.
(A) had been reading
(B) has been reading
(C) have had read
(D) shall be reading

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given
portion of a letter:
Subject: Request for leave to attend cousin’s marriage
Respected Sir/Madam
I am a student in your prestigious institution. I respectfully beg that you _____
(grant) me a five-day leave of absence to attend my cousin’s wedding.

vii. Report the dialogue between a merchant and his servant by completing the sentence:
Merchant : Do you really want any work?
Servant : Yes, if you have any.
The merchant asked the servant if he really wanted any work to which the servant
replied _____.

viii. Identify the error in the given sentence from a school magazine report and supply the
correction.
It was the amazing sight to see, a sight which no one could help admiring in spite of the
trouble it has caused us all.
Error Correction

ix. Lata shared some information with John about a visit to a hill station. Report John’s
question.
How was your experience with the snow?

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x. Identify the error in the given conversation and supply the correction.
Whose bag is this?
I am not sure. It must be Ann’s.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

xi. Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue between Neha and
Priya.
Neha : Tomorrow is your birthday, what do you want as a gift?
Priya : That is a lovely thought but I don’t want anything.
Neha asked Priya what gift she wanted for her birthday the next day. Priya replied
_____.
(A) I don’t want anything.
(B) it is a lovely thought but she didn’t want anything.
(C) that it was a lovely thought but she did not want anything for her birthday.
(D) that it was a lovely thought but she did not wanted anything for her birthday.

xii Identify the error is the given sentence and supply the correction.
I have met some people in my life but the person who has influenced me the most is
Mother Teresa.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

WRITING 10
Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and
created for assessment purpose.
4A. You are Anita of Adarsh Public School, Nagal, Punjab who had arranged a trip for
fifty students of Nanital in summer vacations for ten days with ‘Mount Travel, and
Tourism’. The arrangements done by the travel agency were far below standard. The
accommodation and food facilities were inferior in quality. Write a letter of complaint to
the director of the agency to stop duping tourists with false promises as it tarnishes the
image of locals. (120 words)


O
4B. You are Vinita/Vinit, a customer of Excitel Broadband. Write a letter to the Customer
Care Department, Excitel regarding the poor service of Internet connection. You are a
resident of 485, Ram Nagar, Shandara.

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 07 Page 7

5A. Global warming is primarily a result of the greenhouse effect caused by too much carbon
dioxide in the atmosphere which acts as a blanket, trapping heat. Global warming
is leading to Arctic meltdown. Study the following pie chart and write an analytical
paragraph in about 120 words on factors affecting global warming.

O
5B. Manisha is to write an analytical paragraph on ‘Smoking is a silent killer of life’. Using
your own ideas and the outline given below, write this paragraph on her behalf in about
120 words.
Smoking is actually a silent killer _____ nicotine is a poison _____ dangerous to
various vital organs _____ smoking a cigarette shortens _____ causes a deadly
disease _____ guide our smoking youth _____ ensure good health to all Indians.

SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A. “What’s the matter with you, you fool? Shouted Ramlal. “I am only taking you to
school.” Then he told his wife, “Let her wear some decent clothes today or else what
will the teachers and the other school girls think of us when they see her? New clothes
had never been made for Bholi. The old dresses of her sisters were passed on to her.
No one cared to mend or wash her clothes. But today she was lucky to receive a clean
dress which had shrunk after many washings and no longer fitted Champa. She was even
bathed and oil was rubbed into her dry and matted hair. Only then did she believe that
she was being taken to a place better than her home! When they reached the school, the
children were already in their classrooms.”
(Bholi)
i. Why was Bholi’s hair matted?

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ii. What effect does the preparation, as described in the lines below, have on Bholi?
New clothes had never been made for Bholi. The old dresses of her sisters were passed
on to her. No one cared to mend or wash her clothes. But today she was lucky to receive
a clean dress which had shrunk after many washings and no longer fitted Champa.
Choose the most suitable option.
(A) surprises (B) disappoints
(C) excites (D) comforts

iii. Bholi had many apprehensions about going to school. What made her feel that she was
going to a better place than her home? Answer in about 40 words.

iv. How did Bholi feel at the end of her first day in school?

B. He wrote “To God’ on the envelope, put the letter inside, and still troubled, went to
town. At the post office, he placed a stamp on the letter and dropped it into the mailbox.
One of the employees, who was a postman and also helped at the post office, went to
his boss laughing heartily and showed him the letter to God. Never in his career as a
postman had he known that address. The postmaster-a fat, amiable fellow-also broke
out laughing, but almost immediately he turned serious and, tapping the letter on his
desk, commented, “What faith! I wish I had the faith of the man who wrote this letter.
Starting up a correspondence with God!”
(A Letter to God)
i. The author says, “He wrote, ‘To God’ on the envelope, put the letter inside, and still
troubled, went to town.” Why was the man troubled?
(A) He had no money for an envelope and a stamp.
(B) He needed a hundred pesos to rebuild his life.
(C) He needed seventy pesos to buy corn seeds.
(D) He knew God wouldn’t bother to reply.

ii. What do the words, “What faith! I wish I had the faith of the man who wrote this letter.
Starting up a correspondence with God!” reveal about the postmaster? Answer in about
40 words.
iii. Fill in the blank with the correct word from the bracket.
The word ‘faith’ in the line “What faith! I wish I had the faith of the man who wrote
this letter” indicates that the postmaster admired Lencho’s _____ (belief/ignorance).
iv. How would you describe the postmaster based on your understanding of the passage.

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. “I heard an old religious man
But yesternight declare
That he had found a text to prove
That only God, my dear,
Could love you for yourself alone
And not your yellow hair.”
(For Anne Gregory)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 07 Page 9

i. Fill the blank with one word.

The above stanza strongly defines the idea of external and internal _____.

ii. Choose the phrase that best represents, ‘love you for yourself alone’.
(A) Unconditional love (B) Unseemly love
(C) Unrequited love (D) Understated love
iii. What did the speaker of the above lines hear?

iv. Identify the poetic device used in the line And not your yellow hair’. How does it impact
this extract?

B. .... Winds rush to meet them.

The moon is broken like a mirror,
its pieces flash now in the crown
of the tallest oak.
(The Trees)

i. Complete the following suitably.

The figure of speech used by Adrienne Rich in ‘.... Winds rush to meet them’ is _____.

ii. Why does the moon look like a broken mirror?

iii. Who is the wind rushing to meet?

(A) the birds and the insects (B) the trees
(C) the poet (D) the sun and the moon.

iv. Comment on the poet’s use of language in these lines in 40 words.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12

i. What was the ‘appalling spectacle’ Maxwell noticed when he returned from having a
hurried meal ?
(Mijbil the Otter)
ii. How did Anne finally stop Mr. Keesing from punishing her?
(From the Diary of Anne Frank)

iii. Do you think Chubukov is a good father? Justify your opinion based on your reading of
the text.
(The Proposal)
iv. How does the poet suggest that you identify the lion and the tiger? When can you do
so, according to him?
(How To Tell Wild Animals)

v. What impression of Amanda do you get from the poem ‘Amanda!’ ?

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9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6
i. Whose footprints did the two boys follow? Why were they charmed then?
(Footprints Without Feet)
ii. What did Ebright do for his eighth-grade project?
(The Making of a Scientist)

iii. What are the subtle ways in which the lady manages to deceive Horace Danby into
thinking she is the lady of the house?
(A Question of Trust)

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. The narrator asks a question at the end : “Who was the pilot on the strange black
aeroplane, flying in the storm, without lights ?” Discuss.
(Two Stories About Flying)

ii. Discuss how extreme behaviour can hasten the end of the world with respect to the
poem ‘Fire and Ice’.
(Fire and Ice)

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. Sometimes appearance can be deceptive. How is this statement proved in the story The
Midnight Visitor ?

ii. “If you ask for too much, you lose even that which you have.” Elaborate this with
reference to the character of Matilda Loisel in “The Necklace”.

******

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 08 Page 1

Sample Paper 08
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10
1. A black vulture (Coragyps atratus) is a bird that feeds on dead animals. Pilots and air
traffic experts have always seen them as a risk because of their large size and how they
fly. In Brazil, 8% of animal-related aircraft accidents in 2020 involved black vultures.
Although they are seen as symbols of death and decay, vultures play a vital role in
environments shaped by humans.
2. These birds fly in groups and when they are not flying, they sit together on large piles of
trash, looking like dirty beggars covered in feathers. With their black feathers and rough
skin, they seem to belong in the dirty surroundings. They have a wingspan of about five
feet and can fly faster than Usain Bolt at his peak. They are used to seeing humans who
work at the dump, waiting for the right moment to eat.
3. A trash pile becomes a home and feeding ground for black vultures, who evolved to eat
dead animals but now survive by eating garbage. In areas where humans do not manage
waste properly, these vultures help by eating the waste.
4. For every potential aircraft accident caused by the birds, they help by recycling millions
of tons of nutrients and other materials back into nature. They eat everything from dog
poop to fish bones. The average Brazilian household throws away 353 grams of trash
each day, and a black vulture eats about 140 grams a day. While not all trash is edible,
these birds even eat pieces of plastic bags. Their stomach acid is so strong that it can
destroy dangerous germs like cholera, brucellosis, and anthrax.
5. As the planet faces environmental issues like wildfires and the loss of biodiversity,
vultures continue to adapt and survive. Their numbers are increasing in both South and
North America, which means they will likely keep clashing with humans.

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6. In rural areas of Latin America, waste is often scattered around communities. Vultures
take care of cleaning the waste, as the city itself is unable to manage it. Considering
their help, the vultures’ ugly appearance, and the occasional aircraft collision, seem like
a small price to pay. “They are the best thing that has ever happened to the Amazon
town,” says a conservationist.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, why are black vultures considered a danger to airplanes? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Black vultures are seen negatively because :
(a) They cause damage to the environment.
(b) They are linked with death and decay, even though they help clean the environment.
(paragraph 1)
iii. How do black vultures fit into the dump environment, and what makes them effective at
waste management? 2
(paragraph 2 and 3)
iv. Select the option that best explains the role of black vultures in recycling waste : 1
(a) They cause more problems than they solve by eating waste.
(b) They help recycle nutrients and reduce waste in areas without proper management.
(paragraph 4)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
Black vultures can break down harmful germs with their strong stomach acid.
(paragraph 4)
vi. The writer mentions that black vultures are opportunistic survivors. 1
Which of the following explains how they continue to thrive despite environmental challenges?
(A) They avoid humans and only eat in the wild.
(B) They adapt to human-created waste and find new ways to survive.
(C) They rely on animal carcasses only.
(D) They live in protected nature reserves away from human contact.
(paragraph 5)
vii. List two reasons why black vulture populations are increasing, as mentioned in the
passage. 2
(paragraph 5)
viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1
According to the passage, black vultures are considered beneficial because :
(A) They have no impact on the environment.
(B) They help clean up waste in areas where humans struggle with proper waste management.
(C) They do not interfere with human activities.
(D) They only clean up animal carcasses.
(paragraph 6)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 08 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Water scarcity is a growing global concern, affecting over 2.2 billion people worldwide.
This issue is driven by factors such as population growth, industrialization, climate change,
and unsustainable water management practices. According to the United Nations, by 2030,
global water demand is expected to exceed supply by 40%.
2. Agriculture is the largest consumer of freshwater, accounting for approximately 70%
of global freshwater withdrawals. However, inefficient irrigation systems lead to nearly
60% of this water being wasted. Modern solutions like drip irrigation and rainwater
harvesting have shown the potential to reduce water waste by up to 30%, significantly
improving water use efficiency.
3. Climate change has further intensified water scarcity. Regions such as sub-Saharan
Africa and South Asia have seen a 40% increase in the frequency of droughts over the
last 50 years, while unpredictable rainfall patterns have disrupted water availability in
other parts of the world.
4. Various solutions to combat water scarcity are being explored. These include the
development of water-efficient technologies, desalination plants, and policies aimed
at sustainable water management. Countries that have implemented stricter water
regulations have seen up to a 20% decrease in water wastage.
5. Experts agree that addressing water scarcity is critical for ensuring food security,
maintaining ecosystems, and supporting economic development. Without urgent action,
the global water crisis will continue to worsen, impacting millions more by mid-century.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “growing global concern” by the writer, in paragraph
1, suggest about the issue of water scarcity? 1
(A) The writer believes water scarcity is not a major problem.
(B) The writer is emphasizing the increasing seriousness of water scarcity.
(C) The writer is downplaying the effects of water scarcity.
(D) The writer is showing indifference to water scarcity.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Agriculture is the largest consumer of freshwater globally.
Reason : Agricultural practices, particularly inefficient irrigation systems, contribute to
significant water wastage.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage by which global water demand is expected to exceed supply by
2030, as mentioned in the passage. 1

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iv. According to the passage, what are two major causes of water scarcity? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
The efficiency of modern irrigation systems like drip irrigation has the potential to
improve water usage.
The percentage of global freshwater withdrawals attributed to agriculture is _____
(50% / 60% / 70%).

vi. What are some of the methods mentioned in the passage that can help address water
scarcity? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Water scarcity has been intensified by_____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts believe addressing water scarcity is crucial because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is it critical to address water scarcity for long-term
sustainability? 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the blank.
The story of English in India _____ between the conceptions of the language as an
idea and as an object to date.
(A) will toggle (B) have toggled
(C) had toggled (D) toggles

ii. Read the conversation between a man and his nephew. Complete the sentence by
reporting the dialogue.
Uncle : Let us go and see the Great Apollo Circus this weekend.
Nephew : The ticket is on you because you lost all the games in cards yesterday.
Uncle invited his nephew to see the Great Apollo Circus coming weekend but the
nephew reminded him since he _____ on him.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from a short story.
But he was tired and weak with hunger and he _____ not rise, exhausted by the
strange exercise.
(A) could (B) would
(C) need (D) dare

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 08 Page 5

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from a news report: The proximate cause of the Leicester clashes was ostensibly
tension after an India-Pakistan match.
Option No. Error Correction
(A) of for
(B) was has been
(C) tension tensions
(D) An the
v. Complete the given narrative, by filling in the blank with the correct option.
In the letter, the student has written that he _____ by some senior students who
threatened him with dire consequences, if he complains.
(A) is being bullied (B) has been bullied
(C) was bullying (D) will have bullied
vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given
portion of a letter :
Dear Sir
I would like to bring to your notice the unsanitary conditions in our colony. Rubbish and
garbage _____ (lie) in heaps everywhere.
vii. Report the dialogue between a student and a teacher, by completing the blanks in the
sentence given below.
Student : I’m so stressed before my board exams.
Teacher : Don’t worry. We have arranged counselling sessions to de-stress you.
When a student admitted that he was quite stressed before his board exams, his teacher
told him _____ because the school _____.
viii. Identify the error in the given sentence, from a newspaper report and supply the correction.
I expect the authorities to take action on this issue at the earliest or we would have to
raise it on social media. Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

ix. Fill up the blank to complete the sentence with the correct options.
Rosemary often _____ to work by bus, but she _____.to work by taxi yesterday.
(A) got, went (B) went, went
(C) gets, got (D) has been going, reached

x. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
We will fight against injustice.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

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xi. Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue between two people.
A : Do you enjoy having a cup of tea in the morning?
B : No, my preference for a cup of strong filtered coffee has remained rock-solid for years.
A man ‘A asked his friend ‘B’ if he enjoyed having his morning tea. His friend ‘B’
admitted that _____.
(A) her preference for a cup of strong filtered coffee has remained rock-solid for years.
(B) their preference for a cup of strong filtered coffee have remained rock-solid for
years.
(C) his preference for a cup of strong filtered coffee has remained rock-solid for years.
(D) their preference for a cup of strong filtered coffee will remain rock-solid for years.

xii. Identify the error on a traffic signboard and supply the correction, for the following
instruction.
Over speed is a knife that cut a life.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

WRITING 10
Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and
created for assessment purpose.
4A. The insanitary conditions in your colony are causing multiple diseases. Write a letter in
about 120 words to the Municipal Commissioner bringing the problem to his notice and
request him to take urgent action in the matter. You are Deepak/Deepa of C 2/8, Ankur
Enclave, New Delhi.


O
4B. You are Rajesh/Rajni Roy of 105 C, Chatterjee Lane, Kolkata. You have received a
letter from your brother who is staying in the hostel of Shakti Mandir Public School,
Darjeeling, stating that he is being bullied by some senior students who threatened him
with dire consequences, if he complains. Write a letter in about 120 words to the Hostel
Warden requesting him to take urgent action.
5A. Children tend to become tense and nervous before the board exams. This may affect
their health and performance in the examination. Write a paragraph in about 120 words
on the ‘Need for Counselling before Board Exams’.


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5B. Due to Covid-19 pandemic, all the schools are closed and to mitigate the academic loss,
online classes are being provided by the government and the schools. In this situation
the role of cell phones, once prohibited in schools, now has become an essential need of
the students. Write a paragraph in about 120 words on the topic “Importance of cell
phone for the students during Pandemic Covid 19.”

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SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A.“It’s not my balcony,” Ausable said with extreme irritation. “It belongs to the next
apartment.” He glanced explanatorily at Fowler “You see,” he said, “this room used to
be part of a large unit, and the next room-through that door there-used to be the living
room. It had the balcony, which extends under my window now. You can get onto it
from the empty room two doors down-and somebody did, last month. The management
promised to block it off. But they haven’t.” Max glanced at Fowler, who was standing
stiffly not far from Ausable, and waved the gun with a commanding gesture. “Please sit
down,” he said. “We have a wait of half an hour, I think.
“(The Midnight Visitor)
i. State any one inference about the balcony spoken at length by Ausable from the given
context.
The management promised to block it off. But they haven’t.

ii. What effect does the explanation, as described in the lines below, have on Max?
Max glanced at Fowler, who was standing stiffly not far from Ausable, and waved the
gun with a commanding gesture. “Please sit down,” he said.
Choose the most suitable option.
(A) reassures (B) unsettles
(C) angers (D) confuses

iii. ‘It had the balcony, which extends under my window now. You can get onto it from the
empty room two doors down-and somebody did, last month. The management promised
to block it off But they haven’t.’
Why does Ausable explain the existence of a balcony at such great length to Fowler?
Elaborate in about 40 words, with reference to the extract.

iv. Complete the following suitably.

Max told Fowler that they had to wait for a good thirty minutes for a paper to arrive.
The paper here refers to _____.

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B. “But for Valli, standing at the front door was every bit as enjoyable as any of the
elaborate games other children played. Watching the street gave her many new unusual
experiences.
The most fascinating of all was the bus that travelled between her village and the
nearest town. It passed through her street each hour, once going to the town and once
coming back. The sight of the bus, filled each time with a new set of passengers was a
source of unending joy for Valli”
(Madam Rides the Bus)
i. The author says that ‘Watching the street gave her many new unusual experiences.’
Which of the options given below confirms this statement?
Valli had a habit of _____.
(A) passing time as she had no friends
(B) observing people and everyday happenings
(C) eavesdropping on neighbours and visitors
(D) looking for an opportunity to hop into a bus
ii. Why was ‘The sight of the bus, filled each time with a new set of passengers was a source
of unending joy for Valli?’ Answer in about 40 words.
iii. Fill in the blank with the correct word from the bracket.
The word ‘fascinating’ in the line “The most fascinating of all was the bus that travelled
between her village and the nearest town” indicates that Valli found the bus _____
(captivating/frightening).

iv. What does Valli’s interest in a ‘new set of passengers’ as a source of unending joy show
about her?

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. He should be lurking in shadow,
Sliding through long grass
Near the water hole
Where plump deer pass.
(Tiger in the Zoo)
i. According to the extract, the poet wishes for the tiger to be ‘sliding’ through the foliage
as this would
(A) assist in keeping the prey unsuspecting of the predator’s sound.
(B) aid in camouflaging the presence of the predator before it rushes in.
(C) help the predator pounce on the prey comfortably without getting tired.
(D) support the predator’s vision as it eyes its prey.

ii. Fill the blank with one word.

‘Shadow’ here, refers to the shadow of long _____

iii. What is the poet trying to convey in the given extract? Answer in about 40 words.

iv. Which word in the extract means the same as ‘fat’ ?

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 08 Page 9

B. If when you’re walking round your yard

You meet a creature there, Who hugs you
very, very hard, Be sure it is a Bear,
If you have any doubts, I guess
He’ll give you just one more caress.
(How to Tell Wild Animals)
i. How a bear can be recognised by you?
(A) By its skin colour (B) By its roar
(C) By its body size (D) By its tight hug

ii. How will you judge the poet’s style of writing in the given extract?

iii. How does the poet describe the bear in the extract?

iv. Would you agree that the poet has an in-depth knowledge of the wild? Support the
statement in context of the poem from which the given lines are taken. Answer in about
40 words.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12
i. What was Lomov’s opinion about Squeezer?
(The Proposal)
ii. How did the seagull express his excitement when he saw his mother bringing food for
him?
(Two Stories About Flying)
iii. What does courage mean to Mandela?
(Nelson Mandela - Long Walk to Freedom)

iv. How does the poet suggest that you identify the lion and the tiger? When can you
do so according to him?
(How to Tell Wild Animals)
v. ‘He senses first responsibility’-What responsibility is referred to here?
(The Ball Poem)

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6
i. Why could Tricki not be cured at home?
(A Triumph of Surgery)
ii. What are Hari Singh’s reactions to the prospect of receiving an education? Do they
change over time?
(The Thief ’s Story)
iii. What happened to the people who tried to help the constable in catching the invisible
man?
(Footprints without Feet)

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10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. The most important message is that all people have the right to live in freedom just
because people may be a different religion or race, doesn’t mean that they should be
treated differently.
Prepare a set of dialogues that happened between Anne Frank and Nelson Mandela
based on ‘Diary of Anne Frank’ and ‘A Long Walk to Freedom’. You may begin like this:
Anne : I detest the world when they treat people differently on basis of their caste and
creed.
Mandela : I also faced the same discrimination in my country _____.

ii. The message of the poem ‘The Trees’ is that freedom and equality should be for all the
living organisms in the world. If you had to use the message of the given quote based on
‘The Trees’ to understand the state of the Tiger in the Zoo, how will you elaborate it?
Also, how it is relevant to both.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. The message of ‘The Question of Trust’ is that we should not trust anyone without
discovering out about that person. Analyse in detail with reference to character of
Horace in the story.

ii. The ultimate message that one can get from ‘The Midnight Visitor’ is that in any
situation we should not panic instead we should take a step and face the situation with
our presence of mind.

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 09 Page 1

Sample Paper 09
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10
1. For most of us, concerns about the environment are often reduced to just global warming.
With forests disappearing, animals being hunted to extinction, and wildlife holidays
becoming a luxury for a few, connecting with nature seems like a distant dream. For many
people, zoos and wildlife parks are now the only places left to experience nature up close.
2. Zoos have always been an affordable form of recreation for people from different
backgrounds, whether rich or poor, educated or not. They provide a great opportunity
to educate and make people more aware of wildlife. In India, there are over 150 zoos,
attracting around 50 million visitors every year, according to CEE India.
3. Today’s children are increasingly disconnected from nature. We need a fun, engaging
place for nature education that can compete with the internet, TV, and video games.
Zoos are where children can actually see real animals, turning their imagination into
reality and sparking curiosity. Some of these children grow up to be wildlife protectors.
4. In India, Reuben David, a wildlife conservation hero, founded the Ahmedabad zoo.
Under his leadership, it became one of India’s most important zoos, contributing a lot
to conservation and research. Zoos around the world also exchange animals with each
other.
5. Conflicts between humans and wild animals are still increasing. The Wildlife Protection
Society of India reported that between 1994 and 2010, 3,189 leopards were killed. Leopards
often become targets because they attack livestock and enter human settlements. Wild
animals need protection now more than ever.
6. Some animal activists suggest shutting down zoos. But what’s the alternative plan to
save endangered species? Closing zoos could make their extinction happen faster. Zoos
provide safe spaces for endangered species to breed. If animals are only left in the wild,
they face the risk of being wiped out by diseases, starvation, or epidemics. Many species
are bred in zoos and then returned to the wild.

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7. The issue should not be about shutting down poorly maintained zoos but rather
improving them. More money should be spent on creating natural habitats for animals,
ensuring they are healthy, supporting breeding programs, conducting research, and
protecting endangered species. Zoos play an important role in conservation, education,
and research, helping people learn about and understand wildlife.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, why do zoos and wildlife parks play a crucial role in connecting people
with nature? 1
ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1
Zoos are important because :
(a) They only provide fun for people.
(b) They help educate and raise awareness about wildlife among people from different
backgrounds.
(paragraph 2)
iii. How do zoos help children reconnect with nature, as mentioned in the passage? 2
(paragraph 3)
iv. Select the option that best explains why zoos are important for conservation : 1
(a) Zoos only focus on entertaining visitors.
(b) Zoos provide breeding grounds for endangered species and help protect them from
extinction.
(paragraph 6)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
Reuben David’s efforts in creating the Ahmedabad zoo significantly contributed to
wildlife conservation and research.
(paragraph 4)
vi. The writer mentions that shutting down zoos could accelerate extinction. 1
Which of the following is a key reason for this?
(A) Zoos protect animals from hunters.
(B) Zoos allow animals to be bred in captivity and reintroduced into the wild.
(C) Zoos entertain visitors and raise money for wildlife protection.
(D) Zoos provide opportunities for visitors to interact with animals.
(paragraph 6)
vii. List two roles zoos play in wildlife protection and education, as mentioned in the
passage. 2
(paragraph 7)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

The focus should be on improving poorly maintained zoos by :
(A) Banning all zoos worldwide.
(B) Closing zoos that don’t meet standards.
(C) Investing in better habitats and care for animals.
(D) Moving animals to different countries.
(paragraph 7)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 09 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Air pollution is one of the leading environmental health risks, causing approximately 7
million deaths annually. Major sources of air pollution include emissions from vehicles,
industrial activities, and the burning of fossil fuels. The World Health Organization
(WHO) estimates that 91% of the world’s population lives in areas where air quality
exceeds recommended limits.
2. Fine particulate matter, also known as PM2.5, is especially harmful. These tiny particles
can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, leading to respiratory and
cardiovascular diseases. Studies have shown that a 10 µg/m³ increase in PM2.5 levels is
associated with a 6% increase in the risk of premature death.
3. In response to rising air pollution levels, many cities are adopting measures such as
promoting public transportation, reducing industrial emissions, and encouraging the use
of renewable energy. Countries that have implemented stricter air quality standards have
seen up to a 30% decrease in PM2.5 levels over the past decade.
4. While these efforts have made progress, much more needs to be done. Experts warn that
without global cooperation and stricter regulations, air pollution-related deaths could rise
by 50% by 2050.
5. Addressing air pollution is critical for protecting public health, reducing healthcare costs,
and combating climate change. By adopting cleaner technologies and more sustainable
practices, the world can reduce the deadly impact of air pollution on both people and
the planet.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “leading environmental health risks” by the writer, in
paragraph 1, tell us about the severity of air pollution? 1
(A) The writer believes air pollution has no major health impact.
(B) The writer is highlighting air pollution as a significant global health threat.
(C) The writer is downplaying the seriousness of air pollution.
(D) The writer is unsure about the effects of air pollution.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Fine particulate matter (PM2.5) poses a major threat to public health.
Reason : PM 2.5 particles can enter the bloodstream and increase the risk of respiratory
and cardiovascular diseases.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of the world’s population that lives in areas where air quality
exceeds recommended limits, as mentioned in the passage. 1

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iv. According to the passage, what are two main sources of air pollution? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Efforts to reduce air pollution levels have been implemented in many countries, with positive
results.
The percentage decrease in PM2.5 levels in countries with stricter air quality standards
is _____ (10% / 20% / 30%).

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that cities are using to combat
rising air pollution levels? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Air pollution increases the risk of respiratory and cardiovascular diseases by _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts emphasize the importance of addressing air pollution because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is addressing air pollution critical for the future of
public health and the environment? 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
The boys _____ to my lecture since 8 O’clock this morning.
(A) were listening
(B) have been listening
(C) had been listening
(D) None of these

ii. Read the conversation between a mother and her daughter. Complete the sentence by
reporting daughter’s reply correctly.
Mother: Why are you looking so worried?
Daughter: My exams are approaching.
Mother asked her daughter why she was looking very worried. The daughter replied that
_____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line.
I _____ rather die than join the gang of terrorists.
(A) could (B) should
(C) would (D) can

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iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line:
A little political thinkers think that liberty and equality can’t go together.
Option No. Error Correction
(A) can’t couldn’t
(B) think thinks
(C) A little Some
(D) go goes

v. Complete the given sentence, by filling in the blank with the correct option:
They met you at night after you _____ your work.
(A) had finished (B) have finished
(C) finished (D) will finish

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket.
Chris, in addition to his brother Zack, _____ (play)hockey on Saturday.

vii. Report the dialogue between a doctor and a patient, by completing the sentence:
Doctor : You should take this medicine every day.
Patient : Should I take it before dinner or after dinner?
Doctor : No, you should take it after breakfast.
The Doctor advised the patient that he should take that medicine every day. The patient
further asked if he should take it before dinner or after dinner. The doctor replied
negatively and then said that _____.

viii. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
Some guys like to fights on even playing grounds, and some guys like to cheat.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

ix. Transform the following direct speech into reported speech:

He asked, “Will you be coming?”

x. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
My class teacher told me that I can work hard.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

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xi. Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue between Radha and
Shikha.
Radha : Do you know how to swim?
Shikha : Yes I know. I have learnt it during this summer vacation.
Radha asked Shikha if/whether she knew how to swim. Then Shikha replied in affirmative
and also added that _____.
(A) she had learnt it during the summer vacation
(B) she has learnt it during the summer vacation
(C) she have learnt it during the summer vacation
(D) she had learn it during the summer vacation

xii. Identify the error and supply the correction, for the following sentence:
Every people went to welcome the Indian Cricket team.
Error Correction

WRITING 10
Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and
created for assessment purpose.
4A. Write a letter to the Editor of “The Times of India”, Delhi expressing your concern over
the increase in the rate of road accident, rash driving and overcrowded road transport.
You are Priya/Priyanshu living at B-47 Avas Vikas, Mayur Vihar, New Delhi.


O
4B. Write an application to your principal asking permission to remain absent from school
for 5 days on account of your brother’s marriage.

5A. The charts below show agricultural production in two different regions of the country.
Write an analytical paragraph in about 120 words by selecting and reporting the main
features, and making comparisons where relevant.

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5B. Given below is a newspaper report on the state of cancer prevailing in India. You
have been asked to write an analytical paragraph on ‘Cancer - a silent killer’ Taking
information from the clipping given below together with your own ideas, write this
paragraph in about 120 words.
“In India, cities are more cancer-prone than rural areas. In the early 1990’s, we expected
one out of 10-15 urban Indians to get cancer in their life -time, that is every second or
third family would have to face this disease. This is partly due to high levels of benzene
in the air and also that the metros are exposed to high levels of pesticides in their
foods. In order to check the steady growth of cancer in the country, the Government
shall have to give priority to preventive action. At the same time measures to undertake
improvement in facilities for the treatment of cancer shall have to be adopted.”

SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A. I think he knew I made a little money this way but he did not seem to mind. Anil made
money by fits and starts. He would borrow one week, lend the next. He kept worrying
about his next cheque, but as soon as it arrived, he would go out and celebrate. It seems
he wrote for magazines-a queer way to make a living!
(The Thief ’s Story)
i. Why did ‘I’ feel that uniting for magazines was a queer way to make a living? Answer
in about 40 words.
ii. What effect does Anil’s behavior, as described in the lines below, have on the narrator?
He kept worrying about his next cheque, but as soon as it arrived, he would go out and
celebrate.
Choose the most suitable option.
(A) inspires (B) confuses
(C) amuses (D) alarms
iii. The information in the extract suggests that Anil could be a _____.

iv. What did the narrator mean by ‘I made a little money this way’ ?

B. I finished my poem, and it was beautiful! It was about a mother duck and a father swan
with three baby ducklings who were bitten to death by the father because they quacked
too much. Luckily, Mr: Keesing took the joke the right way. He read the poem to the
class, adding his own comments, and to several other classes as well.
(From the Diary of Anne Frank)
i. Anne Frank says that ‘Mr. Keesing took the joke the right way.’ What does she mean
by this?
(A) Anne had turned the tables on her teacher.
(B) The teacher was already tired of her constant jokes in class.
(C) Anne Frank had a nasty sense of humour.
(D) Students are not supposed to crack jokes on their teachers.

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ii. What had transpired between Mr. Keesing and Anne Frank for her to feel relieved on
seeing his response to her poem? Answer in about 40 words.

iii. Fill in the blank with the correct word from the bracket.
The word ‘joke’ in the line “Luckily, Mr. Keesing took the joke the right way” indicates
that Mr. Keesing reacted _____ (positively/negatively).

iv. What does this extract tell us about Mr. Keesing as a teacher? Mention two qualities.

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. Ink trickled down to the bottom of the household
A little mouse Blink strategically mouseholed.
But up jumped Custard, snorting like an engine,
Clashed his tail like irons in a dungeon,
With a clatter and a clank and a jangling squirm,
He went at the pirate like a robin at a worm.
(The Tale of Custard the Dragon)

i. Fill the blank with one word.

Belinda paled and cried for help because she was attacked by a pirate with a _____.

ii. What is the significance of the use of the words: fled, trickled down and mouseholed to
describe the reactions of Belinda’s pets and how does this word choice contribute to the
overall situation in the poem? Answer in about 40 words.

iii. The words, ‘But up jumped Custard, snorting like an engine’ show that _____.
(A) Custard was angry and ready to fight Ink and Blink.
(B) Custard was ready to move energetically.
(C) Custard was ready to attack the pirate.
(D) Custard was clearing his throat.

iv. Comment on the poet’s use of language in these lines.

B. Some say the world will end in fire,

Some say in ice.
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favour fire.
But if it had to perish twice,
I think I know enough of hate
To say that for destruction ice
Is also great
And would suffice.
(Fire and Ice)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 09 Page 9

i. How can ‘Ice’ bring an end to the world? Answer in about 40 words.

ii. What figure of speech is used in the first line of the extract?

iii. _____ can correctly replace the underlined phrase in the give line from the extract?
I hold with those who favour fire.

iv. Pick the option that is NOT TRUE about the poet according to the extract. The poet
(A) is inclined to believe that the world would most likely end with fire.
(B) has heard divided opinions about the way the world would end in all likelihood.
(C) preaches love and kindness to combat the spread of hate among all.
(D) declares the power of ice to be as destructive as that of fire.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12

i. What was the effect of hailstones on Lencho’s crop ?

(A Letter to God)

ii. Young seagull tried to fly but he could not. Why was he afraid to fly ?
(Two Stories About Flying)

iii. Why should the tiger snarl around houses at the edge of the forest ?
(A Tiger in the Zoo)

iv. What makes Chubukov misunderstand the purpose of Lomov’s visit?

(The Proposal)

v. “Money is external”. What does the poet mean by this expression taken from ‘The Ball
Poem’ ?

9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6

i. How did Ausable befool Max about the balcony?

(The Midnight Visitor)
ii. Griffin’s brilliance as a man of science fades before his darker traits. Comment.
(Footprints Without Feet)

iii. What does Noodle tell Think-Tank about the books?

(The Book that Saved the Earth)

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10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. Gotami comes to Buddha praying to him to revive her dead son. Buddha asks her to
bring a handful of mustard seeds from a house where no one has lost a child, husband,
parent or friend. Through this simple act, Buddha communicates the most profound
truth of life, not only to Gotami but also to the whole mankind. What is the truth that
Buddha communicates? What lesson does Gotami learn? What changes would take
place in a common man’s life if that truth is understood?
(The Sermon at Benares)

ii. “Difficulties do come in our lives, but they are not there to stay forever.” Comment on
this statement with reference to the poem ‘Fog’ by Carl Sandburg.

11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. Albert Einstein said, ‘The important thing is to never stop questioning.’ Richard was a
genius who proved this quote true. Justify.
(The Making of a Scientist)

ii. Give a brief character sketch of Mrs. Pumphrey. What values are reflected through her
character ?
(A Triumph of Surgery)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 10 Page 1

Sample Paper 10
English Language and Literature (184)
Class-X Exam 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

SECTION A - READING SKILLS 20

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Many zoos are facing a funding crisis, which has brought back the debate about whether
zoos should exist at all. People who support zoos believe they are essential for saving
rare animal species. Over the last 20 years, zoos have developed programs to protect
endangered animals. These programs, called “captive breeding programs,” involve
breeding animals in zoos and later releasing them back into the wild to increase the
number of animals in their natural habitats.
2. Zoos work together to make sure their breeding programs succeed. Animals are moved
from one zoo to another to prevent inbreeding, which is when closely related animals
mate. Inbreeding can lead to deformities or health problems in the offspring.
3. Zoo supporters also believe that zoos are important for educating children, as millions of
kids visit zoos every year. They argue that watching animals on TV is not the same as
seeing real animals up close. Zoos also do research, like finding out the best conditions
for endangered species to reproduce. If zoos were to close, it could be devastating for
conservation efforts, and many animals would have to be euthanized.
4. People who are against zoos agree that some species have been saved by captive breeding
programs, but they don’t think this is enough to solve the global conservation crisis.
The number of animals saved by zoos is very small compared to the overall problem. It
took millions of dollars to save the Arabian oryx, but that much money can’t be spent
on every endangered species. Some animals, like the African elephant, don’t breed well
in captivity, making zoo programs less effective for certain species.
5. Opponents of zoos also argue that many animals in zoos are kept in poor and unkind
conditions. In some of the worst zoos, animals are still put on display just to entertain
people. When animals are kept in bad environments, they often behave in strange,
repetitive ways. For example, polar bears might walk back and forth or turn their heads
over and over again. Scientists say this behavior is a sign that the animals are stressed

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and frustrated. Opponents of zoos believe that when children see animals acting like
this, they aren’t learning about the animals in a healthy or accurate way.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, why do supporters of zoos believe they are important for animal
conservation? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Zoo breeding programs involve :
(a) Breeding animals in zoos and keeping them in captivity forever.
(b) Breeding animals in zoos and reintroducing them into the wild to boost wild
populations.
(paragraph 1)

iii. How do zoos work together to prevent inbreeding, as explained in the passage? 2
(paragraph 2)

iv. Select the option that best reflects the argument in favor of zoos for education : 1
(a) Zoos are important because they entertain children.
(b) Zoos help educate children by allowing them to see real animals up close, which is
more impactful than watching them on TV.
(paragraph 3)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Opponents of zoos agree that captive breeding programs have saved some species, but
they believe it’s not enough to solve the worldwide conservation problem.
(paragraph 4)

vi. The writer mentions that some animals don’t breed well in captivity. 1
Which species is given as an example of this problem?
(A) Arabian oryx (B) African elephant
(C) Polar bear (D) Leopard
(paragraph 4)

vii. List two ways animals behave when kept in bad conditions in zoos, as mentioned in the
passage. 2
(paragraph 5)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

According to opponents of zoos, children who see animals behaving in stressed and
unnatural ways in zoos :
(A) Learn the correct information about the animals.
(B) Are given a false or inaccurate understanding of animal behavior.
(C) Are entertained and educated at the same time.
(D) Learn how animals act in the wild.
(paragraph 5)

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 10 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The global plastic waste crisis is one of the most pressing environmental challenges
today. An estimated 300 million tons of plastic waste are produced each year, with
only 9% being recycled, while 12% is incinerated, and the remaining 79% accumulates
in landfills or the natural environment. Of this, over 8 million tons enter the oceans
annually, impacting marine ecosystems.
2. Plastic pollution in oceans has increased dramatically over the past 50 years. By 2050,
it is estimated that the amount of plastic in the ocean will outweigh all the fish. More
than 100,000 marine animals, including turtles, seabirds, and marine mammals, die each
year due to plastic ingestion or entanglement. Microplastics, particles less than 5mm in
size, have been found in over 90% of seabirds and 100% of sea turtles tested.
3. Several countries have implemented bans on single-use plastics, such as plastic bags and
straws. Recycling rates have increased in some regions, but the overall recycling rate
remains low. Europe recycles around 30% of its plastic waste, while in the U.S., only 9%
of plastic waste is recycled.
4. Innovative solutions such as chemical recycling, which breaks plastic down to its original
components, and biodegradable alternatives are being developed. Research on plastic-
eating microbes, which can naturally degrade plastics, is ongoing and offers promising
results. These technologies could potentially reduce the amount of plastic that remains
in the environment.
5. Experts predict that without significant global intervention, plastic pollution could triple
by 2040, severely impacting ecosystems, food chains, and human health.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “pressing environmental challenges” by the writer, in
paragraph 1, suggest about the plastic waste crisis? 1
(A) The writer is emphasizing the urgency and severity of the plastic waste crisis.
(B) The writer believes plastic waste is a manageable problem.
(C) The writer thinks plastic waste is no longer a concern.
(D) The writer is indifferent to the problem.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Marine animals are significantly harmed by plastic pollution.
Reason : Plastic ingestion and entanglement cause death to over 100,000 marine animals
annually.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of global plastic waste that is currently recycled, as mentioned
in the passage. 1

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iv. According to the passage, what are two key impacts of plastic waste on marine
environments? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Countries like the U.S. and Europe have taken steps to improve recycling rates, but
overall success remains limited.
The percentage of plastic waste recycled globally is _____ (9% / 12% / 30%).

vi. What are some of the innovative methods mentioned in the passage that are being
developed to reduce plastic waste? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Plastic pollution has dramatically increased in the oceans, and by 2050, _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts emphasize that urgent action is needed to address plastic pollution because
_____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is addressing plastic pollution critical for the future
of ecosystems and human health? 2

SECTION B - WRITING SKILLS & GRAMMAR 20

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete an online update.
A new understanding of the fundamental connection between mind and body explains
phenomena such as phantom limbs, and _____ surprising implications.
(A) have (B) are
(C) is (D) has

ii. Read the conversation between Sudhir and Riya. Complete the sentence by reporting
Riya’s reply correctly.
Sudhir : Riya, what is the reporting time for photoshoot tomorrow?
Riya : I have no clue as I was not there during the briefing.
Sudhir asked Riya what was the reporting time for photoshoot the following day. In
response to his question, Riya answered that _____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from a magazine.
When our cherished ideas are contradicted by the facts, we avoid the human
tendency to double down on those ideas.
(A) must (B) need
(C) can (D) could

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 10 Page 5

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from a news report.
As per the report, India will allowed food processors to import duty-free wheat against
a commitment to export flour.
Option no. error correction
(A) the a
(B) will would
(C) allowed allow
(D) against for

v. Complete the given narrative, by filling in the blank with the correct option :
The two parks in our locality have virtually _____ over by undesirable elements.
(A) been taking (B) take
(C) taken (D) been taken

vi. Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the bracket, for the given
portion of a letter.
Subject : Request for kind perusal
Dear Sir
This is to respectfully submit that the students of Agatha House _____ (seek)
approval for organising an Inter-house Rangoli Making Competition to be undertaken
by the house.

vii. Report the dialogue between a father and his son, by completing the sentence.
Father : Why are you late from school, Amit?
Amit : While coming from school to bus stop, I slipped by stepping on a banana peel.
Father asked Amit _____ late from school. In response to the question, Amit replied
that while coming from school to bus stop, he had slipped by stepping on a banana peel.

viii. Identify the error in the given sentence, from a school magazine report and supply the
correction.
Exploring solutions to brought awareness about celebrating festivals without harming
ecology was the second objective of the competition.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

ix. Ahmed shared some information with Anmol about his visit to a book fair. Report
Anmol’s question.
Did you buy any book from the fair?

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x. Read the slogan by the Ministry for Child Welfare. Identify the error and supply the
correction.
Can’t we ask our children to reject junk food?
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

xi. Select the correct option to complete the narration of the dialogue between Sanskriti and
her friend Pranika.
Sanskriti : I couldn’t find you on the school bus this morning. Did you miss the school
bus?
Pranika : No, my dad was enroute to the school. So, he offered me to drop me to the
school.
Sanskriti told Pranika that she couldn’t see her on the school bus that morning and
further asked _____. In response to her question, Pranika replied that her father was
enroute to the school and offered her to drop her to the school.
(A) that if she had missed the school bus
(B) if she had missed the school bus
(C) that if she missed the school bus
(D) that if you had missed the school bus

xii. Identify the error on a shop’s hoarding and supply the correction, for the following sales
offer.
SUPER SAVER DEALS !!!
With Mom and Me Super Saver Days Offers, got discounts on daily essentials, personal
care, baby care, fashion, kitchen & dining, nutrition, and more.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

WRITING 10
Note : All details presented in the questions in writing section are imaginary and
created for assessment purpose.
4A. Drinking water is becoming a rare commodity. Industrial development is filling our
rivers, seas and oceans with toxic pollutants which are a major threat to human health.
You are deeply saddened to see water pollution as an appalling problem, which is
powerful enough to lead the world on a path of destruction.
Write a letter to the Editor of Express News to make the public aware about the causes
of water pollution and also suggest the measures to prevent water pollution. You are
Parul Aggarwal, C-316, Jaswant Lane, New Delhi.

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 10 Page 7

O
4B. You are Christopher Joanne, a resident of C-216, Margaret Green Avenue, Loni Road,
Delhi. Three students of grade 10 from your residential complex went around the city
at midnight and covered shelterless people with blankets without waking them up. You
think that their work deserves appreciation and recognition.
Write a letter to the Secretary of your society, seeking recommendation for these youth,
to be nominated for ‘Star Volunteers Award’. Suggest other ways how such acts of
kindness could be recognised and awarded in the future.

5A. After the birth of a child, fathers spend more time in office, whereas mothers spend less.
Given below is a graph showing average weekly hours worked by gender and household
type of the year 2014. Write an analytical paragraph by summarising the information
given below.

O
5B. A group of enterprising young adults conducted a survey on reopening of educational
institutions in the National Capital.

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SECTION C - LITERATURE TEXTBOOK 40

6. Read the given extracts and answer ANY ONE of the two questions given below 5
A. CHUBUKOV : And that blind hen, yes, that turnip-ghost has the confounded cheek to
make a proposal, and so on!
NATALYA : What proposal?
CHUBUKOV : Why, he came here to propose to you.
NATALYA : To propose? To me? Why didn’t you tell me so before?
(The Proposal)
i. Identify Natalya’s reaction at this point in the play.

ii. What made Natalya react so sharply to her father’s words? Explain the irony in her
words. Answer in about 40 words.

iii. What effect does the revelation, as described in the lines below, have on Natalya?
NATALYA: To propose? To me? Why didn’t you tell me so before?
Choose the most suitable option.
(A) excites (B) confuses
(C) shocks (D) embarrasses

iv. If an actor were to enact this extract, what would he be required to focus on, while
modulating his voice?

B. “Tell me another!” scoffed Pranjol.

“We have an Indian legend too.
Bodhidharma, an ancient Buddhist ascetic, cut off his eyelids because he felt sleepy
during meditations. Ten tea plants grew out of the eyelids. The leaves of these plants
when put in hot water and drunk, banished sleep.”
“Tea was first drunk in China,” Rajvir added, “as far back as 2700 B.C.! In fact, words
such as tea, chai and chini are from the Chinese. Tea came to Europe only in the
sixteenth century and was drunk more as medicine than as beverage.”
(Glimpses of India)
i. What is the main idea of this extract?
(A) Tea as a popular beverage in Europe and how it spread.
(B) Origin of tea in India and why it became popular in Europe.
(C) Importance of India in popularising tea and influencing Europe.
(D) Indian legend on tea and how it travelled from China to Europe.

ii. Why do you think Pranjol ‘scoffed’ ? Answer in about 40 words.

iii. When did tea come to Europe?

iv. Fill in the blank with the correct word from the bracket.
The word ‘banished’ in the line “The leaves of these plants when put in hot water and
drunk, banished sleep.” indicates that the tea leaves _____ (eliminated/encouraged)
sleep.

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CBSE 10th English Sample Paper 10 Page 9

7. Read the given extracts and answer the questions for ANY ONE of the two, given. 5
A. Money is external.
He is learning, well behind his desperate eyes,
The epistemology of loss, how to stand up Knowing what every man must one day know
And most know many days, how to stand up
(The Ball Poem)
i. The speaker of the above lines is _____.
(A) An observer (B) The boy’s parent
(C) The ball salesman (D) A friend
ii. ‘The boy is learning to stand up’. What does it mean in the content of the extract?
iii. According to the poet, what do we mostly learn about loss from?
iv. What does the boy learn by losing the ball according to the extract? (Answer in about
40 words)
B. “Belinda was as brave as a barrel full of bears,
And Ink and Blink chased lions down the stairs,
Mustard was as brave as a tiger in a rage,
But Custard cried for a nice safe cage.”
(The Tale of Custard the Dragon)
i. In what way does the use of conjunctions ‘and’ and ‘but’ in this extract signify?
ii. What is the significance of Custard crying ‘for a nice, safe cage’ ? How does this contribute
to the overall mood and tone of the poem?
iii. Choose the most appropriate option. What does the extract demonstrate about other
pets of Belinda?
(A) The entire lot was as brave as could be.
(B) They all had flamboyant personalities.
(C) Ink, Blink, and Mustard pretended to be brave.
(D) They were known for being fearful.
iv. Comment on the poet’s use of language in these lines in 40 words.

8. Answer ANY FOUR of the following five questions, in about 40-50 words. 4 # 3 = 12
i. ‘Every journey of a thousand miles begins with but a single step.’ With reference to the
chapter ‘His First Flight’, analyse the statement and show your acquaintance.
(Two Stories About Flying)
ii. The poem ‘Fire and Ice’ uses the metaphor of the end of the world to characterise this
destruction. Do you agree? Support your answer with reasons.
(Fire and Ice)
iii. Valli’s unique maiden bus ride experience was pleasant because the bus conductor was
an affable man. Do you agree? Why/Why not?
(Madam Rides the Bus)

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iv. What does the poet want to demonstrate through the poem ‘A Tale of Custard the
Dragon’ ?
v. How can we say that Chubukov was continuously trying to reconcile the differences
between Natalya and Lomov?
(The Proposal)
9. Answer ANY TWO of the following three questions, in about 40-50 words. 2#3 = 6
i. Griffin had become a scientist just to satisfy his own ego and carry out satanic deeds.
Comment. (Footprints without Feet)

ii. The writer has given ample chance to the readers to ridicule the character Max in the
chapter ‘The Midnight Visitor’. Substantiate your answer with examples from the text.
(Footprints without Feet)
iii. Validate the importance of ‘Try and try until you succeed’, in the context of Richard
Ebright in ‘The Making of a Scientist’.
(The Making of a Scientist)

10. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. Matilda goes home after meeting Mme Forestier after ten years and shares the fact with
M. Loisel that the necklace was a false one. Write the dialogue between Matilda and M
Loisel.
Matilda : I don’t know how to tell you this but I met Mme Forestier today and she told
me that her necklace was not a real diamond.
M Loisel : What! I just can’t believe my ears. That huge debt was for nothing!
Matilda :
________________________.
M Loisel : ________________________.
(The Necklace)
ii. Valli’s visit to the town has been disclosed and mother gives her a scolding. Develop a
conversation between Valli and her mother emphasising how important it is to follow the
instructions given by the elders.
(Madam Rides the Bus)
11. Answer ANY ONE of the following two questions, in about 100-120 words. 6
i. Mrs Hall was disgraced solely because of her sheer negligence. Do you think she could
have avoided her woes and miseries only if she had been a little vigilant and more
careful? Comment.
(Footprints without Feet)

ii. Horace might not have ended up in prison repenting at the way he was deceived but by
cursing the lady in red. Examine the statement ‘A Question of Trust’ giving reasons for
the same.
(A Question of Trust)


******

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 01 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Select from the following compounds which is not a base:
a) Zinc oxide
b) Sodium hydroxide
c) Calcium hydroxide
d) Sodium sulphate
2. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime.
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)
This reaction can be classified as :
A. Combination reaction
B. Exothermic reaction
C. Endothermic reaction
D. Oxidation reaction

Which of the following is the correct option?

a) C and D
b) A and B
c) A and C
d) A, C and D
3. Baking soda is a mixture of:
a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid
d) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid

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4. Consider the structures of the three cyclic carbon compounds A, B and C given below and select the correct option from
the following:

a) A and C are isomers of hexane and B is benzene.

b) A is a saturated cyclic hydrocarbon and B and C are unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbons.
c) A is cyclohexane and B and C are the isomers of benzene.
d) A is an isomer of hexane, B is benzene and C is an isomer of hexene.
5. Which one of the following metals is malleable and a poor conductor of electricity?
a) Zinc
b) Silver
c) Lead
d) Copper
6. Consider the following compounds:
I. HCl
II. C2H5OH
III. C6H12O6
IV. H2SO4

Which of these compounds do not conduct electricity in solution?

a) III and IV
b) I and IV
c) II and III
d) I and II
7. Which of the following are correct structural isomers of butane?
H H H H

| | | |

i. H - C - C - C - C - H
| | | |
H H H H

H H H

| | |

ii. H - C - C - C - H
| | |
H H - C - H H

iii.

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iv.

a) (iii) and (iv)

b) (ii) and (iv)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (i) and (iii)
8. In the following diagram, identify the cells through which massive amounts of gaseous exchange takes place for
photosynthesis:

a) I
b) III
c) IV
d) II
9. In an experiment with pea plants, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plant
to pure short plants in F2 generation will be
a) 1 : 3
b) 3 : 1
c) 2 : 1
d) 1 : 1
10. Pseudopodia are
a) long, tube-like structures coming out of the mouth.
b) small hair-like structures present on unicellular organisms.
c) false feet developed in some unicellular organisms.
d) suckers which are attached to the walls of the intestines.
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11. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
a) either boy or girl
b) girl
c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
d) boy
12. Which one of the following statements is correct about the human circulatory system?
a) Blood transports only oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
b) Human heart has five chambers.
c) Both oxygen-rich and oxygen-deficient blood gets mixed in the heart.
d) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.

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13. The correct pattern of magnetic field lines of the field produced by a current carrying circular loop is:

a)

b)

c)

d)

14. Two bulbs of 100 W and 40 W are connected in series. The current through the 100 W bulb is 1 A. The current through
the 40 W bulb will be:
a) 1 A
b) 0.4 A
c) 0.8 A
d) 0.6 A
15. Ozone layer is damaged by
a) Chlorofluorocarbons
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Methane
d) Sulphur dioxide
16. In a given food chain, suppose the amount of energy available at the third trophic level is 50 KJ. What will be the energy
available at the producer level?
a) 5000 KJ
b) 50 KJ
c) 5 KJ
d) 500 KJ
17. Assertion (A): Corrosion of iron is commonly known as rusting.
Reason (R): Corrosion of iron occurs in presence of moist air.

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A): Stock is the lower part of a plant having the roots.
Reason (R): In grafting, the stock is placed over the scion.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): Electric appliances with metallic body have three connections, whereas an electric bulb has two pin
connections.
Reason (R): Three-pin connections reduce heating of connecting wires.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): Ozone depletion can be reduced by limiting the use of air conditioners and refrigerators.
Reason (R): Air conditioner and refrigerators release chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere that destroy ozone.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. Complete the following reactions and name the main product formed in each case:
i. CH3COOH + NaOH → ..... + .....
ii. C2H5OH + O2 → ..... + ......
22. Name the process of reproduction observed in yeast. Design an activity to observe this mode of reproduction in a school
laboratory. Name one more organism which reproduces by this mode.
23. Tabulate three differences between the renal artery and renal vein.

OR

Which is the largest digestive gland in human body? What is its function?
24. A convex lens can form a (i) real, inverted and magnified image as well as (ii) virtual, erect and magnified image of an
object. If the focal length of the lens is 10 cm, what should be the range of the object distance in both cases? Draw ray
diagrams to justify your answer.
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25. How is ozone formed in the higher levels of the atmosphere? Damage to the ozone layer is a cause of concern. Justify
this statement.

OR

List two reasons to show that the existence of decomposers is essential in an ecosystem.
26. Give reasons:

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i. Red colour is selected for danger signals.
ii. The sky appears dark in space.
iii. The time difference between actual sunset and apparent sunset is about 2 minutes.
Section C
27. P, Q and R are 3 elements which undergo chemical reactions according to the following equations:
a. P2O3 + 2Q → Q2O3 + 2P
b. 3RSO4 + 2Q → Q2(SO4)3 + 3R
c. 3RO + 2P → P2O3 + 3R
Answer the following questions:
i. Which element is most reactive?
ii. Which element is least reactive?
iii. State the type of reaction listed above.
28. What is the cause of the inertness of noble gas elements?

OR

Discuss the important properties of ionic compounds.

29. A figure given below shows a diagram of a kidney and its associated structures. The table list the percentage of certain
components found within the structures A and B.

In Structure A
Components Concentration %

Urea 0.03
Glucose 0.10
Amino acids 0.05

Salts 0.75
Proteins 8.00

In Structure B
Components Concentration %
Urea 2.00

Glucose 0.00
Amino acids 0.00
Salts 1.50

Proteins 0.00
i. Using only the information given in the tables, deduce the functions of the kidney.
ii. Explain how the proportions of components present in part B would change if a person is suffering from diabetes
mellitus.

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30. In pea plant, round seed is dominant over the wrinkled. If a cross is carried out between these two plants, give answer to
the following questions.
i. Mention the genes for the traits of parents.
ii. State the trait of F1 hybrids.
iii. Write the ratio of F2 progeny obtained from this cross. What is the name of the cross?
31. "A concave mirror of focal length f can form a magnified, erect as well as an inverted image of an object placed in front
of it." Justify this statement stating the position of object with respect to the mirror in each case for obtaining these
images.
32. a. List the factors on which the resistance of a uniform cylindrical conductor of a given material depends.
b. The resistance of a wire of 0.01 cm radius is 10Ω . If the resistivity of the wire is 50 × 10-8 Ω m, find the length of
this wire.
33. a. Three resistors R1, R2 and R3 are connected in parallel and the combination is connected to a battery, an ammeter, a
voltmeter and a key. Draw suitable circuit diagram to show the arrangement of these circuit components along with
the direction of current flowing.
b. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the following network:

Section D
34. i. What is saponification? Differentiate between soaps and detergents on the basis of the following:
1. Their chemical composition
2. Their mechanism in hard water
ii. Explain the formation of micelles between oily dirt and soap molecules. Also draw its diagram.

OR

i. A compound A with a molecular formula of C2H4O2 reacts with a base to give salt and water. Identify A, state its
nature and the name of the functional group it possesses. Write chemical equation for the reaction involved.
ii. When the above stated compound A reacts with another compound B having molecular formula C2H6O in the
presence of an acid, a sweet smelling compound C is formed.
1. Identify B and C.
2. State the role of acid in this reaction.
3. Write chemical equation for the reaction involved.
35. a. Although Amoeba and Leishmania, both show same mode of reproduction, but the process of reproduction is carried
out in different ways.
Identify their mode of reproduction and mention the way it is carried out in the two species.
b. What is regeneration? Explain with the help of a diagram how this process is carried out in Planaria.
c. Name the part of Rhizopus in which spores are formed.
State the condition under which spores grow into a new individual.

OR

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Observe the above figure carefully and answer the following:

i. Which phenomenon does the figure represent?
ii. Which plant hormone is involved?
iii. How this plant hormone brings this movement?
36. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of school laboratory by using a lens.
i. Which type of lens should he use and why?
ii. At what distance in terms of focal length F of the lens should he place the candle flame, so as to get
a. a magnified and
b. a diminished image respectively, on the wall?
iii. Draw ray diagrams to show the formation of the image in each case.

OR

a. With the help of diagram explain Isaac Newton’s experiment that led to the idea that the sunlight is made up of seven
colours.
b. What is atmospheric refraction? List two natural phenomena based on atmospheric refraction.
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Salt of a strong acid and strong base is neutral with a pH value of 7. NaCl common salt is formed by a combination of
hydrochloride and sodium hydroxide solution. This is the salt that is used in food. Some salt is called rock salt, bed of
rock salt was formed when seas of bygone ages dried up. The common salt thus obtained is an important raw material for
various materials of daily use, such as sodium hydroxide, baking soda, washing soda, and bleaching powder.
i. If given acids are phosphoric acid, carbonic acid, hydrochloric acid and sulphuric acid, then which acid does not form
an acidic salt? (1)
ii. What is the formula of baking soda? (1)
iii. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine to obtain bleaching powder. (2)
OR
Which salt is used for removing the permanent hardness of water? (2)
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Environmental triggers such as light, or gravity will change the directions that plant parts grow in. These directional, or
tropic, movements can be either towards the stimulus or away from it. So, in two different kinds of phototropic
movement, shoots respond by bending towards light while roots respond by bending away from it. How does this help
the plant? Plants show tropism in response to other stimuli as well. The roots of a plant always grow downwards while
the shoots usually grow upwards and away from the earth. This upward and downward growth of shoots and roots,
respectively, in response to the pull of earth or gravity, is, obviously, geotropism. If ‘hydro’ means water and ‘chemo’
refers to chemicals, what would ‘hydrotropism’ and ‘chemotropism’ mean? Can we think of examples of these kinds of
directional growth movements? One example of chemotropism is the growth of pollen tubes towards ovules, about

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which we will learn more when we examine the reproductive processes of living organisms.

i. Where does negative phototropism occur in plants? (1)

ii. Phototropism in shoots is attributed due to which plant hormone? (1)
iii. Tendrils exhibit/ twining of tendrils show which type of tropic movement? (2)
OR
If the stem grows towards sunlight and the root grows just opposite to it, then what type of movement of the stem is
it? (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A magnetic field is described by drawing the magnetic field lines. When a small north magnetic pole is placed in the
magnetic field created by a magnet, it will experience a force. And if the north pole is free, it will move under the
influence of the magnetic field. The path traced by a north magnetic pole free to move under the influence of a magnetic
field is called a magnetic field line.

Since the direction of the magnetic field line is the direction of the force on a north pole, so the magnetic field lines
always begin from the N-pole of a magnet and end on the S-pole of the magnet. Inside the magnet, however, the
direction of magnetic field lines is from the S-pole of the magnet to the N-pole of the magnet. Thus, the magnetic field
lines are closed curves. When a small compass is moved along a magnetic field line, the compass needle always sets
itself along the line tangential to it. So, a line drawn from the south pole of the compass needle to its north pole indicates
the direction of the magnetic field at that point.
i. The figure shows the magnetic field lines in a magnetic field. A, B., and C are three points in this field. At what point
is the magnetic field strength? (1)

ii. Do the magnetic field lines intersect? if not why? (1)

iii. A strong bar magnet is placed vertically above a horizontal wooden board. What would be the magnetic lines of
force? (2)
OR
Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines for a bar magnet. (2)

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 01 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (a) Zinc oxide
Explanation: Zinc oxide
2. (b) A and B
Explanation: CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq)
A combination reaction is a reaction where two or more elements or compounds combine to form a single compound.
Calcium oxide combines with water to form calcium hydroxide. Hence, it is a combination reaction.
It is an exothermic reaction as a lot of heat liberate with hissing sound during the reaction.
3. (a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
Explanation: Baking soda is a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) and a mild edible tartaric acid.
4. (a) A and C are isomers of hexane and B is benzene.
Explanation: A and C are isomers of hexane and B is benzene.
5. (c) Lead
Explanation: Lead
6. (c) II and III
Explanation: II and III
7. (c) (i) and (ii)
Explanation: (i) n−butane and (ii) iso−butane are structural isomer of butane.
(iii) and (iv) are cycloalkanes that have different molecular formulas and therefore, these are not isomers of butane.
8. (c) IV
Explanation: IV
9. (d) 1 : 1
Explanation: A cross between (TT) and (tt) would produce progenies with following genotypes-
In F2 generation - selfing of F1 progeny-

Gametes Tt T t
T TT Tt
t Tt tt

Pure tall (TT), Mixed tall (Tt) and Short (tt). The ratio of pure tall and pure short plant is 1 : 1.
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10. (c) false feet developed in some unicellular organisms.
Explanation: false feet developed in some unicellular organisms.
11. (b) girl
Explanation: A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a girl child.
12. (d) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.
Explanation:
i. The human circulatory system consists of many systems that are associated with each other.

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ii. These systems are arteries, veins, heart, and vessels. There are further two types of vessels which are known as
coronary vessel and portal vessel.
iii. The human circulatory system regulates the flow of blood in the body.
iv. Blood flows from the heart to lungs and then back to heat in a cycle.

13. (c)

Explanation: Magnetic field lines enter from the south pole and exit from the north pole. A circular coil that conducts
current has curved lines, a straight line running through the centre, and concentric circles at the coil's two opposite ends.
14. (a) 1 A
Explanation: In a series connection, the current through each device remains the same. Therefore, the current through
the 40 W bulb will also be 1 A.
15. (a) Chlorofluorocarbons
Explanation: Ozone layer is damaged by CFCs. The decrease in the amount of ozone in the atmosphere has been linked
to synthetic chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
16. (a) 5000 KJ
Explanation: According to 10% law, the energy available to each successive trophic level is 10% of the previous trophic
level.
Given, the energy available at the third trophic level = 50 KJ
The energy available at second trophic level = 50 KJ × 10 = 500 KJ
Therefore, the energy available at the producer level (first trophic level) = 500 KJ × 10 = 5000 KJ
17. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
18. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Grafting is a method in which the cut stems of two different plants (one with roots and other without
roots) are joined together in such a way that the two stems join and grow as a single plant. Stock is the lower part of a
plant (or tree) having the roots. Scion is the upper part of a plant which may have leaves on it (but no roots).
19. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The metallic body of the electrical appliance is connected to the third pin which is connected to the earth.
This is a safety precaution and avoids eventual electric shock. By doing this the extra charge flowing through the
metallic body is passed to earth and avoid shocks. There is nothing such as reducing the heating of connecting wires by
three-pin connections.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. i. This is a double displacement reaction. Here main product Sodium ethanoate is formed.
CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
ii. This is a combustion reaction. Here main product Carbondioxide is formed.
2C2H5OH + 6O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O + Heat + Light
22. The process of reproduction observed in yeast is called budding or budding yeast reproduction. In this process, a
small bud forms on the parent yeast cell, which eventually grows in size and detaches to become a new,
genetically identical yeast cell.

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Activity-
i. Dissolve sugar in water
ii. Add yeast to it and keep it in a warm place
iii. After 2 hours, put a drop of yeast culture on a slide and observe under microscope
Hydra

23. Renal artery Renal vein

The renal artery is thick, muscular and strong possessing The renal vein is thinner and posses a wide lumen with
a narrow lumen with no valves. valves to prevent backflow of blood.

It carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys back to the

It carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the kidneys.
heart.

Blood flows with high pressure. Blood flows with low pressure.

OR

The Largest digestive gland in human body is liver. Its most important function is to secrete bile juice which does not
contain any enzyme but certain salts. Bile carry out emulsification of fats.
24. A convex lens can form a (i) real, inverted and magnified image as well as (ii) virtual, erect and magnified image of an
object

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25. Ozone is formed in upper atmosphere by the reaction of ultraviolet UV radiations on oxygen O2 molecule. The damage
to ozone layer is a cause of concern to us as due to its damage more ultraviolet rays reach the earth's surface causing
various health hazards.

OR

Microorganisms like bacteria and fungi which helps in the breakdown of organic matter or biomass of dead plants and
animals into simple inorganic raw materials and replenish the environment are termed as decomposers. Their existence is
thus, essential in an ecosystem because
i. They help in the natural replenishment of soil.
ii. They help in keeping the environment clean as they reduce environmental pollution.
26. i. Danger signals are red in color because it is scattered the least by air molecules. The effect of scattering is inversely
related to the fourth power of the wavelength of a color. Since the color red has the highest wavelength of all the
colors we can see it scattered the least. So, red light is used as a danger signal as it is able to travel the longest
distance through the fog, rain, etc.
ii. In outer space, the sky appears dark instead of blue to an astronaut because there is no atmosphere containing air in
outer space to scatter sunlight. Since there is no scattered light to reach our eyes in outer space, the sky appears to
be dark there.
iii. Due to atmospheric refraction, the sun is visible two minutes after the actual sunset. Thus, the time difference
between the actual sunset and apparent sunset is 2 minutes.
Section C

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27. i. Q is the most reactive metal out of P, R and Q as it has replaced both P and R from their compounds.
ii. R is the least reactive element as it has been displaced by both P and Q.
iii. The type of reaction is Displacement reaction.
28. The inertness or reluctance of the members of the noble gas family is linked with their structure. The first member
helium (He) has two electrons in the only shell which is the K-shell. The atoms of all other members have eight electrons
in their outermost shell, also called valence shell. The electronic configuration of the members of the family are as
follows:

Noble gas Atomic Electronic No. of electrons

Symbol
element No. (Z) Configuration in outermost shell

Helium He 2 2 2

Neon Ne 10 2, 8 8

Argon Ar 18 2, 8, 8 8

Krypton Kr 36 2, 8, 18, 8 8

Xenon Xe 54 2, 8, 18, 18, 8 8

Radon Rn 86 2, 8, 18, 32, 18, 8 8

This is the maximum number of electrons which the atoms of these elements can have in their outermost shell. They
have, therefore, no tendency to either lose or gain one or more electrons. In other words, these atoms are fully satisfied.
The members of the family are called inert gases or noble gases.

OR

Important properties of ionic compounds.

The important properties of the ionic or electrovalent compounds are given below:
i. Ionic compounds consist of ions. The ionic compounds consist of positive ions or cations and negative ions or
anions. These ions are attracted towards each other by force of attraction called electrostatic force of attraction.
ii. Ionic compounds are crystalline solids. The ionic compounds exist as solids. These solids are in the form of crystals.
The crystals are formed by the combination of a large number of cations and anions. For example, sodium chloride is
made up by Na+ and Cl- ions. The arrangement of ions in the crystals is called crystal lattice. The crystal lattice is
different for different ionic compounds. The arrangement of Na+ and Cl- ions in the crystal lattice of NaCl is as
shown.

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iii. Ionic compound have high melting and boiling points. We know that the ionic compounds are solids in which a large
number of cations and anions are closely packed in space. If these compounds are to melt or boil, the ions are to be
separated from each other. For the separation of ions, energy is needed.
Therefore, ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.
iv. Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state. In ionic compounds, the current is to be carried by the
movement of cations and anions. As these are closely packed in the crystalline solids, their movement is almost nil.
Since the ions are not in a position to move, the ionic compounds conduct electricity.
v. Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state or in solution. When heated the ionic compounds melt. Similarly,
when added to a solvent like water, they dissolve. In molten state or in solution, the cations and anions are free to
move. Because of the movement of the ions, these compounds conduct electricity.
vi. Ionic compounds are generally soluble in water. When an ionic compound is added to water, the force which binds
the ions with one another becomes weak. Therefore, these oppositely charged ions get separated and dissolve in
water.
vii. Ionic compounds have high densities.
viii. Ionic compounds are hard and brittle.
ix. Ionic compounds undergo ionic reactions which are quick and proceed to completion.
29. i. The urea content is higher in structure B, whereas the concentration of useful components such as glucose is low.
This shows that the kidney performs the function of filtration. It filters out useful substances, e.g. glucose, amino
acids into the blood, while throwing out nitrogenous waste, e.g. urea and urine.
ii. There would be glucose in B as without insulin, blood glucose would not be converted to glycogen for storage. The
kidney attempts to reduce the blood glucose level by excreting it in [Link] glucose in digested food is absorbed by
the intestinal cells into the bloodstream, and is carried by blood to all the cells in the body. However, glucose cannot
enter the cells alone. It needs assistance from insulin to penetrate the cell walls
30. i. RR for homozygous pure round. And rr for homozygous pure wrinkle pea plant.
ii. Rr (hybrid) - heterozygous. All are round since round is dominant over wrinkled.
iii. 3:1 (phenotypic ratio), 1:2:1 (genotypic ratio) The name of this cross is monohybrid cross.
31. When an object is placed between Focus and Pole of concave mirror, the image formed is virtual, magnified, erect and
behind the [Link] an object is placed between Curvature and Focus of concave mirror, the image formed is real,
magnified, inverted at the same side of mirror.
32. a. (i) Length of the conductor (l)
(ii) Area of cross-section of the conductor (A)
b. Radius of wire, r = 0.01 cm = 0.01 × 10-2 m
Resistance, R = 10 Ω
Resistivity, ρ = 50 × 10-8 Ω m
2
l l Rπr
R = ρ = ρ ⇒ l =
A πr
2 ρ
2
−2
10Ω×22×(0⋅01×10 ) m
l =
−8
7×50×10 Ωm

=
22
m = 0.629 m = 0.628 m = 0.62 m
35

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33. i.

ii.

Hence, the equivalent Resistance of above network is 15Ω

Section D
34. i. Saponification is the hydrolysis of an ester to form an alcohol and the salt of a carboxylic acid in acidic or essential
conditions.
Soap Detergent

Chemical Soaps are sodium salts of long chain detergents are sodium salts of alkyl benzene
composition fatty acids sulphonic acids.

mechanism in hard
Soaps form scum in hard water. Detergents do not form any scum.
water
ii. Soap molecule has two ends, the charged end that gets attracted towards water is called hydrophilic and the long
carbon chain that repels water is called hydrophobic end. When soap is dissolved in water, the carbon chain i.e,
hydrophobic end gets attracted towards the oil, dirt and grease. The hydrophilic end which is attracted by water
molecules points outwards thus, the micelle formation takes place.
The tail entangles dirt, oil or grease, if required the agitation is done. Lot of rinsing is done with water so that water
molecules attract charged end and carries the soap molecules with to it attached to it and clean the clothes, utensils,
etc.

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OR

i. Since acid and base react to form salt and water, compound A will naturally be acidic due to the presence of a
carboxylic acid group.
Chemical equation for acid and base reaction:
Acid + Base → Salt + Water
HX + MOH → MX + HOH
CH3COOH(aq) + NaOH(aq) → CH3COONa(aq) + H2O(l)
Thus, Compound A is CH3COOH as it is acidic in nature containing a carboxyl(COOH) functional group.
ii. In a process known as Fischer esterification, carboxylic acids combine with alcohols to create esters. An acid catalyst
is required, and alcohol serves as a reaction solvent.
I. Compound B is Ethanol and compound C is Ethyl acetate.
II. HCl act as catalyst in this reaction.
III. A sweet-smelling compound formed by reacting acetic acid with ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid is
ethyl acetate. Chemical equation for the reaction is as follows:
+
H

CH3 − C − OH + HOC2 H5 −
−→ CH3 − C − OC2 H5
|| ||
O O

Ethyl acetate

35. a. Mode of asexual reproduction in Amoeba and Leishmania is Binary Fission.

In Amoeba, during division splitting of the two cells can take place in any plane.
In Leishmania, binary fission occurs in a definite orientation about the whip like structures present at one end of the
cell.
b. Regeneration is a process in which an organism is broken/ cut into pieces, these pieces may grow into separate
individuals
Diagram:

c. Spores are formed in Sporangia.

Spores grow into a new individual under moist conditions.

OR

i. The figure represents the phenomenon of phototropism i.e., response of plants to light.
ii. The plant hormone auxin is invoved in the phenomenon of phototropism.
iii. Plants show their growth towards light and this movement is caused by the action of auxin hormone. Auxin is
synthesised by the meristematic tissue which is present at the tip of shoot, roots etc. In the above figure the plant
bends towards the light. Auxin hormone is synthesised in the tip of the stem and moves towards the side of the plant
not receiving light. Due to more auxin hormone in the region of the plant that does not receive light they grew faster
than the part that receives light. So the stem bents towards the direction of light.

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36. i. He should use a convex lens as real images are formed by a convex lens, when objects are placed between the focus
and infinity .
ii.
a. For magnified image candle should be placed between focus (F) and centre of curvature (2F) of lens.
b. To get diminished image candle should be placed beyond centre of curvature (2F) of lens.
iii.
a. For magnified image,(object between F and 2F).

b. For diminished image,(object beyond 2F ).

OR

a. Issac Newton was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of white light. He tried to split various colours
of the spectrum of white light by using another similar prism, he could not get any more colours. Thus he proved that
sunlight is made of seven colours.

b. Atmospheric Refraction: It is the refraction of light by the earth’s atmospheric layers having varying refractive
indices.
Two natural phenomena:
i. Twinkling of stars,
ii. Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset
Section E
37. i. Carbonic acid does not form an acidic salt.
ii. Sodium bicarbonate, commonly known as baking soda or bicarbonate of soda, is a chemical compound with the
formula NaHCO3.
iii. Ca(OH)2 treatment with chlorine to obtain bleaching powder.
OR
Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ⟶ CaOCl2 + H2O
Washing soda is used for removing the permanent hardness of the water.
38. i. In plants, negative phototropism occurs in roots.
ii. Phototropism in shoots is attributed due to auxin in plants.

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iii. Tendrils exhibit/ twining of tendrils show thigmotropism movement.
OR
Positive phototropic movement.
39. i. No two magnetic field lines are found to cross each other. If two field lines crossed each other, it would mean that at
the point of intersection, the compass needle would point in two directions at the same time, which is not possible.
ii. The magnetic field and hence the magnetic line of force exist in all the planes all around the magnet.
iii. The magnetic lines of force are uniform and strong at point C and they diverge as they move towards points A and B
and the distance between the lines increases. Eventually, the strength of the magnetic field is strong where the lines
are closer and they weaken as the closeness decreases i.e., at point C.
OR

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 2 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. When Sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, the gas evolved is:
a) Hydrogen; it turns lime water milky.
b) Hydrogen; it gives pop sound with burning match stick.
c) Carbon dioxide; it blows off a burning match stick with a pop sound.
d) Carbon dioxide; it turns lime water milky.
2. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium chloride solution:
A. exchange of atoms takes place
B. exchange of ions takes place
C. a precipitate is produced
D. an insoluble salt is produced

The correct option is:

a) A and C
b) B and D
c) only B
d) B, C and D
3. Which of the following will allow the electricity to flow through it/them?
i. Glucose
ii. Dry HCl gas
iii. Alcohol
iv. Dil. H2SO4
a) (iv) only
b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iv) only

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d) (i) and (iii) only
4. You want to test for hardness of water but hard water is not available in the laboratory. Which of the following
compounds may be dissolved in pure water to make it hard?
i. Hydrogen Carbonate of Sodium
ii. Sulphate of Magnesium
iii. Chloride of Calcium
iv. Carbonate of Sodium
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (iii) and (iv)
5. An element X reacts with O2 to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The
element X is likely to be:
a) calcium
b) iron
c) carbon
d) silicon
6. Copper is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following physical properties of copper is NOT responsible
for the same?
a) High melting point
b) Thermal conductivity
c) High reactivity
d) Malleability
7. An organic compound X has the molecular formula C2H6O. Upon reaction with alkaline KMnO4 it gets oxidised to
compound Y. Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between compounds X and Y?
a) All of these
b) Sodium hydroxide
c) Sodium metal
d) Sodium carbonate
8. Observe the following diagram and identify the process and its significance from the following options:

a) Translocation: helps in transporting materials from one cell to another.

b) Excretion: helps in excreting out waste water from the plant.
c) Evaporation: maintains water contents in leaf cells.
d) Transpiration: creates a suction force which pulls water inside the plant.
9. In a cross between pure tall pea plants (TT) and pure dwarf pea plants (tt) the offsprings of F1 generation were all tall.
When F1 generation was self-crossed, the gene combinations of the offsprings of F2 generation will be:
a) TT : tt
b) TT : Tt
c) TT : Tt : tt

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d) Tt : tt
10. Plants which bear unisexual flowers are:
a) Mustard and Hibiscus
b) Hibiscus and Watermelon
c) Mustard and Papaya
d) Watermelon and Papaya
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11. It a round green seeded pea plant (RRYY) is crossed with wrinkled yellow seeded pea plant (rr yy) the seeds to be
produced in F1 generation will be:
a) round and green
b) wrinkled and green
c) Wrinkled and yellow
d) round and yellow
12. Select from the following the correct statement about tropic movement in plants:
a) It is a growth related movement.
b) It does not depend upon the direction of stimulus received.
c) It is due to stimulus of touch and temperature.
d) It is observed only in roots and not in stems.
13. A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as shown in figure. The direction
of the magnetic field will be north to south at a point:

a) directly below the wire.

b) located in the plane of the paper on the south side of the wire.
c) located in the plane of the paper on the north side of the wire.
d) directly above the wire.
14. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform area of cross-section A has resistance R. Another conductor of length 2.5
l and resistance 0.5 R of the same material has area of cross-section
a) 2.5 A
b) 5 A
c) A
1

d) 0.5 A
15. Which of the following organisms belong to fourth trophic levels in the food chain ?
a) Plants
b) Rats
c) Hawks
d) Snakes
16. Edaphic factors are included in _________.
a) Biotic components
b) Producers

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c) Abiotic components
d) Consumers
17. Assertion (A): In the reaction, Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl, sodium chloride is precipitated.
Reason (R): When an aqueous solution is added to another aqueous solution, an insoluble substance is formed, which is
called precipitate.
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
18. Assertion (A): Unisexual flowers have separate male and female flowers whereas a typical monocot embryo comprises
an embryonal axis with single cotyledon.
Reason (R): Cucumber, pumpkin and watermelon are examples of unisexual flowers.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): In a conductor, free electrons keep on moving but no magnetic force acts on a conductor in a magnetic
field.
Reason (R): Force on free electrons due to magnetic field always acts perpendicular to its direction of motion.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): Using jute bags while shopping is more environment friendly as compared to polythene bags.
Reason (R): Jute is biodegradable whereas polythene bag is non-biodegradable.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. List two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and ethanoic acid may be differentiated and explain how.
22. What is Regeneration? Explain the process of regeneration in Planaria.
23. Draw a flowchart to show the breakdown of glucose by various pathways.

OR

The breathing cycle is rhythmic, whereas exchange of gases is a continuous process. Comment upon this statement.
24. Where should an object be placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm so as to obtain a two times
magnified virtual image of the object?
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25. We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium needs to be cleaned regularly. Why?

OR

Draw a sequence of suitable methods of disposal of waste produced at your home to minimise environmental pollution.

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26. No rainbow could be observed from the surface of the Moon by the astronauts. What could be the possible reason?
Section C
27. The atomic number of an element is 20. Write its electronic configuration. State whether this element is a metal or a non-
metal. What is its valency? Write the name and formula of the compound which this element forms with chlorine.
28. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium, and aluminium to their respective metals. Why? Where are
these metals placed in the reactivity series? How are these metals obtained from their ores? Take an example to explain
the process of extraction along with chemical equations.

OR

Give two examples each of the metals that are good conductors and poor conductors of heat respectively.
29. The diagram given below is the experiment set-up of show that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration. In this set-
up what does test tube marked (A) contain? What are its role in the experiment

30. a. Name the two types of gametes produced by men.

b. Does a male child inherit X chromosome from his father? Justify.
c. How many types of gametes are produced by a human female?
31. What is atmospheric refraction? Explain with the help of a labelled diagram that the position of a star as seen by us is not
its true position.
32. a. State Joule's law of heating. Express it mathematically when an appliance of resistance R is connected to a source of
voltage V and the current I flows through the appliance for a time t.
b. A 5Ω resistor is connected across a battery of 6 volts. Calculate the energy that dissipates as heat in 10s.
33. i. In the following figure, three cylindrical conductors A, B and C are shown along with their lengths and areas of
cross-section. If these three conductors are made of the same material and RA, RB and RC be their respective
RA RA
resistances, then find (a) RB
, and (b) RC
.

ii. If the conductor A is made of copper and the conductor C is made of constantan (alloy of copper and nickel), then
which one of the two will have more electrical resistance and why?
Section D
34. i. Write the names of the functional groups in

1.

2.

ii. Describe a chemical test to distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid.
iii. Write a chemical equation to represent what happens when hydrogen gas is passed through an unsaturated
hydrocarbons in the presence of nickel as a catalyst?

OR

What is the difference between soaps and detergents? State in brief the cleansing action of soaps in removing an oily spot
from a fabric. Why are soaps not very effective when a fabric is washed in hard water? How is this problem resolved?

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35. a. Name any two bacterial infections that are sexually transmitted. How can they be prevented?
b. List three different ways, other than the one stated in (a) above, that help an individual to avoid unwanted
pregnancies.
c. List three advantages for adopting contraceptive measures.

OR

i. List three points of difference between nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in animals.
ii. How are auxins related with the bending of plant shoot towards unidirectional light? Explain.
36. Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases to show the formation of image, when the object is placed:
i. between optical center and principal focus of a convex lens.
ii. anywhere in front of a concave lens.
iii. at 2F of a convex lens.

State the signs and values of magnifications in the above mentioned cases (i) and (ii).

OR

An object 4.0 cm in size, is placed 25.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15.0 cm.
i. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image?
ii. Find the size of the image.
iii. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The teacher while conducting practicals in the laboratory divided the students into three groups and gave them various
solutions to find out their pH and classify them into acidic, basic and neutral solutions.
Group A - Lemon juice, vinegar, colourless aerated drink
Group B - Tomato juice, coffee, ginger juice
Group C - Sodium hydroxide, sodium chloride, lime water
i. For the solutions provided, which group is/are likely to have pH value (i) less than 7, and (ii) greater than 7? (1)
ii. List two ways of determining pH of a solution. (1)
iii. Explain, why the sour substances such as lemon juice are effective in cleaning the tarnished copper vessels. (2)
OR
pH has great importance in our daily life. Justify this statement by giving two examples. (2)
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
In animals, control and coordination are provided by nervous and muscular tissues. Touching a hot object is an urgent
and dangerous situation for us. We need to detect it and respond to it. How do we detect that we are touching a hot
object? All information from our environment is detected by the specialised tips of some nerve cells. These receptors are
usually located in our sense organs, such as the inner ear, the nose, the tongue, and so on. So gustatory receptors will
detect taste while olfactory receptors will detect the smell. This information, acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a
nerve cell sets off a chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell
body, and then along the axon to its end. At the end of the axon, the electrical impulse sets off the release of some
chemicals. These chemicals cross the gap, or synapse, and start a similar electrical impulse in the dendrite of the next
neuron. This is a general scheme of how nervous impulses travel in the body. A similar synapse finally allows the

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delivery of such impulses from neurons to other cells, such as muscles cells or glands.

i. Why does the flow of signals in a synapse from axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron take
place but not in the reverse direction? (1)
ii. From where the electrical impulse travels? (1)
iii. Name the chemical which released at the end of axon to transmit the signal to the other neuron. (2)
OR
What happens at the synapse between 2 neurons? (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A student was asked to perform an experiment to study the force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. He
took a small aluminum rod AB, a strong horse shoe magnet, some connecting wires, a battery and a switch and
connected them as shown. He observed that on passing current, the rod gets displaced. On reversing the direction of
current, the direction of displacement also gets reversed. On the basis of your understanding of this phenomenon, answer
the following questions :

i. State the condition under which the displacement of the rod is largest for the same magnitude of current flowing
through it. (1)
ii. State the rule that determines the direction of the force on the conductor AB. (1)
iii. i. If the U shaped magnet is held vertically and the aluminum rod is suspended horizontally with its end B towards
due north, then on passing current through the rod from B to A as shown, in which direction will the rod be
displaced?
ii. Name any two devices that use current carrying conductors and magnetic field. (2)
iv. Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced around a current-carrying straight conductor held vertically on
horizontal cardboard. Indicate the direction of the field lines as well as the direction of the current flowing through
the conductor. (2)
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 2 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (d) Carbon dioxide; it turns lime water milky.
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is evolved while turns lime water milky.
2. (d) B, C and D
Explanation: When sodium sulphate reacts with barium chloride solution, barium sulphate which is an insoluble
product (i.e., precipitate) and two moles of sodium chloride are formed.
N a2 S O4 (aq) + BaC l2 (aq) → BaS O4 (s) ↓ + 2N aC l(aq)
(insouble)

Here, exchange of ions takes place.

3. (c) (ii) and (iv) only
Explanation: (ii) and (iv) only
4. (c) (i) and (iv)
Explanation: (i) and (iv)
5. (a) calcium
Explanation: calcium
6. (c) High reactivity
Explanation: To make cooking utensils, copper is used because it has various physical properties that make it a suitable
choice for this purpose.
7. (d) Sodium carbonate
Explanation: Compound X is ethanol (CH3CH2OH) and compound Vis ethanoic acid (CH3COOH). Alcohols and acids
can be distinguished by sodium carbonate as alcohols do not react with sodium carbonate while acids react with sodium
carbonate to give a brisk effervescence of CO2.
2CH3 COOH + Na2 CO3 → 2CH3 COONa + CO2 + H2 O

CH3CH2OH + Na2CO3 → No reaction

8. (d) Transpiration: creates a suction force which pulls water inside the plant.
Explanation: The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known as transpiration. A
process known as transpiration pull causes it to pull water from the roots to the leaves.
9. (c) TT : Tt : tt
Explanation: TT : Tt : tt
10. (d) Watermelon and Papaya
Explanation: Watermelon and Papaya bears unisexual flower.
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papers with their own name and logo.
11. (a) round and green
Explanation: Since roundness and green colour are shown by capital letters in the genotype so they are dominant traits.
We know that only dominant traits are expressed in F1 generation.
12. (a) It is a growth related movement.
Explanation: It is a growth related movement.

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13. (a) directly below the wire.
Explanation: Line WE show a straight conductor through which current is moving from E to W. When seen from the
east, the magnetic field lines appear in a clockwise direction, i.e. S to N above the wire and N to S below the wire. This
is in accordance with the Right-Hand Thumb Rule.
14. (b) 5 A
Explanation: The resistance of a material is given by:
R=ρ
l

If l' = 2.5l and R' = 0.5 R

let A' is the area. New resistance is given by:
′

R' = ρ
l
′
A

Solving for A'

′
ρl
A' = ′
...(i)
R

Plugging all the values,

′
ρl
A' = ′
...(ii)
R

Dividing (i) by (ii)

ρ(2.5)l

′
(0.5R)
A
=
ρl
A

R
′
A
=5
A

A' = 5A
15. (c) Hawks
Explanation: Hawks belong to fourth trophic level.
16. (c) Abiotic components
Explanation: They are included in the Abiotic factors of the ecosystem. They include
1: Soil
2: Topology
3: Minerals
4: Soil pH
17. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
Explanation: Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
18. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Unisexual flowers have separate male and female flowers. The example includes cucumber, pumpkin and
watermelon.
19. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: In a conductor, the average velocity of electrons is zero. Hence no current flows through the conductor.
Hence, no force acts on this conductor.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Jute bags can be reused repeatedly for shopping and get decomposed when discarded. Polybags on the
other hand keep on accumulating as solid waste and harm our environment. They can clog drainage, pollute river bodies
and are extremely dangerous to grazing animals who chew them mistakenly. So, jute bags are more environment friendly
than polybags.
Section B
21. i. Ethanol does not react with sodium bicarbonate but ethanoic acid reacts with sodium bicarbonate releasing CO2 gas.
ii. Ethanol does not change the colour of blue litmus paper but ethanoic acid changes the colour of blue litmus to red
due to presence of carboxylic acid group.

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22. Sometimes in organisms like Planaria and Hydra, their parts of the body are accidentally cut such as when its body gets
entangled under rocks, in order to escape from under the rocks it cuts its body into tiny bits. These peices can grow into a
complete organism. This is known as regeneration.
Regeneration is carried out by specialised cells. these cells proliferate and make large number of cells. From this mass of
cells, different cells undergo changes to become various cell types and tissues. These changes take place in an organised
sequence reffered to as development. However, regeneration is not same as reproduction, since most organisms would
not normally depend on being cut up to be able to reproduce.
23. i. When breakdown of glucose is carried out in the presence of oxygen in a cell, it is called aerobic respiration. Glucose
is converted into a 3 carbon compound called pyruvate, which further breaks down in the presence of oxygen to form
carbon dioxide and water. Energy is released in this process.
I n cytoplasm

Glu cos e −−−−−−−→ P yruvate + Energy

(3 carbon

molecule)

Oxygen

Glucose −−−−−−−−−→ C O2 + water + Energy

I n mitochondria

ii. When breakdown of glucose is carried out in the absence of oxygen in a cell, it is called anaerobic respiration. This
process is known as fermentation in microbes where ethyl alcohol is produced along with carbon dioxide along with
energy. In human muscles cells often glucose undergo anaerobic respiration to meet increased energy demands during
vigrous muscular activity to produce lactic acid by breakdown of pyruvate.
I n cytoplasm

Glu cos e −−−−−−−→ P yruvic acid + Energy

(6 carbon
(3 carbon

molecule)
molecule)

No oxygen

Glucose −−−−−−→ Ethanol + C O2 + Energy

I n yeast 2 carbon

molecule )

Lack of O2

Glucose −−−−−−→ Lactic acid + Energy + Energy

I n muscle 3 carbon

cells molecule)

OR

The breathing cycle is rhythmic process as it consists of regular inhaling and exhaling of air. The exchange of gases is a
continuous process the gases always keep diffusing from higher concentration to lower concentration, it is a continuous
process. In lungs the exchange of gases O2 and CO2 takes place continuously, through the residual volume present in the
lung alveoli.
24. Magnification, m = +2,
Focal length, f = -20 cm (with proper sign)
Magnification = − v

u
v
2 = −
u

v = -2u
[Mirror Formula]
1 1 1
= +
f v u

1 1 1 1
= [ + ]
−20 −2 1 u

2 1
=
−20 u

u = -10 cm
(The object should be placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of concave mirror.)
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25. An aquarium is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem in contrast to a pond/lake which are natural, self-sustaining and
complete ecosystems. Ponds and lakes have their own cleaning mechanisms because of presence of various
microorganisms but Aquarium lacks decomposer microbes which convert the complex organic compounds of dead
organisms into simple substances that can be reused by plants. Hence the dead fishes of the aquarium are not
decomposed. so it needs regular cleaning.

OR

The household waste produced from various activities is called garbage and its proper disposal is done in such a way that
it does not cause environmental pollution.
Methods of waste disposal include:
i. Recycling : The processing of certain wastes to form new products is called recycling, e.g. paper, glass etc., are
recyclable.
ii. Composting : It is the process of collecting biodegradable wastes like leftovers of food items, peels, etc. and burying
them in a pit and using it as manure.
iii. Incineration : It is burning of a substance at high temperature to reduce it to ashes.
iv. Landfills : Dumping of non-biodegradable waste in low-lying areas is called landfill.
v. Sewage treatment : In sewage treatment plants, the sewage is processed and decomposed into simpler inorganic
chemicals.
26. The formation of a rainbow is due to the dispersion of the sun’s light by the raindrops in the atmosphere. But the moon
neither has the atmosphere nor the raindrops to create the dispersion and refraction of light hence the astronauts cannot
observe the rainbow from the surface of the moon.
Section C
27. The element with an atomic number of 20 is calcium (Ca).
The electronic configuration of calcium is: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2.
Calcium is a metal because it is located in Group 2 (or Group IIA) of the periodic table, which consists of metals known
as alkaline earth metals.
The valency of calcium is +2.
The compound that calcium forms with chlorine is calcium chloride. The chemical formula for calcium chloride is
CaCl2.
28. Oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium are very strong oxides as these metals are very reactive metals, but carbon
is not a strong reducing agent and hence carbon cannot reduce the oxide of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their
respective metal.
In the reactivity series, sodium, magnesium and aluminium are placed in the upper portion and they are very reactive in
nature and carbon is less reactive.
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > C > Zn > Fe
Oxides of reactive metals are directly put into the electrolytic reduction process to obtain the pure metal.
For the oxide of a reactive metal like aluminium oxide, as the metal is already in its oxide state so, it is directly put for
the electrolytic reduction process. In this process, graphite electrodes are used as anode and cathode in the electrolytic
chamber. Pure aluminium is attracted to the cathode, which is a lining of graphite. The oxygen is attracted to the
anode and bubbles through the solution.
Cathode reaction: At the cathode reduction of aluminium takes place and aluminium is discharged
Al3+ + 3e- → Al
Anode reaction: At the anode oxidation takes place and oxygen gas is evolved.

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2O2- → O2 + 4e-

OR

Metals in general, are conductors of heat. Some are good conductors whereas some are poor conductors of heat. Owing
to the number of free electrons they have, they are classified into good or poor conductors of heat. Those metals that
have more number of free electrons are good conductors and those that have less number of free electrons are poor
conductors of heat. For example,
i. Metals that are good conductors of heat - Silver (Ag) and Copper (Cu).
ii. Metals that are bad conductors of heat - Lead (Pb) and Mercury (Hg).
29. The test-tube (A) contains potassium hydroxide. It absorbs the CO2 released during the respiration of seeds which
creates a partial vacuum in conical flask causing the rise in the water level of the bent delivery tube. Rise in level of
water shows that CO2 is released during respiration.
30. a. Sperm having X chromosome and sperm having Y chromosome
b. No, As male child gets only Y chromosome from his father and X chromosome from mother to have XY
chromosome.
c. One type/only ovum/egg
31. Atmospheric refraction:- The refraction of light caused by the earth's atmosphere (having their layers of varying optical
densities) is called atmospheric refraction.
Light from a star is refracted as it leaves space and enters the earth's atmosphere. Air higher up in the sky is rare but that
near the Earth's surface is denser. So, as the light from a star comes down the dense air bends the light more. Therefore,
the apparent position to the star is slightly different from its actual position.

32. a. Statement of Joule's law

Joule’s law of heating states that, when a current 'i' passes through a conductor of resistance ‘R’ for time ‘t’ then the
heat developed in the conductor is equal to the product of the square of the current, the resistance and time.
Mathematical explanation
Let H be the heat produced when a current 'i' passes through a conductor of resistance ‘r’ for time ‘t’ then
i. H ∝ i
2

ii. H ∝ R

iii. H ∝ t
∴ H ∝ i2Rt

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⇒ H = i2Rt
b. Here V = 6V and R = 5Ω
The current flowing through the resistor I = = 1.2 A
V 6V
=
R 5Ω

∴ H = I2RT = (1.2)2 × 5 × 10 = 72J

33. i. Since, all three conductor are made up of same material therefore their resistivity will be same
ρL
RA = A

L
ρ( )

RB =
2

2
L
ρ( )

RC = 2

2
ρL

RA
a.
A
=
L
RB
ρ( )
2

2A

ρL(2A)
=
ρL(A)

4
=
1
RA
= 4
RB
ρL

Rn
b.
A
=
L
Rc
ρ( )
2

ρL×2×A

A×ρL×2

RA

RC
=1
ii. Conductor 'C' has more electrical resistance as its resistivity is more than conductor 'A'.
Section D
34. i.
a. Ketone (R-CO-R)
b. Aldehyde (R-CHO)
ii. Distinguish between ethanol and ethanoic acid:
a. Ethanol does not react with metal carbonate while ethanoic acid reacts with metal carbonates to form salt, water
and CO2.
e.g. 2CH3COOH + Na2CO3 → 2C H 3 C OON a + C O2 + H2 O

b. Ethanol does not react with NaOH while ethanoic acid reacts with NaOH to form sodium ethanoate and water
e.g. CH3COOH+NaOH → C H 3 C OON a + H2 O

c. Ethanol can undrergo oxidation to produce aldehyde and futher it can oxidize to produce acid.
iii. saturated hydrocarbon is obtained as hydrogen gas passed through unsaturated hydrocarbon. The reaction is an
example of addition reaction better known by the name of hydrogenation reaction.
Ni

C H2 = C H2 + H2 −−−−−→ C H3 − C H3
Ethene C atalyst Ethane

(Unsaturated (Saturated

hydrocarbon) hydrocarbon)

OR

i. Soaps are sodium salts of fatty acids whereas Detergents are sodium salts of sulphonic acids. Soaps do not act in hard
water due to formation of scum while detergents do.

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ii. In soaps carbon chain dissolves in oil and the ionic end dissolves in water to form micelle

iii. Hard water contains Ca2+ / Mg2+ ions that react with soap and form precipitates called scum.
iv. By using detergents in hard water this problem can be resolved.
35. a. Two bacterial infections:
i. Gonorrhoea
ii. Syphilis
Prevention: Using a covering called condom, for the penis, during sex helps in prevention of such infections.
b. i. By changing hormonal balance using contraceptive pills/oral pills.
ii. Contraceptive devices like loop or Copper - T.
iii. Surgical methods like blocking fallopian tubes or vas deferens.
c. i. The health of women will not be affected adversely if she adopts contraceptive measures.
ii. Maintain gap between two pregnancies/children.
iii. To prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)

OR

i. Nervous mechanism Hormonal mechanism

Transmits information through electrical impulses. Transmits information through blood cells.
Affects only a particular part of the body. Affect different organs of the body

Signal transmission is fast Signal transmission is slow

ii. When light is coming from one side of the plant, auxin diffuses towards the shaded side of the shoot. This
concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away from light. Thus, the
plant appears to bend towards the light.
36. i. When an object is placed between the optical center and principal focus of a convex lens then image formed
beyond 2F on the opposite side.

Since the image formed is virtual and erect so sign of magnification will be positive. Moreover, the image formed is
magnified therefore the absolute value of magnification will be greater than one.
ii. When an object is placed anywhere in front of a concave lens.

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Since the image formed is virtual and erect so sign of magnification will be positive. Moreover, the image formed is
diminished therefore the absolute value of magnification will be less than one.
iii. When an object is placed at 2F of a convex lens then the image is formed at 2F opposite side of the mirror.

OR

Given: Height of object (ho) = 4 cm

Object distance (u) = -25 cm(-ve as it is in front of mirror)
Focal length (f) = -15 cm
i. Applying mirror formula and substituting the values,
1 1 1
+ =
v u f

1 1 1
= −
v −15 −25
1 −5+3
=
v 75
−75
v= 2
= -37.5 cm
The negative sign indicates that the image is in front of the mirror.
Therefore, the screen must be placed in front of the mirror at a distance of 37.5 cm.
ii. Applying the magnification formula and substituting the values,
hi
m=
−v
=
u ho
−75
−( )
2 hi
=
−25 4

hi =
−75
× 4
2×25

hi = -6 cm
The image will be 6cm high and it will be inverted.
iii. The ray diagram showing the formation of image in this case is,

Section E
37. i. i. Groups A and B - less than 7
ii. Group C - greater than 7
ii. pH paper and universal indicator.
iii. a. Copper vessel is tarnished due to formation of basic copper oxide.
b. Lemon juice being acidic react with copper oxide and the salt formed is washed away.
OR
a. An optimal pH is required for digestion.
b. Change in pH can cause tooth decay.
c. Animals and plants defend themselves through change in pH.
d. Survival of aquatic life becomes difficult when pH of river water becomes low.

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38. i. At the synapse, (functional junction between neurons) axon terminal comes in close proximity to the dendron
terminal of next neuron. Axon terminal is expanded to form pre-synaptic knob and the other dendrite terminal forms
post- synaptic depression.
ii. The electrical impulse travels form the dendrite to the cell body, then along the axon to its end.
iii. Acetylcholine is released at the end of the axon to transmit the signal to the other neuron.
OR
A synapse is a gap between two neurons. At the synapse, the electrical signals are converted into chemicals that can
easily cross over the gap and pass on to the next neurons where it again converted into electrical signals.
39. i. The displacement of the conductor is maximum when the direction of the current is at right angles to the direction of
the magnetic field.
ii. The rule that determines the direction of the force on the conductor AB is Fleming's left-hand rule.
According to Fleming's left-hand rule, stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of your left hand such that they
are mutually perpendicular.
If the first finger points in the direction of the magnetic field and the second finger in the direction of current, then
the thumb will point in the direction of motion or force.
iii. i. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, the rod will get displaced upwards.
ii. Devices that use current-carrying conductors and magnetic fields are electric motors, electric generators,
loudspeakers, microphones, etc.
OR

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 3 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
Sunlight

1. CH + Cl −−−−−→ CH Cl + HCl
4 2 3

The above reaction is an example of

a) displacement reaction
b) substitution reaction
c) addition reaction
d) double displacement reaction
2. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium chloride solution:
A. exchange of atoms takes place
B. exchange of ions takes place
C. a precipitate is produced
D. an insoluble salt is produced

The correct option is:

a) A and C
b) B and D
c) only B
d) B, C and D
3. 2 g of yellow sulphur powder is burnt in a china dish and the fumes are collected in a test tube. Water is added in the test
tube and the solution is tested separately with blue and red litmus paper. The correct option is:
a) Blue litmus remains blue and red litmus remains red.
b) Blue litmus turns red and red litmus remains red.
c) Blue litmus turns red and red litmus turns blue.
d) Blue litmus remains blue and red litmus turns blue.

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4. Which one of the following properties of Carbon is not responsible for its formation of large number of compounds?
a) Allotropy
b) Catenation
c) Tetravalency
d) Isomerism
5. Among the following, the metal with lowest density is:
a) Lead
b) Magnesium
c) Aluminium
d) Lithium
6. Which one of the following statements is true about the position of metals in the activity series of metals?
a) Copper is below hydrogen but above lead
b) Iron is below lead and zinc
c) Zinc is below magnesium but above aluminium
d) Magnesium is below calcium but above aluminium
7. Which of the following properties is not true regarding organic compounds?
a) They are generally covalent compounds.
b) Compounds have high melting and boiling points.
c) Generally insoluble in water.
d) Show isomerism
8. Observe the following diagram and identify the process and its significance from the following options:

a) Translocation: helps in transporting materials from one cell to another.

b) Excretion: helps in excreting out waste water from the plant.
c) Evaporation: maintains water contents in leaf cells.
d) Transpiration: creates a suction force which pulls water inside the plant.
9. A cross between pea plant with white flowers (vv) and pea plant with violet flowers (VV) resulted in F2 progeny in
which ratio of violet (VV) and white (vv) flowers will be:
a) 1 : 1
b) 1 : 3
c) 2 : 1
d) 3 : 1
10. The number of chromosomes in parents and offsprings of a particular species undergoing sexual reproduction remain
constant due to:
a) halving of chromosomes after zygote formation.
b) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation.
c) halving of chromosomes at the time of gamete formation.
d) doubling of chromosomes before gamete formation.
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11. In a plant, smooth seeds(S) are dominant over wrinkled seeds(s) and green seeds (G) are dominant over yellow seeds (g).
A plant homozygous for smooth and green seed is crossed with a plant having wrinkled and yellow seeds. The
F1 offspring are self crossed to produce F2 generation. If a total of 160 offspring are produced, how many plants are
expected to be having wrinkled and green seeds in F2 generation, according to a typical Mendelian cross?
a) 10
b) 90
c) 30
d) 20
12. Consider the following statements about small intestine and select the one which is NOT correct:
a) The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the
anus.
b) The small intestine is the site of complete digestion of food.
c) The small intestine receives secretions from liver and pancreas.
d) The length of the small intestine in animals differs as it depends on the type of food they eat.
13. The resultant magnetic field at point P situated midway between two parallel wires (placed horizontally each carrying a
steady current I is

a) in the same direction as the current in the wires.

b) zero
c) in the vertically upward direction.
d) in the vertically downward direction.
14. If four identical resistors, of resistance 8 ohm, are first connected in series so as to give an effective resistance Rs, and
Rs
then connected in parallel so as to give an effective resistance Rp, then the ratio is
Rp

a) 16
b) 32
c) 2
d) 0.5
15. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always:
a) Bidirectional
b) No specific direction
c) Unidirectional
d) Multidirectional
16. The function of an ecosystem involves:
a) Energy flow and nutrient movement
b) Energy flow only
c) Nutrient flow only
d) Vitamins flow only
17. Assertion (A): Iron articles are painted so as to prevent them from rusting.
Reason (R): When the surface of iron is coated with paint, its surface does not come in contact with oxygen and
moisture therefore rusting does not take place.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.

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d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A): High chances of fertilization is during the mid of the menstrual cycle.
Reason (R): Sperms are very active during that time.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): A proton moves horizontally towards a vertical long conductor having an upward electric current. It will
deflect vertically downward.
Reason (R): Seeing the proton and the conductor from the side of the proton, the magnetic field at the site of the proton
will be towards the right. Hence the force F ⃗ = q ν ⃗ × B⃗ will deflect the proton vertically downward.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): The crown fires are most destructive as they burn the treetop.
Reason (R): Due to crown fire the temperature of that area may rise upto 700o C.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. i. The formula of an ester is CH3COOC2H5. Write the structural formulae of the corresponding alcohol and the acid.
ii. a. Mention the experimental conditions involved in obtaining ethene from ethanol.
b. Write the chemical equation for the above reaction.
22. What is multiple fission? Draw a diagram to show multiple fission in Plasmodium.
23. How do the guard cells regulate the process of opening and closing of stomatal pores?

OR

How is amount of urine produced regulated?

24. "The magnification produced by a spherical mirror is -3." List four information you obtain from this statement about the
mirror/image.
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25. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in the bylanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways to make people
realise that the improper disposal of waste is harmful to the environment.

OR

a. What is meant by garbage? List two classes into which garbage is classified.
b. What do we actually mean when we say that the enzymes are specific in their action?
26. When a light ray passes obliquely through the atmosphere in an upward direction, how does its path generally changes?
Section C
27. The atomic number of an element is 20. Write its electronic configuration. State whether this element is a metal or a non-
metal. What is its valency? Write the name and formula of the compound which this element forms with chlorine.

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28. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it.
What will be the action of gas on
i. Dry litmus paper?
ii. Moist litmus paper?

Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.

OR

A lady bought a new iron container and kept blue vitriol solution into it. On the next day, she found that the blue colour
of the solution fades. She went to the shopkeeper and complained.
But the shopkeeper argued that the container is of good quality and he refused to return her money. An aware person
Ankit came there and asked the matter. He told the lady that the container is of good quality and you have kept the wrong
substance in it, so fault is all yours.
On the basis of given passage, answer the following questions.
i. What qualities are exhibited by Ankit?
ii. Why the container becomes porous when blue vitriol solution is kept into it?
29. A figure given below shows a diagram of a kidney and its associated structures. The table list the percentage of certain
components found within the structures A and B.

In Structure A

Components Concentration %

Urea 0.03
Glucose 0.10

Amino acids 0.05

Salts 0.75
Proteins 8.00

In Structure B
Components Concentration %

Urea 2.00

Glucose 0.00
Amino acids 0.00

Salts 1.50

Proteins 0.00
i. Using only the information given in the tables, deduce the functions of the kidney.
ii. Explain how the proportions of components present in part B would change if a person is suffering from diabetes
mellitus.

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30. In a pea plant, find the contrasting trait if
i. the position of flower is terminal
ii. the flower is white in colour
iii. shape of pod is constricted
31. i. What should be the position of the object when a concave mirror is to be used
a. as a shaving mirror and
b. in torches producing parallel beam of light?
ii. A man standing in front of a mirror, finds his image having a very small head and legs of normal size. What type of
mirrors are used in designing such a mirror?
32. a. Calculate the resistance of a metal wire of length 2 m and area of cross-section 1.55 × 10-6 m2. (Resistivity of the
metal is 2.8 × 10-8 Ω m)
b. Why are alloys preferred over pure metals to make the heating elements of electrical heating devices?
33. What kind of graph is obtained by plotting values of V and I? Why?
Section D
34. A neutral organic compound X (Molecular formula C2H6O) on reacting with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives an organic
compound Y which is acidic in nature. X reacts with Y on warming in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to give a sweet
smelling compound Z.
i. Identify X, Y and Z.
ii. Write the chemical equations for the reactions in the conversion of (1) X to Y and (2) X to Z.
iii. State the role of (1) acidified K2Cr2O7 in the conversion of X to Y and (2) conc. H2SO4 in the reaction of X and Y.
iv. Name the reaction which occurs when Z reacts with an alkali.

OR

i. What happens when a small piece of sodium is dropped in ethanol? Write the equation for this reaction.
ii. Why is glacial acetic acid called so?
iii. What happens when ethanol is heated at 443 K in the presence of conc. H2SO4? Write the role of conc. H2SO4 in this
case.
iv. Write an equation showing saponification.
35. a. What happens when the egg is not fertilised?
b. How is sperm genetically different from a human egg/ova?
c. List any three contraceptive methods practised for family planning. Mention how these methods work.

OR

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The given diagram shows the human nervous system.

Using the given diagram, answer the following questions:

i. What constitutes the central nervous system?
ii. What is the function of the spinal cord?
iii. How is spinal cord protected?
iv. What forms the peripheral nervous system?
v. Which type of nervous system controls and regulates the functions of the internal organs of our body involuntarily?
36. a. List four characteristics of the image formed by a convex lens when an object is placed between its optical centre and
principal focus.
b. Size of the image of an object by a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is observed to be reduced to 1 rd of its size.
3

Find the distance of the object from the lens.

OR

i. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image by a convex lens when an object is placed in front of the lens
between its optical centre and principal focus.
ii. In the above ray diagram mark the object distance (u) and the image distance (v) with their proper signs (+ ve or - ve
as per the new cartesian sign convention) and state how these distances are related to the focal length (f) of the
convex lens in this case.
iii. Find the power of convex lens which forms a real and inverted image of magnification -1 of an object placed at a
distance of 20 cm from its optical centre.
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The acidic behaviour of acids is due to the presence of hydrogen (H+) ions in them. They produce hydrogen ions in the
presence of water. Water is a polar solvent and this property of water helps in weakening the bond between the ions and
makes them soluble.
Hence, acids and bases produce ions in aqueous solutions. It may be noted that a dry HCl gas or a solution of hydrogen
chloride in organic, non-polar solvents like toluene or benzene do not show acidic properties. This is because hydrogen
chloride does not undergo ionization in toluene.
The reason why HCl splits into H+ and Cl- ions in presence of water lies in the fact that water molecules, being polar,

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pull the H+ and Cl- ions apart and thus, the bond in HCl is broken.

i. Which acids are present in bee stings? (1)

ii. If the pH of a solution is 8, then find its [H+] ion. (1)
iii. If you are given water, Hydrochloric acid, and Acetic acid, then mention increasing the order of acid strength. (2)
OR
If you are provided H3PO4, C2H5OH, H2CO3, and CH3COOH, then which compound does not give H+ ions in an
aqueous solution? (2)
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Animals have a nervous system for controlling and coordinating the activities of the body. But plants have neither a
nervous system nor muscles. So, how do they respond to stimuli? When we touch the leaves of a chui-mui (the
‘sensitive’ or ‘touch-me-not’ plant of the Mimosa family), they begin to fold up and droop. When a seed germinates, the
root goes down, the stem comes up into the air. What happens? Firstly, the leaves of the sensitive plant move very
quickly in response to touch.
There is no growth involved in this movement. On the other hand, the directional movement of a seedling is caused by
growth. If it is prevented from growing, it will not show any movement.

i. Write the types of movement. (1)

ii. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth. (1)
iii. What is the function of the nervous system? (2)
OR
How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the movement of a shoot towards light? (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
An insulated copper wire wound on a cylindrical cardboard tube such that its length is greater than its diameter is called
a solenoid. When an electric current is passed through the solenoid, it produces a magnetic field around it. The magnetic
field produced by a current-carrying solenoid is similar to the magnetic field produced by a bar magnet. The field lines
inside the solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. The strong magnetic field produced inside a current-carrying
solenoid can be used to magnetize a piece of a magnetic material like soft iron when placed inside the solenoid. The
strength of the magnetic field produced by a current-carrying solenoid is directly proportional to the number of turns and

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strength of the current in the solenoid.

i. What would be the strength of the magnetic field inside a long current-carrying straight solenoid? (1)
ii. Which end is north and which end is south pole when current flows through a solenoid? (1)
iii. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is double and the number
of turns per cm is halved, then what will be the new value of the magnetic field? (2)
OR
A soft iron bar is enclosed by a coil of insulated copper wire as shown in the figure. When the plug of the key is
closed, then where would the face B of the iron bar be marked? (2)

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 3 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (b) substitution reaction
Explanation: substitution reaction
2. (d) B, C and D
Explanation: When sodium sulphate reacts with barium chloride solution, barium sulphate which is an insoluble
product (i.e., precipitate) and two moles of sodium chloride are formed.
N a2 S O4 (aq) + BaC l2 (aq) → BaS O4 (s) ↓ + 2N aC l(aq)
(insouble)

Here, exchange of ions takes place.

3. (b) Blue litmus turns red and red litmus remains red.
Explanation: Blue litmus turns red and red litmus remains red.
4. (d) Isomerism
Explanation: Isomerism
5. (d) Lithium
Explanation: Lithium has lowest density.
6. (d) Magnesium is below calcium but above aluminium
Explanation: Magnesium is below calcium but above aluminium
7. (b) Compounds have high melting and boiling points.
Explanation: Compounds have high melting and boiling points.
8. (d) Transpiration: creates a suction force which pulls water inside the plant.
Explanation: The loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts of the plant is known as transpiration. A
process known as transpiration pull causes it to pull water from the roots to the leaves.
9. (d) 3 : 1
Explanation: All of the colours in F1 will be Vv (violet) when VV crosses with vv. When Vv crosses with Vv, the
resulting F2 will contain VV, Vv, vV, and vV, only one of which has white flowers while the others have violet ones.
Ratio is thus 3 to 1.
10. (c) halving of chromosomes at the time of gamete formation.
Explanation: There are always half as many chromosomes in gametes as there are in an individual. As a result,
chromosomes are cut in half just before gamete formation. The normal chromosome number (half from each gamete) is
restored once the male gamete fuses with the female gamete.
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11. (c) 30
Explanation: 30
12. (a) The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the
anus.
Explanation: The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the
body via the anus.
13. (b) zero
Explanation: When two parallel wires carry equal currents in the same direction and are placed horizontally, the

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magnetic fields produced by these wires cancel each other out at the midpoint between them. This results in a net
magnetic field of zero at point P. This phenomenon is due to the equal and opposite directions of the magnetic fields
produced by the two wires, leading to their complete cancellation at the midpoint.
14. (a) 16
Explanation: 16
15. (c) Unidirectional
Explanation:

The flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional. As the energy moves progressively through one trophic
level to another, it is no longer available to the previous level. The energy that is captured by the autotrophs (producers)
does not revert back to solar radiation. The energy which passes on to the herbivores (primary consumers) from the
autotrophs does not come back to the autotrophs.
16. (a) Energy flow and nutrient movement
Explanation: Different materials in an ecosystem are cycled in separate biogeochemical cycles. Essential nutrients like
nitrogen, carbon, oxygen, and water are changed from one form to another in these biogeochemical cycles. Producers in
an ecosystem fix up the solar energy and make it available for the next trophic levels.
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: The reason is incorrect because ovulation takes place on the 14th day of the menstrual cycle, so if the
sperm happens to meet the ovum during that phase fertilization will take place. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
19. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
H H
H O

| |
| ||

21. i. H − C − C − OH, H − C − C − OH . Acetic acid has Ethanoic acid as its IUPAC name.
|
| |
H

H H Acetic acid

Ethanol

ii. a. Heating ethanol at 443 K in the presence of excess of hot and conc. H2SO4. (which act as dehydrating agent,)
converts ethanol into ethene by removing a molecule of water from a molecule of ethanol.
H ot conc. H2 SO4

b. CH3 - CH2OH −−−−−−−−−−→ CH2 =CH2 + H2O

443 K

22. Multiple fission: It is a process of reproduction in which the single celled body of the organisms divides to
produce many daughter cells. This type of reproduction is observed in Plasmodium.( malarial parasite)
Multiple fission in Plasmodium.

23. Stomatal opening and closing occurs due to the changes in the turgor pressure of the guard cells. When guard cells are
turgid they stretch out thus, the stomatal pores are open. While it in flaccid form the guard cells come close and the
stomatal aperture is closed.

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OR

The amount of urine depends on how much excess of water is in the body and how much of water soluble waste is to be
excreted. If the amount of water and dissolved wastes in body are more then, the amount of urine will be more and if
amount of wastes is less the amount of urine produced will be less.
24. Given, magnification produced by a spherical mirror -3, i.e. m=-3.
∴ The four information obtained from this statement are as follows:
i. Real image
ii. Image is inverted
iii. Magnified image and
iv. Mirror is concave
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25. i. Banners and signboards indicating ill effects of improper waste disposal should be used to educate people.
ii. Street plays can be organised highlighting this issue.

OR

a. The household waste or rubbish produced in our day-to-day life is called garbage. For example, spoilt food,
vegetable peels, leaves, wood, grass, paper, plastic, etc.
Garbage is classified into the following two types:
i. Biodegradable garbage - Garbage that can be decomposed naturally. Examples - vegetable peels, leaves, paper,
etc.
ii. Non-Biodegradable garbage - Garbage that cannot be decomposed naturally. Examples - metal, plastics, etc.
b. Catalyst , Enzymes are biological molecules, usually proteins, that catalyze chemical reactions by lowering the
activation energy required for the reaction to occur. Each enzyme is designed to catalyze a specific chemical reaction,
and it does so by recognizing and binding to a specific substrate or group of substrates.
26. When a light ray passes obliquely through the atmosphere in an upward direction its path generally changes due to
refraction. When the light ray enters the earth’s atmosphere, it undergoes refraction due to the varying optical densities
of air at various altitudes. The atmosphere is continuously changing (due to which the optical densities of air at different
levels in the atmosphere keep on changing). The air higher up in the sky is rarer but that nearer to the earth’s surface is
denser. The continuously changing atmosphere refracts the light. Hence the path generally changes.
Section C
27. The element with an atomic number of 20 is calcium (Ca).
The electronic configuration of calcium is: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2.
Calcium is a metal because it is located in Group 2 (or Group IIA) of the periodic table, which consists of metals known
as alkaline earth metals.
The valency of calcium is +2.
The compound that calcium forms with chlorine is calcium chloride. The chemical formula for calcium chloride is
CaCl2.
28. The gas is sulphur-dioxide (SO2)
i. It will not react with dry litmus paper.
ii. The gas will bleach moist litmus paper.

heat
The balanced chemical equation isS + O 2
⟶ S O2

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OR

i. Qualities exhibited by Ankit are scientific knowledge, awareness, helpfulness etc.

ii. The container becomes porous when blue vitriol, i.e. CuSO4 solution is kept into it because iron being more reactive
displaces copper from copper sulphate (blue vitriol) solution and itself forms green coloured ferrous sulphate.
29. i. The urea content is higher in structure B, whereas the concentration of useful components such as glucose is low.
This shows that the kidney performs the function of filtration. It filters out useful substances, e.g. glucose, amino
acids into the blood, while throwing out nitrogenous waste, e.g. urea and urine.
ii. There would be glucose in B as without insulin, blood glucose would not be converted to glycogen for storage. The
kidney attempts to reduce the blood glucose level by excreting it in [Link] glucose in digested food is absorbed by
the intestinal cells into the bloodstream, and is carried by blood to all the cells in the body. However, glucose cannot
enter the cells alone. It needs assistance from insulin to penetrate the cell walls
30. Contrasting trains were used by mendel and were classified as dominant or recessive. Mendel used 7 traits of pea plant
for his experiments. Out of which 3 are.
Character Given Trait Contrasting Trait

(i) Position of flower Terminal Axial (dominant)

(ii) Colour of flower White Violet (dominant)

(iii) Shape of pod Constricted Full (dominant )
31. i. a. Object should be between pole and focus.
b. At the focus.
ii. a. Small head-convex mirror.
b. Legs of normal size-plane mirror.
32. a. Step 1: Given that:
Length(l) of the metal wire= 2m
Area of cross section (A) = 1.55 × 10-6m2
Resistivity(ρ ) of the metal= 2.8 × 10-8 Ω -m
Step 2: Calculation of resistance:
Resistance of a conductor is given by:
ρl
R=
A

Thus, putting all the values, we get

−8

R= 2.8×10 Ω−m×2m

−6 2
1.55×10 m
−2

R=
5.6×10

1.55

R = 3.61 × 10-2Ω
Thus,
The resistance of the metal wire is 3.61 × 10-2Ω
b. Alloys are used in electrical heating devices rather than pure metals because the resistivity of an alloy is more than
the resistivity of pure metal. Also, the melting point of an alloy is high, so it does not melt or oxidize easily even at a
higher temperature.
33. The graph obtained by plotting the values of V and I is a linear graph. We will observe that as the voltage V increases the
value of current I also increases linearly.
This happens because we know that according to Ohm’s Law:
V ∝ I

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∴ V = IR

Section D
34. i. Compound X is C2H5OH
​Y is ethanoic acid (CH3 - COOH)
Z is ethyl ethanoate (CH3 - COO - CH2 - CH3)
ii. (1) Conversion of X to Y
CH3 - CH2 - OH + 2[O] (KMnO4) ⟶ CH3 - COOH + H2O.
(2) Conversion of X to Z
CH3 - COOH + CH3 - CH2OH (Conc.H2SO4) ⟶ CH3 - COO - C2H5 + H2O
iii. (1) When ethanol undergoes oxidation reaction (controlled combustion) with acidified potassium dichromate, it gets
oxidised to form an acidic compound, Y, called ethanoic acid.
(2) Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid to release a sweet smelling ester,
Z, called ethyl ethanoate.
iv. The reaction of ethyl ethanoate with sodium hydroxide is also called saponification reaction.

OR

i. When a small piece of sodium is dropped in ethanol

Alcohols react with sodium leading to the evolution of hydrogen.
− +
2Na + 2CH3 CH2 OH ⟶ 2CH3 CH2 O Na + H2 ↑
(Sodium ethoxide)

ii. The melting point of pure ethanoic acid is 290 K and hence it often freezes during winter in cold climates.
Therefore its name as glacial acetic acid.
iii. Reaction to give unsaturated hydrocarbon: Heating ethanol at 443 K with excess concentrated sulphuric acid results
in the dehydration of ethanol to give ethene -
Hot Conc.

CH3 - CH2OH −−−−−−−→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O

443 K H2 SO4

Role of sulphuric acid - The concentrated sulphuric acid can be regarded as a dehydrating agent which removes water
from ethanol.
iv. On treating with sodium hydroxide, which is an alkali, the ester is converted back to alcohol and sodium salt of
carboxylic acid. This reaction is known as saponification because it is used in the preparation of soap. Soaps are
sodium or potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acid.
NaOH

CH3COOC2H5 −−−−→ C2H5OH + CH3COONa

35. a. If fertilization does not occur, the endometrium, coupled with blood and mucus from the vagina and cervix (the
lower, narrow part of the uterus located between the bladder and the rectum) make up the menstrual flow (also called
menses) that leaves the body through the vagina.
b. Sperms contain either X or Y chromosome whereas an egg will always have X chromosome only.

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c. Three methods of contraception include;
​Barrier method: prevents the fusion of sperm and egg or implantation
Example, Condom, IUD etc
Surgical method: Performed either in male (vasectomy)or female (tubectomy). This method prevents fertilization.
Hormonal pills/chemical methods: Use of contraceptive pills or spermicidal gels.

OR

i. The brain and the spinal cord constitute the central nervous system (CNS).
ii. The spinal cord is concerned with spinal reflex actions and the conduction of nerve impulses to and from the brain.
iii. The spinal cord is enclosed in a bony cage called vertebral column and is surrounded by membranes called meninges
which protects it.
iv. All the nerves of the body together make up the peripheral nervous system. It consists of three types of nerves that
are spinal nerves, cranial nerves, and visceral nerves.
v. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) means a self-governing nervous system. Its function is to control and regulate
the functions of the internal organs of our body involuntarily.
36. a. Four characteristics:
i. Image is formed on the same side of the lens as the object.
ii. The image is enlarged / magnified, virtual and erect.
b. h ′ h
=
3

Focal length = -20cm

As per the lens formula
1 1 1
− =
v u f

u = -40cm
Hence, the distance of the object from the lens is 40cm.

OR

i.

ii. U is -ve,V is -ve. By lens formula:

1 1 1
− =
v u
f
−1 1 1 −1 1 1
⇒ − (− ) = ⇒ + =
v u f v u f
−u+v 1 uv
⇒ = ⇒ f =
uv f v−u

This is a required relation between u, v and f in the case when object is placed between optical centre and principal
focus of convex lens
iii. Given, m =-1
u = -20 cm
∴ m= v

u
⇒ −1 =
v

−20

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⇒ v = 20 cm
1 1
By lens formula, 1

v
−
u
=
f

1 −1 1 1 1 1
⇒ − ( ) = ⇒ + =
20 20 f 20 20 f

1 1
⇒ = ⇒ f = 10 cm
10 f
1 1
∴ P ower, p = = = 10D
−2
f 10×10

⇒ P = 10 D
Section E
37. i. Formic acid is the common name for methanoic acid and it is present in a bee stings.
ii. pH = -log10 [H+] = 8

log10 [H+] = -8
[H+] = 10-8 mol/L
iii. Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid
OR
C2H5OH is not an ionic compound, it is a covalent compound and hence does not give H+ ions in aqueous solution.
38. i. There are two types of movement:
a. dependent on growth
b. independent on growth.
ii. Auxin is a plant hormone that promotes growth.
iii. The function of the nervous system is to control and coordinate the activities of the body.
OR
The movements of the leaves of the sensitive plant are touch sensitive and independent of growth while the
movement of the shoot towards light is growth related and known as phototropism.
39. i. Magnetic field inside the infinite solenoid is uniform. Hence it is the same at all points.
ii. The end of the current carrying solenoid at which the current flows anti-clockwise behaves as a north pole while that
end at which the direction of current clockwise behaves as a south pole and this is according to clock wise.
iii. For a long solenoid, magnetic field B ∝ In; where I is the flowing current and n is number of turns per unit length in
the solenoid. Therefore, in the given case magnetic field will remain unchanged.
OR
For a solenoid, if we imagine gripping the solenoid with your right hand so that your curl fingers follow the direction
of the current then your thumb will point towards the north end of the electromagnet.
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 4 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. In which of the following, the identity of initial substance remains unchanged?
a) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation
b) Curdling of milk
c) Fermentation of grapes
d) Digestion of food
2. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium chloride solution:
A. exchange of atoms takes place
B. exchange of ions takes place
C. a precipitate is produced
D. an insoluble salt is produced

The correct option is:

a) A and C
b) B and D
c) only B
d) B, C and D
3. An aqueous solution A turns phenolphthalein solution pink. On addition of an aqueous solution B to A, the pink colour
disappears. The following statement is true for solution A and B.
a) A is strongly acidic and B is a weak acid.
b) A has pH less than 7 and B has pH greater than 7.
c) A is strongly basic and B is a weak base.
d) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.
4. The total number of electrons shared in the formation of an ethyne molecule is:
a) 10

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b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
5. Copper utensils slowly lose their shiny brown surface and gain a green coat on prolonged exposure to atmospheric air.
This is due to the formation of a coating of
a) Cuprous oxide
b) Cupric oxide
c) Copper carbonate
d) Copper sulphate
6. The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom of a non-metal can be:
a) 1, 2 or 3
b) 5, 6 or 8
c) 3, 4 or 5
d) 5, 6 or 7
7. Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent atoms, e.g. hydrogen. After
the formation of four bonds, carbon attains the electronic configuration of
a) helium
b) neon
c) argon
d) krypton
8. In the following diagram, identify the cells through which massive amounts of gaseous exchange takes place for
photosynthesis:

a) I
b) III
c) IV
d) II
9. The statement that correctly describes the characteristic(s) of a gene is:
a) A gene is not the information source for making proteins in the cell.
b) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
c) All the inherited traits in human beings are not controlled by genes.
d) Each chromosome has only one gene located all along its length.
10. The stamen contains
a) stigma
b) sepal
c) ovule
d) pollen grain
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similar papers with their own name and logo.
11. Who was the first scientist to isolate DNA?
a) Darwin
b) Watson and crick
c) Friedrich
d) Weismann mishear
12. Consider the following statements about small intestine and select the one which is NOT correct:
a) The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the
anus.
b) The small intestine is the site of complete digestion of food.
c) The small intestine receives secretions from liver and pancreas.
d) The length of the small intestine in animals differs as it depends on the type of food they eat.
13. An alpha particle enters a uniform magnetic field as shown. The direction of force experienced by the alpha particle is:

a) towards left
b) out of the page
c) towards right
d) into the page
14. The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. If other parameters of the electrical circuit remain
unaltered, the amount of heat produced in the resistor will become:
a) half
b) two times
c) four times
d) one fourth
15. Which of the following is non-biodegradable?
a) Cloth
b) Wood
c) Plastic
d) Paper
16. Which of the following belong only to the second trophic level?
A. Protozoa
B. Small fish
C. Grasshopper
D. Snake
a) A, B and C
b) A and C
c) All of these
d) B and C
17. Assertion (A): AgBr is used on photographic and X-ray film.
Reason (R): AgBr is photosensitive and changes to Ag and bromine in presence of sunlight and undergoes a
decomposition reaction.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A): Fusion of gametes gives rise to a single cell called zygote.
Reason (R): Zygote is a fertilised ovum.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current-carrying circular coil increases on
increasing the current flowing through the coil.
Reason (R): Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the current flowing in the coil.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): Ecology is study of relationship between living organisms and their environment.
Reason (R): The biotic community and non-living environment of an area function together to form an ecosystem.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. Name the product formed when an organic acid and alcohol react in the presence of acid catalyst. Write the equation and
give two uses of the product formed.
22. What is placenta? Why is it extremely essential for the development of embryo?
23. Define digestion. Why is digestion necessary?

OR

How is required pH maintained in the stomach and small intestine?

24. The image of an object formed by a lens is of magnification -1. If the distance between the object and its image is 60 cm,
what is the focal length of the lens? If the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, where would the image be formed?
State reason and also draw a ray diagram in support of your answer.
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25. How is ozone layer formed? State its importance to all life forms on earth? Why the amount of ozone in the atmosphere
dropped sharply in the 1980s?

OR

How is ozone formed in the upper atmosphere? State its importance. What is responsible for its depletion? Write one
harmful effect of ozone depletion.
26. State reasons for Myopia. With the help of ray diagrams, show the
a. image formation by a myopic eye, and
b. correction of myopia using an appropriate lens.
Section C

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27. The atomic number of an element is 20. Write its electronic configuration. State whether this element is a metal or a non-
metal. What is its valency? Write the name and formula of the compound which this element forms with chlorine.
28. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and switch.
(a) How would you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non metals?
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests to distinguish between metals and non-metals.

OR

P, Q and R are 3 elements which undergo chemical reactions according to the following equations:
a. P2O3 + 2Q → Q2O3 + 2P
b. 3RSO4 + 2Q → Q2(SO4)3 + 3R
c. 3RO + 2P → P2O3 + 3R
Answer the following questions:
i. Which element is most reactive?
ii. Which element is least reactive?
iii. State the type of reaction listed above.
29. Study the fig (a) and (b). What difference you observe in the figure (b)? Give a justified reason for your answer.

30. Give the respective scientific terms used for studying

i. The mechanism by which variations are created and inherited.
ii. the development of new types of organisms from the existing ones.
31. What should be the position of an object with respect to focus of a convex lens of focal length 20cm, so that its real and
magnified image is obtained?
32. a. How will you infer with the help of an experiment that the same current flows through every part of a circuit
containing three resistors in series connected to a battery?
b. Consider the given circuit and find the current flowing in the circuit and potential difference across the 15 Ω resistors
when the circuit is closed.

33. How many 176Ω resistors (in parallel) are required to carry 5A on a 220V line?
Section D
34. i. What are isomers? Write the structures of two compounds having molecular formula C3H6O and give their names.
ii. What are soaps? How are they chemically different from detergents? Why do soaps not work effectively in hard
water?

OR

Carry out the following conversions, stating the condition(s) for each :
(i) Ethanol ⟶ Ethene

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(ii) Ethene ⟶ Ethane
(iii) Ethane ⟶ Chloroethane
(iv) Ethanol ⟶ Ethanoic acid
(v) Ethanoic acid ⟶ Ethyl ethanoate
35. a. List the sequence of events in the uterus of a human female from fertilisation of egg till childbirth.
b. State the changes that are observed in the uterus if fertilisation of egg does not occur.

OR

With the help of labelled diagram explain the general scheme to illustrate how nervous impulses travel in the body?
36. An object 6 cm in size is placed at 50 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. At what distance from the lens
should a screen be placed in order to obtain a sharp image of the object? Find the nature and size of the image. Also draw
labelled ray diagram to show the image formation in this case.

OR

i. Define optical centre of spherical lens.

ii. A divergent lens has a focal length of 20 cm. At what distance should an object of height 4 cm from the optical
centre of the lens be placed, so that its image is formed 10 cm away from the lens. Find the size of the image also.
iii. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in above situation.
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The strength of acid and base depends on the number of H+ and the number of OH- respectively. If we take hydrochloric
acid and acetic acid of the same concentration, say one molar, then these produce different amounts of hydrogen ions.
Acids that give rise to more H+ ions are said to be strong acids, and acids that give less H+ ions are said to be weak
acids. Can you now say what weak and strong bases are?

i. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? (1)
ii. Is Gastric juice a weak acid? (1)
iii. Milk of magnesia is an acid or base? For what purpose it can be used? (2)
OR
What is the pH value of saliva after the meal? (2)
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
You must have noticed many dramatic changes in your appearance as well as that of your friends as you approached 10-
12 years of age. These changes associated with puberty are because of the secretion of testosterone in males and
oestrogen in females. Do you know anyone in your family or friends who has been advised by the doctor to take less
sugar in their diet because they are suffering from diabetes? As a treatment, they might be taking injections of insulin.
This is a hormone that is produced by the pancreas.
i. Why is pancreas a dual gland? (1)
ii. Name the hormone which is secreted by males and females during adolescence. (1)
iii. What happens if Insulin is not secreted in the proper amount? (2)
OR
From which cells of pancreatic islets insulin and glucagon hormone are secreted? (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A student was asked to perform an experiment to study the force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field. He

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took a small aluminum rod AB, a strong horse shoe magnet, some connecting wires , a battery and a switch and
connected them as shown. He observed that on passing current, the rod gets displaced. On reversing the direction of
current, the direction of displacement also gets reversed. On the basis of your understanding of this phenomenon, answer
the following questions:

i. i. In the above experimented set up, when current is passed through the rod, it gets displaced towards the left. What
will happen to the displacement if the polarity of the magnet and the direction of current both are reversed?
ii. Name any two devices that use current carrying conductors and magnetic field. (1)
ii. Why does the rod get displaced on passing a current through it? (1)
iii. State the rule that determines the direction of the force on the conductor AB. (2)
OR
Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines produced around a current carrying straight conductor held vertically on a
horizontal cardboard. Indicate the direction of the field lines as well as the direction of current flowing through the
conductor. (2)
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 4 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (a) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation
Explanation: Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation
2. (d) B, C and D
Explanation: When sodium sulphate reacts with barium chloride solution, barium sulphate which is an insoluble
product (i.e., precipitate) and two moles of sodium chloride are formed.
N a2 S O4 (aq) + BaC l2 (aq) → BaS O4 (s) ↓ + 2N aC l(aq)
(insouble)

Here, exchange of ions takes place.

3. (d) A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.
Explanation: A has pH greater than 7 and B has pH less than 7.
4. (a) 10
Explanation: Total number of electrons shared are 10.
5. (c) Copper carbonate
Explanation: Copper carbonate
6. (d) 5, 6 or 7
Explanation: 5, 6 or 7
7. (b) neon
Explanation: Electronic configuration of carbon is 2, 4 and after sharing four electrons from four univalent atoms, its
electronic configuration becomes 2, 8 which is the same as that of Neon.
8. (c) IV
Explanation: IV
9. (b) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
Explanation: In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
10. (d) pollen grain
Explanation: pollen grain
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11. (c) Friedrich
Explanation: DNA isolation is a process of purification of DNA from a sample using a combination of physical and
chemical methods. The first isolation of DNA was done in 1869 by Friedrich Miescher.
12. (a) The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the
anus.
Explanation: The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the
body via the anus.
13. (b) out of the page
Explanation: According to Fleming's Left-Hand Rule, the current flows in the direction of the alpha particle, the field
points in the direction of the paper's right side, and the force is directed out of the paper by the thumb.
14. (b) two times
Explanation: If V is constant, then H is inversely proportional to R because H = V2 t/R. H will therefore double if R

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does.
15. (c) Plastic
Explanation: Paper, wood and cloth are biodegradable. Plastic is non-biodegradable.
16. (d) B and C
Explanation: The second trophic level is of the primary consumers (herbivores). Small fish and grasshopper belong to
this level. A snake is not a primary consumer. Free-living protozoa occupy a range of trophic levels.
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: AgBr is a chemical compound. It is widely used in photography as photographic emulsions.
18. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The fusion of a sperm with an ovum to form a zygote during sexual reproduction is called fertilisation.
The zygote is fertilised ovum or fertilised egg. The zygote grows and develops to form a new baby.
19. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: A is true but R is false.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. When an organic acid and alcohol reacts ester is formed by the process is known as esterification reaction for e.g.
formation of ethyl ethanoate which is a ester of ethanoic acid and ethanol. Reaction is given as:
C onc. H2 SO4

C H3 C OOH +C H2 C H3 OH −−−−−−−−→C H 3 C OOC H2 C H3 + H2O

Ethanoic acid Ethanol Ethyl ethanoate

Ester is used in preparing perfumes and flavouring agents.

22. The placenta is an organ that develops in the uterus during pregnancy. it is extremely essential for the development of
embryo because it provides oxygen and nutrients to a growing baby. It also removes waste products from the baby's
blood.
23. Digestion: The process of conversion of non-diffusible form of food into the simple and diffusible form by chemical and
mechanical processes in the alimentary canal is called digestion.
Digestion is necessary because:
1) Large molecules must be broken down into molecules small enough to permeate living membranes.
2) Insoluble substances must be changed into substance which can be carried in solution around body.
3) Complex molecules must be converted into molecules simple enough to be used by cells in the assimilation.

OR

Gastric glands present on the walls of the stomach release HCl which is highly acidic. It creates an acidic medium in
stomach to facilitate the action of enzyme pepsin. Bile juice from liver makes the food alkaline due to presence of
bicarbonate ions in small intestine for pancreatic enzymes to act.

24. Given, m = -1, negative sign means the image is real and inverted.

∴ |m| = 1, it means that hi = h0 and this happens in convex lens only.

It implies that the object will be at 2F1 and the image will be at 2F2.
So, v = u.
Object distance, u =-30 cm
Image distance, v = +30cm

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∵ According to lens formula.
1 1 1 1 1 −1
= − ⇒ = − ( )
f v u
f 30 30

⇒ f = 15cm

Now the object is moved 20 cm towards the lens, now the object will be at 10cm

from the lens and lie between F1 and O.

∴ Object distance, u= -10 cm
Focal length, f = +15cm
Again using lens formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1
− = ⇒ = +
v u v 15
f (−10)

1 1 1 2− 3
⇒ = − =
v
15 10 30

⇒ v = -30 cm
Hence, the image formed will be virtual, erect and highly magnified
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25. The ozone layer is formed when oxygen molecules (O2) in the Earth's stratosphere are split by ultraviolet (UV) radiation
from the sun, creating single oxygen atoms (O). These atoms then combine with other oxygen molecules to form ozone
(O3).
It protects all life forms from the harmful effects of ultra violet radiations.
Because of the release of chemicals like (CFC’s) used in refrigerators and fire extinguishers.

OR

The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen into free oxygen atoms. These atoms then
combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.
UV

O2 −→
− O+O
O2 + O ⟶ O3
It prevents harmful UV radiation to reach the earth.
CFC/chlorofluoro carbon/aerosol.
Skin cancer
26. Myopia is a defect of vision in which a person clearly sees all the nearby objects, but is unable to see the distinct object
comfortably. A myopic eye has its far point near that infinity. It forms the image of an distinct object in front of the retina
as shown in the figure A
Since concave lens has an ability to diverge incoming rays, it us used to correct this defect of vision. The image is
allowed to form at thee retina by using a concave lens of suitable power as shown in the figure B.

Section C

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27. The element with an atomic number of 20 is calcium (Ca).
The electronic configuration of calcium is: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2.
Calcium is a metal because it is located in Group 2 (or Group IIA) of the periodic table, which consists of metals known
as alkaline earth metals.
The valency of calcium is +2.
The compound that calcium forms with chlorine is calcium chloride. The chemical formula for calcium chloride is
CaCl2.
28. (a) With the help of the wires,try to convert the samples in the form of thin wires. Metals will be readily formed into thin
wires being ductile whereas non metals being brittle will break. Now if we construct a cell using these wires the circuit
which consists of metallic wires conducts electricity and the bulb will glow whereas non-metallic wires will not allow
electricity to pass through them. Also,if beaten by a hammer, the metallic samples will produce a loud ringing sound
indicating the metals are sonorous.
(b) From these tests we can say :
(i) Metals are ductile whereas non-metals are not.
(ii) Metals are good conductors of electricity while non metals are not.
(iii) Metals are sonorous while non-metals are not.

OR

i. Q is the most reactive metal out of P, R and Q as it has replaced both P and R from their compounds.
ii. R is the least reactive element as it has been displaced by both P and Q.
iii. The type of reaction is Displacement reaction.
29. In the fig (b) the water level in the bent delivery tube has risen up. It is because of absorption of carbon dioxide by KOH
pellets in the tube, the air from bent tube moves into the conical flask, resulting in rising of the water level.
30. i. Genetics is the study of mechanism by which variations are created and inherited. These variations are far more in
sexual reproduction due to crossing over in meiosis and also new diploid recombination.
ii. Evolution is used for studying the development of new species of organisms from the existing ones through
accumalation of variation.
31. Given focal length f of lens 20 cm
To obtain real and magnified image, the object should be placed between F1 and 2F1,So the range will be from 20 cm to
40 cm of convex lens.
32. a. (i) Join the three resistors R1, R2 and R3 of different values in series connected to a battery of V volt.
(ii) Connect them with battery, an ammeter (A) and plug key (K).
(iii) Plug the key and note the ammeter reading
(iv) Change the position of the ammeter to anywhere in between the resistors and note the ammeter reading each
time.
(v) The ammeter reading will remain the same every time.
Therefore when resistors are connected in series same current flows through all resistors.

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b. Given: R1 = 5Ω , R2 = 10Ω , R3 = 15Ω and V = 30V
Total resistance of the circuit, R = R1 + R2 + R3
R = 5 + 10 + 15
R = 30 Ω
Potential difference across the circuit, by ohm’s law,
V = IR
or I
V 30
= = = 1A
R 30

Potential difference across 15 ohm Resistor = 1 × 15 = 15 volt

33. In n resistors each of resistance R are connected in parallel, then net resistance Rp is:
1 + 1 +..............n times
times
1 1 1 n
= + +. . . . . . . . . n =
Rp R R R R

R
Rp =
n

Now Rp =
V
=
220

5
= 44 Ω
I

= 44 but R = 176Ω
R

= 44 or n = 4
176

4 resistors each 176Ω connected in parallel with result in net resistance of 44Ω causing a current of 5A to flow through
when connected to 220V.
Section D
34. i. The compounds having similar molecular formula but different arrangement of atoms or groups in space are called
isomers.
CH3COCH3 and CH3CH2CHO are functional isomers which have same molecular formula but different functional
groups attached.
For IUPAC nomenclature:
Select the longest possible carbon chain. For the number of carbon atom, we add prefix as 'meth' for 1, 'eth' for 2,
'prop' for 3, 'but' for 4, 'pent' for 5, 'hex' for 6, 'sept' for 7, 'oct' for 8, 'nona' for 9 and 'deca' for 10. A suffix 'one' is
added at the end of the name for ketones and 'al' is added for aldehydes. IUPAC name of CH3COCH3 is propanone
and IUPAC name of CH3CH2CHO is propanal.

ii. Soaps are the potassium or sodium salts of long-chain fatty acids and detergents are generally alkyl benzene
sulfonates.
Soaps do not work in hard water due to the formation of insoluble calcium or magnesium salts of fatty acids.
Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids. Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions.
During the dissolution of soap in hard water, calcium and magnesium ions displace sodium or potassium ions from
soaps to form insoluble calcium or magnesium salts.

OR

Ethanol to Ethene
Condition: Dehydration with concentrated sulfuric acid at 170°C.
Reaction: CH₃CH₂OH (Ethanol) → CH₂=CH₂ (Ethene) + H₂O

Ethene to Ethane
Condition: Hydrogenation with nickel or palladium catalyst.

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Reaction: CH₂=CH₂ (Ethene) + H₂ → CH₃CH₃ (Ethane)

Ethane to Chloroethane
Condition: Reaction with chlorine gas in the presence of ultraviolet light (halogenation).
Reaction: CH₃CH₃ (Ethane) + Cl₂ → CH₃CH₂Cl (Chloroethane) + HCl

Ethanol to Ethanoic acid

Condition: Oxidation with potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇) in acidic medium.
Reaction: CH₃CH₂OH (Ethanol) → CH₃COOH (Ethanoic acid) + H₂O

Ethanoic acid to Ethyl ethanoate

Condition: Esterification with ethanol in the presence of concentrated sulfuric acid.
Reaction: CH₃COOH (Ethanoic acid) + CH₃CH₂OH (Ethanol) → CH₃COOCH₂CH₃ (Ethyl ethanoate) + H₂O
35. a. The sequence of events in the uterus of a human female from fertilisation of egg till childbirth are:
Uterus prepare itself with the development of a thick lining which is richly supplied with blood to nourish the
growing embryo.
The embryo gets nutrition from mother’s blood with the help of a special tissue called placenta.
Disc like structure in the uterine wall contain villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue and blood spaces/
capillaries from mother’s sides.
It passes glucose and oxygen from mother to the embryo and waste substances from embryo to the mother.
The child gets developed inside the mother’s body in ninemonths and is born as a result of rhythmic
contractions of the muscles in the uteres.
b. If fertilization of the egg does not occur, the thick and spongy lining of the uterus break and comes out through
vagina as blood and mucous ie mensuration occurs.

OR

The information from the environment is detected by receptors and passed on to the dendrite of the sensory neuron, from
where the electrical signals are passed on to the cyton then to axon and finally to the presynaptic knob which releases
neurotransmitters which goes to the synaptic cleft and generates an electric response on to the dendrite of the next neuron
and ultimately to brain (or spinal cord). The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector,
that undergoes the desired response.
36. Given,
f = 30cm
u = - 50 cm
h = 6cm
Lens formula

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1 1 1
= −
f v u

1 1 1
= +
v f u

1 1 1
= −
v 30 50

v = +75 cm
v hi
m = =
u h
75 h1
=
−50 6

hi = -9cm
The image formed is real, increased and enlarged.

OR

i. The centre point of a lens is known as its optical centre. The optical centre is a point within the lens, directed to
which incident rays refract without any deviation in the path whether it is convex lens or concave lens as represented
below:

ii. Given, there is a divergent lens( concave lens.)

Given, f =-20cm, h0 =4 cm , v = -10 cm
∵ By lens formula,
1 1 1
− =
v u
f

−1 1 −1
⇒ − =
10 u 20
1 −1 1 1 −2 + 1
⇒ = + ⇒ =
u
10 20 u 20

⇒ u = - 20 cm
hi
∴ Magnification, m = v

u
=
h0

hi −10
⇒ =
4
−20

⇒ hi = 2 cm
Size of the image, hi = 2 cm
iii.

Thus, the object is placed at 20 cm from the concave lens.

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Section E
37. i. The pH of milk is 6. As it changes to curd, the pH will reduce because curd is acidic in nature. The acids present in it
decrease the pH.
ii. No, gastric juice is a strong acid.
iii. Milk of magnesia is a base and it can be used as an antacid.
OR
The pH value of saliva after the meal is 5.8.
38. i. Pancreas is a dual gland because it acts as both an endocrine and exocrine gland. As endocrine, it secretes hormones
like insulin, glucagon. As an exocrine gland, it releases enzymes like trypsin, lypase, amylase etc.
ii. Testosterone in males and oestrogen in females is the hormone that is secreted during adolescence.
iii. If Insulin is not secreted in the proper amount then it causes diabetes.
OR
Glucagon and Insulin are secreted from alpha and beta cells of islets of the pancreas respectively.
39. i. i. If the polarity of the magnet and the direction of current both are reversed,using Fleming's left hand rule it gets
displaced towards the left.
ii. Devices that use current-carrying conductors and magnetic fields are electric motor, electric generator etc.
ii. When a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force, due to which the rod gets
displaced.
iii. The rule that determines the direction of the force on the conductor AB is Fleming's left-hand rule.
According to Fleming's left-hand rule, stretch the thumb, forefinger and middle finger of your left hand such that they
are mutually perpendicular.
If the first finger points in the direction of the magnetic field and the second finger in the direction of current, then
the thumb will point in the direction of motion or force.
OR
The magnetic field lines around a current carrying conductor can be represented by concentric circles which can be
determined by right hand thumb rule.

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 5 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. In the electrolysis of water, if the mass of the gas collected at the anode is ma and the mass of the gas collected at the
cathode is mc, the value of (mc/ma) is:
a) 8
b) 1

16

c) 16
d) 1

2. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium chloride solution:
A. exchange of atoms takes place
B. exchange of ions takes place
C. a precipitate is produced
D. an insoluble salt is produced

The correct option is:

a) A and C
b) B and D
c) only B
d) B, C and D
3. Which one of the following natural sources contains Oxalic acid?
a) Ant sting
b) Tomato
c) Tamarind
d) Nettle sting
4. When ethanol reacts with sodium two products are formed. These products are:

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a) Sodium ethanoate and oxygen
b) Sodium ethoxide and oxygen
c) Sodium ethoxide and hydrogen
d) Sodium ethanoate and hydrogen
5. A metal X is used in thermite process. When X is burnt in air it gives an amphoteric oxide Y. X and Y are respectively:
a) Fe and Fe3O4
b) Al and Al3O4
c) Fe and Fe2O3
d) Al and Al2O3
6. The metal which melts when kept on the palm is:
a) Potassium
b) Lithium
c) Sodium
d) Gallium
7. Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group
a) aldehyde
b) carboxylic acid
c) ketone
d) alcohol
8. Which part of the leaf will have starch when exposed to sunlight ?

a) Both A and B
b) C only
c) B only
d) A only
9. The statement that correctly describes the characteristic(s) of a gene is:
a) A gene is not the information source for making proteins in the cell.
b) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
c) All the inherited traits in human beings are not controlled by genes.
d) Each chromosome has only one gene located all along its length.
10. The bacterial and the viral infections that may be caused due to unsafe sex respectively are:
a) Gonorrhoea and Syphilis
b) Warts and HIV-AIDS
c) HIV-AIDS and Warts
d) Syphilis and Warts
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11. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because
a) height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
b) tallness is the recessive trait
c) shortness is the dominant trait

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d) tallness is the dominant trait
12. Consider the following statements about small intestine and select the one which is NOT correct:
a) The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the
anus.
b) The small intestine is the site of complete digestion of food.
c) The small intestine receives secretions from liver and pancreas.
d) The length of the small intestine in animals differs as it depends on the type of food they eat.
13. An alpha particle enters a uniform magnetic field as shown. The direction of motion of the alpha particle is:

a) out of the page

b) into the page
c) towards right
d) towards left
14. Two LED bulbs of 10W and 5W are connected in series. If the current flowing through 5W bulb is 0.005A, the current
flowing through 10W bulb is:
a) 0.0025A
b) 0.005A
c) 0.02A
d) 0.01A
15. Secondary treatment in sewage treatment plant involves:
a) Chemical treatment
b) Physical treatment like sedimentation
c) Passing ultraviolet radiations
d) Biological treatment
16. Which of the following is biodegradable ?
a) Silver foil
b) Plastic plates
c) Leather belts
d) Metal
17. Assertion (A): Magnesium ribbon keeps on burning in atmosphere of nitrogen.
Reason (R): Magnesium reacts with nitrogen to form magnesium nitride and this reaction is combination reaction.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A): Plasmodium reproduces by multiple fission.
Reason (R): Multiple fission is a type of asexual reproduction.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): Two magnetic field lines around a current carrying straight wire do not intersect each other.
Reason (R): The magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point increases as the current through the wire
increases.

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a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): Paper cups are better option than plastic cups for serving tea.
Reason (R): Paper cups are biodegradable and can even be disposed of by burning.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. Write the electron dot structure of methane (CH4) and ethene (C2H4).
22. Give reasons:
i. Placenta is extremely essential for foetal development.
ii. Uterine lining becomes thick and spongy after fertilisation.
23. What is the advantage of double circulation in birds and mammals?

OR

Complete the following flow chart as per the given instructions:

24. Study the following ray diagram and list two mistakes committed by the student while tracing it. Rectify these mistakes
by drawing the correct ray diagram to show the real position and size of the image corresponding to the position of the
object AB.

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25. What is biomass? State the basic principle behind the working of a biogas plant. Name the main combustible component
of biogas and also state its percentage.

OR

i. What is meant by non-biodegradable waste?

ii. Identify biodegradable waste from the following.
Empty packet of chips, empty plastic bottle of mineral water, empty paper box of sweets, empty tin of cold drink.
26. Draw a labelled diagram to show (i) dispersion of a beam of white light, and (ii) formation of a rainbow.
Section C

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27. P, Q and R are 3 elements which undergo chemical reactions according to the following equations:
a. P2O3 + 2Q → Q2O3 + 2P
b. 3RSO4 + 2Q → Q2(SO4)3 + 3R
c. 3RO + 2P → P2O3 + 3R
Answer the following questions:
i. Which element is most reactive?
ii. Which element is least reactive?
iii. State the type of reaction listed above.
28. A, B and C are 3 elements which undergo chemical reactions according to following equations:
a) A O + 2B → B O + 2A
2 3 2 3

b) 3C SO + 2B → B (SO ) + 3C
4 2 4 3

c) 3C O + 2A → A SO + 3C
2 3

Answer of the following:

i) Which element is most reactive?
ii) Which element is least reactive?

OR

A group of a students looked at different metals and metal sulphate solutions given is a tabular form. From the data,
answer the following:
Metal Metal sulphate solution Colour

Chromium Chromium sulphate Green

Cobalt Cobalt sulphate Pink

Copper Copper sulphate Blue

Magnesium Magnesium sulphate Colourless

i. Which metal reacts with all other sulphate solutions?
ii. Which metal did not react with any other metal sulphate solution?
iii. Arrange the metals in decreasing order of reactivity.
29. If a plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day, does it mean that there is no photosynthesis
occurring? Justify your Answer.
30. A green stemmed tomato plant denoted by (GG) is crossed with a tomato plant with purple stem denoted by (gg).
a. What colour of the stem would you expect in their F1 progeny?
b. In what ratio would you find the green and purple coloured stem in plants of F2 progeny?
c. What conclusion can be drawn for the above observations?
31. Observe the following incomplete ray diagram of an object where the image A'B' is formed after refraction from a
convex lens.

On the basic of above information fill in the blanks.

i. The position of object AB would have been...
ii. Size of the object would have been ... than the size of image.

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32. Study the following circuit and find:

i. Effective resistance of the circuit

ii. Current drawn from the battery
iii. Potential difference across the 5Ω resistor
33. For a heater, rated 4 kW and 220 V, calculate the following:
a. The current
b. Energy consumed in 2 hours
c. If 1 kWh is priced at ₹4.50, then the cost of energy consumed
Section D
34. a. Why does carbon show catenation to maximum extent? List two reasons.
b. Draw electron dot structures of (i) ethane, and (ii) ethene.
c. An organic compound A (molecular formula C2H4O2) is used for preserving pickles and gives hydrogen gas with
sodium metal.
i. Identify A, and
ii. Write its structural formulae.

OR

i. Draw two structural isomers of butane.

ii. Draw the structures of propanol and propanone.
iii. Name the third homologue of:
a. alcohols
b. aldehydes
iv. Name the following:

a.

b. CH3 - CH2CH = CH2

v. Show the covalent bond formation in nitrogen molecule.
35. a. Suggest any two categories of contraceptive methods to control the size of human population which is essential for
the prosperity of a country. Also explain about each method briefly.
b. Name two bacterial and two viral infections each that can get sexually transmitted.
c. List two advantages of using condom during sexual act.

OR

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Given below is a labelled diagram of the human brain.

Using the given diagram, answer the following questions:

i. Which part of the brain controls reflex movements of the head, neck, and trunk?
ii. Name the part of the human brain which contains a vital centre for controlling blood pressure.
iii. Which part of the hindbrain regulates respiration?
iv. How is the brain protected from injuries and shock?
v. Which part of the human brain is the main thinking region?
36. A student has three concave mirrors A, B and C of focal lengths 20 cm, 15 cm and 10 cm, respectively. For each concave
mirror, he performs the experiment of image formation for three values of object distance of 30 cm, 10 cm and 20 cm.
Give reasons for the following:
i. For the three object distances, identify the mirror which will form an image equal in size to that of object. Find at
least one value of object distance.
ii. Out of the three mirrors, identify the mirror which would be preferred to be used for shaving purpose.
iii. For the mirror B, draw ray diagram for image formation for any two given values of object distance.

OR

Rishi went to a palmist to show his palm. The palmist used a special lens for this purpose.
i. State the nature of the lens and the reason for its use.
ii. Where should the palmist place/hold the lens so as to have a real and magnified image of an object?
iii. If the focal length of this lens is 10 cm and the lens is held at a distance of 5 cm from the palm, use lens formula to
find the position and size of the image.
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Copper sulphate crystal contains water of crystallisation when the crystal is heated the water is removed and salt turns
white. The crystal can be moistened again with water. The water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules
present in 1 formula unit of copper sulphate. On heating gypsum at 373K, it loses water molecules and became calcium
sulphate hemihydrate.

i. If the crystal is moistened with water, then which colour of the crystal reappears?
ii. What is the commercial name of calcium sulphate hemihydrate?

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iii. How many water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate?
OR
What is obtained when gypsum is heated at 373K?
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
We have seen that the different parts of our body have specific functions. Our mouth waters when we see the food we
like without our meaning to. Our heart's beat without our thinking about it. In fact, we cannot control these actions easily
by thinking about them even if we wanted to. So, in between the simple reflex actions like change in the size of the
pupil, and the thought out actions such as moving a chair, there is another set of muscle movements over which we do
not have any thinking control. Many of these involuntary actions are controlled by the mid-brain and hind-brain. All
these involuntary actions including blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are controlled by the medulla in the hind-
brain. Think about activities like walking in a straight line, riding a bicycle, picking up a pencil. These are possible due
to a part of the hind-brain called the cerebellum. It is responsible for the precision of voluntary actions and maintaining
the posture and balance of the body. Imagine what would happen if each of these events failed to take place if we were
not thinking about it.

i. Identify the part of the nervous system which controls the reflex action. (1)
ii. Does reflex action involve all parts of the voluntary nervous system? (1)
iii. Identify the part of the autonomic nervous system which controls involuntary actions. (1)
OR
Beating of heart muscles, which type of action is this? Out of voluntary and involuntary action which is slower? (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive materials. She places a bar magnet in the
centre of it and sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet using a salt-sprinkler. On tapping the board
gently, she observes that the iron filings have arranged themselves in a particular pattern.
i. Draw a diagram to show this pattern of iron filings. (1)
ii. Draw the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet showing the poles of the bar magnet as well as the direction of the
magnetic field lines. (1)
iii. How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined using the field lines? Why do two magnetic field lines
not cross each other? (2)
OR
How are the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet drawn using a small compass needle? Draw one magnetic field line
each on both sides of the magnet. (2)
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 5 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (b) 1

16

Explanation: 1

16

2. (d) B, C and D
Explanation: When sodium sulphate reacts with barium chloride solution, barium sulphate which is an insoluble
product (i.e., precipitate) and two moles of sodium chloride are formed.
N a2 S O4 (aq) + BaC l2 (aq) → BaS O4 (s) ↓ + 2N aC l(aq)
(insouble)

Here, exchange of ions takes place.

3. (b) Tomato
Explanation: Tomato
4. (c) Sodium ethoxide and hydrogen
Explanation: This reaction can be shown by the following equations:
2Na + 2CH3CH2OH ⟶ 2CH3CH2ONa + H2
Therefore, the products formed are sodium ethoxide and hydrogen.
5. (d) Al and Al2O3
Explanation: Al and Al2O3
6. (d) Gallium
Explanation: Gallium
7. (c) ketone
Explanation: The functional group of butanone is ketone.
8. (a) Both A and B
Explanation: Uncovered portion of the leaf is exposed to the light and photosynthesis reaction takes place there.
Sunlight

6CO2 + 12H2O −−−−−−→ C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2

C hlorphyll

9. (b) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.

Explanation: In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
10. (a) Gonorrhoea and Syphilis
Explanation: Gonorrhoea and Syphilis
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11. (d) tallness is the dominant trait
Explanation: According to the law of dominance, the character that is expressed in the F1 generation is called the
dominant trait whereas character that is not expressed in F1 generation is knowns as recessive trait. Thus, tallness is the
dominant trait.
12. (a) The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via the
anus.
Explanation: The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the
body via the anus.

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13. (a) out of the page
Explanation: According to Fleming's Left-Hand Rule, the current flows in the direction of the alpha particle, the field
points in the direction of the paper's left side, and the force is directed out of the paper by the thumb.
14. (b) 0.005A
Explanation: The current in a circuit made up of a series of resistors is the same in every area of the circuit or is the
same current flowing through every resistor.
15. (d) Biological treatment
Explanation: Secondary treatment in sewage treatment plant involves biological treatment (use of microorganisms).
16. (c) Leather belts
Explanation: Some substances are broken down by biological processes are said to be biodegradable substances.
Example – organic matter of plants and animals.
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Plasmodium reproduces asexually by multiple fission.
19. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: A is true but R is false.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B

21.

22. a. Placenta is a temporary organ which is extremely essential for foetal development because it helps in nutrition,
respiration, excretion, etc., of the foetus through the maternal supply.
b. Every month one egg is released by the ovary and uterus prepares itself to receive a fertilized egg. As a result, the
lining of the uterus becomes thick and spongy. This is required for nourishing the embryo after fertilisation.
23. Double circulation is a process of circulation of blood twice through the heart in one cycle. It occurs in higher organisms
like mammals and birds. As they need higher amount of energy for their metabolic processes, double circulation avoids
mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood thereby helping in supply of more oxygen to tissues which can yield high
energy to the organism.

OR

a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Pepsin
c. Mucus
d. Hydrochloric acid helps in the functionality of pepsin and kills bacteria
e. Pepsin helps in the digestion of proteins
f. Mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach.

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24. Here are the two mistakes committed by the student while tracing it. F1 and F2 are not equidistant from the optical center
of the lens.
OF1 ≠ OF2; 2OF1 ≠ 2OF2
Image should form beyond 2F2
Image should be magnified

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25. Biomass: The waste materials produced by plants and animals from which energy can be obtained on a renewal basis.
Principle: Anaerobic decomposition of biomass.
Main combustible substance: Methane / CH4
Percentage: 75%

OR

Substances that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by the action of microorganisms are called non-
biodegradable. They stay in environment for years and cause pollution
From the list, empty paper box of sweets is biodegradable
26. i. Dispersion of a beam of white light through glass prism

ii. Formation of a rainbow.

Section C
27. i. Q is the most reactive metal out of P, R and Q as it has replaced both P and R from their compounds.
ii. R is the least reactive element as it has been displaced by both P and Q.
iii. The type of reaction is Displacement reaction.
28. (i) Most reactive element is B as it has replaced both A and C from their compounds.
(ii) Element C is least reactive as it has been replaced both by A and B.

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OR

i. Magnesium (Mg) is the most reactive of all the metals.

ii. Copper (Cu) is the least reactive of all the metals.
iii. Decreasing order of reactivity : Mg>Cr>Co>Cu.
29. If plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day, it means that respiration is happening in plant.
But it does not mean that photosynthesis is not happening. Carbon dioxide released after respiration comes out of
stomata. For photosynthesis, the plant takes in carbon dioxide from atmosphere. In other words, plant does not depend
on respiration for carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.
30. a. All the plants in F1 progeny will be of green coloured stem.

b. Cross for F2 progeny is:

F2progeny-

G g

G Gf (Green) Gf (Green)

g Gf (Green) gg (Purple)
Phenotypic ratio = Green : Purple = 3 : 1
c. According to the finding above, purple stems are subordinate to green stems. Thus, according to the rule of
dominance, only the dominant characteristic was present in F1. Purple stem in F2 indicates that the alleles for purple
stem were inherited but were not expressed in F1, nevertheless. Only in F2 under homozygous circumstances did they
get expressed.
31. i. The position of object AB would have been beyond 2F1.

ii. Size of the object would have been bigger than the size of image.
32. i. Effective resistance of the circuit
R3 and R4 are in series and both are parallel to R2
R3 + R4 = 10 Ohm
Effective Resistance across R2(R')
1 1 1
= +
′
R R2 R3 +R4

R' = 5 Ohm
Now, R1', R' and R5 are in series

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Effective resistance of the circuit = R1 + R' + R5
= 5 + 5 + 10
= 20 Ohm
ii. Current drawn from battery
V = IR
I=
V

I= 20

20

I=1A
iii. Potential difference across 5-ohm resistor
V = IR
V=1×5
V = 5V
33. Given,
Power P = 4 kW,
Voltage, V = 220 V
a. We know that, P = VI.
Therefore current I = = = = 18.18 A
P 4kW 4000W

V 220V 220V

b. Energy consumed in 2h = Pt = 4 kW × 2h = 8 kWh.

c. If cost of 1 kWh = ₹ 4.50, then cost of 8 kWh of energy = ₹ 4.50 × 8 = ₹ 36
Section D
34. a. due to its small size and a valency of 4, it is capable of bonding with 4 other atoms of carbon because of
which carbon show catenation to maximum extent.

b. i.

ii.

c. i. A CH3COOH / Vinegar / acetic acid / ethanoic acid

ii. C H 3 – C – OH
II
O

OR

i. The two isomers of butane, C4H10 are as follows:

H H H H

| | | |

H− C − C − C − C − H
| | | |

H H H H

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O O

|| ||

ii. Structure of propanal and propanone are as followsCH 3 − CH2 − C − H and CH3 − C− CH3
Propanal Propanone

iii. a. Propanol, which has the chemical formula C3H7OH, is the third homologue of an alcohol. It has a three-carbon
straight chain with a hydroxyl (-OH) group joined to the second carbon.
b. Propanal, which has the chemical formula C3H6O, is an aldehyde's third homologue. Having a carbonyl group
(C=O) attached to the second carbon, it consists of a straight chain of three carbon atoms.
iv. a. Benzene
b. But-1-ene

v. Covalent bond formation of nitrogen

35. a. Categories of Contraceptive methods:

i. Mechanical Barrier - The sperm does not reach the egg.
ii. Contraceptive Pills - Change the hormonal balance so that the eggs are not released.
iii. Contraceptive devices - Placed in the uterus to prevent pregnancy.
iv. Surgical methods- Blocking / cutting of vas deferens/ fallopian tube.
b. Two bacterial infections:
(i) Gonorrhoea
(ii) Syphillis
Two viral infections:
(i) AIDS
(ii) Warts
c. Protection against Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs): Condoms act as a barrier, preventing direct contact
between bodily fluids, thereby reducing the risk of transmitting or acquiring STIs, including HIV, chlamydia,
gonorrhea, and HPV.
Prevention of Unintended Pregnancy: Condoms are an effective method of contraception when used correctly and
consistently.

OR

i. The midbrain controls the reflex movements of the head, neck, and trunk in response to visual and auditory stimuli.
ii. The medulla contains a vital centre for controlling blood pressure, respiration, swallowing, salivation, vomiting,
sneezing, and coughing.
iii. Pons regulates respiration.
iv. The brain is protected by a bony box called cranium, within that three layers of fluid-filled membranes called
meninges are present for absorbing shock.
v. The forebrain is the largest part of the brain and is the main thinking region.
36. i. When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of concave mirror, the image formed is equal in size to that of
object. So, for object distance 20 cm, the mirror C with focal length 10 cm is used as
u = R = 2f = 2 × 10cm = 20cm.

ii. For shaving purpose, mirror B (f = 15 cm) would be preferred (object distance is 10 cm) Also mirror A( f=20 cm)
would be used (object distance is10 cm) .
iii.

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a. For u = 30 cm

b. For u = 10 cm

OR

i. Palmists use a convex lens because it shows an enlarged, virtual and erect image when the object is between F and O
of a convex lens.
ii. If the palmist wants a real and magnified image, he should put an object between F1 and F2 or on F. But in that case,
he will have to use a screen to see the image. So, for convenience, palmists.
iii. Given, f = 10 cm, u = -5 cm
1 1 1
− =
v u f

Or
1 1 1
+ =
v 5 10

Or,
1 1 1
= −
v 10 5

Or 1 1−2 1
= = −
v 10 10

Or, v = -10 cm
The image is formed at 10 cm on the same side of the lens. It is erect and virtual.
Image size = =2
v 10
=
u 5

Image is twice as big as object.

Section E
37. i. If the crystal is moistened with water, then the blue colour of the crystal reappears.
ii. The commercial name of calcium sulphate hemihydrate is Plaster of Paris.
iii. Five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate.
OR
CaSO4. H2O is obtained when gypsum is heated at 373K.
1

Heating gypsum at 373K results in loss of water of crystallization, forming plaster of Paris as the product.
38. i. Reflex Action is an unconscious, automatic and involuntary response of efforts, i.e., muscles and glands, to a
stimulus, which is monitored through the spinal cord. Reflex action is controlled by the spinal cord.
ii. Yes, reflex action involves all parts of the voluntary nervous system.
iii. The part of the autonomic nervous system that controls involuntary actions are controlled or regulated by medulla
(hindbrain).
OR
'Beating of heart muscle' is an example of involuntary action. Involuntary actions are slower than reflex actions.

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39. i.

ii.

iii. The direction of a magnetic field at a point is determined by placing a small compass needle. The N - pole of
compass indicates the direction of magnetic field at that point.
If magnetic field lines intersect each other, then at the intersection point there will be two directions of the same field
which is not possible.
OR
Magnetic field lines can be drawn by moving a small compass from point to point around a magnet. At each point,
draw a short line in the direction of the compass needle. Joining the points together reveals the path of the magnetic
field lines.

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 6 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Identify the method shown in the image to prevent rancidity:

a) Packaging fat and oil-containing foods in nitrogen gas

b) Adding anti-oxidants to foods
c) Storing food in air-tight containers
d) Keeping food in a refrigerator
2. The taste and smell of food changes when kept for a long time in open. It is called
a) Rancidity
b) Corrosion
c) Oxidation
d) Reduction
3. Lime water is:
a) Calcium Chloride
b) Calcium hydroxide
c) Calcium oxide
d) Calcium carbonate

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Alkaline KMnO4 +H eat

4. CH3 - CH2 - OH −−−−−−−−−−−−−−→ CH3 - COOH

In the above given reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as
a) A reducing agent
b) dehydrating agent
c) oxidising agent
d) catalyst
5. A student adds one big iron nail each in four test tubes containing solution of zinc sulphate, aluminium sulphate, copper
sulphate and iron sulphate. A reddish brown coating was observed only on the surface of iron nail which was added in
the solution of:

a) Aluminium sulphate
b) copper sulphate
c) Iron sulphate
d) Zinc sulphate
6. Chemical formula of sulphurous acid is:
a) H2SO4
b) H2SO3
c) SO3
d) SO2
7. The functional group of butanone is:
a) Alcoholic
b) Ketonic
c) Carboxyl acid
d) Aldehydic
8. As compared to daytime, the amount of carbon dioxide released by the plants during night is more because:
a) It is stored in the leaves of plants during daytime.
b) Plants do not respire during daytime.
c) It is not produced during daytime.
d) Major amount of carbon dioxide produced is used up for photosynthesis during daytime.
9. Which plant was chosen by Mendel to work upon?
a) Pea
b) Gram
c) Rose
d) All of these
10. The thread like structures that develop on a moist slice of bread in Rhizopus are
a) Hyphae
b) Filaments
c) Sporangia
d) Rhizoids
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similar papers with their own name and logo.
11. Haemophilia is more commonly seen in human males than in human females because:
a) This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
b) A greater proportion of girls die in infancy
c) This disease is due to an X-linked dominant
d) This disease is due to a Y-linked recessive mutation
12. The gizzard is the part of the gut of
a) Roundworm
b) Man
c) Grasshopper
d) Flatworm
13. The compass works using ___________.
a) Magnetic Torque
b) Mechanical force
c) Gravity
d) Electromagnetism
14. Nichrome and copper wires of the same length and the same radius are connected in series. Current I is passed through
them. Which of the two gets heated first?
a) Nichrome wire
b) Both
c) Copper wire
d) Chromium wire
15. The main purpose of water harvesting is not to hold rainwater on the surface of the Earth but to make rainwater percolate
under the ground so as to recharge groundwater. Which of the following sentences are true for water stored in the
ground?
i. It does not evaporate.
ii. It spreads out to recharge wells and provides moisture for crops over a wide area.
iii. It does not promote breeding of mosquitoes.
iv. It is utilised for benefit of the local population.
a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
b) (iii) and (iv) only
c) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii) only
16. Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level
constitute the
a) Ecosystem
b) Food web
c) Ecological pyramid
d) Food chain
17. Assertion (A): Following is a balanced chemical equation for the action of steam on iron:
3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2
Reason (R): The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical equation.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.

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d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A): Seeds are matured ovules.
Reason (R): The part of seed which contains stored food for baby plant is called cotyledon.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
Reason (R): Magnetic field lines are imaginary lines, the tangent to which at any point gives the direction of the field at
that point.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): If pesticide is present in water bodies then fish eating birds accumulate maximum amount of DDT in
their bodies.
Reason (R): Pesticides are not metabolised within bodies of living organisms and get concentrated at each trophic level
leading to bioaccumulation.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. Give chemical reaction of acetic acid (ethanoic acid) with sodium metal.
22. What do you understand by self-pollination & cross pollination? Give examples of each.
23. Explain the statement, 'Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion.'

OR

Plants have low energy needs as compared to animals. Explain.

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24. Define principal focus of a convex lens.
25. Our food grains, such as wheat and rice, the vegetables and fruits and even meat are found to contain varying amounts of
pesticide residues, State the reason to explain how and why it happens.

OR

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Write the appropriate names of the trophic levels Z and X in the figure given below:

26. (a) What is scattering of light?

(b) Astronauts observe the sky as dark instead of blue why?
Section C
27. How can a layer of aluminium oxide on an aluminium object be made thicker? What is this process called?
28. Give the steps involved in the extraction of metals of low and medium reactivity from their respective sulphide ores.

OR

Give two examples each of the metals that are good conductors and poor conductors of heat respectively.
29. i. Why do the herbivores need longer small intestine as compared to that of the carnivores?
ii. List three types of substances secreted by the gastric glands and state the role of each in the digestion of food in
alimentary canal of human beings.
30. Study the following cross that shows the self-pollination in F1, fill in the blank the genotype and phenotype in the F1
generation. What type of cross it is?
Parents RRYY x rryy

Round, yellow wrinkled, green

F1 — Rr Yy x ?

Round, yellow
31. Sudha finds out that the sharp image of window pane of her science laboratory is formed at a distance of 15 cm from the
lens. She now tries to focus the building visible of her outside the window instead of the window pane without disturbing
the lens. In which direction will she move the screen to obtain a sharp image of the building? What is the approximate
focal length of this lens?
32. The current flowing through a resistor connected in a circuit and the potential difference developed across its ends are as
shown in the diagram by milliammeter and voltmeter readings respectively:
a. What are the least counts of these meters?
b. What is the resistance of the resistor?

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33. Find out the following in the electric circuit given in Figure

i. The potential difference across 4 Ω resistance

ii. The power dissipated in 4 Ω resistor
Section D
34. i. It is observed that covalent compounds are bad conductors of electricity. Give reason.
ii. Carbon can neither form C4+ cation nor C4- anion. Why?
iii. Draw electron dot structure of Ethanol.
iv. Identify hetero atom(s) in the following compounds:
a. CH CH − C − CH
3 2 3
||
O

b. CH3CH2Cl

OR

i. Draw two structural isomers of butane.

ii. Draw the structures of propanol and propanone.
iii. Name the third homologue of:
a. alcohols
b. aldehydes
iv. Name the following:

a.

b. CH3 - CH2CH = CH2

v. Show the covalent bond formation in nitrogen molecule.
35. Rajeev, a sales executive in an MNC was not keeping well for a long time. He underwent a complete medical checkup
and was diagnosed as HIV+. He was terminated on account of this condition.
i. To which category of disease does AIDS belong to? Give its causative organism.
ii. Do you think it was a right decision by the head of the company? Justify?
iii. What concern should the society show towards HIV+ individuals?

OR

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Given below is a well-labelled diagram showing synapse between the two neurons.

Using the given diagram, answer the following questions:

i. What is the sequence in which nerve impulse travels?
ii. How synapse between two neurons acts as a one-way valve?
iii. Which chemical substance is released when an electrical impulse coming from the receptor reaches the end of the
axon of a sensory neuron?
iv. How a neurotransmitter starts an electrical impulse in the next neuron?
v. Which part of the neuron has a synaptic knob?
36. i. A person suffering from myopia (near-sightedness) was advised to wear the corrective lens of power -2.5 D. A
spherical lens of the same focal length was taken in the laboratory. At what distance should a student place an object
from this lens so that it forms an image at a distance of 10 cm from the lens?
ii. Draw a ray diagram to show the position and nature of the image formed in the above case.

OR

A thin converging lens form a real magnified image and virtual magnified image of an object in front of it.
i. Write the positions of the objects in each case.
ii. Draw ray diagrams to show the image formation in each case.
iii. How will the following be affected on cutting this lens into two halves along the principal axis?
a. Focal length
b. Intensity of the image formed by half lens.
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The dissolving of an acid or a base in water is a highly exothermic reaction. Care must be taken while mixing
concentrated nitric acid or sulphuric acid with water. The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant
stirring. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause burns.
The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating. Look out for the warning sign on the can of
concentrated sulphuric acid and on the bottle of sodium hydroxide pellets.

i. What is the exothermic reaction? (1)

ii. Write an example of an exothermic reaction. (1)

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iii. How will you obtain sulphuric acid from an acidic oxide? (2)
OR
While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid? (2)
38. Following questions are based on the two tables given below. Study these tables related to blood sugar levels:
Table A (Blood glucose chart)
Mean Blood Glucose Level (mg/dL)

Doctor's advice needed 380

350
315

280
250
215

Good 180
150
Excellent 115

80
50

Table B (Blood Report of Patient X and Y)

Time of check Blood Glucose ranges (mg/dL)
Patient X Patient Y
Before breakfast (Fasting) <100 70-130

Before lunch, supper and snack <110 70-130

Two hours after meals <140 <180
Bedtime <120 90-15
i. Refer to Table B showing the blood report of the levels of glucose of patients X and Y. Infer the disease which can be
diagnosed from the given data. (1)
ii. Identify the hormone whose level in the blood is responsible for the above disease. (1)
iii. High/low sugar and a low/high-fat diet What would you recommend to the affected patient? (2)
OR
Refer to Table A and suggest the value of the mean blood glucose level beyond which doctor’s advice is necessary.
(2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Andre Marie Ampere suggested that a magnet must exert an equal and opposite force on a current-carrying conductor,
which was experimentally found to be true. But we know that current is due to charges in motion. Thus, it is clear that a
charge moving in a magnetic field experience a force, except when it is moving in a direction parallel to it. If the
direction of motion is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnitude of force experienced depends on
the charge, velocity (v), strength of magnetic field (B), and sine of the angle between v and B. Direction of magnetic

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force is given by Fleming’s left-hand rule.

i. If an electron is travelling horizontally towards east. A magnetic field in vertically downward direction exerts a force
on the electron along which direction? (1)
ii. A charged particle is moving with velocity v in a magnetic field of induction B. The force on the particle will be
maximum when (1)
iii. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in figure. In the field, an
electron and a proton move as shown. Where do the electron and the proton experience the force? (2)

OR
An electron beam enters a magnetic field at right angles to it as shown in the figure. What would be the direction of
force acting on the electron beam? (2)

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 6 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (c) Storing food in air-tight containers
Explanation: The image shows the prevention of rancidity by storing the food in air-tight containers.
2. (a) Rancidity
Explanation: Rancidity is defined as chemical decomposition of oils and fats which in other words is spoiling food
materials that is difficult for consumption. It is used to denote unpleasant odours and flavours in foods resulting from
deterioration in the fat or oil portion of food.
3. (b) Calcium hydroxide
Explanation: Calcium hydroxide
4. (c) oxidising agent
Explanation: Dilute alkaline KMnO4 (potassium permanganate) solution is an oxidising agent. It is a very useful
chemical compound.
5. (b) copper sulphate
Explanation: The copper sulphate solution will turn green due to the formation of iron sulphate. A reddish brown
coating of copper is formed on the nail. Iron is less reactive than aluminium and zinc. It is however, more reactive than
copper. It displaces copper from its solution (displacement reaction). The less reactive copper comes out of the solution
and more reactive iron goes into the solution.

CuSO4 (aq) + Fe (s) à FeSO4 (aq) + Cu s)

6. (b) H2SO3
Explanation: H2SO3
7. (b) Ketonic
Explanation: The functional group of butanone is a ketonic group. Butanone (CH3COCH2CH3) is a four-carbon
compound with a ketone (- CO -) functional group. A ketone functional group has two free valencies. In butanone, these
valencies are satisfied by one methyl (- CH3) group and one ethyl (- C2H5) group.
8. (d) Major amount of carbon dioxide produced is used up for photosynthesis during daytime.
Explanation: Major amount of carbon dioxide produced is used up for photosynthesis during daytime.
9. (a) Pea
Explanation: Mendel selected Pisum sativum (a pea plant )of his ground to observe the characteristics of progeny
produced.
10. (a) Hyphae
Explanation: The thread like structures that developed on the bread are the hyphae of the fungus Rhizopus stolon if also
known as black bread mold.
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11. (a) This disease is due to an X-linked recessive mutation
Explanation: Haemophilia is a bleeding disorder that slows down the blood clotting process. People who have
haemophilia often have longer bleeding after an injury or surgery.
Haemophilia is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern. A condition is considered X-linked when gene mutation that

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causes it is located on the X chromosome, one of the two sex chromosomes. In males (who have only one X
chromosome), one altered copy of the gene in each cell is enough to cause the condition. Since females have two X
chromosomes, a mutation must be present in both copies of the gene to cause haemophilia. Males are affected by X-
linked recessive disorders much more frequently than females.
12. (c) Grasshopper
Explanation: The gizzard is the muscular, thick-walled muscular pouch in the lower part of grasshopper's stomach. It is
also present in many birds and reptiles and serves one single purpose of grinds food with chitinous plates, i.e, the
breaking down of the food.
13. (a) Magnetic Torque
Explanation: The magnetic torque aligns itself with the magnetic field; hence the compass orients itself with the Earth’s
magnetic field.
14. (a) Nichrome wire
Explanation: The two wires are of the same length and the same radius; hence, their resistance will be proportional to
their resistivity. Nichrome wire is an alloy of nickel, chromium, manganese, and iron and has a resistivity of 100 × 10-6
ohm-m. Copper has a low resistivity of 1.62 × 10-8 ohm-m. Therefore, the Nichrome wire will get heated first.
According to Joule's law of heating, the heat produced in a resistor is directly proportional to the resistance for a given
current. H = I2Rt. Also, Nichrome does not oxidize easily at high temperatures. That is why, it is commonly used in
electrical heating devices like electrical iron, heaters, etc.
15. (a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Explanation: (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
16. (b) Food web
Explanation: Food web
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Ovule is gradually converted into a seed. A seed is the reproductive unit of a plant. The seed contains a
baby plant (or embryo) and food for the baby plant. The part of baby plant in seed which develops into shoot with leaves
is called plumule and the part which develops into root is called radicle. The part of seed which contains stored food for
the baby plant is called cotyledon.
19. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. The reaction of ethanoic acid with sodium metal results in the formation of sodium ethanoate or commonly known as
sodium acetate and hydrogen gas is liberated . The reaction is represented as -
2CH3COOH + 2Na → 2CH3COONa + H2
22. Self pollination - It is the transfers of pollen grains form an anther to the stigma of the same plant. If it is in the same
flower, it is called autogamy and if it is between flowers of the same plant, then it is called [Link] self
pollination can be seen in legumes like sunflowers, orchids, peanuts, oats, peas, potatoes, wheat, peaches, and more.
Cross Pollination: The cross pollination is defined as deposition of pollen grains from a flower to the stigma of another
flower. Commonly, the process is done pollinators that are insects and wind. By insects the process take place in several
plants like tulips, grapes, plums, apples, pears, strawberries, daffodils, raspberries and others. While, by wind for
different grasses, maples trees, dandelions, catkins, and others.
23. Bile does not contain any enzyme but it is essential for digestion because bile is alkaline and contain salts which helps to
emulsify the fat present in the food. So, the bile perform two functions:

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(a) The food coming from the stomach is acidic and has to be made alkaline for the pancreatic enzymes to act.
(b) The bile salts breakdown the fat present in the food into smaller globules. This increases the efficiency of enzymes in
the small intestine to digest the food effectively.

OR

Plants are non-motile whereas animals are motile which require high amount of energy expenditure. Moreover, most of
the movements of substances in plants happen through passive transport through dead cells which does not need energy.
Due to this, the energy requirement in plants is low as compared to animals.
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24. The principal focus or the second focal point of a convex lens is a point on the principal axis of the lens such that the
rays of light incident parallel to the principal axis, after refraction from the lens passes through it.
25. A large number of pesticides and insecticides are used to protect our crops from pests and diseases which may harm our
crops and reduce quality and yield. But, these chemicals are harmful for environment as they are washed down into soil
and from the soil, they are absorbed by plants along with water and minerals. If these chemicals are washed down in
water bodies they are taken up by aquatic plants and animals.
These chemicals may enter the food chain by both water and soil. Since, these chemicals cannot be decomposed, they
accumulate progressively at each trophic level. As the food chain proceeds, the concentration of harmful chemicals at
each step of the food chain increases and this is called bio magnification. That is why food grains and meat are found to
contain pesticide residues in them.

OR

X - Primary consumers; Z - Tertiary consumers

26. (a) Scattering of light is the phenomenon of change in direction of light on striking obstacles like atoms, molecules, dust
particles, water droplets etc.
(b) The sky appears blue due to scattering of the blue colour of sunlight by the earth's atmosphere. In space there is no
atmosphere or atmospheric particles to scatter light. Thus, the sky appears dark to the astronauts.

Section C
27. Aluminium develops a thin oxide layer when exposed to air. This aluminium oxide coat makes it resistant to further
corrosion. The resistance can be improved further by making the oxide layer thicker. This process is called anodising.
During anodising, a clean aluminium article is made the anode and is electrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid. The oxygen
gas evolved at the anode reacts with aluminium to make a thicker protective oxide layer. This oxide layer can be dyed
easily to give aluminium articles an attractive finish.
28. i. Extraction of Mercury: Mercury is a metal of low reactivity. Cinnabar, i.e. mercury (II) sulphide is the ore of
mercury. It is heated in the air so that it is oxidized to produce mercury (II) oxide. After that, mercury oxide is
reduced to obtain mercury.
The following reactions are involved in this process.
2HgS + 3O2 → 2HgO + 2SO2
ii. Extraction of metals of medium reactivity series: The metals in the middle of the reactivity series are also
extracted by roasting; followed by reduction but the methods are somewhat different.
iii. Extraction of Zinc: Zinc ire in the middle of the reactivity series. It is found in the form of zinc-blende which is zinc
oxide. It is first heated in the presence of air to obtain zinc oxide. This process can be shown by the following
equation.

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2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2SO2
After that, zinc oxide is reduced to obtain pure zinc metal. The reduction is done in the presence of carbon. This can
be shown by the following equation.
ZnO + C → Zn + CO.

OR

Metals in general, are conductors of heat. Some are good conductors whereas some are poor conductors of heat. Owing
to the number of free electrons they have, they are classified into good or poor conductors of heat. Those metals that
have more number of free electrons are good conductors and those that have less number of free electrons are poor
conductors of heat. For example,
i. Metals that are good conductors of heat - Silver (Ag) and Copper (Cu).
ii. Metals that are bad conductors of heat - Lead (Pb) and Mercury (Hg).
29. i. Herbivores eat grass / plants/ plant products, so they need a longer small intestine to allow the cellulose to be
digested as compared to carnivores which eat meat.
ii. a. Name: Hydrochloric Acid
Role: Creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of pepsin/ kills the germs
b. Name: Pepsin
Role: Digestion of proteins
c. Name: Mucus
Role: Protects the inner lining of the stomach from acid

30. Parents RRYY x rryy

Round, yellow wrinkled, green

F1 — Rr Yy x Rr Yy

Round, yellow Round, yellow

The given cross is a dihybrid cross that shows the inheritance of two different traits simultaneously. In the given
question, when pure breeding dominant parent plant (RRYY) crossed with pure breeding recessive parent plant (rryy), it
gives heterozygous dominant progeny in the F1 generation. All progeny in this cross will have genotype RrYy and
exhibit round yellow. Self-cross of F1 progeny will give F2 generation.
31. Let us assume that the window pane is between F2 and infinity from this lens and this is a convex lens. We know that
when the object is between infinity and F2, its inverted and real images is formed between 2F and 2F2.
Now, the distant building is at infinity from the lens. Its image would be formed at 2F. So, the screen needs to be moved
towards the lens in order to get a sharp image. Its approximate focal length is 10 cm (less than image distance in earlier
case).
32. a. least count of Ammeter = =10 mA
100

10

least count of Voltmeter = 1

10
= 0.1 V

b. Voltage, V = 2 + 0.1 × 4 = 2.4V and Current, I = 200 + 10 × 5 = 250 mA = 0.25 A

Thus, the resistance of the resistor, R = = = 9.6 ohm
V 2.4

I 0.25

33. Given :-
Resistor, R₁ = 4 Ω
Resistor, R₂ = 8 Ω
Resistor, R₃ = 8 Ω
Potential Difference, V = 8 volts.

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i. The potential difference across 4Ω resistors, V = IR = 1 × 4 = 4V
ii. Power dissipated in 4Ω resistors, P = I2R = (1A)2(4Ω) = 4W
Section D
34. i. The bonds which are formed by the sharing of an electron pair between two atoms are known as covalent bonds.
Since the electrons are shared between atoms and no charged particles are formed, such covalent compounds are
generally poor conductors of electricity.
ii. In the case of carbon, it has four electrons in its outermost shell and needs to gain or lose four electrons to attain
noble gas configuration. If it were to gain or lose electrons:
a. It could gain four electrons forming C4− anion. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold
on to ten electrons.
b. It could lose four electrons forming C4+ cation. But it would require a large amount of energy to remove four
electrons leaving behind a carbon cation with six protons in its nucleus holding on to just two electrons.
iii. Electron dot structure of ethanol is as follows:

iv.

v. Heteroatom in following compound is

a. Oxygen
b. Chlorine

OR

i. The two isomers of butane, C4H10 are as follows:

H H H H

| | | |

H− C − C − C − C − H
| | | |

H H H H

O O

|| ||

ii. Structure of propanal and propanone are as followsCH 3

− CH2 − C − H and CH
3
− C− CH3
Propanal Propanone

iii. a. Propanol, which has the chemical formula C3H7OH, is the third homologue of an alcohol. It has a three-carbon
straight chain with a hydroxyl (-OH) group joined to the second carbon.
b. Propanal, which has the chemical formula C3H6O, is an aldehyde's third homologue. Having a carbonyl group
(C=O) attached to the second carbon, it consists of a straight chain of three carbon atoms.
iv. a. Benzene
b. But-1-ene

v. Covalent bond formation of nitrogen

35. i. AIDS is a sexually transmitted disease. Its causative organism is the Human Immuno Virus (HIV).
ii. No, it was not the right decision by the head of the company because HIV is not spread by shaking hands, eating
together or mixing with HIV-infected individuals. Instead he should be given equal rights and freedom so that he

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should feel happy and should not get depressed.
iii. The society should show a positive attitude towards HIV-positive persons. They should be given proper care and
treatment. Everybody should support them so that they can lead a healthy life without getting mental depression. We
should provide proper education and create awareness among people about HIV and AIDS.

OR

i. Nerve impulses travel from one neuron to the other neuron in the following way:
Dendrites → Cell body → Axon → Nerve endings at the tip of axon → Synapse → Dendrite of next neuron
ii. The synapse between two neurons acts as a one-way valve that allows electrical impulses to pass in one direction
only.
iii. A chemical substance called a neurotransmitter is released when an electrical impulse coming from the receptor
reaches the end of the axon of sensory neurons.
iv. The neurotransmitter crosses the synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrite of the next neuron. In
this way, the electrical impulses pass from one neuron to the next across the synapse.
v. Axon has a swollen structure at its end called synaptic knob or bouton. It is also termed as the nerve fibre.
36. i. Given:
distance of image from the lens, i = 10 cm
power of the lens, P = -25 D
Now the focus of the lens:
1
P =
f

where:
f = focal length
1
−25 =
f

f = -0.04 m = -4 cm
From the equation of lens:
1 1 1
= +
f i o

where:
o = distance of the object
1 1 1
− = +
4 10 o

cm i.e. negative sign means that the image formed is on the same side as that of the object.
20
ρ = −
7

ii.

OR

i.
a. Object is placed between F and 2F of thin converging lens .
b. Object is placed between optical centre and F.
ii. The ray diagrams for real magnified and virtual magnified images are as follows:
Part (a)

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Part (b)

iii.
a. There will be no change in focal length of converging lens.
b. Intensity will become one-fourth and brightness of lens will be less .
Section E
37. i. An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction that releases energy through light or heat.
ii. Mixing of acid with water is a highly exothermic reaction.
iii. When sulphur trioxide (acidic oxide) is dissolved in water, an exothermic reaction takes place with the formation of
sulphuric acid.
SO3 + H2O → H2SO4
OR
Since the process of dissolving an acid in water is exothermic, it is always recommended that acid should be added to
water. If it is done the other way, then it is possible that because of the large amount of heat generated, the mixture
splashes out and causes burns.
38. i. Diabetes, Diabetes is caused due to less or no secretion of hormone insulin by pancreas.
ii. Insulin level in the blood is responsible for the given disease.
iii. Low sugar high fibre diet
OR
> 180mg/dL.
39. i. Fleming’s left-hand rule is used to determine the direction of force on electron i.e., in south direction.
ii. Force = q (V × B) = qVB sin0
Where, 0 is angle between velocity and magnetic field.
So, sin0 is maximum when 0 is 900
or velocity is perpendicular to magnetic field.
iii. As the direction of current is taken opposite to the direction of motion of electrons, therefore, current from the motion
of electron and proton is in the same direction, i.e., from bottom to top. Now, according to Fleming’s left-hand rule,
the electron and the proton experience forces both pointing into the plane of paper.
OR
We know that both the directions are perpendicular, thus for force direction = ?
Using Fleming's left-hand rule,

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Direction of force is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field and current.
Thus direction of force is opposite to electron motion into the page at 90°
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 7 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. The food items like cheese that is shown in the given below image become unfit for eating. This happens due to:

a) Corrosion
b) Rusting
c) Dusting
d) Rancidity
2. The volume of gas collected in one of the test tubes in the electrolysis of water is double than other. Name the gas.
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon
3. Clove oil and onion are examples of
a) basic indicator
b) acid- base indicator
c) olfactory indicator
d) artificial indicator
4. The number of C - H bonds in ethane C2H6 molecule is:
a) 8
b) 10

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c) 4
d) 6
5. Aluminum is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminum are responsible for the
same?

i. Good thermal conductivity

ii. Good electrical conductivity
iii. Ductility
iv. High melting point
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i) and (iv)
6. Which one of the following properties is not generally exhibited by ionic compounds?
a) Electrical conductivity in solid state
b) Electrical conductivity in molten state
c) Solubility in water
d) High melting and boiling points
7. The IUPAC name of CH3CHO is:
a) Ethanal
b) Acetaldehyde
c) Formaldehyde
d) Methyl formaldehyde
8. Instead of water, we use glycerine as a mounting medium:
a) To enlarge the material
b) To clean the material
c) To colour the material
d) To prevent the material from drying
9. The chromatids are joined to each other by
a) Centriole
b) Centromere
c) Spindle
d) Aster
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of wind pollinated flowers?
a) Flowers are small with nectar and fragrance.
b) Pollen grains are light, small and dusty whereas the stigma is hairy and feathery.
c) Pollen grains are heavy and dry whereas the stigma is short and sticky.
d) Flowers are brightly coloured.
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material for CBSE, NCERT, JEE (main), NEET-UG and NDA exams. Teachers can use Examin8 App to create
similar papers with their own name and logo.
11. For evolution to occur in a population, which of the following must happen?
i. The frequencies of some alleles in an organism's genotypes must change during its lifetime.
ii. The frequencies of each allele in an organism's genotype must remain constant within its lifetime.
iii. The frequencies of some alleles in a population’s gene pool must change over successive generations.
iv. The frequencies of each allele in a population's gene pool must remain constant over successive generations.
a) Statement (iii) is correct.
b) Statement (vi) is correct.
c) Statement (ii) is correct.
d) Statement (i) is correct.
12. Chlorophyll, xanthophylls and Carotene are
a) Hormones
b) Enzymes
c) Pigments
d) Gases
13. A wire is placed perpendicular to the plane through point O. A constant current is flowing in the wire out of the plane. In
the figure, the two points where magnetic field will be perpendicular to each other is

a) V and Y
b) U and V
c) X and U
d) X and Y
14. When an electric lamp is connected to 12 V battery, it draws a current of 0.5A. The power of the lamp is:
a) 0.5W
b) 24W
c) 12W
d) 6W
15. What will happen if deer is missing in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Tiger
a) The population of tiger will decrease and the growth of grass will increase.
b) The growth of grass will decrease.
c) The population of tiger will increase.
d) Tiger will start eating grass.
16. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what will be the energy available at
the producer level? Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
a) 5 kJ
b) 50 kJ
c) 500 kJ
d) 5000 kJ

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17. Assertion (A): Copper spoon is used to stir silver nitrate solution.
Reason (R): Copper is less reactive than silver.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A) : XX chromosome give rise to female child whereas XY give rise to male child.
Reason (R) : The Y chromosome in males is small than X chromosome.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): The magnetic field is stronger at a point that is nearer to the conductor and goes on decreasing on moving
away from the conductor.
Reason (R): The magnetic field B produced by a straight current-carrying wire is inversely proportional to the distance
from the wire.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): First trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant.
Reason (R): Green plants are called producers.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds? Give an example and list its three characteristics.
22. Would a Planaria cut vertically into two halves regenerate into two individuals? Complete Figure D and E by indicating
the regenerated regions.

23. List four functions of the human heart. Why is double circulation necessary in the human body?

OR

What is the difference between arteries & veins?

24. An object of size 7.0 cm is placed at 27 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 18 cm. At what distance from the
mirror should a screen be placed, so that a sharp focussed image can be obtained? Find the size and the nature of the
image.
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25. What are the major components of an ecosystem?

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OR

i) What percentage of the solar energy is trapped and utilized by plants?

ii) Name any two major ecosystems of the world.
26. What part of the eye can be denoted after death ?
Section C
27. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it, as
shown in figure below.
a. What will be the action of gas on
i. dry litmus paper?
ii. moist litmus paper?
b. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.

28. (i) Name a metal for each case:

(a) It does not react with cold as well as hot water but reacts with steam.
(b) It does not react with any physical state of water.
(ii) When calcium metal is added to water the gas evolved does not catch fire but the same gas evolved on adding
sodium metal to water catches fire. Why is it so?

OR

A cleaned aluminium foil was placed in an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate. When the aluminium foil was taken out of
the zinc sulphate solution after 15 minutes, its surface was found to be coated with a silvery grey deposit. From the given
observation, what can be concluded?
29. Leaves of healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline. Will this plant remain healthy for long? Give reasons for your
answer.
30. i. In humans, if gene B gives brown eyes and gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the colour of eyes of the persons
having the following combination of genes? (a) Bb (b) bb (c) BB
ii. What do you class this trait of eye colour in human? Explain.
31. Distinguish between real image and virtual image.
32. A household uses the following electric appliances:
i. The refrigerator of rating 400 W for 10 h each day and Two electric fans of rating 80 W each for 6 h daily.
ii. Six electric tubes of rating 18 W each for 6 h daily.
Calculate the electricity bill for the household for the month of June, if the cost of electrical energy is Rs 3 per unit.
33. i. It would cost a man ₹3.50 to buy 1.0 kW h of electrical energy from the Main Electricity Board. His generator has a
maximum power of 2.0 kW. The generator produces energy at this maximum power for 3 hours. Calculate how much
it would cost to buy the same amount of energy from the Main Electricity Board.
ii. A student boils water in an electric kettle for 20 minutes. Using the same mains supply he wants to reduce the boiling
time of water. To do so should he increase or decrease the length of the heating element? Justify your answer.
Section D
34. i. With the help of diagram, show the formation of micelles, when soap is applied on oily dirt.

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ii. Take two test tubes X and Y with 10 mL of hard water in each. In test tube X, add few drops of soap solution and in
test tube Y add a few drops of detergent solution. Shake both the test tubes for the same period.
1. In which test tube the formation of foam will be more? Why?
2. In which test tube is a curdy solid formed? Why?

OR

i. Draw the structure of the following compounds:

a. Butanoic acid
b. Chloropentane
ii. How are structure (i) and structure (ii) given below related to one another? Give reason to justify your answer.

Draw one more possible structure for above case.

iii. Differentiate between saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds on the basis of their general formula.

35.

i. Identify the organisms A and B and the mode of asexual reproduction exhibited by them.
ii. How will an organism be benefited if it reproduces through spores?
iii. Mention the two asexual methods by which Hydra can reproduce. Explain briefly any one such method.

OR

The image shows phototropism in the plant stem.

Using the given image, answer the following questions:

i. Which plant hormone is responsible for the bending of the stem towards the light?
ii. Where is this hormone present in the plant?
iii. What makes the stem bend towards the light?
iv. Why such movement of plant stem is called positive tropism?
v. Which part of the plant shows negative phototropism?
36. An object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a concave lens of focal length 30 cm.
i. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the image from the lens.
ii. List four characteristics of the image (nature position, size, erect/inverted) in this case.

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iii. Draw a labelled diagram to justify your answer of part (ii)

OR

A student places a candle flame at a distance of about 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm and focuses the
image of the flame on a screen. After that he gradually moves the flame towards the lens and each time focuses the
image on the screen.
i. In which direction: toward or away from the lens, does he move the screen to focus the image?
ii. How does the size of the image change?
iii. How does the intensity of the image change as the flame moves towards the lens?
iv. Approximately for what distance between the flame and the lens, the image formed on the screen is inverted and of
the same size?
Section E
37. A scale for measuring hydronium ion in a solution is called the pH scale. The pH of a neutral solution is 7. A value of
less than 7 on the pH scale represents an acidic solution. As the pH value, increases from 7 to 14 it represents OH- ion
concentration in solution i.e a basic solution.

i. What is the pH range of the Human Body? (1)

ii. The strength of acid and bases depends on which factor? (1)
iii. If the pH of soil X is 7.5 while that of soil Y is 4.5, then which soil should be treated with powdered chalk to adjust
its pH? (2)
OR
Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than which pH? (2)
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Animals have a nervous system for controlling and coordinating the activities of the body. But plants have neither a
nervous system nor muscles. So, how do they respond to stimuli? When we touch the leaves of a chhui-mui (the
‘sensitive’ or ‘touch-me-not’ plant of the Mimosa family), they begin to fold up and droop. When a seed germinates, the
root goes down, the stem comes up into the air. What happens? Firstly, the leaves of the sensitive plant move very
quickly in response to touch. There is no growth involved in this movement. On the other hand, the directional
movement of a seedling is caused by growth. If it is prevented from growing, it will not show any movement. So plants
show two different types of movement - one dependent on growth and the other independent of growth.

i. Plants neither have nervous system nor muscles, then how does chemical coordination occur in plants? (1)
ii. Why Mimossa pudica leaves drop down when we touched? Write its another name also. (1)
iii. What is turgor movement? (2)
OR

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What is a tropic movement? Explain with an example. (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Take two different coils of copper wire having large number of turns, say 50 and 100 turns respectively. Insert them over
a non-conducting roll as shown in the given figure. Connect the Coil-1, having large number of turns, in series with a
battery and a plug key. Also connect the other Coil-2 with a galvanometer.

i. Explain the reason for the current which is responsible for the deflection in the galvanometer. (1)
ii. Define the phenomenon involved in this case. (1)
iii. State what is observed in the galvanometer, when (2)
1. the key is closed.
2. the key is opened.
OR
A coil AB of copper wire is connected to a galvanometer as shown in the figure. What is observed when N-pole of a
strong bar magnet is

a. pushed into the coil?

b. held stationary inside the coil?
State the reason for each observation. (2)
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 7 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (d) Rancidity
Explanation: Rancidity spoils the food materials prepared in fats and oils which have been kept for a considerable time
and makes them unfit for eating. Hence, the cheese shown in the image becomes unfit for eating due to rancidity.
2. (a) Hydrogen
Explanation: Because formula of water is H2O in which ratio of H to O is 2:1.
3. (c) olfactory indicator
Explanation: An Olfactory indicator is defined as a substance whose smell varies when it is mixed with an acidic or
basic solution. Such substances can be used in the laboratory to test whether a solution is a base or an acid, and this
process is called olfactory titration. All onion, clove oil, and vanilla extract are examples.
i. Onion: Paste or juice of onion loses its smell when added with base. It does not change its smell with acid.
ii. Clove oil: In bases, its characteristic smell cannot be detected.
4. (d) 6
Explanation: The number of C-H bonds in ethane (C2H6) molecule is 6. Carbon is tetravalent. Each carbon atom forms
3 single bonds with 3 hydrogen atoms.
5. (d) (i) and (iv)
Explanation: Aluminium has good thermal conductivity and high melting point. These properties are useful in the
making of utensils. The commonly used metals in making utensils are copper, steel (an alloy of iron) and aluminium.
Copper and aluminium are the most preferred due to their conduction of heat.
6. (a) Electrical conductivity in solid state
Explanation: Ionic compounds such as NaCl have a high melting point and high boiling point.
They are generally soluble in water than other organic solvents since water being polar covalent in nature breaks the
ionic bonds.
Ionic compounds are good conductors of electricity in their molten state but not in their solid-state.
7. (a) Ethanal
Explanation: The IUPAC name of CH3CHO is ethanal. The common name of CH3CHO is acetaldehyde. Formaldehyde
is HCHO.
8. (d) To prevent the material from drying
Explanation: Glycerine is a good dehydrating agent. It avoids the drying of the specimen. Besides, glycerine tends to
reflect light due to its refractive nature. As a result of it, the image appears clearer under the microscope. Due to these
reasons, glycerine is used while preparing a temporary mount of leaf peel.
9. (b) Centromere
Explanation: A sister chromatid refers to either of the two identical copies (chromatids) formed by the replication of a
single chromosome, with both copies joined together by a common centromere. In other words, a sister chromatid may
also be said to be 'one-half' of the duplicated chromosome. A full set of sister chromatids is created during the synthesis
(S) phase of interphase, when all the chromosomes in a cell are replicated. The two sister chromatids are separated from

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each other into two different cells during mitosis or during the second division of meiosis.

10. (b) Pollen grains are light, small and dusty whereas the stigma is hairy and feathery.
Explanation: In wind pollinated flowers, pollen grains are light, small and dusty so that they can be carried by wind to
distant places. Stigma is hairy and feathery to catch the wind-borne pollen grains.
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11. (a) Statement (iii) is correct.
Explanation: Evolution may be described as the change in heritable characteristics of a population over successive
generation. So, for evolution to occur, allele frequency must change for whole group of population over successive
generation.
12. (c) Pigments
Explanation: There are several pigments found in the leaves of the plants. One of the major is Chlorophyll, Green in
colour and is the pigment primarily responsible for photosynthesis. While Carotene and Xanthophyll are types of plant
pigments that play a role in the metabolism of plants. Xanthophylls are the yellow pigment of the leaves and are
classified as accessory pigments that absorb the wavelength that chlorophyll cannot absorb.
13. (a) V and Y
Explanation: V and Y
14. (d) 6W
Explanation: We know that power is calculated as P = VI. Substituting the values of V and I we get P = 6W.
15. (a) The population of tiger will decrease and the growth of grass will increase.
Explanation: If deer is missing from the given food chain, the population of tiger will decrease and the growth of grass
will increase.
16. (d) 5000 kJ
Explanation: The available energy level at a particular trophic level is 10 times the energy level at the next tropic level.
Hence, energy at the third level trophic level is 50 KJ. Second level trophic has 500 KJ energy and 1st level trophic level
(Producer) has the energy of 5000 KJ.
17. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Silver's reactivity according to the reactivity series is lesser than that of copper (Cu). So, we cannot stir the
solution as the solution would be displaced by copper. We should instead use a glass rod for this. Thus assertion is true,
but reason is false.
18. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Smaller Y chromosome, does not decide the gender of the child. Its presence is important not the size.
Thus both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

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19. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The magnitude of the magnetic field is
i. Directly proportional to the current I passing through the wire.
ii. Inversely proportional to the distance r from the wire. The magnetic field is stronger at a point that is nearer to the
conductor and goes on decreasing on moving away from the conductor.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. It is a series of compounds with the same functional group and similar chemical properties, in which the members of
series differ by the number of repeating units they contain. e.g. Alkane
Characteristics:-
i. They have same general formula.
ii. They have same functional group.
iii. They have similar chemical properties.
22. When planaria is cut into two halves, each halve grows into a complete organism. This regeneration process is carried
out by specialized cell which proliferate, develop and differentiate into various cell types and tissues. Figures D and E
indicating the regenerated regions are:

23. Four function of human heart are:-

i. It receives deoxygenated blood from body.
ii. It receives oxygenated blood from lungs.
iii. It pumps oxygenated blood to different parts of body.
iv. It have efficient supply of oxygen gas (O2) for its high energy needs.

Double circulation is necessary in the human body for separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

OR

Arteries Veins

1. It carries blood away from the heart.

It carries blood towards the heart.

2. They are thick walled. They are thin walled

3. They have narrow lumen They have wide lumen

4. Pressure of the blood is high Pressure of the blood is low

5. It carries oxygenated blood. It carries deoxygenated blood

6. It does not have valves It has valves to prevent backflow of blood.

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24. u = - 27 cm, f = - 18 cm. h = 7.0 cm
o

1/v = 1/f - 1/u

1/v = -1/18 + 1/27 = -1/54
v = - 54 cm
Screen must be placed at a distance of 54 cm from the mirror in front of it.
h /h = v/u
i 0

hi /7 = +54/-27
hi = -2 × 7 = -14 cm.
Thus, the image is of 14 cm length and is inverted image.

25.

OR

1) The plants utilize only 1% of the solar energy.

2) (a) Forests (b) Sea.
26. The cornea from dead body is removed within 6 hours of the death and transplanted in the eyes of blind person with
opaque cornea. His opaque cornea is replaced by transparent cornea of dead person.
Section C
27. a.
i. No action.
ii. it turns moist litmus paper red and then bleaches it.
b. S + O2= SO2
28. (i) (a) Aluminium, (b) Copper
(ii) In both cases, the gas evolved is H . When calcium reacts with water the heat evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen
2

to catch fire. On the other hand, sodium metal reacts with water violently and in this case a lot of heat is evolved which
is sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire.

OR

Aluminium is more reactive than zinc hence it displaces zinc from zinc sulphate solution and forms silvery white zinc
metal. The reaction is as follows:
3ZnS O4 (aq) + 2Al(s) → Al2 (S O4 ) (aq)
3
+ 3Zn(s)
Zinc sulphate Alu min ium Alu min ium sulphate

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29. If leaves of a healthy potted plant are coated with vaseline, it will clog the stomatal pores on leaves. Blockage of
stomatal will stop transpiration and exchange of gases from leaves. Transpiration plays an important role in ascent of sap
in plants. Hence, lack of transpiration will stop ascent of sap. Moreover, stoppage of exchange of gases would also stop
respiration and photosynthesis in leaves. This will result in death of leaves and finally the plant would die due to lack of
food.
30. i. Bb will have brown eyes.
bb will have blue eyes.
BB will have brown eyes.
ii. Eye colour in humans is an inherited trait. These are traits that are present in the DNA of an organism and are passed
on to their progeny.

31. Real Image Virtual Image

1. It is formed by the actual meeting of reflected 1. It is formed when reflected (or refracted) rays appear to meet
(or refracted) ray. when produced backward

[Link] can be obtained on the screen. [Link] cannot be obtained on the screen.
[Link] is always inverted. [Link] is always erect.

[Link] is formed by concave, convex and plane mirror(or concave and

[Link] is formed by concave mirror or convex lens.
convex lens.)
32. i. Energy consumed per day by refrigerator
= 0.4kW × 10h [∴ power of refrigerator = 400 W = 0.4kW]
400
kW
1000

= 4 kWh
Energy consumed per day by fans
= 2 × 0.08kW × 6h [∴ power of each fan = 80

1000
= 0.08 kW]
= 0.96 kWh
ii. Energy consumed per day by electric tubes
= 6 × 0.018 kWh × 6h [∴ power of each electric tube = = 0.018kW]
18

1000

= 0.648 kWh
Total energy consumed per day = 4 + 0.96 + 0.648 = 5.608 kWh
Energy consumed in 30 days = 30 × 5.608 = 168.24 kWh
Cost of 168.24 kWh
Cost of 168.24 units @ ₹ 3.00 = 168.24 × 3 = ₹ 504.72
33. a. E = P × T
So, E = 3 × 2 = 6 kWh
Cost of buying electricity from the main electricity board = 6 × 3.50 = ₹21.0
b. To reduce the boiling time using the same mains supply, the rate of heat production should be large. We know that P
2

= . Since V is constant, R should be decreased. Since R is directly proportional to l so length should be decreased.
V

Section D
34. i. In the case of soaps, the carbon chain dissolves in oil and the ionic end dissolves in water. Thus, the soap molecules
form structures called micelles. In micelles, one end is towards the oil droplet and the other end which is the ionic

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faces outside.

ii. a. Test tube X contain Soap does not lather well in hard water. The hardness of water is due to dissolved calcium
and magnesium salts in it. These salts react with soap to form insoluble compounds resulting in the decreases of
lather. But test tube Y detergent do not give insoluble compounds on reaction with these salts. Hence detergent
are more effective than soap in hard water.
b. In test tube X curdy solid form because salt of hard water react with soap.

OR

i. a. Structure of butanoic acid (C3H7COOH)

H H H O

| | | |

H − C − C − C − C = OH
| | |

H H H

b. Structure of Chloropentane
H H H Cl H

| | | | |

H− C − C − C − C − C = H
| | | | |

H H H H H

ii. Structure (i) is 2,3-dimethylbutane, whereas Structure (ii) is 2,2-dimethylbutane. Both are isomers of the compound
with the chemical formula C6H14.
iii. Unsaturated carbon compounds always follow the general formula CnH2n if there is a carbon-carbon double bond
and formula CnH2n-2 if there is a carbon-carbon triple bond. Saturated carbon compounds always follow the general
formula CnH2n+2.
35. i. A- Bryophyllum - Via Budding type of Vegetative propagation (Asexual reproduction). B- Plasmodium - Multiple
fission
ii. Spore formation benefits are that spore can survive under unfavourable condition because of protective covering.
Also, interaction between 2 parents are not needed. And importantly, it is so light weighted that possibility of
dispersion by other agents are increased.
iii. Budding and regeneration.
Budding is a process in which a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell divisions at a specific site. This
bud develops, gets matured and detaches from the parent cell to become a new individual.
Regeneration: It takes place as specialised cells divide to form large number of cells, undergo differentiation to
become various cell types and tissues.

OR

i. The plant hormone auxin is responsible for the bending of the stem towards the light.
ii. The auxin hormone is present at the tip of the stem of the growing plant.
iii. Auxin prefers to stay in shade away from light so when sunlight falls on the stem from one side, it gets concentrated
on the opposite side. Due to more auxin, the shady side of the stem grows to be longer than the side of the stem

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which is facing the light and makes the stem bend towards the light.
iv. The movement of a plant part towards light is called positive phototropism. The stem of the growing bends towards
the light so it is called positive phototropism.
v. The roots of a plant move away from light so they show negative phototropism.
36. i. u = -30 cm f = -30cm v = ? m = ?
1 1 1
= −
f v u

1 1 1
∴ = +
v f u

= 1
+
1

(−30 cma) (−30 cm)

1 1 1
= − −
v 30 30

=
−2

30

∴ v = -15 cm
v
m =
u
(−15 cm)
=
1
= −
(−30 cm) 2

ii. Four characteristics of the image are:

Nature – virtual
Position – 15cm away from the lens, on the same side as the object
Size – diminished
Erect / inverted – erect

iii.

OR

i. He should move the screen away from the convex lens to focus the image.
ii. The size of the image increases.
iii. The intensity of the image decreases as the flame moves towards the lens.
iv. The flame should be placed at 20 cm from the convex lens on its left side to form inverted image of same size.
Section E
37. i. The pH range of the Human Body is 7 to 7.8.
ii. The strength of acids and bases depends on the number of H+ ions produced and the number of OH- ions produced.
iii. Soil Y is acidic. Hence, it should be treated with powdered chalk to reduce its acidity.
OR
When the pH in the mouth falls below 5.5, tooth decay starts. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acid by
degradation of sugar and food particles which remain in the mouth after eating.
38. i. In plants, chemical coordination occurs with the help of plant hormones (Phytohormones).
ii. Mimossa pudica's leaves drop down when we touch it. It is due to the turgor pressure difference between the upper
and lower halves of the base of the petiole. Its other name is "touch-me-not" or "chui-mui".
iii. Turgor movement is the movement due to the difference in turgidity of the cells in the lower half and the upper half
of pulvinus (petiole of a leaf).
OR
The movements which are in a particular direction in relation to the stimulus are called tropic movements. Tropic

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movements happen as a result of the growth of a plant part in a particular direction. For example; the shoot usually
grows in the direction of sunlight. This is called positive phototropic movement.
39. i. The reason involved is electromagnetic induction.
When current is passed through coil 1 magnetic field changes in coil 2 due to which an induced current starts flowing
in coil 2 and the galvanometer present in coil 2 shows some deflection.
ii. The electromagnetic induction is the phenomenon involved above.
The process by which a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces a current in another conductor is called
electromagnetic induction.
iii. a. A momentary deflection is shown by the galvanometer.
b. A momentary deflection is shown by the galvanometer but in the opposite direction.
OR
a. When bar magnet is pushed into the coil there is some deflection in the galvanometer.
b. When bar magnet is held stationary there is no change in magnetic field due to which there is no change in the
galvanometer.
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 8 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Zinc granules are placed in each of the four solutions A, B, C and D as shown below decolourisation would be observed
in

a) [B] and [D]

b) [A] and [C]
c) [C] and [D]
d) [A] and [B]
2. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead nitrate, a yellow precipitate of
lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead nitrate is not available, which of the following can be used in
place of lead nitrate?
a) Ammonium nitrate
b) Potassium sulphate
c) Lead acetate
d) Lead sulphate (insoluble)
3. On the pH scale we can measure pH from
a) 0 to 7
b) 1 to 10
c) 0 to 14
d) 7 to 14
4. The odour of ethanoic acid resembles which one of the following:

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a) Kerosene
b) Pungent
c) Rose
d) Vinegar
5. The property of metal by which it can be drawn into wires is called:

a) Ductility
b) Malleability
c) Conductivity
d) Sonorous
6. Which of the following metal reacts neither with cold water nor with hot water but reacts with hot steam to produce
hydrogen gas?
a) Mg
b) Fe
c) Ca
d) Na
7. Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has
a) 5 covalent bonds
b) 17 covalent bonds
c) 12 covalent bonds
d) 16 covalent bonds
8. In the excretory system of human beings, some substances in the initial filtrate such as glucose, amino acids, salts and
water are selectively reabsorbed in
a) Ureter
b) Urethra
c) Urinary bladder
d) Nephron
9. Which of the following organism has only one type of sex chromosome called X-chromosome?
a) Cricket
b) Lizard
c) Bee
d) Ant
10. To which type of disease Trichomoniasis belongs
a) AIDS
b) Lung disease
c) STD
d) Cancer
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11. Alternative forms of a gene are called
a) Chromosomes
b) Multiples
c) Loci
d) Alleles
12. Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following
a) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
b) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
c) Trypsin and lipase digest fats
d) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
13. The magnetic field at a point due to current carrying conductor is directly proportional to
A. Current flowing through the conductor.
B. Distance of the conductor.
C. Resistance of the conductor.
a) A and C
b) A and B
c) Only B
d) Only A
14. What will happen to current passing through a resistor if the potential difference across its ends is doubled and the
resistance is halved?
a) Remain unchanged
b) Becomes four times
c) Becomes half
d) Becomes one-fourth
15. For the management of wastes, we should follow:
a) 3Ps
b) 3Rs
c) 3Qs
d) 3As
16. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about:
a) 10%
b) 8%
c) 5%
d) 1%
17. Assertion (A): In the reaction, Zn (s)
+
+ 2H
(aq)
→ Zn
2+

(aq)
+ H2(g) , zinc acts as an oxidising agent and H+ acts as a
reducing agent.
Reason (R): An oxidising agent accepts electrons while a reducing agent loses electrons.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A): Copper -T can be used as a contraceptive method.
Reason (R): It prevents from sexually transmitted disease.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.

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d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): A fault occurred in the domestic lines, but all the equipment's are safe.
Reason (R): Potential difference is only 220 V in our country in domestic lines.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): Gases used in cooling devices can lead to depletion of ozone layer of atmosphere.
Reason (R): Carbon monoxide which is widely used as coolant in refrigerator reacts with ozone and destroys it.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. i. Covalent bonds formed as a result of sharing of electron pairs between two atoms are strong in nature. But the
covalently bonded molecules have low melting and boiling points compared to the ionic molecules. What is the
reason behind such behaviour?
ii. Why are the unsaturated carbon compounds more reactive than saturated carbon compounds?
22. Suggest any two contraceptive methods to control the size of human population and explain them.
23. Why respiration is called catabolic process?

OR

Photosynthesis is called a light dependant process. Comment.

24. i. An object of 5 cm height is placed at a distance of 20 cm from the optical centre of a concave lens of focal length 18
cm. Calculate (1) image distance and (2) the magnification in this case.
ii. Compare the values of magnification obtained by a concave lens and a convex lens when both the lenses form virtual
images.
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25. The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to drop sharply in the 1980s. This decrease has been linked to synthetic
chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) which are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers. In 1987, the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels. It
is now mandatory for all the manufacturing companies to make CFC free refrigerators throughout the world. Suggest an
alternative coolant that can be used.

OR

If a harmful chemical enters in a food chain comprising peacock, plants, rats and snakes, which of these organisms is
likely to have the highest concentration of the chemical in its body. Justify your answer. Name the process involved and
define it.
26. The figure shows a light (red + blue + green) incident on a prism P. Complete the diagram by drawing the refracted and
the emergent rays.

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Section C
27. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it.
What will be the action of gas on
i. Dry litmus paper?
ii. Moist litmus paper?

Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.

28. State three reasons for the following facts:
i. Sulphur is a non-metal.
ii. Magnesium is a metal.

One of the reasons must be supported with a chemical equation.

OR

A zinc plate was kept in a glass container having copper sulphate solution. On examining it was found that the blue
colour of the solution is fading slowly. After a few days when the zinc plate was taken out of the solution, a number of
small holes were noticed in it. State the reason and give chemical equation of the reaction involved.
29. Name the following
i. The process in plants that links light energy with chemical energy.
ii. Organisms that can prepare their own food.
iii. The cell organelle where photosynthesis occurs.
iv. Cells that surround a stomatal pore.
v. Organisms that cannot prepare their own food.
vi. An enzyme secreted from gastric glands in the stomach that act on proteins.
30. A man with blood group A married a person with blood group O. Their daughter has blood group O. Is this information
enough to tell you which of the blood group trait A or O is dominant. Why or why not?
31. Distinguish between a convex lens and a concave lens.
32. Judge the equivalent resistance when the following are connected in parallel (a) 1Ω and 106 Ω (b) 1Ω and 103Ω and 106
Ω

33. Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three cells of 2 V each, a 5 Ω resistor, an 8 Ω resistor,
and a 12 Ω resistor and a plug key, all connected in series. Now, connect the ammeter to measure the current through the
resistors and a voltmeter to measure the potential difference across the 12 Ω resistors. What would be the readings in the
ammeter and the voltmeter?
Section D
34. What is the difference between the chemical composition of soaps and detergents? State in brief the action of soaps in
removing an oily spot from a shirt. Why are soaps not considered suitable for washing where water is hard?

OR

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i. What is saponification? Differentiate between soaps and detergents on the basis of the following:
1. Their chemical composition
2. Their mechanism in hard water
ii. Explain the formation of micelles between oily dirt and soap molecules. Also draw its diagram.
35. i. In the female reproductive system of human beings, state the funtions of
a. ovary
b. oviduct
ii. Mention the changes which the uterus undergoes, when
a. it has to receive a zygote.
b. no fertilization takes place.
iii. State the function of placenta.

OR

Given below is a diagram of the human endocrine system.

Using the given diagram, answer the following questions:

i. How pituitary gland regulates the growth of the body?
ii. Which hormone is responsible for the carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism in the body?
iii. Which pair of glands prepare the body to deal with emergency situations?
iv. Which gland secretes insulin and what does it do in the body?
v. What is the function of endocrine glands?
36. An object of height 4.0 cm is placed at a distance of 30 cm from optical centre O of a concave lens of focal length 20
cm. Draw a ray diagram to find the position and size of the image formed. Mark optical centre O and principal focus
F on the diagram. Also, find the approximate ratio of size of the image to the size of the object.

OR

A student has three concave mirrors A, B and C of focal lengths 20 cm, 15 cm and 10 cm, respectively. For each concave
mirror, he performs the experiment of image formation for three values of object distance of 30 cm, 10 cm and 20 cm.
Give reasons for the following:
i. For the three object distances, identify the mirror which will form an image equal in size to that of object. Find at
least one value of object distance.
ii. Out of the three mirrors, identify the mirror which would be preferred to be used for shaving purpose.
iii. For the mirror B, draw ray diagram for image formation for any two given values of object distance.
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Copper sulphate crystal contains water of crystallisation when the crystal is heated the water is removed and salt turns
white. The crystal can be moistened again with water. The water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules

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present in 1 formula unit of copper sulphate. On heating gypsum at 373K, it loses water molecules and became calcium
sulphate hemihydrate.

i. If the crystal is moistened with water, then which colour of the crystal reappears?
ii. What is the commercial name of calcium sulphate hemihydrate?
iii. How many water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate?
OR
What is obtained when gypsum is heated at 373K?
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
In animals, control and coordination are provided by nervous and muscular tissues. Touching a hot object is an urgent
and dangerous situation for us. We need to detect it and respond to it. How do we detect that we are touching a hot
object? All information from our environment is detected by the specialised tips of some nerve cells. These receptors are
usually located in our sense organs, such as the inner ear, the nose, the tongue, and so on. So gustatory receptors will
detect taste while olfactory receptors will detect the smell. This information, acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of a
nerve cell, see figure, sets off a chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse. This impulse travels from the
dendrite to the cell body, and then along the axon to its end.

i. Name the largest cell present in the body. (1)

ii. What is an axon? (1)
iii. Name one gustatory receptor and one olfactory receptor present in a human beings. (2)
OR
Name the following parts of a neuron: (2)
a. Where information is acquired.
b. Through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing board using some adhesive materials. She places a bar magnet in the
centre of it and sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the bar magnet using a salt sprinkler. On tapping the board
gently, she observes that the iron filings have arranged themselves in a particular pattern.
i. What makes iron filings arrange in a definite pattern?
ii. Draw a diagram to show this pattern of iron filings.
iii. How is the direction of magnetic field at a point determined using the field lines? Why do two magnetic field lines
not cross each other?
OR

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How are the magnetic field lines of a bar magnet drawn using a small compass needle? Draw one magnetic field line
each on both sides of the magnet.
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 8 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (c) [C] and [D]
Explanation: Zn will displace copper from copper sulphate solution. The solution will change colour from blue to
colourless.
zn + CuSO4 ⟶ ZnSO 4 + Cu

Blue Colourless

Zn will displace iron from iron sulphate and solution will change colour from green to colourless, due to formation of
zinc sulphate.
Zn + FeSO4 ⟶ ZnSO 4 + Fe

Pale green Colourless

2. (c) Lead acetate

Explanation: To get lead iodide we need a compound containing lead. Hence, Ammonium nitrate and Potassium
sulphate are ruled out. Lead sulphate is insoluble hence it cannot be used. So the answer is Lead acetate can be used in
place of Lead Nitrate.
3. (c) 0 to 14
Explanation: The pH scale measures how acidic or basic a substance is. The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14. A pH of 7 is
neutral. A pH less than 7 is acidic. A pH greater than 7 is basic.
4. (d) Vinegar
Explanation: The odour of ethanoic acid (CH3COOH) resembles vinegar. A dilute solution of ethanoic acid in water is
called vinegar. Vinegar contains about 5 to 8% ethanoic acid.
5. (a) Ductility
Explanation: Ductility
6. (b) Fe
Explanation: Sodium reacts vigorously with water. Such is the reaction that it has to be stored under kerosene. Calcium
can react with cold water. Magnesium reacts with hot water. Heated iron reacts with water when hot steam is passed over
it.
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
7. (d) 16 covalent bonds
Explanation: Following is the structural formula of pentane. It shows 16 covalent bonds:
H H H H H

| | | | |

H − C − C − C − C − C − H
| | | | |
H H H H H

8. (d) Nephron
Explanation: Nephron
9. (a) Cricket
Explanation:
The X0 sex-determination system is a system that determines the sex of offspring among grasshoppers, crickets,
cockroaches, and some other insects. In this system, there is only one sex chromosome, referred to as X. Males
only have one X chromosome (X0), while females have two (XX).
The zero (sometimes, the letter O) signifies the lack of a second X. Maternal gametes always contain an X
chromosome, so the sex of the animals' offspring depends on whether a sex chromosome is present in the male

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gamete. Its sperm normally contain either one X chromosome or no sex chromosomes at all.
10. (c) STD
Explanation: Trichomoniasis is an infectious disease which is caused by a parasite called trichomonas vaginalis.
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11. (d) Alleles
Explanation: An alternative form of a gene is known as an allele. Alleles vary in their sequence which may or may not
result in a variant phenotype of a particular trait. Alleles represent variations of a gene that is responsible for a particular
trait.
12. (a) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
Explanation: Trypsin breaks down proteins into the polypeptides and Lipase digest emulsified fat molecules into fatty
acids and glycerol.
13. (d) Only A
Explanation: The magnitude of the magnetic field produced at a given point is directly proportional to the magnitude of
the current passing through the conductor. The strength of the field at any point is inversely proportional to the distance
of the point from the wire. (B ∝ I and B ∝ ). 1

14. (b) Becomes four times

Explanation:

According to Ohm's law, the current (I) flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference
(V) applied across the ends of the conductor.
I = where R is the resistance of the conductor.
V

When the potential difference across the ends of a resistor is doubled and the resistance is halved, the current flowing
through the resistor becomes four times of the original value.

15. (b) 3Rs

Explanation: The three Rs - reduce, reuse and recycle - all help in the management of wastes. They conserve natural
resources, landfill space and energy.
16. (d) 1%
Explanation:

The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about one
percent. The green plants (producers) use this solar energy for the process of photosynthesis, convert it into food energy
and make the energy available to the rest of the ecosystem.

17. (d) A is false but R is true.

Explanation: Zn (s) + 2H
+

(aq)
→ Zn
2+

(aq)
+ H2(g)

In this reaction, zinc loses electrons and so it is a reducing agent, while H+ gains electrons and so it is an oxidising agent.
18. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Copper-T is a contraceptive method, which is inserted inside the uterus, it prevents implantation. It does
not prevent sexually transmitted disease. Thus assertion is true, but reason is false.
19. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both the statements are correct individually, but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion. As
when a fault occurs in the domestic lines there is a protective device called fuse which breaks the circuit and protects all
the equipments by melting the low melting point wire wrapped to it in order to interrupt supply.

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20. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Chlorofluorocarbon which is widely used as coolant in refrigerator reacts with ozone and destroys it.
Section B
21. i. Covalent bond is formed by equal sharing of valence electrons between two atoms, hence there is no charge
separation along the bond formed and they have weak intermolecular forces. Due to this, covalently bonded
molecules have low melting and boiling points.
ii. Unsaturated carbon compounds have double or triple bonds between carbon atoms, which are less stable than the
sigma bonds and hence more reactive than saturated compounds which have single bond.
22. Barrier method: In this method, the fertilisation of the ovum and the sperm is prevented with the help of barriers such
as a condom.
Implants and surgical methods: Contraceptive devices, such as a loop and a copper-T rod, are placed in the uterus to
prevent pregnancy. However, they can cause side effects to the uterus.
Some surgical methods such as vasectomy (blocking of the vas deferens in the male body to prevent the transfer of
sperms) and tubectomy (blocking of fallopian tubes in the female body to prevent the egg from reaching the uterus) can
also be used to block the gamete transfer.
23. Catabolism is the degradative processes of metabolism. It concerned with the breakdown of complex food molecules to
simple ones, with a concomitant release of free energy. Respiration is a catabolic process because it involves the
breakdown of complex organic substances into simpler ones by oxidation.

OR

Green plants prepare their own food. They make food in the presence of sunlight. As the process of photosynthesis
occurs only in the presence of light, it is called a light dependent process. Sunlight provides energy.
24. i. The lens formula for a concave lens is:
1 1 1
= −
f v u

Substituting the given values, we get:

1 1 1
= −
−18 v −20

Simplifying the above equation, we get:

1 1 1
= −
v −18 −20

v = -180
v = -180 cm (negative sign indicates that the image is formed behind the lens)
Therefore, the image distance is 180 cm.
The magnification is given by the formula:
−v
m =
u

Substituting the values, we get:

−(−180)
m =
(−20)

m = -9
Therefore, the magnification is -9.
ii. A concave lens always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image of a real object. On the other hand, when a
convex lens forms a virtual image, the magnification can be greater than or less than 1, depending on the position of
the object relative to the lens.
25. HFCs have replaced CFCs and HCFCs as coolants for refrigerators. HFCs pose no harm to the ozone layer. They are
potent greenhouse gases. HFCs are generated during the manufacturing of HCFCs.

OR

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The peacock will have the highest quantity of dangerous chemicals in its body since the accumulation of non-
biodegradable toxic chemicals grows at each trophic level. Biomagnification refers to the occurrence of an increase in
the concentration of hazardous substances at each trophic level. Because peacocks are at the top of the food chain, they
have the highest concentration of toxic substances in their bodies.
26. The completed ray diagram shows the dispersion of (Red + Blue + Green) light by the prism.

Section C
27. The gas is sulphur-dioxide (SO2)
i. It will not react with dry litmus paper.
ii. The gas will bleach moist litmus paper.

The balanced chemical equation is

heat
S + O2 ⟶ S O2

28. i. Sulphur is a non-metal because of the following reason:

a. It is a poor conductor of electricity.
b. Sulphur is neither malleable nor ductile.
c. Sulphur forms acidic oxide.
S + O2 ⟶ SO2
SO2 + H2O ⟶ H2SO4
ii. Magnesium is metal because of the following reason.
a. It is a good conductor of electricity.
b. Magnesium is malleable nor ductile.
c. It forms basic oxides
2Mg + O2 ⟶ 2MgO

OR

Zinc is more reactive than copper. Hence, when a zinc plate is kept in a solution of copper sulphate, it slowly displaces
copper from the solution and blue colour of the solution keeps fading away. Because of zinc going into solution as zinc
sulphate, a number of holes are seen in the zinc plate. The reaction is
C uS O4 (aq) + Zn(s) → ZnS O4 (aq) + C u(s)
Blue C olourless

29. i. Photosynthesis is a process by which green plants having chlorophyll can synthesize simple sugar (glucose) from
water and CO2 using the energy of sunlight. The light energy is used in a splitting of water molecules into hydrogen
and oxygen (i.e. chemical energy).
ii. Autotrophs: The organisms which can synthesize their own food from inorganic substances present in the
environment are called autotrophs. An autotroph or primary producer, is an organism that produces complex organic
compounds , e.g. green plants, autotrophic bacteria etc.

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iii. Chloroplast: Chlorophyll is the green pigment capable of trapping light energy required during photosynthesis. This
pigment is present in the chloroplast of leaves of all green plants.
iv. Guard cells are present in the stomata under the leaves rim. Each stomatal pore is surrounded by a pair of guard cells,
that control their opening and closing by the inflow and outflow of water.
v. Heterotrophs: The organisms which cannot make their own food from inorganic substances and depend on other
organisms for their food are called heterotrophs, e.g. all animals, yeast, most bacteria, etc.
vi. Pepsin: It is a protein-digesting enzyme secreted from gastric glands present in the walls of the stomach, an enzyme
in the stomach that begins the digestion of proteins by splitting them into peptones (see peptidase). It is produced by
the action of hydrochloric acid on pepsinogen, which is secreted by the gastric glands.
30. Blood groups being a hereditary character, the knowledge of blood groups of parents can give information about the
possible blood groups of children and vice-versa.
In this case illustration is as follow:

In the above cross 50 per cent of progeny will have A blood group and 50 per cent O blood group.
At the same time this data is insufficient. It is not mentioned father has homozygous or heterozygous A blood group. If it
is homozygous A then 100 per cent of progeny will have A blood group as Gene IA is dominant over Gene IO .

Convex Lens Concave Lens

31.

1. It is a thicker at the center than at the edges.

1. It is thinner at the center than at the edges.
2. Is has real Focus.
2. It has virtual focus.
3. It converges a parallel beam of light on reflection
3. It diverges a parallel beam of light on refraction
through it.
through it.

4.
4.

32. a. In first case : 1= 1Ω and 2 = 106Ω

6
1 1 1 1 1 10 + 1
∴ = + = + =
6 6
Rp R1 R2 1 10 10

1 1,000,000+1 1,000,001
= =
Rp 1,000,000 1,000,000

1,000,000
Rp = = 0.999999Ω
1,000,001

or Rp = 1Ω

b. In second case, R1= 1Ω , R2 = 103Ω , R3 = 106Ω

5 3
1 1 1 1 10 +10 +1
= + + =
2 6 5
Rp 1 10 10 10

1 1000000+1000+1 1001001
= =
Rp 1000000 1000000

1,000,000
Rp = = 0.999000001Ω
1,001,001

Rp = 1Ω

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33. The total resistance of the circuit is given by

R = 5 + 8 + 12 = 25Ω
We know, R =
V

Hence, 25 = 6

I= 6
= 0.24 A
25

Since, resistances are connected in series, thus electric current remains the same through all resistors.
Here we have, Electric current, I = 0.24 A
Resistance, R = 12Ω
Thus, potential difference (V) through the resistor of 12Ω is given by
V=I×R
= 0.24 × 12 = 2.88 V
∴ Reading of ammeter = 0.24 A

Reading of voltmeter through resistor of 12 Ω = 2.88 V

Section D
34. Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids having -a COONa group of long-chain carboxylic
acids. whereas detergents are sodium or potassium salts of sulphonic acids having - SO3Na and -SO4Na groups.
The cleansing action of soap: Soap molecules have two ends one is long hydrocarbon chain hydrophobic i.e, water-
repelling and the other is polar water-loving i.e, hydrophilic end.

When soap is dissolved in water, the molecules associate together as clusters called micelles in which water molecules,
being polar in nature, surround the ions and the hydrocarbon part of the molecule attracts grease, oil, and dirt.
Inside water, clusters of molecules are formed in which the hydrophobic tails are in the interior of the cluster and ionic
ends are present on the surface of the cluster. This formation is called micelle formation. To wash away the loosened dirt
particles in the form of micelles from the surface of the cloth, it is either scrubbed mechanically or agitated in the
washing machine. In the form of a micelle, soap is able to clean, since the oily dirt is being collected in the centre of the

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micelle.

OR

i. Saponification is the hydrolysis of an ester to form an alcohol and the salt of a carboxylic acid in acidic or essential
conditions.
Soap Detergent

Chemical Soaps are sodium salts of long chain detergents are sodium salts of alkyl benzene
composition fatty acids sulphonic acids.
mechanism in hard
Soaps form scum in hard water. Detergents do not form any scum.
water
ii. Soap molecule has two ends, the charged end that gets attracted towards water is called hydrophilic and the long
carbon chain that repels water is called hydrophobic end. When soap is dissolved in water, the carbon chain i.e,
hydrophobic end gets attracted towards the oil, dirt and grease. The hydrophilic end which is attracted by water
molecules points outwards thus, the micelle formation takes place.
The tail entangles dirt, oil or grease, if required the agitation is done. Lot of rinsing is done with water so that water
molecules attract charged end and carries the soap molecules with to it attached to it and clean the clothes, utensils,
etc.

35. i. a. Function of ovary are:

The female germ-cells or eggs are made in the ovaries.
It produces one egg every month.
They are also responsible for the production of some hormones.
b. Function of oviduct are:
Carries egg to the womb/ uterus through a thin oviduct or fallopian tube.
ii. Changes in the uterus are as follows:

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a. ​If the uterus receives the zygote, the female becomes pregnant. The embryonic development of the zygote starts
immediately. The embryo moves down into the uterus forming a thick and soft lining of blood vessels around
itself. This process is called implantation. After implantation, a special tissue develops between the uterine wall
and the embryo called the placenta, where the exchange of nutrients, oxygen and waste products takes place.
b. If the egg released by the ovary is not fertilized and the zygote is not formed, then the thick lining of the uterus
breaks down and comes out through the vagina in the form of blood and mucous. This is called menstruation or
menstrual cycle.
iii. In mammals, the placenta performs the following functions:
a. It helps in providing nutrition to the embryo as the nutrients like amino acids, vitamins etc, diffuse from maternal
blood into foetal blood through the placenta. It also helps in the exchange of gases and the excretion of wastes.
b. It also acts as an endocrine gland as it secretes certain hormones like estrogen, relaxin, progesterone and Human
Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG).
c. It also acts as an effective barrier for certain toxic chemicals like histamine.

OR

i. Pituitary gland secretes growth hormone that regulates the growth and development of the body.
ii. Thyroxin hormone is secreted by the thyroid gland that is responsible for the carbohydrate, protein, and fat
metabolism in the body.
iii. A pair of adrenal glands located on kidneys prepares the body to deal with stress, anxiety, and emergency situations.
iv. The pancreas secretes insulin that regulates our blood sugar levels.
v. Endocrine glands are ductless glands that secrete hormones to regulate many body functions, including growth,
development, reproduction, and metabolism.
36. Given: focal length f = +20 cm, object distance u = -30 cm, height of object ho= 4 cm.
We know that, 1

f
=
1

v
−
1

1 1 1
= −
20 v −30
1 1
=
v 60

⇒ v = 60 cm
hi
So, =
v

u
h0

hi 60
=
h0 −30

⇒ -ti = -8 cm
Thus, the height or size of the image is 8 cm. The minus sign shows that this height is in the downward direction, that is,
the image is formed below the axis.
Ratio of size of image to object = -2
So image is enlarged beyond 2F2

Object between F1 and 2F1.

Image is formed beyond 2F2, real, inverted.

OR

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i. When an object is placed at the centre of curvature of concave mirror, the image formed is equal in size to that of
object. So, for object distance 20 cm, the mirror C with focal length 10 cm is used as
u = R = 2f = 2 × 10cm = 20cm.

ii. For shaving purpose, mirror B (f = 15 cm) would be preferred (object distance is 10 cm) Also mirror A( f=20 cm)
would be used (object distance is10 cm) .
iii.
a. For u = 30 cm

b. For u = 10 cm

Section E
37. i. If the crystal is moistened with water, then the blue colour of the crystal reappears.
ii. The commercial name of calcium sulphate hemihydrate is Plaster of Paris.
iii. Five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate.
OR
CaSO4. H2O is obtained when gypsum is heated at 373K.
1

Heating gypsum at 373K results in loss of water of crystallization, forming plaster of Paris as the product.
38. i. Nerve cell is the largest cell present in the body.
ii. Axon is a large, single, unbranched nerve fibre arising from the cyton. It carries impulses from cyton located in CNS
to the effectors.
iii. Gustatory receptor: Taste buds on the tongue. The receptors for gustation are located in the oral cavity, which
brings food and fluids from outside the body into the gastrointestinal tract.
Olfactory receptor: Receptor in the nose. These receptors are common to arthropods, terrestrial vertebrates, fish,
and other animals.
OR
a. Dendrites
b. Axon.
39. i. The bar magnet kept at the centre of board has its magnetic field around it. The iron filings sprinkled on the board
experience a force on them due to the magnetic field of bar magnet. So, when the student taps the board the iron
filings align themselves according to the magnetic field lines of the bar magnet.

ii.

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iii. The direction of a magnetic field at a point is determined by placing a small compass needle. The N - pole of
compass indicates the direction of magnetic field at that point.
Two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other because if there was point of intersection, The compass needle
would point towards 2 directions.
OR

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 9 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Which type of chemical reaction is shown in the given image?

a) Redox reaction
b) Combination reaction
c) Decomposition reaction
d) Displacement reaction
2. Which metal is displaced when lead is put in the solution of copper chloride?
a) Chlorine
b) Copper
c) Lead
d) All of these
3. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to solid sodium carbonate placed in a test tube it is observed that
a) brisk effervescence takes place
b) a loud sound is produced
c) the solution turns blue
d) the solution colour is yellow
4. Plaster of Paris hardens by
a) Releasing out a molecule of water
b) Changing into CaCO3
c) Combining with water
d) Passing of CO2 gas

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5. Take three boiling tubes A, B and C. Pour some water in test tube A Put iron nails in it and cork it. Pour boiled distilled
water in another test tube B and put iron nails in it. Add 1 ml of oil over it such that oil floats over it and prevents the air
from entering. Take some iron nails in test tube C and put some anhydrous calcium chloride in it and cork it.
Leave all the three test tubes for one day and then observe.

In which test tube nail is rusted?

a) Tube B and C
b) Tube B
c) Tube A
d) Tube A and C
6. Among the following, the metal with lowest density is:
a) Lead
b) Magnesium
c) Aluminium
d) Lithium
7. An example of soap is ________.
a) C15H31COONa
b) CH3COONa
c) C6H5COONa
d) C17H35OSO3Na
8. Which of the following carries oxygenated blood only?
A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Pulmonary vein
D. Capillary
a) C and D
b) A and C
c) A and B
d) All of these
9. The part in which gustatory receptors are present in our body is:
a) skin
b) tongue
c) inner lining of nose
d) inner ear

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10. A Yeast cell in which budding occurs, it can have
a) One bud cell
b) Two bud cell
c) A chain of bud cells
d) Three bud cell
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11. Name the chromosomes that possess the gene for maleness and femaleness in humans.
a) Sex chromosomes
b) body cell chromosomes
c) Somatic ctromosomes
d) Autosomes
12. During vigorous exercise, the occurrence of cramps in the outer muscles of an athlete is due to the conversion of
pyruvate to:
a) Glucose
b) Lactose
c) Ethanol
d) Lactic acid
13. The real image formed by a concave mirror is larger than the object when the object is:
a) between focus and centre of curvature
b) at a distance less than the focal length
c) at a distance greater than radius of curvature
d) at a distance equal to radius of curvature
14. The defect caused by the weakening of ciliary muscles is:
a) Hypermetropia
b) Astigmatism
c) Myopia
d) Presbyopia
15. What percentage of sunlight is captured by plants to convert it into food energy?
a) More than 50%
b) 10%
c) 1%
d) 50%
16. Habitat is the special environment of an organism in which:
A. It lives
B. It grows
C. It breeds
D. It gets food
a) All of these
b) A and B
c) A and C
d) A, B and C
17. Assertion (A): The colour of aqueous solution of copper sulphate turns colourless when a piece of lead is added to it.
Reason (R): Lead is more reactive than copper, and hence displaces copper from its salt solution.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

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b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
18. Assertion (A): Double fertilisation is unique to angiosperms.
Reason (R): Triple fusion occurs in both fertilization.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): A small coil carrying current, in equilibrium, is perpendicular to the direction of the uniform magnetic
field.
Reason (R): Torque is maximum when plane of coil and direction of the magnetic field are parallel to each other.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): Supersonic jets cause pollution as they thin out ozone.
Reason (R): Depletion of ozone cause a greenhouse effect.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. State the pH of distilled water and rain water. Justify your answer with proper reasoning.
22. Explain various steps of budding in Hydra.
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23. How are the lungs (alveoli) designed in human being to maximise the area for exchange of gases?

OR

Mention the role of pancreatic enzyme.

24. What is Tyndall effect? Give two examples where this phenomenon is observed. Give reason to explain this
phenomenon.
25. Compare the permanent magnet and an electromagnet.

OR

What is an electric fuse? What is its role in electric circuits? Should it be placed on neutral wire or on live wire? Justify
your answer.
26. Write any three activities which are eco-friendly.
Section C
27. There are 3 unknown metals - A, B and C. C displaces B from its oxide while with oxide of A, there is no reaction. Give
the reactivity order of A, B and C.
28. What would happen to copper vessel if it is left for a few days in humid atmosphere without being cleaned?

OR

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Hydrogen is not a metal but it has been assigned a place in the reactivity series of metals. Explain.
29. Can you, design any other experiment set-up for testing that CO2 is produced during respiration?
30. Explain Mendel's observation when he crossed a homozygous tall (TT) plant with homozygous dwarf (tt) plant followed
by self-cross.
31. a. Define focal length of a divergent lens.
b. A divergent lens of focal length 30 cm forms the image of an object of size 6 cm on the same side as the object at a
distance of 15 cm from its optical centre. Use lens formula to determine the distance of the object from the lens and
the size of the image formed.
c. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.
32. a. Two electric lamps rated 100 W,220 V and 60 W,220 V are connected in parallel to electric mains supply. Calculate
the current drawn from the mains if the supply voltage is 220 V?
b. A lamp consumes 50 W and is lighted 2 h daily in month of April. How many units of electric energy is consumed ?
33. Given in fig. is the circuit diagram in which three resistors of 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω are connected to cell of e.m.f. 2V and
internal resistance 0.5 Ω.
i. Calculate the total resistance of the circuit.
ii. What is the reading of ammeter and What will be ammeter reading if an exactly similar cell is connected in series

with the given cell ?

Section D
34. a. Name the gas evolved during fermentation process.
b. What role is played by yeast in the conversion of cane sugar (C12H22O11) to ethanol?
c. How can the following be obtained from pure ethanol? Express chemical reactions by the chemical equations.
i. Sodium ethoxide
ii. Ethyl ethanoate
iii. Ethanal

OR

i. Butane had both Carbon - Carbon bonds as well as Carbon Hydrogen bonds. Draw its structural formula and state the
number of (1) C - H bonds and (2) C - C bonds in it.
ii. You have two carbon compounds with the molecular formula C3H6O. Name two compounds with this formula and
also draw their structural formula.
35. The diagram shows ovulation and menstrual cycle in females.

Using the above diagram, answer the following questions:

i. At what age the sex hormones are released into a female body?
ii. How the uterus prepares every month to receive a fertilized egg?
iii. What happens if the egg is not fertilized?

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iv. How ovulation takes place?
v. When does menstruation occur after ovulation?

OR

i. Name the disorder which a person is likely to suffer from due to the following:
I. Over-secretion of growth hormone
II. Deficiency of oestrogen in females
III. Less secretion of thyroxine
Also name the gland that secretes each of the hormones mentioned above.
ii. How is the timing and amount of hormone released regulated? Explain with the help of an example.
36. A student wants to project the image of a candle flame on the walls of the school laboratory by using a mirror.
i. Which type of mirror should he use and why?
ii. At what distance, in terms of focal length f of the mirror, should he place the candle flame to get the magnified image
on the wall?
iii. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in this case.
iv. Can he use this mirror to project a diminished image of the candle flame on the same wall State 'how' , if your answer
is 'yes' and why not', if your answer is 'no'.

OR

i. Define focal length of a spherical lens.

ii. A divergent lens has a focal length of 30 cm. At what distance should an object of height 5 cm from the optical centre
of the lens be placed, so that its image is formed 15 cm away the lens? Find the size of the image also.
iii. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of image in the above situation.
Section E
37. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The melting points and boiling points of some ionic compounds are given below:
Compound Melting Point (K) Boiling Point (K)

NaCl 1074 1686

LiCl 887 1600
CaCl2 1045 1900

CaO 2850 3120

MgCl2 981 1685

These compounds are termed ionic because they are formed by the transfer of electrons from a metal to a non-metal. The
electron transfer in such compounds is controlled by the electronic configuration of the elements involved. Every
element tends to attain a completely filled valence shell of its nearest noble gas or a stable octet.
i. Show the electron transfer in the formation of magnesium chloride. (1)
ii. What happens at the cathode when electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride? (1)
iii. While forming an ionic compound say sodium chloride how does sodium atom attain its stable configuration? (2)
OR
Why do ionic compounds in the solid state not conduct electricity? (2)
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Mendel blended his knowledge of Science and mathematics to keep the count of the individuals exhibiting a particular

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trait in each generation. He observed a number of contrasting visible characters controlled in pea plants in a field. He
conducted many experiments to arrive at the laws of inheritance.
i. What do the F1 progeny of tall plants with round seeds and short plants with wrinkled seeds look like? (1)
ii. Name the recessive traits in above case. (1)
iii. Mention the type of the new combinations of plants obtained in F2 progeny along with their ratio, if F1 progeny was
allowed to self pollinate. (2)
OR
If 1600 plants were obtained in F2 progeny, write the number of plants having traits:
Tall with round seed
Short with wrinkled seeds
Write the conclusion of the above experiment. (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The rate of flow of charge is called electric current. The SI unit of electric current is Ampere (A). The direction of flow
of current is always opposite to the direction of flow of electrons in the current.

The electric potential is defined as the amount of work done in bringing a unit-positive test charge from infinity to a
point in the electric field. The amount of work done in bringing a unit positive test charge from one point to another
point in an electric field is defined as potential difference.
WBA
VAB = VB − VA =
q

The SI unit of potential and potential difference is volt.

i. Write the formula of voltage in terms of work done, current, time and charge.
ii. What is the number of electrons flowing per second in a conductor if 1 A current is passing through it?
iii. What would be the potential difference between the two terminals of a battery, if 100 joules of work is required to
transfer 20 coulombs of charge from one terminal of the battery to other?
OR
The 2 C of charge is flowing through a conductor in 100 ms, then what would be the current in the circuit?
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 9 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (a) Redox reaction
Explanation: The chemical reaction in which the oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously is called a redox
reaction.

2. (b) Copper
Explanation: Copper
3. (a) brisk effervescence takes place
Explanation: Sodium carbonate on reaction with dilute HCl forms sodium chloride, water, and carbon dioxide. This
reaction is an example of a neutralization reaction, as sodium carbonate is a basic salt, while hydrochloric acid is an acid.
Following is the chemical equation for the reaction:
Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2
Brisk effervescence takes place due to the evolution of CO2 (g).
4. (c) Combining with water
Explanation: When water is added to the Plaster of Paris, it sets into a hard mass due to its hydration to form crystals of
gypsum.
CaSO4. 1

4
H2O + 1 H2O → CaSO4.2H2O
1

5. (c) Tube A
Explanation: Iron nails get rusted in test tube A because both air and water are present in it. Iron nails do not get rusted
in B because there is water but no air. In C, rusting will not take place because there is neither air nor water.
6. (d) Lithium
Explanation: Lithium has lowest density.
7. (a) C15H31COONa
Explanation: Palmitic acid or hexadecanoic acid [C15H31COONa] is an example of a soap. Soaps are sodium or
potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids.
C17H35OSO3Na is a detergent. Detergents are sodium salts of a long chain of sulphonic acids.
8. (b) A and C
Explanation:
The aorta is an artery that conveys oxygenated blood from the heart to other parts of the body.
While veins usually carry deoxygenated blood from tissues back to the heart, in this case, pulmonary veins are
among the few veins that carry oxygenated blood instead. Oxygenated blood from the lungs is circulated back to
the heart through the pulmonary veins that drain into the left atrium.
9. (b) tongue
Explanation: Gustatory receptor present in tongue.
10. (c) A chain of bud cells
Explanation: Yeast is an example of a unicellular organism which reproduces by budding. In yeast cell, the budding
process continuous three-four times resulting in a chain of the yeast cell.

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11. (a) Sex chromosomes
Explanation: Sex chromosomes possess the gene for maleness and femaleness in humans.
In humans, the sex chromosomes comprise one pair of a total of 23 pairs of chromosomes. The other 22 pairs of
chromosomes are called autosomes.
Individuals having two X chromosomes (XX) are females; individuals having one X chromosome and one Y
chromosome (XY) are males.
12. (d) Lactic acid
Explanation: During vigorous exercise, the occurrence of cramps in the outer muscles of an athlete is due to the
conversion of pyruvate to Lactic acid
13. (a) between focus and centre of curvature
Explanation: between focus and centre of curvature
14. (d) Presbyopia
Explanation: Presbyopia
15. (c) 1%
Explanation: 1%
16. (a) All of these
Explanation: A habitat is an ecological or environmental area that is inhabited by a particular species of organism. The
term refers to the special environment in which an organism lives and breeds and where it can find food, shelter,
and protection.
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18. (c) A is true but R is false.
Explanation: Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of flowering plants. In this process, out of the two sperm
nuclei, one sperm nucleus fuses with the egg nucleus to form an embryo (the process is called syngamy), and another
fuse with the secondary nucleus to form endosperm (the process is called triple fusion). Because two kinds of fusion-
syngamy and triple fusion take place, the process is known as double fertilization.
19. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The torque acting on a coil is given by,
τ = NIA Basinθ

where θ is the angle between the plane of the coil and the direction of magnetic field. When θ = 90o, then τ = 0. The coil
tries to orient itself in this position. Thus in equilibrium, the coil acquires a position, such that its plane makes an angle
90o with the direction of magnetic field.
20. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. pH of distilled water is 7 as there are no dissolved minerals found in distilled water.
pH of rainwater is slightly less than 7 because rainwater is slightly acidic due to the presence of dissolved CO2 and SO2
molecules in the atmosphere.
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22. Budding: It is a common method of reproduction in Sponges and Hydra. In this process, the new individual develops
from a small outgrowth on the surface of parent. The exogenous bud gets its nourishment from the parent till it gets the

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maturity. Then it breaks off from the parent body and develops into new individual. Sometimes, the buds do not separate
off and form a chain of buds.

23. In lungs, balloon-like structures called alveoli are present that provide maximum surface area and the alveoli also contain
extensive network of blood vessels to facilitate the exchange of gases oxygen and carbon dioxide by simple diffusion.

OR

Pancreatic enzymes help break down fats, proteins and carbohydrates. A normally functioning pancreas secretes about 8
cups of pancreatic juice into the duodenum, daily. This fluid contains pancreatic enzymes to help with digestion and
bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid as it enters the small intestine. Pancreatic enzyme trypsin helps in digesting
protein and the pancreatic amylase helps in the breakdown of starch.
24. The Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by tiny particles suspended in a medium. This means that when a beam of
light passes through a solution or gas containing small particles, the path of the light becomes visible due to the
scattering caused by these particles.
Here are two examples where the Tyndall effect is observed:
i. Sunlight in a dusty room:
ii. Smoke in a spotlight:
The reason for the Tyndall effect lies in the interaction between light and the suspended particles. As light waves
encounter the particles, they induce vibrations in them. These vibrations act as new sources of light, radiating the
energy in all directions. This scattered light is what makes the path of the original beam visible.
25. Permanent Magnet Electromagnet
(i) Very strong electromagnets cannot be
produced. (i) Very strong electromagnets can be produced.

(ii) Its strength is fixed. (ii) Strength can be changed by changing the current through coil.

(iii) Polarities are fixed. (iii) Polarities can be reversed by changing the direction of the current.

(iv) Cannot be immediately

(iv) Can be demagnetized immediately by stopping the current in the coil.
demagnetized.
(v)Example of permanent magnet is a (v) Example of a temporary magnet is solenoid wounded across a nail and
Bar Magnet connected to a battery.

OR

An electrical fuse is a simple device used to interrupt an electrical circuit during overcurrent condition due to short
circuit and/or overload. An electrical fuse operates on the principle of heating effect of electric current.
The fuse should be placed on the live wire because the live wire has a higher voltage. If the live wire is damaged inside
the appliance and a large current is created, then the fuse needs to be in this part of the circuit so that it can not blow. If
the fuse was on the neutral wire and a fault occurred on the line, then the fuse would not be in the circuit to blow off.

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26. Some of the Eco-friendly practices are:
(a) Making the compost of biodegradable wastes by allowing their decomposition under soil.
(b) Use of cloth bags instead of polythene bags.
(c) Using CNG in vehicles instead of petrol or diesel.
Section C
27. C displaces B from its oxide, therefore, C is more reactive than B.
There is no reaction when C is treated with oxide of A or C does not displace A from its oxide. So, A is more reactive
than C. Thus, the reactivity order is B< C< A.
28. Copper is not affected by dry air at ordinary temperature. On exposure to moist air, it gets covered with a beautiful green
coating of either basic carbonate or basic sulphate.
2Cu + H2O + CO2 + O2 → [Link](OH)2
8Cu + 6H2+2SO2 + 5O2→ 2[CuSO4.3Cu(OH)2]
Copper present in bronze or in utensils is corroded by moist air containing acidic oxides like carbon dioxide, sulphur
dioxide etc. The greenish layer formed is of basic copper carbonate or basic copper sulphate. This phenomenon is called
‘corrosion of metals’.

OR

Hydrogen has a tendency to lose an electron and forms a positive ion H+ like metals although hydrogen is not a metal yet
it has been assigned a place in the reactivity series of metals. The metals which lose electrons less readily than hydrogen
are placed below it and the metals which lose electrons more readily than hydrogen are placed above it in the reactivity
series of metals.
29. Yes, an experiment set-up by using two-head bottle, water reservior, germinating seed, lime water, beaker and delivery
tube.
30. When Mendel crossed a homozygous tall (TT) plant with homozygous dwarf (tt) plant, all plants in F1 generation were
tall (Tt).
Self crossing of F1 gives F2. F2 generation had 3 tall : 1 recessive plants.
Since presence of dwarf allele was masked by tall allele in F1, tall allele (T) was dominant over dwarf allele (t).

31. a. The point from which parallel rays of light, after refraction from a lens, appear to diverge is called focus of divergent
lens, and the distance between optical centre and this focus of a divergent lens is called focal length of divergent lens.
b. Focal length of divergent lens, f = - 30 cm
Image distance, v = -15 cm
Object height, h1 = 6cm
We know that, 1

f
=
1

v
−
1

or
1 1 1
= −
u v f

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vf −15×−30
⇒ u = =
f−v −30+15

=
450

−15
= -30cm
h2
Now, m =
v
=
h1 u

v −15
⇒ h2 = × h1 = × 6 = 3 cm
u −30

c.

32. (a) We know that

2

P= V

R
2

Therefore, R =
V

Resistance of 1st lamp,

2

R1 = V

P
=
220×220

100

=484Ω
Resistance of 2nd lamp,
R2 = 220×220

60

= 2420

3
Ω

Since, two lamps are connected in parallel, so its equivalent resistance is given by
1 1 1 1 3 8
= = + =
R R1 + R2 484 2420 2420

R= 2420
Ω
8

By Ohm's Law,current drawn from the mains:

I=
V 220×8
=
R 2420

= 0.73 A
∴ The current drawn from the mains is 0.73 A
(b) Energy consumed = W att × hour 50 × (2×30) 3000
= = = 3 unit or 3 kW h
1000 1000 1000

33. ResisOKtance, 1Ω and 2Ω are in series and combined resistance i.e. 1 + 2 = 3Ω in parallel with 3Ω.
Hence total resistance of the combination is 1
=
1

3
+
1

3
=
2

3
or R =
3

2
= 1.5Ω
R

i. Total resistance of the circuit = R + r = 1.5 + 0.5 = 2Ω

ii. Total current through ammeter =
E 2
= = 1A
R + r 2

iii. In second case total e.m.f.= 2 + 2 = 4V

Total resistance = 1.5 + 0.5 + 0.5 = 2.5Ω

Current through circuit in second case =
4 40 8
= = = 1.6 A
2.5 25 5

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Section D
34. a. The gas that is evolved is evolved during the fermentation process is carbon dioxide (CO2). It is accompanied by
brisk effervescence.
b. Yeast is the source of enzymes - invertase and zymase. These enzymes are needed for fermentation of cane sugar
(C12H22O11) to ethanol.
Invertase helps in breaking sucrose (a naturally occurring carbohydrate present in cane sugar) into its components -
glucose and fructose.
invertase

C12 H22 O11 + H2 O −−−−−→ C6 H12 O6 [glucose] + C6 H12 O6 [fructose]

Zymase converts glucose into alcohol and carbon dioxide.

zymase

C6 H12 O6 −−−−→ 2C2 H5 OH + 2C O2 ↑

c. The required chemical reactions for pure ethanol are as follows:-

i. Sodium ethoxide (C 2
H5 ON a ) can be obtained from pure ethanol when it is made to react with sodium. Sodium
displaces hydrogen from ethanol.
2C2 H5 OH + 2N a → 2C2 H5 ON a + H2 ↑

ii. Ethyl ethanoate can be obtained from pure ethanol by warming ethanol with ethanoic acid in the presence of
conc. sulphuric acid. This is esterification reaction.
H2 SO4

C2H5OH + CH3COOH −−−−→ C H 3

C OOC2 H5 + H2O
EthylEthonoate

iii. Ethanal can be obtained by performing the partial oxidation of pure ethanol in the absence of water. A chromium
based reagent such as chromium trioxide can be used.
C rO3

C2H5OH + 1

2
O2 −−−−−−→ CH3CHO + H2O
C h3 C OOH

OR

H H H H

| | | |

i. H − C − C − C − C − H ​
| | | |

H H H H

Number of C-H bond in butane is 10 and number of C-C bond is 3.

ii. For Molecular formula, C3H​6O, most common organic compounds are, Acetone (IUPAC : propanone, CH3COCH3)

and propanal (CH3CH2CHO). Therefore these two compounds are the isomers for the molecular formula C3H6O.

35. i. When a girl reaches puberty at the age of 10-12 years, the sex hormones are released in her blood that causes some of
the ova in the ovaries to become mature.
ii. Before ovulation, the inner lining of the uterus becomes thick and spongy, and full of blood capillaries, and prepares
itself to receive the fertilized egg.
iii. If the ovum does not get fertilized, then the thick and soft inner lining of the uterus is no longer needed and hence it
breaks and the dead ovum comes out from the vagina in the form of bleeding called menstruation.
iv. Usually, one mature egg is released from the ovary into the oviduct once every 28 days. This is called ovulation.
v. Menstruation usually occurs 14 days after ovulation and usually lasts for 3 to 5 days.

OR

i. I. Over-secretion of growth hormone - gigantism and growth hormones is secreted by anterior pituitary gland.

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II. Deficiency of estrogen in females caused female hypogonadism. It is secreted from ovaries.
III. Less secretion of thyroxine caused hypothyroidism. It is secreted thyroid gland.
ii. In humans, the timing and amount of hormone secretion are regulated by the feedback mechanism by the end
product. For example, the pancreas is triggered to release the insulin when the positive feedback is given by the
increase of sugar level in blood.
36. i. The student should use a Concave mirror because a concave mirror produces real images.
ii. To get magnified image, the student should put the candle flame between f and 2f.
iii. The ray diagram will be as follows:

iv. Yes, concave mirror can be used to obtain a diminished image. When the object is placed beyond 2f, then the image
formed will be diminished one.

OR

i. The distance between the focus and optical centre of lens is called focal length of lens.
ii. Given
f =-30 cm, v= -15 cm, u=?, h0 =5cm
1 1 1 1 1 1
= − ⇒ − = − − ( ) ⇒ u = −30 cm
f v u 30 15 u

hi
m=
v
∴ =
u
h0
15 hi 5
⇒ = ⇒ hi = ⇒ hi = 2.5cm
30 5 2

iii.

Section E
37. i. Transfer of electrons during the creation of magnesium chloride.

ii. When electricity is passed through a solution of sodium chloride in water, hydrogen gas is released twice as much as
oxygen gas is released at the anode.
iii. Sodium atom has one electron in its outermost shell. If it loses the electron from its M shell then its L shell now
becomes the outermost shell and that has a stable octet. The nucleus of this atom still has 11 protons but the number
of electrons has become 10, so there is a net positive charge giving us a sodium cation Na+. On the other hand
chlorine has seven electrons in its outermost shell and it requires one more electron to complete its octet. If sodium
and chlorine were to react, the electron lost by sodium could be taken up by chlorine. After gaining an electron, the

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chlorine atom gets a unit negative charge, because its nucleus has 17 protons and there are 18 electrons in its K, L
and M shells. This gives us a chloride anion Cl-.
+ −
Na ⟶ Na + e
2,8,1 2,8

(Sodium catton)

− −
Cl + e → Cl
2,8,7 2,8,8

(chloride anion)

OR
The conduction of electricity through a solution involves the movement of charged particles. A solution of an ionic
compound in water contains ions, which move to the opposite electrodes when electricity is passed through the
solution. Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity because movement of ions in the solid is not
possible due to their rigid structure. But ionic compounds conduct electricity in the molten state. This is possible in
the molten state since the elecrostatic forces of attraction between the oppositely charged ions are overcome due to
the heat. Thus, the ions move freely and conduct electricity.
38. i. They will be Tall with round seeds (TtRr) because tall and round seeds are dominant genes.
ii. Short plant and wrinkled seeds are recessive traits.
iii. The different types of progeny obtained with the ratio is as follows:
9 round and yellow : 3 wrinkled and yellow : 3 round and green : 1 wrinkled and green.

OR
1600 plants will be obtained as 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
So,
1600
= 100
16

9 = 9 × 100 = 900 = Tall with round seeds.

3 = 3 × 100 = 300 = Tall with wrinkled seeds.
3 = 3 × 100 = 300 = short with round seeds.
1 = 1 × 100 = 100 = short with wrinkled seeds.
We can conclude that F1 progeny has same type of plants, whereas F2 has 3 different types of plants.
39. i. V
W W
= =
q It

ii. I = 1 A, t = 1 s
q = It = 1 × 1 = 1C
q 1 18
n = = = 6.25 × 10
e −19
1.6×10

iii. The potential difference is the work done in moving a unit of positive electric charge from one point to another.
W = 100 J, q = 20 C
W 100
V = = = 5 V
q 20

OR
q = 2 C, t = 100 ms = 0.1 s
q
= 20 A
2
I = =
t 0.1

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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 10 (2024-25)

Maximum Marks: 80
Time Allowed: : 3 hours

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to attempt
only one of these questions.
iii. Section A consists of 20 objective-type questions carrying 1 mark each.
iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of
30 to 50 words.
v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 50 to 80 words.
vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.
vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. The chips packet is flushed with a gas X to prevent rancidity. Identify X.

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Water vapour
2. The emission of brown fumes in the given experimental set-up is due to

a) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide.

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b) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of lead oxide.
c) oxidation of lead nitrate forming lead oxide and oxygen.
d) oxidation of lead nitrate forming lead oxide and nitrogen dioxide.
3. HNO3 is a strong acid because:
a) It does dissociate into ions at all
b) It doesn’t dissociate into ions at all
c) It dissociates partially in aqueous solution
d) It dissociates completely in aqueous solution
4. Four solutions P, Q, R and S have PH 2, 7, 9 and 13, respectively. Which of the solution will turn phenolphthalein pink?
a) R and S
b) S only
c) Q and S
d) P only
5. The following diagram shows the electrolytic refining of copper:

Which of the following statements is incorrect description of the process?

a) Insoluble impurities settle down at the bottom of the anode.
b) The impure metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte.
c) On passing the current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte.
d) The pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode.
6. 2 mL each of concentrated HCl, HNO3, and a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO3 in the ratio of 3:1
were taken in test tubes labelled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in
test tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test tube C respectively. The metal could be
a) Cu and Au
b) Pt and Cu
c) Al and Au
d) Au and Pt
7. The formulae of two organic acids X and Y are C10H21COOH and C19H39COOH. Which of them exists in the liquid
state at room temperature?
a) Neither X and Y
b) Both X and Y
c) Y
d) X
8. The given graph shows changes in the air pressure of lungs during breathing. What causes the change in air pressure
during period X?

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a) Movement of ribs downward and inward
b) Contraction of the diaphragm muscles
c) Relaxation of the external intercostal muscles
d) Decrease in the volume of the lungs
9. In humans, the life processes are controlled and regulated by
a) endocrine and digestive systems
b) respiratory and nervous systems
c) reproductive and endocrine systems
d) nervous and endocrine systems
10. The given figure shows monthly changes in the human ovary during the reproductive cycle.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the labelled structures?

i. Before puberty, only structure T undergoes meiosis.
ii. The hormone produced by structure R stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete luteinising hormone.
iii. The hormone produced by structure S is responsible for the development of female secondary sex characters.
iv. The hormone produced by P and Q stimulates the proliferation of the endometrial lining of the uterine wall.
a) Statement (iv) is correct.
b) Statement (iii) is correct.
c) Statement (ii) is correct.
d) Statement (i) is correct.
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11. In which of the following organisms sex determination occurs under the effect of environmental factors?
a) Ailuropoda
b) Chrysemys picta
c) Drosophila melanogaster
d) Pavo cristatus
12. Amoeba captures food with the help of:
a) tentacles
b) pseudopodia
c) cilia
d) teeth
13. How does the frequency of a beam of ultra-violet light change when it goes from air into glass?
a) Frequency rises
b) Frequency decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Frequency increases
14. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is incident on the prism
as shown in Figure(options). In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third colour from the top corresponds
to the colour of the sky?

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a)

b)

c)

d)

15. The formula of Ozone is _______

a) O3
b) O2
c) O6
d) O4
16. The relationship between biotic and abiotic environment is called:
a) Ecosystem
b) Atmosphere
c) Community
d) Biosphere
17. Assertion (A): Quicklime reacts vigorously with water releasing a large amount of heat.
Reason (R): The above chemical reaction is an exothermic reaction.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

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18. Assertion (A): Individuals produced by asexual reproduction are known as clones.
Reason (R): They are known as clones because they are genetically identical.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
19. Assertion (A): The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current-carrying circular coil increases on
increasing the radius of the circular coil.
Reason (R): Magnetic field strength is inversely proportional to the radius of the circular coil.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
20. Assertion (A): Biotic components of ecosystem continuously require energy to carry on life processes.
Reason (R): Abiotic components are the non-living factors of the ecosystem.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
21. How is common salt obtained from sea water?
22. Distinguish between a gamete and zygote?
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23. What are the waste materials eliminated by our body? How are they generated?

OR

How the skin helps in excretion?

24. What are the uses of concave mirrors?
25. State the factors on which strength of magnetic field at a point due to a current carrying conductor depends?

OR

An electrical bulb is rated 40 W, 220 V. How many bulbs can be connected in parallel with each other across the two
wires of 220 V line, if the maximum allowable current is 6 A?
26. Rearrange the following according to their ascending trophic levels in a food chain.
Hawk, grass, snake, frog, grasshopper.

Section C
27. In a chemistry laboratory, students were instructed to set up three experiments, details of which are given below:
Experiment
Set up details
No.

1. 2 iron nails in a cork capped test tube + Tap water immersing the nails +

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2. 2 iron nails in a cork capped test tube + Boiled water immersing the nails + Oil on top of water layer.

2 iron nails In a cork capped test tube + Cotton wool on top of the iron nails + Granules of calcium
3.
chloride on cotton wool.

Indicate the changes observed in the nails kept in all the three setups, with reasons.
28. Two ores A and B were taken. On heating, ore A gives CO2, whereas, ore B gives SO2. What steps will you take to
convert them into metals?

OR

a. Name two metals which are obtained from their ores by simple heating.
b. Differentiate between calcination and roasting, taking examples of zinc ores.
c. What is thermit reaction? State its significance.
29. a. Name the process and explain the type of nutrition found in green plants. List the raw materials required for the
process. Give chemical equation for the mentioned process.
b. Write the three observation that occur during this process.
30. i. Who provided the evidence of DNA as genetic material?
ii. Why DNA is called polynucleotide?
iii. List three important features of double helical model of DNA.
31. An object is kept at a distance of 18 cm, 20 cm and 30 cm, from a lens of power+5D. (i) In which case or cases would
you get a magnified image? (ii) Which of the magnified image can we get on a screen? (b) List two widely used
applications of a convex lens.
32. Calculate the total cost of running the following electrical devices in the month of September, if the rate of 1 unit of
electricity is Rs. 6.00.
i. Electric heater of 1000 W for 5 hours daily.
ii. Electric refrigerator of 400 W for 10 hours daily.
33. i. An electric lamp of 100 ohms, a toaster of resistance 50 ohms and a water filter of resistance 500 ohms are connected
in parallel to a 220V source. what is the resistance of the electric iron connected to the same source that takes as
much current as all the three appliances and what is the current through it?
ii. Which uses more energy, a 250 W TV set for 1 hour or a 1,200 W toaster for 10 minutes?
Section D
34. a. Draw electron dot structure of methane molecule.
b. Identify the functional groups present in the following compounds:
i. C2H6O
ii. C2H4O
c. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Why do you think a mixture of ethyne and air is not used for
welding?

OR

i. What is a homologous series of carbon compounds? Write general formula for alkynes. Name and draw the electron
dot structure of first homologue of this series.
ii. State the meaning of the functional group in an organic compound. Write the formula of the functional group present
in alcohols and carboxylic acids.
35. a. Mention the role of the following organs of human male reproductive system:
i. Testis
ii. Scrotum

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iii. Vas-deferens
iv. Seminal vesicle
b. What is Placenta? State its function in a human female.

OR

Following are the two examples of plant movement. One is drooping of leaves in touch-me-not plant and second is
attaching of pea plant to a support with the help of tendrils.
i. What is the stimulus which is common for movement in both the cases?
ii. What is the difference in movement in both the plants? Explain.
iii. Give appropriate scientific terms for the movements described in both cases.
36. It is desired to obtain an erect image of an object, using concave mirror of focal length of 12 cm.
i. What should be the range of distance of an object placed in front of the mirror?
ii. Will the image be smaller or larger than the object? Draw ray diagram to show the formation of image in this case.
iii. Where will the image of this object be, if it is placed 24 cm in front of the mirror? Draw ray diagram for this situation
also to justify your answer. Show the positions of pole, principal focus and the centre of curvature in the above ray
diagrams.

OR

i. A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm can produce a magnified real as well as virtual image of an object placed in
front of it. Draw ray diagrams to justify this statement.
ii. An object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex mirror of focal length 10 cm. The distance of the
object from the pole of the mirror is 10 cm. Find the position of the image formed.
Section E
37. Read the following:
H H H H H H

| | | | | |

H − C ≡ C − C − H, H − C − Br, H − C − C − OH, H − C − C − H, H − C ≡ C − H ,
| | | | | |

H H H H H H
(P) (Q) (T)
(R) (S)

i. Which of the compounds P, Q, R, S, T, U belong to same homologous series? (1)

ii. Write the name of compound R. Also write the functional group present in it. (1)
iii. What is the IUPAC name of compound T and U (2)
OR
What are unsaturated hydrocarbons? Which of the compounds P, Q, R, S, T , U are example of unsaturated
hydrocarbons? (2)
38. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
A purebred pea plant with smooth seeds (dominated characteristic) was crossed with a purebred pea plant with wrinkled
seeds (recessive characteristic). The F1 generation was self-pollinated to give rise to the F2 generation.
i. What will be the genotypic ratio of the given F2 generation? (1)
ii. What is the expected observation of the F2 generation of plants? (1)
iii. If a genotype consists of different types of alleles, what is it called? (2)
OR
What is the alternative form of the gene? (2)
39. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow:
We know that a battery or a cell is a source of electrical energy. The chemical reaction within the cell generates the
potential difference between its two terminals that sets the electrons in motion to flow the current through a resistor or a

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system of resistors connected to the battery. To maintain the current, the source has to keep expanding its energy. Where
does this energy go? A part of the source energy in maintaining the current may be consumed for useful work (like in
rotating the blades of an electric fan). The rest of the source energy may be expended in heat to raise the temperature of
the gadget. We often observe this in our everyday life. For example, an electric fan becomes warm if used continuously
for a long time, etc. On the other hand, if the electric circuit is purely resistive, that is, a configuration of resistors only
connected to a battery; the source energy continually gets dissipated entirely in the form of heat. This is known as the
heating effect of electric current. This effect is utilized in devices such as an electric heater, electric iron, etc.

i. Explain Joule's heating law. (1)

ii. In practical situations, when an electric appliance is connected to a known voltage source, then how does the heating
effect of electric current can be calculated? (1)
iii. Write the relation between heat energy produced in a conductor when a potential difference V is applied across its
terminals and a current I flows through for t. (2)
OR
Two identical wires one of nichrome and the other of copper are connected in series and a current (I) is passed
through them. State the change observed in the temperatures of the two wires. (2)
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Class 10 - Science
Sample Paper - 10 (2024-25)

Solution

Section A
1. (c) Nitrogen
Explanation: Rancidity can be prevented by packaging fat and oil-containing foods in nitrogen gas as it is unreactive.
Hence, the chips packets are flushed with nitrogen gas to prevent aerial oxidation of fats and oil containing chips.
2. (a) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide.
Explanation: thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide.
3. (d) It dissociates completely in aqueous solution
Explanation: Nitric acid is a mineral acid. It is a strong acid because it dissociates completely in aqueous solution to
form hydronium ions.
4. (a) R and S
Explanation: Phenolphthalein turns pink from colourless in presence of a base. A base has a pH range between 7 and
14. Neutral substances have pH 7. Here, solutions R and S have pH more than 7.
5. (c) On passing the current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte.
Explanation: When current is passed through the electrolyte, the impure metal from the anode is dissolved in the
electrolyte and an equal amount of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode.
6. (d) Au and Pt
Explanation: Test tube C posses a chemical mixture called aqua-regia. It is a mixture of concentrated HCl and
concentrated HNO3 in the ratio of 3 : 1. Aqua-regia dissolves gold and platinum in it while hydrochloric acid and nitric
acid do not.
7. (d) X
Explanation: C10H21COOH: Hendecanoic acid (also known as undecanoic acid, undecylenic acid, and undecylic acid)

is a naturally occurring carboxylic acid. It has a melting point in the range of 28 - 31o C. It is a low melting solid.
C19H39COOH: Arachidic acid or eicosanoic acid is a white crystalline solid at room temperature (25 oC). It has a

melting point in the range 74 - 76oC.

8. (b) Contraction of the diaphragm muscles
Explanation: Contraction of the diaphragm muscles make it flat and contraction of the external intercostal muscles
causes upward and outward movement of ribcage, thus increasing the volume of lungs. As the volume increases, the
pressure inside the lungs decreases (as shown by the part ‘X' of the graph). This will cause the air from outside to rush
inside the lungs, causing inspiration.
9. (d) nervous and endocrine systems
Explanation: Reproductive, respiratory, and digestive systems have no role to play in control and regulation of life
processes. It is the nervous system and the endocrine system that controls and regulates all the processes including
reproductive, respiratory, and digestive systems.
10. (a) Statement (iv) is correct.
Explanation: In the given figure of human ovary, P is primary follicles, Q is mature Graafian follicle, R is corpus
luteum, S is corpus albicans and T is secondary oocyte.
Secondary oocyte (7) is formed only after puberty in a monthly cycle (one in each cycle). The corpus luteum (R) is
developed under the effect of luteinising hormone from pituitary. The hormone progesterone secreted by it, maintains the
uterine endothelium and stimulates secretion of watery mucus from uterine glands. Corpus albicans (S) secretes no

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hormone. P (primary follicle) and Q (Graafian follicle) secrete estrogen which stimulates the proliferation of endometrial
lining of the uterine wall.
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11. (b) Chrysemys picta
Explanation: In Chrysemys picta, a species of turtle, high incubation temperature above 33oC results in development of
female progeny while a temperature below 28oC produces only males. It is an example of sex determination under the
effect of environmental factors.
12. (b) pseudopodia
Explanation: Pseudopodia (also known as "false-feet") are temporary cytoplasm-filled parts of the cell wall that are able
to change their form in order to move. It is basically a temporary protrusion of the surface of an amoeboid cell.
13. (c) Remains the same
Explanation: The frequency of light depends on the source of light and remains the same during refraction. The speed
of the light changes when a ray of light passes from one medium to another. The speed of light is higher in a rarer
medium than a denser medium. A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium slows down, due to
which there is a change in the wave-length.

14. (c)

Explanation: When the prism is inverted, then after dispersion the colors which will be observed are VIBGYOR. So,
the figure is the correct image to get the third color as the color of the sky i.e. Blue.
15. (a) O3
Explanation: O3
16. (a) Ecosystem
Explanation: All the interacting organisms of an area together with the non-living constituents form an ecosystem. An
ecosystem consists of biotic components comprising living organisms, as well as abiotic components
comprising physical factors like rainfall, wind, soil, and minerals.
17. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
18. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: The new individuals produced after cell divisions in asexual reproduction are always genetically identical
or clone to each other and their parents.
19. (d) A is false but R is true.
Explanation: A is false but R is true.
20. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanation: Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Section B
21. Sodium chloride is a white solid. It is obtained on a large scale by evaporation of sea water. The crude salt so obtained
contains impurities such as sodium sulphate, calcium sulphate, calcium chloride and magnesium chloride. The crude salt
is dissolved in water, the impurities are filtered off and the pure sodium chloride is precipitated out from the solution by
passing chlorine gas.

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22. Gamete Zygote

(i) It contains diploid number of

(i) It contains haploid number of chromosome (n).
chromosome (2n).
(ii) It is formed by fusion of male
(ii) Gametes are formed by meiosis in gonads.
gamete with female gamete.
(iii) They carry characteristic of single parent i.e., male gamete carry (iii) They contain the characteristics of
characteristic of father and female gamete of mother. both the parents,
(iv) There are two types of gametes-male and female. (iv) It is only of one type.
(v) It represents the first stage of
(v) It is the last stage of parental generation.
offsprings.
23. Some waste materials eliminated from our body are:
i. Nitrogenous waste like urea, uric acid etc.
ii. Excess of water.
Waste are generated by various metabolic activities like digestion, respiration etc.

OR

Sweat glands are long tubular glands and are coiled at the ends. They are located in the dermis of the skin and help in
maintaining the temperature of our body. During summers when it is too hot outside, sweat, which is a watery fluid
containing lactic acid, urea, sodium chloride etc., is secreted from the sweat glands and helps in cooling of the body.
24. Uses of concave mirror :
i. Large sized concave mirrors are used to focus solar energy on an object to be heated. Due to a limited amount of oil
and gas, the importance of solar cookers can no longer be ignored.
ii. Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in car headlights, searchlights, torches and table lamps.
iii. Concave mirrors can be used as a shaving mirror. When the concave mirror is placed at a distance less than its focal
length from the face, a magnified erect image is produced. Hence any cut or leftover hair can easily be observed with
the help of concave mirror.
iv. Concave mirrors are used by doctors to concentrate light on teeth, ear, nose, throat etc.

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25. As we know formula of magnetic field strength i.e
μo
2I
B =
4π r

This implies
(1) B ∝ I

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(2) B ∝
1

So, we can say that the factors on which strength of a magnetic field at a point depends.
(1) Amount of current (I) flowing through the conductor.
(2) Distance (r) from the current carrying conductor.

OR

Given, P = 40 W, V = 220 V, I = 6 A
2
(V )
We know that, R =
P
2
(220)
= 40
220
= 220 ×
40
48400
=
40

= 1210Ω
Now, V = IReq
⇒ Req = V

I
= 220

6
= 36.66Ω
Let x bulbs are connected in parallel. So,
1 x
=
36.66 1210

∴ x =
1210

36.66
= 33.066 = 33
26. Grass → grasshopper → frog → snake → hawk.
A food chain always start with producers and ends with top consumers.
Section C

27.

Test tube 1: Iron nails would get rusted that is corroded as they are exposed to moisture and air.
Test tube 2: Iron nails won't get rusted as they are exposed to water that is devoid of oxygen due to boiling and further
the layer of oil is not letting oxygen come into contact with the water in which nails are immersed.
Test tube 3: Iron nails won't get rusted or corroded because they are not exposed to moisture and air.
28. i. Ore A is a carbonate ore.
The steps involved in the extraction of metal M form ore A are as follows:
a. The carbonate ore is heated strongly in the limited supply of air to produce a metal oxide. [calcination]
Δ

MCO3 (s)−→ MO(s)+ CO2(g)

b. The oxide ore is reduced with carbon(coke).
MO (s) + C (s)→ M(s) + CO (g)
ii. Ore B is a sulphide ore.
The steps involved in the extraction of metal M from ore B are as follows:
a. The sulphide ore is heated strongly in the presence of the excess of air to produce a metal oxide.[roasting]
Δ

2MS(s)+ 3O2(g)−→ 2MO(s)+ 2SO2(g)

b. The oxide of metal B is reduced by carbon to obtain the corresponding metal.
M O(s) + C (s) + → M (s) + C O2 /C O(g)
C arbon Metal

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OR

a. Copper (Cu) and Mercury (Hg)

b. CALCINATION ROASTING
Zinc carbonate is heated in limited supply of air. Zinc sulphide is heated in excess of air.
Δ Δ

ZnCO3 −
→ ZnO + CO2 2ZnS + 3O2 −
→ 2ZnO + 2SO 2

c. Thermit reaction between iron (III) oxide and aluminium powder/

Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al (s) → 2Fe (l) + Al2O3 (s) + heat
Significance:
It is a highly exothermic reaction.
Iron is obtained in molten form.
29. a. Photosynthesis is the process and the type of nutrition found in green plants is autotrophic Nutrition.
In autotrophic nutrition, plants prepare their own food using inorganic material such as CO2 and H2O in the presence
of Sunlight and Chlorophyll.
Chlorophyll Sunlight

6C O2 + 12H2 O −−−−−−−−−−−−→ C6 H12 O6 + 6O2 + 6H2 O

Glucose

The raw materials used in photosynthesis are CO2, H2O.

b. The three observations are given below:

(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen
(iii) Reduction of Carbon dioxide to Carbohydrates
30. a. Mendel.
b. DNA is made up many units of nucleotides.
c. Important features-
i. Both the chains in helix runs anti-parallel.
ii. There are two types of nitrogenous bases Purine (A, G) and pyrimidine (T, C).
iii. A always pairs with T and C always pairs with G.
31. (i) Focal length = 1/power = 1/5D = 1/5m = 20cm
It is convex lens of focal length 20cm.
So, the Magnified image will be formed in all cases, 20cm is focus, 18 cm is on focal length, 22 cm and 30 cm is
between focus and focus and center of curvature. In all cases, magnified image is formed.
(ii) In case of 22 cm and 30 cm image formed is real and hence can be obtained on screen.
32. P1 = 1000W

1000
= 1kW
t1 = 5 h
P2= 400W

1000
= 0.4 kW
t2 = 10 h
No. of days n = 30
Energy consumed by heater:
E1 = P1 × t1 × n = 1 kW × 5 h × 30 = 150 kWh
Energy consumed by refrigerator:
E2 = P2 × t2 × n = 0.4 kW × 10 h × 30 = 120 kWh
Total energy = (150 + 120) kWh = 270 kWh
We know that 1kWh = 1unit, so

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myCBSEguide
270 kWh = 270 units
Cost of 1 unit is Rs. 6.00
Total cost = 270 × 6 = Rs. 1620
33. i. Combined resistance of 100Ω , 50Ω and 500Ω in parallel
i.e. Rp is given by 1 1 1 1 5+10+1 125
= + + = = = 31.25
RP 100 50 500 500 4

Resistance of electric iron = 31.25Ω

Current through electric iron = = V 220

31.25
= 7.04A
R

ii. Energy consumed E1 = P1t1 = 250 W × 1h = 250 3600s

J
×
S

E1 = 900000J
E2 = P2t2 = 12000W × 10 min
E2 = 1200 600s
J
×
S

E2 = 720000J
∴ 250Ω TV set consumes more energy.
Section D
34. a. Electron dot structure of Methane

b. i. Alcohol / -OH
ii. Aldehyde / -CHO
c. Due to incomplete combustion in air, high temperature required for welding is not achieved.
Due to excessive soot formation, welding is hampered.

OR

i. A homologous series are compounds with the same general formula that differ only in the carbon chain length.
Compounds in a homologous series often have a fixed set of functional groups, resulting in chemical and physical
properties that are comparable.
The general formula of alkynes is CnH2n-2.

ii. Functional group is defined as an atom which makes carbon compounds reactive and also the decides the various
properties of the compounds.
The formula for the functional groups present in the following compound are as follows:
Alcohol - OH
Carboxylic acids
O

||

− C − OH

35. a. The role of the following organs of human male reproductive system
i. Testis: to produce male gametes.

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myCBSEguide
ii. Scrotum: to provide optimal temperature to testis for the formation of sperm.
iii. Vas deferens: to deliver the sperms to the urinary bladder.
iv. Prostrate glands: to secrete the fluid which provides nutrition and medium for transport of sperms.
b. The placenta is a temporary disk-shaped organ that is found in human female during pregnancy. The placenta
contains blood vessels. The placenta is attached to the foetus by an umbilical cord.
Functions of the placenta in human female:
The placenta helps in the removal of waste materials and carbon dioxide from the fetus's body.
It also provides the gaseous exchange, hormones, and nutrients to the baby.

OR

i. Touch is the stimulus which is common for movement in both the cases.
ii. Drooping of leaves in touch-me-not plant is an example of growth-independent movement which occurs due to
change in turgour pressure of the cells. But attaching of pea plant to a support with help of tendrils is a growth
dependent movement. The pea plants develop tendrils which are sensitive to touch. When they come in contact with
a support they encircle the support and clings to them. Auxin hormone plays an important role. Auxin synthesized at
the tip diffuses to parts away from the support, so those parts away from support grow faster than those parts in
contact. So the tendrils encircle the support.
iii. Drooping of leaves in touch-me-not plant is an example of seismonastic movement whereas attaching of pea plant to
a support with the help of tendrils is an example of curvature movement.
36. i. In concave mirror erect image is formed only when the object is placed between pole and focus. Thus, range to
obtain erect image is 0 < u < 12.
ii. The image would be larger than the object

iii. If the object distance is 24 cm which is the approx position of centre of curvature, then the image will be formed at
the same position. Here, f = -12 cm, u =-24 cm, v=?
By using mirror formula,
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + ⇒ = −
f v u v −12 (−24)

⇒ v = -24 cm

OR

a. A concave mirror of focal length f = 10 cm can produce a magnified real image if an object is placed between F and
C (i.e., when 20 cm > u > 10 cm) as shown in Fig. (a). However, the same mirror may form a magnified virtual image

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myCBSEguide
when object is placed between P and F (i.e., u < 10 cm) as shown in Fig. (b).

b. Here focal length of convex mirror f= + 10 cm, distance of the object from the pole u = -10 cm
As per formula,
1

v
+
1

u
=
f
1
, wehave
1 1 1 1 1
= − = −
v f u +10 −10

1 1 1
= + =
10 10 5

⇒ v = +5 cm
Thus, image is formed behind the mirror at 5 cm from the pole of mirror.
Section E
37. i. P and T belongs to same homologous series i.e. alkynes
ii. The name of Compound R is Ethanol. The functional group present in it is Alcohol (-OH).
iii. The IUPAC name of compound T is Ethyne whereas of U is Ethane
OR
A hydrocarbon in which two carbons are connected by double or triple bond is called unsaturated hydrocarbon.
P, T, U are examples of unsaturated hydrocarbons.
38. i. In given case, genotypic ratio of F2 progeny will be 1 : 2 : 1 where one is homozygous dominant, two are
heterozygous dominant and one is homozygous recessive.
ii. 1
of them have wrinkled seeds and 3
of them have smooth seeds.
4 4

iii. Factors representing the alternate or same form of a character are called alleles. In heterozygous individuals or
hybrids, a character is represented by two contrasting alleles. Out of the two contrasting alleles, only one is able to
express its effect in the individual. It is called the dominant allele. The other allele which does not show its effect in
the heterozygous individual is called the recessive allele, e.g., in the case of hybrid tall pea plants (Tt). ‘T’ is a
dominant allele whereas ‘t’ is a recessive allele.
OR
The alternative form of the gene is called Allele. Alleles are a pair of genes that occupy a specific location on a
particular chromosome and control the same trait.
39. i. The law implies that heat produced in a resistor is
a. directly proportional to the square of current for a given resistance,
b. directly proportional to resistance for a given current, and
c. directly proportional to the time for which the current flows through the resistor.
ii. Firstly, we calculate the current flowing through it, using the relation I = . Then we apply the formula H = I2Rt to
V

calculate the heating effect.

iii. Heat produced, H = VIt
OR
The resistivity of nichrome is more than that of copper so its resistance is also high. Therefore, a large amount of heat
is produced in the nichrome wire for the same current as compared to that of copper wire.
To practice more questions & prepare well for exams, download myCBSEguide App . It provides complete study
material for CBSE, NCERT, JEE (main), NEET-UG and NDA exams. Teachers can use Examin8 App to create
similar papers with their own name and logo.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 1

Sample Paper 01
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. In the above picture of sorrien’s utopian vision, the saints, angle and Christ symbolise-

(a) Equality among people

(b) Fraternity among nations
(c) Freedom of nations
(d) Resentment against nations


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Page 2 Sample Paper 01 NODIA APP

2. Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order :
1. Coming of Simon Commission to India
2. Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC.
3. Government of India Act, 1919
4. Champaran Satyagraha
Choose the correct option :
(a) 3 - 2 - 4 - 1 (b) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3
(c) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4 (d) 4 - 3 - 1 - 2

3. Which of the following was a major reason for the expansion of international trade in the 19th
century?
(a) The rise of European colonial empires and advancements in transportation.
(b) The abolition of slavery, which reduced the need for international trade.
(c) The decline in demand for raw materials like cotton and sugar.
(d) The establishment of the World Trade Organization, regulating global trade.

4. The invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg revolutionized the spread of information
in Europe. Which of the following were effects of the invention of the printing press?
1. Rapid spread of new ideas and knowledge
2. Growth of literacy and education
3. Decline in religious authority
4. Strengthening of monarchies
Options :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4

5. Which resource is renewable and can be replenished over a relatively short period of time through
natural processes?
(a) Fossil fuels like coal and petroleum, which take millions of years to form.
(b) Solar energy from the sun, which is available in abundance and continuously replenished.
(c) Mineral resources such as iron ore, which are formed over geological time scales.
(d) Non-renewable resources like natural gas, which cannot be regenerated once consumed.

6. The Western Ghats are recognized as one of the world’s biodiversity hotspots. Analyze the following
statements about the Western Ghats:
1. They are home to a vast number of endemic plant and animal species.
2. The Western Ghats stretch across eight Indian states from Gujarat to Tamil Nadu.
3. Deforestation and habitat destruction are major threats to their biodiversity.
4. The Western Ghats are primarily desert regions with sparse vegetation.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 3

7. Match Column - A with Column - B and choose the correct option:

Column-A (River) Column-B (Dam)
A. Mahanadi 1. Sardar Sarovar
B. Narmada 2. Hirakud
C. Chambal 3. Salal
D. Chenab 4. Rana Pratap
Sagar
Options:
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
(b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
(c) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3
(d) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

8. Which of the following best describes the concept of power sharing in a democratic system of
governance?
(a) Concentrating all governmental powers in the central authority for efficient decision-making.
(b) Distributing governmental powers among various levels and branches to prevent misuse.
(c) Allocating power solely to the legislative branch to ensure balanced governance.
(d) Granting all powers to the executive branch to maintain order and stability.

9. India has adopted a federal system of government to accommodate diversity. Which of the following
statements about Indian federalism are correct?
1. India is a Union of States.
2. States have autonomy in all matters.
3. Power-sharing between the Union and State governments is a basic feature of the Indian
Constitution.
4. The power-sharing arrangement can be easily changed by the Union government.
Options :
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 4

10. What is Caste Discrimination, and why is it considered a major social issue in India?
(a) Treating individuals based on their caste, leading to social inequality and exclusion.
(b) Promoting caste-based systems to maintain social order and hierarchy.
(c) Encouraging the mixing of different castes to create a unified society.
(d) Ignoring caste differences to ensure everyone is treated equally.

11. India has a multi-party system, providing voters with a wide range of choices. Which of the
following statements about political party systems are correct?
1. A two-party system limits voter choice.
2. A multi-party system encourages coalition governments.
3. A one-party system is more democratic than a multi-party system.
4. A multi-party system provides more representation to diverse groups.
Page 4 Sample Paper 01 NODIA APP

Options :
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Democracy in India ensures the protection of individual rights and freedoms.
Statement II: In a democracy, the government is not accountable to the people.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. The power-sharing model of _______ is considered one of the most complex, involving equal
representation of both Dutch and French-speaking communities.
(a) India (b) Belgium
(c) Sri Lanka (d) France

14. Which sector of the Indian economy is primarily involved in the extraction and processing of raw
materials, such as mining and agriculture?
(a) Primary Sector, which includes activities like agriculture, mining, and fishing.
(b) Secondary Sector, which involves manufacturing and industrial production.
(c) Tertiary Sector, which focuses on services and distribution.
(d) Quaternary Sector, which deals with information and research services.

15. Money plays a crucial role in the economy by facilitating transactions. Which of the following are
functions of money in an economy?
1. Medium of exchange
2. Store of value
3. Measure of income
4. Unit of account
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 3, and 4

16. The process of globalization has been facilitated by advances in technology, especially in the fields
of communication and _______.
(a) Manufacturing (b) Mining
(c) Transportation (d) Healthcare

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Development is a process that only involves economic growth.
Statement II: Development includes improvements in the standard of living, education, and
healthcare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 5

18. Match the following and choose the correct option.

(Leader) (Role)

A. Victor Emmanuel II 1. Chief Minister of Italy

B. Guiseppe Mazzini 2. Young Italy Movement

C. Guiseppe Garibaldi 3. Conquered the Kingdom of Sicillies

D. Count Cavour 4. Proclaimed as king of Unified Italy

(a) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A -2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

(c) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1 (d) A - 1, B - 4, C - 2, D - 3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of the 43 percent land under net sown area?
(a) It supports urban development.
(b) It contributes majorly to food production.
(c) It is used for industrial growth.
(d) It is left uncultivated for future use.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Land Degradation (in % of total land area) Forest Cover (in %)
X 12 22
Y 25 35
Why does state Y have a higher rate of land degradation?
(a) High afforestation rates.
(b) Lack of industrial development.
(c) Increased deforestation for agriculture.
(d) Use of rainwater harvesting.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 01 NODIA APP

SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The French Revolution led to the rise of nationalism in Europe.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.


O
“The Revolutions of 1848 were significant in the spread of nationalism.” Discuss the role of the
1848 revolutions in promoting nationalist sentiments.

22. “Sustainable development is essential for ensuring the availability of resources for future
generations.” Explain why this is important.

23. “Power sharing is essential in a diverse society like India.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

24. “Income alone is not a measure of development.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Over the past fifty years, India’s literacy rate has significantly increased, leading to a more educated
population. As a result, education has become a central focus in India’s development strategy.
Why do you think education has gained such importance in India’s development? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The formation of the Indian National Congress was a significant step towards Indian nationalism.”
Explain the statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Ravi owns a large plantation and wants to promote biodiversity. However, he is not familiar with
the types of forests and their significance.” Assist him in identifying the different types of forests
and their importance in promoting biodiversity.


O
“Neha is passionate about wildlife conservation and wishes to start a sanctuary. She needs guidance
on the factors essential for establishing a wildlife sanctuary.” Help her identify the key factors
required to set up a successful wildlife sanctuary.

28. “Federalism ensures regional autonomy within a country.” Explain the statement by giving any
three examples.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 7

29. In recent years, the service sector in India has grown exponentially, becoming the largest contributor
to GDP. As a result, the service sector has emerged as the dominant sector in the Indian economy.
Why has the service sector become so dominant in India’s economy? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Age of Discovery marked the beginning of global trade networks.’ Substantiate the statement
with key features.


O
‘Imperialism was driven by economic, political, and cultural motives.’ Explain the statement with
relevant points.

31. Meena’s town is facing water scarcity due to the over-extraction of groundwater. Identify three
reasons for groundwater depletion and suggest ways to conserve water resources.


O
Arjun’s village is prone to frequent droughts. What water conservation techniques can be adopted
in drought-prone areas to ensure sustainable water use?

32. ‘Caste continues to play a significant role in Indian politics.’ Analyse the impact of caste on
political and social life in India.


O
‘Gender discrimination is a persistent issue in Indian society.’ Discuss the challenges faced by
women in India.

33. Miss X is trying to understand the problems with the barter system. Explain why the barter
system was inefficient due to the need for double coincidence of wants and how money, as a
medium of exchange, solved this problem by making trade more convenient and efficient.


O
Amit, a farmer, borrows money from a moneylender at high interest rates. What are the
consequences of relying on informal credit, and how can access to formal banking and credit
systems be improved in rural areas?

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Page 8 Sample Paper 01 NODIA APP

SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
This is how Mercier describes the impact of the printed word, and the power of reading in one of
his books:
‘Anyone who had seen me reading would have compared me to a man dying of thirst who was
gulping down some fresh, pure water.... Lighting my lamp with extraordinary caution, I threw
myself hungrily into the reading. An easy eloquence, effortless and animated, carried me from one
page to the next without my noticing it. A clock struck off the hours in the silence of the shadows,
and I heard nothing. My lamp began to run out of oil and produced only a pale light, but still I read
on. I could not even take out time to raise the wick for fear of interrupting my pleasure. How those
new ideas rushed into my brain! How my intelligence adopted them!’
Questions:
1. How does the passage reflect the immersive nature of reading of Mercier?
2. Why did Mercier describe himself as a virtual writer?
3. How did reading influence Mercier’s intellectual capacity and his engagement with new
concepts? Explain in any two points.

35. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Today, Indian agriculture finds itself at a crossroads. To make agriculture successful and profitable,
proper thrust should be given to the improvement of the condition of marginal and small farmers.
The green revolution promised much. But today it’s under controversy. The keyword today is
“gene revolution”, which includes genetic engineering. Organic farming is [also] much in vogue
today because it is practised without factory-made chemicals such as fertilisers and pesticides. A
few economists think that Indian farmers have a bleak future if they continue growing food grains
on the holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises. India’s rural population is
about 600 million which depends upon 250 million (approximate) hectares of agricultural land,
an average of less than half a hectare per person. Indian farmers should diversify their cropping
pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase incomes and reduce environmental
degradation simultaneously. Because fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, and bio-diesel
crops like jatropha and jojoba need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane. India’s diverse
climate can be harnessed to grow a wide range of high-value crops.
Questions :
1. Give two reasons why the Green Revolution is under controversy.
2. .....holdings that grow smaller and smaller as the population rises.’ Evaluate why this is a
concern.
3. Bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba have been referred to as high-value crops. Why?

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 01 Page 9

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. As we
have seen, large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex,
they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the
government. They needed some ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible
government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government,
make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfil these needs that every representative
government has. We can say that parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.
Questions :
1. Explain the meaning of a political party.
2. ‘‘The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representaive democracies.”
Support this statement.
3. Why are political parties a necessary condition for a democracy ? Explain.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them
and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Indian National Congress session at this place in 1920.
(B) The place where Mahatma Gandhi broke the slat law.
(b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any three of the following with suitable
symbols.
(i) A Coal mine in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) A dam built on river Chenab.
(iii)A large natural major seaport located at Andhra Pradesh.
(iv) Noida software technology park.
Page 10 Sample Paper 01 NODIA APP

[Link].i
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 1

Sample Paper 02
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

(a) Indian workers march in south Africa 1913.

(b) The Boycott of foreign cloths 1922.
(c) Chauri Chaura Movement.
(d) Dandi March lead by Mahatma Gandhi.

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Page 2 Sample Paper 02 NODIA APP

2. Arrange the following happenings in the correct order-

1. Mahatma Gandhi launched the civil disobedience movement
2. First world war
3. Second world war
4. Establishment of G-77
Options :
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The invention of the printing press by Johannes Gutenberg in the 15th century had what significant
impact on European society?
(a) It led to the spread of new ideas and literacy across Europe.
(b) It allowed the Catholic Church to control the dissemination of information.
(c) It reduced access to books and limited the spread of knowledge.
(d) It was primarily used to print religious texts, with little impact on secular learning.

4. The Napoleonic Code, introduced in 1804, had a significant impact on European legal systems.
Which of the following statements about the Napoleonic Code are correct?
1. It did away with privileges based on birth.
2. It established equality before the law.
3. It restored the feudal system.
4. It simplified administrative divisions.
Options :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 4

5. Which of the following is a major reason for the decline of biodiversity in Indian forests?
(a) Afforestation efforts led by the government and non-governmental organizations.
(b) Deforestation due to agricultural expansion and illegal logging activities in forested areas.
(c) Conservation programs aimed at protecting endangered species and their habitats.
(d) Sustainable harvesting of forest resources to meet the needs of local communities.

6. Water is a crucial resource for human survival and economic activities. In India, several measures
have been taken to manage water resources effectively. Consider the following statements about
water conservation practices:
1. Rainwater harvesting involves collecting and storing rainwater for future use.
2. Check dams are constructed to slow down the flow of water and recharge groundwater.
3. Desalination plants convert seawater into potable water to meet drinking needs.
4. Over-extraction of groundwater has no impact on the water table levels.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 3

7. Match the following:

List-I (Crops) List-II (Geographical conditions)

A. Barley 1. Hot and dry climate with poor soil

B. Rice 2. Cool climate with poorer soil

C. Millets 3. Warm and moist climate with high

altitude

D. Tea 4. Hot and moist climate with rich soil

Option :
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1,D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

8. Which of the following statements best defines federalism as practiced in India?

(a) A unitary system where the central government holds all the powers without any state
autonomy.
(b) A system where power is divided between a central government and individual state governments.
(c) A confederation where states have complete independence and the central government has
limited powers.
(d) A system where regional leaders have more power than the central government in decision-
making.

9. Indian society is divided into various social categories based on gender, religion, and caste. Which
of the following statements about gender inequality in India are correct?
1. Women have equal representation in parliament.
2. Women are paid less than men for the same work.
3. Girls are often not encouraged to pursue higher education.
4. Women are over-represented in decision-making bodies.
Options :
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 4

10. What is one major advantage of a multi-party system in a democratic country like India?
(a) It limits the representation of diverse interests by reducing the number of political voices.
(b) It ensures broader representation of different societal groups and opinions in governance.
(c) It makes it easier for a single party to dominate the political landscape.
(d) It reduces competition among political parties, ensuring stable governments.

11. Democracy promotes political equality and fairness. Which of the following are key outcomes of
a democratic system?
1. Equal political participation for all citizens
2. Equal economic opportunities for all citizens
3. Protection of individual rights and freedoms
4. Economic growth at the expense of social justice
Page 4 Sample Paper 02 NODIA APP

Options :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Power sharing helps in preventing the concentration of power in one group.
Statement II: Power sharing is only applicable at the central level and not at the state level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.
(b) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct.
(d) Both I and II are incorrect.

13. In India, the distribution of powers between the Union and State governments is outlined in the
_______ of the Indian Constitution.
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
(c) Seventh Schedule
(d) Ninth Schedule

14. How do banks create money through the lending process in India’s financial system?
(a) By printing physical currency notes and distributing them to the public.
(b) By accepting deposits and lending a portion of those deposits to borrowers, creating new
money.
(c) By investing in foreign markets and bringing back profits as domestic money.
(d) By restricting the supply of money to control inflation and stabilize the economy.

15. Globalization refers to the increasing interconnection of economies worldwide. Which of the
following are key features of globalization?
1. Increased trade between countries
2. Flow of capital and technology across borders
3. Isolation of domestic markets
4. Restricted movement of people across countries
Options :
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3

16. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and
_______ per capita, which is used to rank countries by their level of human development.
(a) National income
(b) GDP
(c) Gross National Income (GNI)
(d) Personal wealth

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 5

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The primary sector includes activities like agriculture, mining, and fishing.
Statement II: The tertiary sector is involved in manufacturing goods.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct.
(b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct.
(d) Neither I nor II is correct.

18. Match the column A and column B and choose the correct option.
Column A Column B

A Giuseppe Mazzini 1. Ruler of an Italian princely house

B King Victor Emmanuel II 2. Revolutionary who tried to unify Italy

C Chief Minister Cavour 3. led an army of volunteers to Rome to fight the last obstacle
to the unification of Italy, the Papal States where a French
garrison was stationed.

D Giuseppe Garibaldi 4. Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France he

succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859
(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3
(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4
(d) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why does alluvial soil cover 35% of the total area?

(a) It is mostly found in river basins.
(b) It is used for growing forests.
(c) It is found in desert regions.
(d) It is used for industrial purposes.
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20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Forest Area (in % of total area) Deforestation Rate (per year)
A 30 2%
B 50 0.5%
Why does state B have a lower deforestation rate?
(a) It has high agricultural demand.
(b) It is a highly industrialized state.
(c) It has better forest management practices.
(d) It focuses on mining activities.

SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “The Indian National Congress was founded to voice Indian aspirations.” Justify the statement
with suitable arguments.


O
“The partition of Bengal in 1905 sparked nationalist protests.” Discuss the impact of the partition
of Bengal on Indian nationalism.

22. “Forests play a vital role in maintaining ecological balance.” Explain their importance.

23. “Federalism promotes regional autonomy in India.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “The primary sector is crucial for the livelihood of a large section of India’s population.” Justify
the statement with suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Over the past four decades, the manufacturing sector in India has expanded rapidly, contributing
significantly to GDP growth. As a result, the manufacturing sector has become a major pillar of
the Indian economy. Why has the manufacturing sector become so important in India’s economy?
Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The Age of Discovery led to the creation of global trade networks.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 7

27. “Sunita has acquired a piece of land and wants to ensure a steady water supply for irrigation.
She is unfamiliar with the types of irrigation methods suitable for her area.” Help her identify
appropriate irrigation methods based on local water resources and soil conditions.


O
“Mohit plans to build a small hydroelectric power plant. However, he lacks knowledge about the
factors that determine the feasibility of such a project.” Guide him in identifying the key factors
that make a location suitable for a hydroelectric power plant.

28. “Gender equality ensures equal opportunities for women and men.” Explain the statement by
giving any three examples.

29. Between 1991 and 2020, India’s credit market has expanded, providing businesses with necessary
funding for growth. As a result, credit availability has become crucial for India’s economic
development. Why is credit availability important for India’s economy? Support your answer by
giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The invention of the printing press revolutionized the spread of knowledge.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.


O
‘The role of newspapers was crucial in mobilizing public opinion during the nationalist movements.’
Explain the statement with relevant points.

31. Sunita notices that farmers in her area depend heavily on monsoons for agriculture. What are the
limitations of monsoon-dependent agriculture, and how can irrigation help overcome them?


O
Ravi’s region specializes in the cultivation of rice, a water-intensive crop. What are the advantages
and disadvantages of growing water-intensive crops, and what alternatives can be suggested?

32. ‘Political parties are essential for the functioning of a democracy.’ Analyse the role of political
parties in democratic governance.


O
‘Political parties today face several challenges that impact their democratic functioning.’ Discuss
the challenges faced by political parties.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 02 NODIA APP

33. Miss X is learning about globalization and wants to understand its impact on India’s economy.
Explain how globalization has influenced India’s trade, investment, and industries, and how the
country has benefited from increased integration with the global economy.


O
A cotton farmer in India sells his crop to an international clothing company. How does this
connect him to the global market, and what are the potential benefits and risks of participating
in global supply chains for small farmers?

SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
Ernst Renan, ‘What is a Nation?’: In a lecture delivered at the University of Sorbonne in 1882, the
French philosopher Ernst Renan (1823-92) outlined his understanding of what makes a nation. The
lecture was subsequently published as a famous essay entitled ‘Qu’ est-cequ’ une nation?’ (‘What is
a Nation?’). In this essay Renan criticises the notion suggested by others that a nation is formed
by a common language, race, religion, or territory: ‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of
endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A heroic past, great men, glory, that is the social capital upon
which one bases a national idea. To have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the
present, to have performed great deeds together, to wish to perform still more, these are the essential
conditions of being a people. A nation is therefore a large-scale solidarity... Its existence is a daily
plebiscite... A province is its inhabitants; if anyone has the right to be consulted, it is the inhabitant.
A nation never has any real interest in annexing or holding on to a country against its will. The
existence of nations is a good thing, a necessity even. Their existence is a guarantee of liberty, which
would be lost if the world had only one law and only one master.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by the term Nation?
2. Write any two requirements for the formation of a nation.
3. How does a heroic past helps in the formation of a nation?

35. Read the given case and answer the questions that follow :
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy —
agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic — needs inputs of energy. The economic
development plans implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amounts of
energy to remain operational. As a result, consumption of energy in all forms has been steadily
rising all over the country. In this background, there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path
of energy development. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy
sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. India is presently one of the least energy efficient
countries in the world. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited
energy resources. For example, as concerned citizens we can do our bit by using public transport
systems instead of individual vehicles; switching off electricity when not in use, using power-saving
devices and using non-conventional sources of energy. At last “Energy Saved is energy produced”
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 02 Page 9

Questions :
1. Why is sustainable energy a key to sustainable development ?
2. Why is consumption of energy rising in all over India?
3. Explain ‘Energy saved is energy produced’.

36. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
Arguments about democracy tend to be very passionate. This is how it should be, for democracy
appeals to some of our deep values. These debates cannot be resolved in a simple manner. But
some debates about democracy can and should be resolved by referring to some facts and figures.
The debate about the economic outcomes of democracy is one such debate. Over the years many
students of democracy have gathered careful evidence to see what the relationship of democracy with
economic growth and economic inequalities is.
A particular study shows that on an average dictatorial regimes have had a slightly better record
of economic growth. But when we compare their record only in poor countries, there is virtually
no difference. While another study shows that within democracies there can be very high degree of
inequalities. In democratic countries like South Africa and Brazil, the top 20 per cent people take
away more than 60 per cent of the national income, leaving less than 3 per cent for the bottom 20
per cent population. Countries like Denmark and Hungary are much better in this respect.
One can easily infer that there is often inequality of opportunities available to the poorer sections.
Questions :
1. Which type of outcomes of democracy can be resolved with the help of facts or figures analysis?
2. Benefits of higher national income are enjoyed by a’ small proportion of its population while a
larger proportion has to settle with the remaining small portion of the national income. What
is strongly indicated by this fact?
3. Differentiate between democracy and dictatorship form of government.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The place associated with the Jallianwala Bagh incident.
B. The place where the December 1920 session of the Indian National Congress took place.
Page 10 Sample Paper 02 NODIA APP

(b) On the outline map of India, mark and locate the following with suitable symbols.
C. An airport
D. A software technology park
E. A dam
F. A seaport in Goa

[Link].i
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 1

Sample Paper 03
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

Page 2 Sample Paper 03 NODIA APP

(a) Criminals. (b) Lost citizens of Central Africa.

(c) Photograph of indentured labourers. (d) None of these.

2. Arrange the following options in the correct sequence-

1. Press came to be made out of metal.
2. Offset press was developed.
3. Gutenberg perfected the system by olive press.
4. China first introduced hand- printing technology into Japan.
Option:
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. Which treaty, signed in 1815, aimed to restore monarchies in Europe after Napoleon’s defeat and
establish a balance of power?
(a) Treaty of Versailles, which ended World War I and reshaped Europe.
(b) Treaty of Vienna, which restored traditional monarchies and balanced European powers.
(c) Treaty of Paris, which concluded the Napoleonic Wars and redrew European borders.
(d) Treaty of Tordesillas, which divided newly discovered lands between Spain and Portugal.

4. The Indian National Congress launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920 under the
leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. Which of the following were objectives of the Non-Cooperation
Movement?
1. Boycott of British goods
2. Surrender of government titles
3. Promotion of Hindu-Muslim unity
4. Acceptance of British reforms
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

5. Which of the following is a common method used for rainwater harvesting to conserve water in
rural areas of India?
(a) Building large dams to control river flow and generate electricity.
(b) Constructing tanks and ponds to store rainwater for agricultural use.
(c) Deforestation to increase the amount of water available for irrigation.
(d) Draining wetlands to convert them into agricultural land for farming.

6. Agriculture plays a vital role in the Indian economy. Identify the correct statements related to
Indian agriculture.
1. India is the largest producer of rice and wheat in the world.
2. The Green Revolution significantly increased agricultural productivity in the 1960s.
3. Agriculture in India is entirely dependent on monsoon rains.
4. Horticulture contributes minimally to India’s agricultural sector.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 3

7. Match the following and choose correct option.

Column-I Column-II
A. Terrace farming 1. Different crops grown parallely
B. Strip cropping 2. Hill slopes are used as cultivable land in the form of flat cut
regions of slope
C. Contour ploughing 3. Along the slope of mountain
D. Crop rotation 4. Different crops grown in systematic succession
Option :
(a) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4
(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(d) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

8. Which of the following best describes the term Gender Equality?

(a) Treating individuals differently based on their gender to promote fairness.
(b) Ensuring equal rights, responsibilities, and opportunities for all genders.
(c) Giving preferential treatment to women in all aspects of society.
(d) Maintaining traditional gender roles to preserve cultural values.

9. Political parties play a crucial role in the functioning of a democracy. Which of the following are
functions of political parties in a democracy?
1. Contest elections
2. Formulate policies and programs
3. Ensure military control over government
4. Provide a platform for public debate
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

10. How does democracy contribute to the social development of a country like India?
(a) By restricting access to social services and maintaining traditional structures.
(b) By promoting inclusive policies, ensuring equal opportunities, and addressing social inequalities.
(c) By prioritizing economic growth over social welfare and education.
(d) By centralizing decision-making processes and reducing community involvement.

11. Belgium is known for its power-sharing model. Which of the following are key features of the
power-sharing arrangement in Belgium?
1. Equal representation of Dutch and French-speaking communities in the central government.
2. Special laws require the support of the majority of each linguistic group.
3. Power is concentrated in the hands of the majority community.
4. Community government exists for cultural, educational, and language-related matters.
Options :
(a) 1, 2, and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4


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Page 4 Sample Paper 03 NODIA APP

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In a federal system, both the central and state governments have their own powers
and responsibilities.
Statement II: In India, the central government can unilaterally abolish state governments without
any constitutional provisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. The Indian Constitution provides equality before the law and prohibits discrimination on the basis
of _______, caste, religion, or place of birth.
(a) Education (b) Gender
(c) Wealth (d) Profession

14. What is globalization, and how has it impacted the Indian economy?
(a) Globalization refers to the isolation of national economies, reducing trade and investment
opportunities.
(b) Globalization is the integration of national economies through trade, investment, and technology
exchange, boosting economic growth in India.
(c) Globalization involves the strict regulation of international trade, limiting India’s economic
expansion.
(d) Globalization focuses solely on cultural exchange without affecting economic activities in India.

15. Development has different meanings for different people. Which of the following best describes
development for a rural farmer?
1. Access to modern agricultural tools
2. A high salary in an urban job
3. Better education for their children
4. Owning a large piece of farmland
Options :
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) Only 2

16. The primary sector in India involves activities such as agriculture, fishing, and _______ that
directly extract or use natural resources.
(a) Transport (b) Mining
(c) Retail (d) Tourism

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Money serves as a medium of exchange, a unit of account, and a store of value.
Statement II: Credit involves lending and borrowing money with interest.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 5

18. Match the columns P and column Q and select correct option :
Column P Column Q
A. MNCs buy at cheap rates from small producers 1. Automobiles machinery hemo.
B. Quotas and taxes on imports are used to regulate 2. Garments, foot wear, sports.
trade items.
C. Indian companies who have invested abroad. 3. Call centres.
D. IT has helped in spreading of production of services. 4. Tata Motors, Infosys, Ranbaxy
E. Several MNCs have invested in setting up factories in 5. Trade barriers
India for production.
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 5, E - 1
(b) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 5, E - 4
(c) A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3, E - 5
(d) A - 2, B - 5, C - 4, D - 3, E - 1

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 22 percent land under forests?

(a) It provides timber and forest products.
(b) It is mostly used for industrial purposes.
(c) It is reserved for urban development.
(d) It helps in mineral extraction.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Annual Rainfall (in mm) Irrigated Area (% of total cultivated land)
C 1200 40%
D 600 75%
Why does state D have a higher percentage of irrigated area despite lower rainfall?
(a) It has abundant river systems.
(b) It has better water conservation methods.
(c) It has fewer water storage facilities.
(d) It depends solely on rain-fed agriculture.


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Page 6 Sample Paper 03 NODIA APP

SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “World War I transformed global political boundaries.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.


O
“The Treaty of Versailles was a catalyst for World War II.” Discuss the reasons why the Treaty of
Versailles contributed to the outbreak of World War II.

22. “Water scarcity is a growing global concern.” Explain the reasons behind it.

23. “Gender equality is fundamental to a just society.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

24. “Money facilitates trade by eliminating the inefficiencies of barter.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Over the past few decades, the number of banking institutions in India has increased, enhancing
financial inclusion. As a result, banking has become a fundamental part of India’s financial system.
Why has the banking sector become so important in India? Support your answer by giving any
three reasons.

26. “The invention of the printing press revolutionized the dissemination of knowledge.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Rohit has started organic farming on his land and wants to improve soil fertility naturally. He is
unfamiliar with organic farming techniques.” Assist him in identifying effective organic farming
practices to enhance soil fertility.


O
“Anjali plans to cultivate multiple crops on her farm to increase productivity. However, she is
unsure about crop rotation and its benefits.” Guide her in understanding and implementing crop
rotation to improve farm productivity.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 7

28. “Political parties play a crucial role in a democracy.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

29. With the influx of foreign direct investment (FDI), India’s industrial sector has seen substantial
growth and modernization. Consequently, FDI has become a key driver of India’s economic
development. Why has foreign direct investment become so significant in India? Support your
answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Treaty of Vienna depicted the spirit of conservatism.’ Substantiate the statement with key
features of the treaty.


O
‘The Industrial Revolution played a crucial role in the rise of nationalism in Europe.’ Explain the
statement with relevant points.

31. Ravi’s village is located near a coal mine, and he is concerned about its environmental impact.
What are the environmental consequences of coal mining, and how can these be mitigated?


O
Meena observes that the use of renewable energy is increasing in her town. What are the benefits
of renewable energy sources, and why should they be promoted over non-renewable resources?

32. ‘Democracy is expected to produce a responsive and accountable government.’ Explain how
democracy ensures accountability.


O
‘The outcomes of democracy must be measured in terms of both political and social indicators.’
Analyse the broader outcomes of democracy.

33. Miss X wants to improve the economic condition of her village. She strongly believes that human
development is a key factor for sustained growth. How can investments in education, healthcare, and
social services contribute to the overall development of her region, and how can this improvement
lead to economic progress? Provide examples and reasons to support your answer.


O
Mr. P, from a well-developed city, moves to a rural area and finds that despite economic growth,
basic amenities like clean water and schools are lacking. How does this reflect the concept of
development? Suggest ways to improve development in such areas, focusing on both economic and
social factors.

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Page 8 Sample Paper 03 NODIA APP

SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Mahatma Gandhi returned to India in January 1915. As you know, he had come from South Africa
where he had successfully fought the racist-regime with a novel method of mass agitation, which
he called satyagaha. It suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice,
then physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor. Without seeking vengeance or being
aggressive, a satyagrahi could win the battle through non-violence.
On l3 April a large crowd gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh. Some came to
protest against the government’s new repressive measures. Other had come to attend the annual
Baisakhi fair. Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial law that had
been imposed. Dyer entered the area, blocked the exit points, and opened fire on the crowd killing
hundreds.
The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities. Thousands of students left
government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up
their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by the idea of Satyagraha?
2. By which episode most of the people gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh?
3. Which movement was talking about in the paragraph? What does it mean to the people?

35. Read the given case and answer the questions that follow :
Challenges faced by the Jute industry include stiff competition in the international market from
synthetic substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and
Thailand. However, the internal demand has been on the increase due to the Government policy of
mandatory use of jute packaging. To stimulate demand, the products need to be diversified. In 2005,
National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing productivity, improving quality,
ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare. The main markets are
U.S.A., Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, U.K. and Australia. The growing global concern
for environment friendly, biodegradable materials, has once again opened the opportunity for jute
products.
Questions :
1. Mention any two challenges faced by ‘jute industry’ in India.
2. What was the main objective of National Jute Policy formulated in 2005 ?
3. How has jute industry once again opened the new opportunities for its products ?

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 03 Page 9

36. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought
to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority. As a result, the democratically
elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy.
In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding
Tamil.
The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official
language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs. But
their demand for more autonomy to provinces populated by the Tamils was repeatedly denied. By
1980’s several political organisations were formed demanding an independent Tamil Eelam (state)
in northern and eastern parts of Sri Lanka.
The Belgian leaders took a different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and
cultural diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times so as to
work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country. The
arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very innovative.
Questions:
1. Which act recognises the Sinhala as the only official language?
2. Who launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language?
3. How many time Belgium amended their constitution?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.
(B) The place where Salt Law was broken by Mahatma Gandhi.
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable
Symbols:
(i) Paradwip-Major Seaport
(ii) Noida-Software Technology Park
(iii)Salem-Iron and Steel industry
(iv) Kalpakkam-Nuclear Power Plant
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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 1

Sample Paper 04
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Identify the picture-

(a) Tripitaka Korena (b) Diamond sutra

(c) Ukiyo (d) Jikji


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Page 2 Sample Paper 04 NODIA APP

2. Arrange the following events in the correct sequence and select correct option.
1. Frederic Sorrieu prepared a series of 4 paintings.
2. French Revolution.
3. Napoleon was defeated.
4. Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of united Italy.
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

3. The Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920 aimed to achieve which
of the following objectives?
(a) To demand complete independence through non-violent means and self-rule.
(b) To overthrow British rule by using armed rebellion and force.
(c) To promote cooperation between Indians and the British government for reforms.
(d) To negotiate for dominion status with limited self-government under British rule.

4. The ‘Silk Route’ was an important trade route that linked the East and the West. Which of the
following goods were commonly traded along the Silk Route?
1. Silk and spices
2. Precious metals like gold and silver
3. Slaves and textiles
4. Cotton and sugar
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 4

5. Which of the following crops is grown mainly in regions with high temperatures and heavy rainfall
in India?
(a) Wheat, which is suited for cooler climates and requires moderate rainfall.
(b) Rice, which thrives in areas with high temperatures and abundant water.
(c) Maize, which can grow in a variety of climates but requires moderate rainfall.
(d) Barley, which is primarily grown in cooler regions with low rainfall.

6. Minerals and energy resources are crucial for India’s development. Identify the correct statements.
1. Coal is the most abundant mineral resource in India.
2. India is the largest producer of bauxite in the world.
3. Petroleum is primarily extracted from the eastern regions of India.
4. Renewable energy sources are negligible in India’s energy mix.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 3

7. Choose the correct option from columns A and B.

Column A Column B
A. Chandrapur Thermal power plant 1 Odisha
B. Mayurbhanj iron ore mines 2. Amarkantak
C. Kalol oil fields 3. Gujarat
D. Bauxite mines 4. Jharkhand
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2 (b) A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1
(c) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C -4, D - 2

8. Why are political parties considered essential for the functioning of a democracy?
(a) They concentrate power in the hands of a few leaders to ensure efficient governance.
(b) They provide a platform for representing diverse interests and forming governments.
(c) They eliminate the need for elections by controlling all aspects of governance.
(d) They focus solely on maintaining law and order without engaging in policy-making.

9. Democracy provides people with the opportunity to choose their representatives. Which of the
following are outcomes of democratic elections?
1. Free and fair elections
2. Choice of multiple political parties
3. Representation of all social groups
4. Government accountability to the people
Options :
(a) 1, 3, and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

10. Which principle ensures that no single branch of government in India becomes too powerful,
thereby maintaining a balance of power?
(a) Federalism (b) Separation of Powers
(c) Judicial Review (d) Parliamentary Sovereignty

11. Federalism allows for the division of powers between different levels of government. Which of the
following subjects fall under the State List in India’s federal system?
1. Police and public order
2. Defense and foreign affairs
3. Agriculture
4. Communication
Options :
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2 and 3

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Page 4 Sample Paper 04 NODIA APP

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Indian Constitution provides for the abolition of untouchability.
Statement II: Discrimination based on caste is still prevalent in many parts of India despite
constitutional provisions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. In India, the Election Commission is responsible for recognizing political parties as either
_______ parties or regional parties based on their performance in elections.
(a) National (b) Parliamentary
(c) State (d) Local

14. Which of the following indicators is commonly used to measure the economic development of a
country by assessing its overall wealth and standard of living?
(a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP), which calculates the total economic output.
(b) Literacy Rate, which measures the educational attainment of the population.
(c) Life Expectancy, which indicates the average lifespan of citizens.
(d) Human Development Index (HDI), which combines multiple social and economic factors.

15. The three sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, and tertiary) are interdependent. Which of
the following statements about the Indian economy are correct?
1. The primary sector includes agriculture and related activities.
2. The tertiary sector provides services like education and healthcare.
3. The secondary sector produces raw materials for the primary sector.
4. The tertiary sector is the largest employer in India.
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, and 4 (d) 3 and 4

16. In modern economies, most transactions are made using _______ money, such as currency
notes and bank deposits, which are widely accepted as a medium of exchange.
(a) Barter (b) Commodity
(c) Plastic (d) Paper

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Globalization leads to increased interconnectedness of economies around the world.
Statement II: Globalization has no impact on cultural exchange.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 5

18. Match the following and choose correct option:

Problems faced by farming sector Some possible measures
1. Unirrigated land A. a Setting up agro-based mills
2. Low prices for crops B. b Cooperative marketing societies
3. Debt burden C. c Procurement of food grains by government
4. No job in the off season D. d Construction of canals by the government
5. Compelled to sell their grains to the E. e Banks to provide credit with low interest
local traders soon after harvest
(a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E
(b) 1-D 2-C 3-E 4-A 5-B
(c) 1-C 2-D 3-E 4-A 5-B
(d) 1-B 2-C 3-E 4-D 5-A

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

Why do tropical deciduous forests cover 35% of the total forest cover?
(a) These forests are found in high-altitude regions.
(b) They shed their leaves in the dry season.
(c) They are found in the coastal areas.
(d) They are mostly located in desert regions.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Wheat Production (in tons per hectare) Rice Production (in tons per hectare)
E 3 4.5
F 2.5 6
Why does state F have higher rice production compared to wheat production?
(a) It has better soil for rice cultivation.
(b) It has fewer farmers involved in wheat farming.
(c) It lacks rice cultivation techniques.
(d) It has poor irrigation facilities.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 04 NODIA APP

SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Gutenberg’s printing press revolutionized information dissemination.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.


O
“The printing press played a crucial role in the Reformation.” Explain how the printing press
influenced the Protestant Reformation.

22. “Green Revolution transformed Indian agriculture.” Explain its impact.

23. “Political parties are essential for democratic functioning.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

24. “Globalization has led to greater interdependence among nations.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Since the economic liberalization in 1991, India’s trade with other countries has increased
significantly, enhancing export and import activities. As a result, international trade has become
a vital part of India’s economy. Why has international trade become so important for India’s
economy? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “The French Revolution created a sense of national unity and identity.” Explain the statement by
giving suitable examples.

27. “Arun is exploring investment opportunities in the mining sector but is unsure about the key
minerals found in his region.” Help him identify the major minerals available in his area and their
potential uses.


O
“Nisha wants to set up a small-scale energy plant using renewable resources. She is unfamiliar
with the types of renewable energy suitable for her location.” Guide her in identifying the most
appropriate renewable energy sources for her area based on local conditions.

28. “Democracy promotes equality among citizens.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 7

29. In the last few decades, India has made significant progress in reducing poverty levels through
various government initiatives. As a result, poverty alleviation has become a major focus in India’s
development agenda. Why is poverty alleviation crucial for India’s overall development? Support
your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. ‘The Partition of Bengal ignited the nationalist movement in India.’ Substantiate the statement
with key features.


O
‘The Non-Cooperation Movement was a significant phase in India’s struggle for independence.’
Justify the statement with suitable arguments.

31. Sunil notices that industries in his town are polluting the nearby river. What are the environmental
impacts of industrial pollution, and what steps can industries take to reduce pollution?


O
Rani’s town is known for its textile industry, but many workers face poor working conditions.
What are the challenges faced by workers in the manufacturing sector, and how can their working
conditions be improved?

32. ‘Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.’ Analyse the statement with relevant points.


O
‘Belgium’s model of power sharing helped to avoid a civil war.’ Justify this statement with suitable
examples.

33. Miss X is interested in understanding why the tertiary sector has grown faster than the primary
and secondary sectors in recent years. Explain the reasons for the rapid growth of the tertiary
sector, particularly in services like IT, healthcare, and education, and how this shift has impacted
the Indian economy.


O
Ramesh, a fisherman (primary sector), sells his catch to traders who process and package it
(secondary sector), and then it’s sold in urban markets (tertiary sector). How do these sectors
interact, and what role does each play in the economy?

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SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow :
The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade. The market is
the place where such exchanges take place. Trade between two countries is called international
trade. It may take place through sea, air or land routes. While local trade is carried in cities, towns
and villages, state level trade is carried between two or more states. Advancement of international
trade of a country is an index to its economic prosperity. It is, therefore, considered the economic
barometer for a country.
As the resources are space bound, no country can survive without international trade. Export and
import are the components of trade. The balance of trade of a country is the difference between its
export and import. When the value of export exceeds the value of imports, it is called a favourable
balance of trade. On the contrary, if the value of imports exceeds the value of exports, it is termed
as unfavourable balance of trade.
India has trade relations with all the major trading blocks and all geographical regions of the world.
The commodities exported from India to other countries include gems and jewellery, chemicals and
related products, agriculture and allied products, etc.
The commodities imported to India include petroleum crude and products, gems and jewellery,
chemicals and related products, base metals, electronic items, machinery, agriculture and allied
products. India has emerged as a software giant at the international level and it is earning large
foreign exchange through the export of information technology.
Questions :
1. What do you mean by international trade?
2. What is meant by favourable and unfavourable balance of trade?
3. What are the commodities export and imported by India in international trade?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The
processes of soil formation and erosion go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance
between the two. Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation,
over-grazing, construction and mining etc., while natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to
soil erosion. The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.
The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin such lands
are called ravines. Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases
the top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion. Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping
land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also caused due to defective methods of farming.
Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope form channels for the quick flow of water
leading to soil erosion.
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called
contour ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts
erosion. Western and central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming. Large fields can be
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 04 Page 9

divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops. This breaks up the force of the
wind. This method is known as strip cropping. Planting lines of trees to create shelter also works
in a similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter belts have contributed
significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert in western India.
Questions:
1. The balance of soil formation and erosion is disturbed due to human activities. Give one
example to prove the statement.
2. What is soil conservation?
3. Differentiate between gully erosion and sheet erosion.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA
This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in
the world. There are now about 36 lakh elected representatives in the panchayats and municipalities
etc., all over the country. This number is bigger then the population of many countries in the
world. Constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in our country.
It has also increased women’s representation and voice in our democracy. At the same time,
there are many difficulties. While elections are held regularly of Panchayats and people participate
enthusiastically in it but meetings of gram sabhas are not held regularly.
Questions :
1. Why is Indian decentralisation considered as the largest experiment in democracy ?
2. Analyse how constitutional status for local government has helped to deepen democracy in
India ?
3. Explain any two steps taken by the Indian Government for decentralisation.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places A and B are marked on the given outline map of India. Identify them and write
their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
A. The location of the Indian National Congress Session of 1927.
B. A place where Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law and manufactured salt by
boiling salt sea water.
Page 10 Sample Paper 04 NODIA APP

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable
symbols.
C. A major port on the South-East coast of India.
D. A major sugarcane producing state.
E. A Software Technology Park
F. A major dam in Odisha.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 1

Sample Paper 05
Class - 10th Exam - 2024 - 25
Social Science
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
1. The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the
Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words.
5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
6. Section E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.
7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
9. A separate question has been provided for visually impaired candidates in lieu of questions having visual
inputs, maps etc. Such questions are to be attempted by Visually impaired students only. In addition to
this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Study the picture and answer the following question-

Who designed the cover of German almanac?

(a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Andreas Rebmann
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini (d) Napoleon
Page 2 Sample Paper 05 NODIA APP

2. Arrange the following events in the ascending year of their occurrence :-

1. Poona Act
2. Mahatma Gandhi got arrested
3. Gandhi Irwin Pact
4. Bhagat singh and two others were sentenced to death
Options :
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

3. The Great Depression of 1929 had a devastating impact on the global economy. Which was a
primary cause?
(a) The collapse of the stock market in the United States, leading to economic instability worldwide.
(b) The end of colonialism, which disrupted trade and investment between Europe and Asia.
(c) The rapid industrialization of Africa and South America, which caused a decline in European
markets.
(d) The invention of steam engines, which reduced demand for labor in Europe and the US.

4. In colonial India, print culture played a significant role in spreading nationalist ideas. Which of
the following contributed to the growth of print culture in India?
1. Establishment of printing presses in the 19th century
2. Growth of vernacular languages
3. Rise of reform movements
4. Suppression of political dissent by the British
Options :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

5. Which of the following is a conventional source of energy that is widely used for generating
electricity in India?
(a) Wind energy, which is a renewable source of energy.
(b) Coal, which is a fossil fuel and the main source of electricity generation.
(c) Solar energy, which is increasingly being used in some regions.
(d) Biomass energy, which is derived from organic matter.

6. Manufacturing industries are essential for India’s economic growth. Identify the correct statements.
1. The textile industry is one of the oldest and largest manufacturing sectors in India.
2. The automobile industry in India primarily produces vehicles for domestic consumption only.
3. Small-scale industries contribute significantly to employment in India.
4. Information technology is not considered a part of manufacturing industries.
Options:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 3

7. Match the following items given in column-I with those in column-II. Choose the correct answer
from the codes given below :
Column-I Column-II
A. Contour ploughing 1. Planting lines of trees.
B. Strip cropping 2. Western and Eastern Himalaya.
C. Shelter belts 3. Grass are left to grow between crops.
D. Terrace cultivation 4. Decelerate the flow of water
Option :
(a) A - 4, B - 3, C - 1, D - 2
(b) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2
(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 2, D - 1
(d) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

8. Which of the following is a positive outcome of democracy in India?

(a) Increased political participation and representation of diverse groups.
(b) Concentration of power in the hands of a few individuals.
(c) Suppression of dissenting voices and opposition parties.
(d) Limited access to education and healthcare services.

9. Power-sharing is an essential feature of democracy. Which of the following statements about

power-sharing are correct?
1. Power is concentrated in the hands of the majority.
2. Power is shared among different levels of government.
3. Power-sharing helps reduce the possibility of conflict in society.
4. Power is divided equally among all citizens.
Options :
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3

10. Which list in the Indian Constitution contains subjects on which only the central government can
legislate?
(a) State List (b) Concurrent List
(c) Union List (d) Regional List

11. Religious diversity is a defining characteristic of India. Which of the following statements about
secularism in India are correct?
1. The government recognizes one religion as the official religion.
2. The state treats all religions equally.
3. Citizens are free to practice any religion.
4. Religious communities are required to follow government-imposed practices.
Options :
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

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Page 4 Sample Paper 05 NODIA APP

12. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Political parties are essential for the functioning of a democracy.
Statement II: All political parties in India must be registered under the Representation of the
People Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

13. One of the key outcomes of democracy is the promotion of _______ equality, where every
adult citizen has the right to vote regardless of their social or economic status.
(a) Political (b) Economic
(c) Religious (d) Gender

14. How does the secondary sector contribute to the Indian economy?
(a) By providing services such as education, healthcare, and banking.
(b) By transforming raw materials into finished goods through manufacturing and construction.
(c) By engaging in activities related to information technology and research.
(d) By focusing on agricultural production and resource extraction.

15. Credit plays an important role in the economy by providing financial resources to individuals and
businesses. Which of the following are advantages of taking credit?
1. Ability to purchase expensive goods and services
2. Increased ability to start or expand a business
3. No need to pay back the borrowed amount
4. Greater financial flexibility
Options :
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2, and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

16. Multinational corporations (MNCs) are a key driver of globalization, as they operate in multiple
countries and often establish _______ in developing nations to reduce production costs.
(a) Offices (b) Industries
(c) Subsidiaries (d) Supply chains

17. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Human Development Index (HDI) measures economic development only.
Statement II: HDI includes indicators such as life expectancy, education, and per capita income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only I is correct. (b) Only II is correct.
(c) Both I and II are correct. (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 5

18. Match the words in column A with suitable options in column B.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
A. Silk routes 1. Institution set-up to finance postwar reconstruction.
B. G-77 2. Carnival in Trinidad
C. Canal colonies 3. Pre-modern trade links
D. World Bank 4. Countries demanding a new international economic order
E. Hosay 5. Semi-desert wastes in the Punjab transformed by irrigation
(a) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2. E - 5
(b) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1, E - 2
(c) A - 3, B - 4, C - 5, D - 1, E - 2
(d) A - 5, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1, E - 2

19. Interpret the following pie diagram and choose the correct option for the following question?

What is the significance of 50 percent of the land being used for wildlife sanctuaries?
(a) It helps in the conservation of biodiversity.
(b) It is primarily used for agricultural purposes.
(c) It promotes urban development.
(d) It is used for grazing livestock.

20. Read the data given below and answer the question:
State Coal Production (in million tons) Iron Ore Production (in million tons)
G 15 20
H 10 25
Why does state H have higher iron ore production than coal production?
(a) It has more iron ore reserves.
(b) It has a higher demand for coal.
(c) It lacks the technology for coal mining.
(d) It imports iron ore from other states.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 05 NODIA APP

SECTION - B
Very Short Answer Question (4 × 2 = 8)

21. “Napoleon played a crucial role in spreading nationalist ideas across Europe.” Explain how
Napoleon contributed to European nationalism.


O
“Unification of Germany was largely driven by nationalist movements.” Justify the statement with
suitable arguments.

22. “Coal is a vital energy resource in India.” Explain its significance.

23. “Democracy ensures accountability of the government.” Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.

24. “Poverty is the most serious obstacle to development.” Explain why this is true.

SECTION - C
Short Answer Based Question (5 × 3 = 15)

25. Between 1980 and 2020, India’s healthcare facilities have expanded, resulting in improved health
outcomes and increased life expectancy. Consequently, the healthcare sector has become a key
component of India’s development. Why has the healthcare sector become so vital in India’s
development process? Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

26. “Mahatma Gandhi’s leadership transformed the nature of the Indian national movement.” Explain
the statement by giving suitable examples.

27. “Rahul wants to start a small-scale garment manufacturing unit. However, he is unfamiliar with
the raw materials and machinery required.” Assist him in identifying the essential raw materials
and machinery needed for garment manufacturing.


O
“Sneha plans to establish an automobile assembly plant but lacks knowledge about the critical
factors for setting up such an industry.” Guide her in identifying the key factors necessary for
establishing a successful automobile assembly plant.

28. “Power sharing is necessary to prevent dictatorship.” Explain the statement by giving any three
examples.

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CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 7

29. With the advent of information technology, the IT sector in India has experienced significant
growth, attracting foreign investments. Consequently, the IT sector has become a key driver of
India’s economic development. Why has the IT sector become so influential in India’s economy?
Support your answer by giving any three reasons.

SECTION - D
Long Answer Based Question (4 × 5 = 20)

30. The Industrial Revolution transformed the global economy.’ Justify the statement with suitable
arguments.


O
‘The Scramble for Africa was a direct consequence of European imperialism.’ Substantiate the
statement with key features.

31. Ravi notices that many rivers in his region are highly polluted. What are the main causes of water
pollution, and what measures can be taken to control it?


O
Rani sees that a nearby dam project has displaced many families. What are the advantages and
disadvantages of large dam projects, and how can displacement issues be addressed?

32. ‘Federalism promotes unity while respecting diversity.’ Analyse this statement with relevant points.


O
‘India’s federal structure is unique due to its union of states.’ Explain the features of Indian
federalism.

33. Mr. Y is learning about the role of banks in the modern economy. How do commercial banks create
credit, and why is the availability of credit important for promoting investment and economic
growth?


O
A small business owner is denied a loan from a bank due to lack of collateral. How does the lack
of formal credit access affect small businesses, and what alternatives could help entrepreneurs get
the credit they need?

Continue on next page.....

Page 8 Sample Paper 05 NODIA APP

SECTION - E
Case Based Questions (3 × 4 = 12)

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follows:
Gutenberg was the son of a merchant and grew up on a large agricultural estate. From his childhood,
he had seen wine and olive presses. Subsequently, he learnt the art of polishing stones, became a
master goldsmith, and also acquired the expertise to create lead moulds used for making trinkets.
Drawing on this knowledge, Gutenberg adapted existing technology to design his innovation. The
olive press provided the model for the printing press, and moulds were used for casting the metal
types for the letters of the alphabet. By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system. The first book he
printed was the Bible. About 180 copies were printed and it took three years to produce them. By
the standards of the time this was fast production.
Questions:
1. Who was Gutenberg?
2. What were some of the professional skills acquired by Gutenberg?
3. What contribution was made by Gutenberg in the field of press?

35. Read the given extract and answer the following questions.
The denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down is described as soil erosion. The
processes of soil formation and erosion, go on simultaneously, and generally there is balance between
the two.
Sometimes, this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing,
construction and mining, etc. While natural forces like wind, glacier and water lead to soil erosion,
the running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.
The land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land. In the Chambal basin, such lands
are called ravines. Sometimes, water flows as sheet over large areas down a slope. In such cases the
top soil is washed away. This is known as sheet erosion.
Wind blows loose soil off flat or sloping land known as wind erosion. Soil erosion is also caused due
to defective methods of farming. Ploughing in a wrong way i.e. up and down the slope from channels
for the quick flow of water leading to soil erosion.
Ploughing along the contour lines can decelerate the flow of water down the slopes. This is called
contour ploughing. Steps can be cut out on the slopes making terraces. Terrace cultivation restricts
erosion. Western and Central Himalayas have well developed terrace farming. Large field can be
divided into strips. Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops.
This breaks up the force of the wind. This method is known as strip cropping. Planting line of trees
to create shelter also works in similar way. Rows of such trees are called shelter belts. These shelter
belts have contributed significantly to the stabilisation of sand dunes and in stabilising the desert
in Western India.
Questions :
1. Are humans responsible for soil erosion? If yes, How?
2. What are the negative consequences of deforestation over soil erosion?
CBSE Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper 05 Page 9

3. State any two positive and negative impacts of soil erosion on biodiversity.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :
How many languages do we have in India ? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest
information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than
1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were
grouped together under some major languages. For example languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi,
Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’.
Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now
included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled
Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is perhaps
the most diverse country in the world.
Questions :
1. Explain the importance of language diversity in India.
2. Differentiate between Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Languages.
3. The fusion of languages has united the country into one cultural entity.’ Explain the statement
with an example.

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (a) Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given outline map of India.
Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(A) Peasant Satyagrah in Gujarat.
(B) Jallianwalla Bagh incident
(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any 3 of the following with suitable
symbols.
(i) A place where Arid soil is found
(ii) Tungabhadra Dam
(iii)Largest producer of tea in India.
(iv) Mumbai High
Page 10 Sample Paper 05 NODIA APP

[Link].i
 10PB24MATS01 QP
Pre-Board Examination- Class 10
MATHEMATICS (Standard)
Time Allowed: 3 hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This Question Paper has 5 sections A to E.
2. All Questions are compulsory. However, internal choice is given in some questions.
3. Section A has 20 MCQs having 1 mark each.
4. Section B has 5 Questions having 2 marks each.
5. Section C has 6 Questions having 3 marks each.
6. Section D has 4 Questions having 5 marks each.
7. Section E has 3 Case based integrated units (having 4 mark each) with sub parts of
values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
8. Draw neat figures wherever required.
9. Use the value of π = (22/7) if otherwise not specified.
Section A
1. Find the value of k for which the system of equations x + (k + l) y = 5 and
(k + l) x + 9 y = 8k - 1 has infinitely many solutions

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

2. In the given figure, AB and AC are tangents to a circle with centre O such that
∠ BAC = 40°, then ∠BOC is equal to

A 40˚ O

(a) 40˚ (b) 50˚ (c) 140˚ (d) 150˚

3. ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR. If AM and PN are altitude of ∆ABC and ∆PQR respectively and
AB2 : PQ2 = 25 : 36, then AM : PN = --------

(a) 2 : 5 (b) 5 : 6 (c) 25 : 36 (d) 2 : 3

!
4. If the area of a sector of a circle is of the area of the circle, then the angle at the
!"
centre is equal to
 (a) 30˚ (b) 36˚ (c) 45˚ (d) 60˚

5. If the circumference of a circle increases from 2π to 4π, then its area becomes ----- of
the original area
(a) half (b) double (c) three times (d) four times

6. P (5,1), Q (1,4) and R (8,5) are the coordinates of the vertices of a triangle. Which of
the following types of triangle will ∆PQR be

(a) equilateral triangle (b) scalene right angled triangle

(c) isosceles right angled triangle. (d) isosceles acute angled triangle.

7. If –2 and 3 are the zeroes of quadratic polynomial x2 + (p + l) x + q, then p and q are ----
- respectively.

(a) –7, 2 (b) –6, –2 (c) 2, 6 (d) –2, –6

8. A point (x y) is at a distance of 7 units from the origin. How many such points lie in the
third quadrant?

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) Infinitely many

9. Two right circular cones have their heights in the ratio 1 : 3 and the radii in the ratio
3 : 1. What is the ratio of their volumes ?

(a) 1 : 3 (b) 2: 3 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 9 : 1

10. For the following distribution, the sum of upper limits of the median and modal class is

Class 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25

Frequency 11 28 24 18 19

(a) 25 (b) 20 (c) 15 (d) 10

11. If g – 1, g + 3 and 3g – 1 are in A.P, then find the value of g.

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7

12. If mode and mean of a data set are given as 8 and 9 respectively, then the median of the
data set is

(a) 8.57 (b) 8.67 (c) 8.97 (d) 9.24

13. In the given figure, MN is a tangent to the circle with centre L. Find value of ∠p.

(a) 110˚ N
(b) 115˚ L
(c) 120˚ 25˚ p
(d) 125˚ M

14. Find the 11th term from the end of the given progression 10, 7, 4, ………, –62.
 (a) –32 (b) –16 (c) –25 (d) 0

15. A single letter is selected at random from the word PROBABILITY. The probability that
the selected letter is a vowel is --------.
! # $ ""
(a) (b) (c) (d)
"" "" "" $

16. In triangles ABC and DEF, ∠B = ∠E, ∠F = ∠C, and AB = 3DE. Then the two triangles
are

(a) congruent but not similar (b) similar but not congruent
(c) neither congruent nor similar (d) congruent as well as similar

17. What is the HCF of the least prime number and the least composite number

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

18. √n is a natural number such that n > 1. Which of these can definitely be expressed as
product of primes?
√$
(i) √n (ii) n (iii)
!

(a) only (i) (b) only (i) and (ii) (c) all (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) None of these

Question number 19 and 20 are Assertion and Reason based questions carrying 1 mark
each. Two statements are given, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to the questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and
(d).

19. Statement A (Assertion): HCF of 26 and 91is 13 and the LCM is 182.

Statement R (Reason): As HCF(a,b) X (a x b) = LCM(a,b)

(a) Both Assertion (A) and (R ) are True and Reason (R ) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are True but Reason (R ) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is True but Reason (R ) is False
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R ) is True

20. Assertion (A): The mid-point of a line segment divides it in ratio 1 : 1.

Reason (R): Three points are colinear if they lie on same straight line.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and (R ) are True and Reason (R ) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R ) are True but Reason (R ) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is True but Reason (R ) is False
(d) Assertion (A) is False but Reason (R ) is True
 Section B
21. Solve for x and y : 71x + 37y = 253
37x + 71 y = 287
OR
Find value of x and y. 26x + 28y – 269 = 0 ; 28x + 26y – 271 = 0.
22. Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 27 : 64, then find the ratio of their surface
areas.
23. Prove that the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
OR
Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is rhombus.
24. A cow is tied to a peg at one corner of a rectangular shaped grass field of 20 m long and
16 m wide with a 14 m long rope. Find the area of that part the cow cannot graze.

25. Find a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are (3 + √3 ) and (3 – √3 ).

Section C
(&'$ ) * !&'$! ))
26. Show that = tan A.
(!,-&! ) * ,-& ))

27. Given that √3 is irrational. Prove that 1 – 2 √3 is irrational.

28. A box contain 90 paper discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. There is only one
number on a disc. If one disc is drawn at random from the box find the probability that
it bears
(i). a two-digit number.
(ii). a perfect square number.
(ii). a number divisible by 5.
29. ∆ABC is right-angled at B with a circle inscribed in it. The lengths of two sides containing
the right angle are 6 cm and 8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.

8 cm

B C
6 cm

30. A lending library has a fixed charge for first three days and an additional charge for each
day thereafter. Priya paid ₹ 50 for a book kept for eight days. Her friend Shilpa paid ₹ 85
for a book kept for thirteen days. Find the fixed charge and the charge for each extra day.
OR
The numerator of a fraction is 4 less than the denominator. If the numerator is decreased
by two and the denominator is increased by one, then the denominator is 8 times the
numerator. Find the fraction.
31. A sphere of diameter 12 cm is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel filled with
water. If the sphere is completely submerged in the water, the water level in the
.
cylindrical vessel rises by 3 cm. Find the diameter of the cylindrical vessel.
/
OR
A wooden toy is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with both their radii
being equal to 3 cm and the height of the cone is equal to 5 cm. Find the volume of the
wood used.

Section D
32. The monthly consumption of electric power of 68 consumers of a locality under Harippad
Electricity office is shown in the following table. Find the mode and median of the data.

Monthly consumption (in 65 - 85 – 105 - 125 – 145 – 165- 185-

KWh) 85 105 125 145 165 185 205
Number of consumers 4 5 13 20 14 8 4

OR
If the mean of the following frequency distribution is 91, then find the value of f1 and f2.
Class 0-30 30-60 60-90 90-120 120-150 150-180 Total
Frequency 12 21 f1 52 f2 11 150

33. Prove that, if a line segment is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the
other two sides in distinct points, the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
Using the above result, prove the following. A
In the given figure, DE ∥ BC and BD = CE.
Prove that ∆ ABC is an isosceles triangle. D E

B C

34. In a construction site where multistorey buildings are constructing, structures of 2 towers
(named as Kaveri and Ganga) are completed. They are on same horizontal line. The angle
of elevation of the top of 24 m high Kaveri tower from the foot of Ganga tower is 60˚.The
angle of elevation of top of Ganga tower from the foot of Kaveri tower is 30˚. What is
the distance between the two towers? Find the height of Ganga tower.
OR
A spherical balloon of radius r subtends an angle of 60˚ to its top for a viewer standing
on ground. If the angle of elevation of its centre is 45˚ from the same point for the viewer,
then find the height of the centre of the balloon from ground in terms of its radius.
35. The ratio of 11th term to the 18th term of an Arithmetic Progression (A.P) is 2 : 3. Find
the ratio of sum of its first five terms to sum of its first 21 terms.
 Section E
36. The panchayat office (P) and School (s) are on the same street in a village. School and
Library (L) building are also on a same street, but not the former street. The co-ordinates
of the three buildings are marked on a graph paper, by taking 1 unit = 500 m, as shown
below.
On the basis of given graph answer the following questions:
(i) What is the distance between Panchayat and school building?
(ii) How far is Library from the school?
(iii) What type of triangle is formed by joining positions of Panchayat, School and
Library?

3.5
3 P
2.5
2
Y Axis

1.5
1 S L
0.5
0
0 1 2 3 4 5
X Axis

37. India gate (formerly known as All India war memorial) is located near Karthavya path
(formerly Rajpath) at New Delhi. It stands as a memorial to 74187 soldiers of Indian
Army, who gave their life in the first world war. This 42 m (Approx. 138 feet) tall
structure was designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens in the style of Roman triumphal arches. A
group of students visited India gate as a part of their study tour.

(i). What is the angle of elevation if they are standing at a distance of 42 m away from
the India Gate?
(ii). They want to see the monument at an angle 60˚, then what will be the distance at
which they should stand?
(iii). If the altitude of the sun is 60˚, then find the height of vertical tower that cast its
shadow of 20 m long.
OR
The ratio of length of a pillar to its shadow is 1 : √3 . Find the angle of elevation of
sun.
38. A carpenter wants to make a 3 m long ladder having rungs (steps) 25 cm apart. The
rungs decrease uniformly in length from 45 cm at bottom to 25 cm at the top. The top
and bottom rungs are at a distance of 2.5 m.
Answer the following questions. Assume there is no wastage of wood.

(i). Find the total number of rungs on the ladder.

(ii). What is the length of the middle rung?
(iii). Find the length required for making the ladder.
OR
Find the length required for the rungs.

25
cm
m
2.5
45
cm

cm
25
 KVS(DR)/2024/NA

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN,DELHI REGION

PRE BOARD-1(2024-25)

CLASS: X SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS STANDARD

MM:80 Time:3:00 Hours

General Instructions:
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 2 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 3 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 5 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (4 marks each) with sub- parts of
the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Questions of 5 marks, 2
Questions of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice has
been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take π =22/7 wherever required if not stated.
SECTION A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

The greatest number which divides both 30 and 80, leaving remainder 2 and 3
Q.1 respectively, is
1
(a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 11 (d) 14
1 1
If α, β are the zeroes of the polynomial p(x)= 4x2 -3x-7, then α + β is equal to
Q.2
(a)
−7
(b)
7 3
(c) 7 (d)
−3 1
3 3 7
If the lines given by 3x + 2ky = 2 and 2x + 5y + 1 = 0 are parallel, then the value of k is
Q.3 −5 2 15 3
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 2 1
Which of the following equations has two distinct real roots?
Q.4 9 1
(a) 2x2 – 3√2 x + 4 =0 (b) x2 + x-5= 0 (c) x2 +3 x +2√2 = 0 (d) 5x2 – 3x + 1 = 0
In a two digit natural number, tens digit is the square of units digit and the sum of its 1
Q.5 digits is 12, then the number is
(a) 42 (b) 39 (c) 93 (d)24
Two A.P.s have the same common difference. The first term of one of these is -1 and that
Q.6 of the other is -8. Then the difference between their 4th terms is 1
(a) 1 (b) -9 (c) 7 (d)-8

In ΔABC, DE‖AC, AE = a units, EC = b units DE = x units BC=y units, then 1

Q.7 𝑎+𝑏
(a) x = ay
𝑎𝑥
(b) y = a+b
𝑎𝑦
(c) x = a+b
𝑥 𝑎
(d) 𝑦 = b

In ΔLMN, ∠L = 50° and ∠N = 60°, If ΔLMN ~ ΔPQR, then find ∠Q

Q.8
(a) 40° (b) 50° (c) 70° (d)120° 1
The distance of the point (-6,8) from the origin (in units) is:
Q.9
(a) -10 (b)10 (c)-8 (d)8 1
 A point on the x-axis divides the line segment joining the points A (2, -3) and B (5, 6) in
the ratio 1:2. The point is 1
Q.10 7 3
(a) (4, 0) (b) (2 , 2) (c) (3, 0) (d) (0,3)

Q.11 If cos θ + sin θ = √2 cos θ, then cos θ – sin θ is equal to

1
(a) 𝑠𝑖𝑛θ (b) √2𝑠𝑖𝑛θ (c) 2𝑠𝑖𝑛θ (d)
1
𝑠𝑖𝑛θ 1
√2 2

1 1
Q.12 Given that sin α = 2 and cos β = 2 , then the value of (β – α) is
1
(a) 0° (b) 30° (c) 60° (d) 90°

In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle with

Q.13 centre O. If ∠APB = 50°, then ∠OAB will be 1
(a) 100° (b) 30° (c) 90° (d) 25°

If the perimeter and the area of a circle are numerically equal, then the radius of the
Q.14 circle is 1
(a) 2 units (b) π units (c) r units (d) 6 units
Anishka melted 11 chocolate cubes in a cylindrical
cup as shown in the figure. If the length of the side of
each cube is k cm and the radius of the cup is r cm,
which of these represents the height of the melted
Q.15 22 1
chocolate in the cup? (Take π = 7 )
7𝑘 3 7𝑘 3 7𝑘 2 7𝑘 2
(a) cm (b) 2𝑟 2 cm (c) cm (d) 2𝑟 2 cm
4𝑟 4𝑟

For the following distribution :

Marks Below 10 Below 20 Below 30 Below 40 Below 50 Below 60
No. of 3 12 27 57 75 80
Q.16 1
students
The modal class is
(a) 10-20 (b)20-30 (c) 30-40 (d) 50-60
Two coins are tossed. What is the probability of getting at most one head
Q.17 3 1 1 3 1
(a)4 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d)8
A dice is rolled twice. The probability that 5 will not come up either time is
Q.18 11 1 13 25 1
(a)36 (b) 3 (c) 36 (d)36

In questions 19 and 20 choose the correct options given below :

(a)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Assertion (A) : If the volume of two spheres are in the ratio 27: 8 then their surface
areas are in the ratio 3:2
Q.19 1
4
Reason (R) : Volume of the sphere = 3π𝑟 3 and its surface area is equal to 4π𝑟 2 .
 Assertion (A) : If the value of mode and mean is 60 and 66 respectively, then the value
of median is 64.
Q.20 1
Reason (R) : Mode = 3median + 2 mean
SECTION B

Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 mark each.

Explain why 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 5 is a composite number.
21
2

A street light bulb is fixed on a pole 6 m above the

level of the street. If a woman of height 1.5m casts a
shadow of 3m, what is the length of the shadow of the
pole?

22
OR 2

In the given figure, ∠ M= ∠ Q = 460. Find the value of x

in terms of a,b and c.

5𝑐𝑜𝑠2 600 +4𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 300 −𝑡𝑎𝑛2 450

Evaluate 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 300 +𝑐𝑜𝑠2 300
23 OR 2
If sin A= cos A, find the value of 2tan2A+ sin2 A - 1

A circle is touching the side BC of a Δ ABC at the point P and

24 touching AB and AC produced at points Q and R respectively.
1 2
Prove that AQ = 2(Perimeter of Δ ABC)

A number X is selected at random from the numbers 1, 2, 3 and 4. Another number Y is

25 selected at random from the numbers 1, 4, 9 and 6. Find the probability that the product 2
of X and Y is less than 16.
SECTION C

Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 mark each.

26 Prove that 5 − √3 is irrational.

3
11 2
Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 7y2 – 3 y - 3 and verify the relationship
27 3
between the zeroes and the coefficients.
At present Asha’s age (in years) is 2 more than the square of her daughter Nisha’s age.
When Nisha grows to her mother’s present age, Asha’s age would be one year less than
10 times the present age of Nisha. Find the present ages of both Asha and Nisha
28
OR 3
A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a
distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/h more than its original speed. If it takes
 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is its original average speed?

29 Prove that
sinθ−cosθ+1
= secθ + tanθ 3
sinθ+cosθ−1

30 Equal circles with centers O and O' touch each other

at X. OO' produced to meet a circle with Centre O', at
A. AC is a tangent to the circle whose Centre is O. O' D 3
𝐷𝑂′
is perpendicular to AC. Find the value of 𝐶𝑂

A round table cover has six equal designs as

shown in Fig. If the radius of the cover is
28 cm, find the cost of making the designs at the
rate of ₹ 0.35 per cm2. (Use √3 = 1.7)

OR
31 3

In the given figure, two concentric circles with

centre O have radii 21 cm and 42 cm. If ∠AOB = 600,
find the area of the shaded region. ( Use π = 22/7 )

SECTION D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 mark each.

Solve the following pair of equations, graphically:
2x + y = 6 ; 2x – y + 2 = 0
Find the ratio of the areas of the two triangles formed by the lines representing these
equations with the x-axis and the lines with the y-axis.
5
OR
32
Ankita travels 14 km to her home partly by rickshaw and partly by bus. She takes half an
hour if she travels 2 km by rickshaw, and the remaining distance by bus. On the other
hand, if she travels 4 km by rickshaw and the remaining distance by bus, she takes 9
minutes longer. Find the speed of the rickshaw and of the bus.

a) Prove that, if a line is drawn parallel to one side of a

triangle to intersect the other two sides in distinct
33
points, the other two sides are divided in the same
ratio. Using the above result, do the following:
 b) In the given Fig. DE || BC and BD = CE. Prove that 5
ΔABC is an isosceles triangle.

The mean of the following frequency distribution is 62.8 and the sum of all the
frequencies is 50. Compute the missing frequencies f1 and f2.
Classes 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100 100-120 5
34
Frequency 5 f1 10 f2 7 8

The angle of elevation of a cloud from a point 60 m above the surface of the water of a
lake
is 30° and the angle of depression of its reflection in water of lake is 600 find the height
of the cloud from the surface of water.

OR

A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind

5
in a
35 horizontal line at a height of 88.2 m from the ground.
The angle of elevation of the balloon from the eyes of
the girl
at any instant is 60°. After some time, the angle of elevation
reduces to 30°. Find the distance travelled by the balloon
during the interval

SECTION E

Section E consists of 3 questions of 4 mark each.

In a potato race, a bucket is placed at the starting point, which is 5 m from the first
potato, and the other potatoes are placed 3 m apart in a straight line. There are ten
potatoes in the line. A competitor starts from the bucket, picks up the nearest potato,
runs back with it, drops it in the bucket, runs back to pick up the next potato, runs to the
bucket to drop it in, and she continues in the same way until all the potatoes are in the
bucket.

(1+1
36
+2)

(i)Calculate the total distance for first potato.

(ii)Calculate the total distance for second potato.
(iii) What is the total distance the competitor has to run?
OR
What is the total distance the competitor has to run if number of potatoes is to be done 8
only.
 A garden is in the shape of rectangle. Gardener grew
sapling of Ashoka tree on the boundary of garden at
the distance of 1 meter from each other. He want to
decorate the garden with rose plants. He choose
triangular region inside the park to grow rose plants.
On the above situation, gardener took help from the
students of class 10th. They made a chart for it which
looks as the given figure.
(1+1
37 (i)If A is taken as origin, What are the coordinates of
+2)
the vertices of triangle PQR ?
(ii) If A is taken as origin, what are the co-ordinates of
mid-point of PQ?
(iii) If C is taken as origin, what are the co-ordinates
of point P?
OR
If D is taken as origin, what are the co-ordinates of
point Q?
The word 'circus' has the same root as 'circle'. In a
closed circular area, various entertainment acts
including human skill and animal training are
presented before the crowd.
A circus tent is cylindrical up to a height of 8 m and
conical above it. The diameter of the base is 28 m and
(1+1
38 total height of tent is 18.5 m. Based on the above
+2)
information, answer the following questions:
(1) Find slant height of the conical part.
(2) Determine the floor area of the tent.
(3) (a) Find area of the cloth used for making tent.
OR
(b) Find total volume of air inside an empty tent.
 केंद्रीय विद्यालय संगठन ,बेंगलरु, संभाग
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, BENGALURU REGION
प्रथम प्री-बोर्ड परीक्षा (२०२४-२५)
FIRST PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION (2024-25)

CLASS: X [Link]
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS (STANDARD) TIME: 3 Hrs.
CODE: 041

General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains 38 questions.
2. This Question Paper is divided into 5 Sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. In Section A, Question No 1-18 are MCQs and Q No19 and 20 are Assertion-Reason based
questions of 1 mark each.
4. In Section B Question no 21-25 are very short answer (VSA) type questions, carrying 2 marks
each.
5. In Section C, Question no. 26-31 are short answer (SA) type questions, carrying 3 marks each.
6. In Section D Question no 32-35 are long answer (LA) type questions carrying 5 marks each.
7. In Section E, question no 36-38 are case based questions carrying 4 marks each with sub parts of
the values of 1,1 and 2 marks each respectively.
8. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of Section B, 2 Questions of
Section C and 2 Questions of Section D has been provided. An internal choice has been provided
in all the 2 marks questions of Section E.
9. Draw neat and clean figures wherever required.
10. Take π=22/7 wherever required if not stated
11. Use of calculators is not allowed

SECTION-A
Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each
1. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 25x + 156 are 1
(a) both positive (b) both negative
(c) one positive and one negative (d) can’t be determined

2. 3 5
The pair of linear equations 2 𝑥 + 3 𝑦 = 7 and 9𝑥 + 10𝑦 = 14 is
(a) consistent (b) inconsistent
1
(c) consistent with one solution (d) consistent with many solutions
3. In figure, PQ and PR are tangents to a circle with centre A. If ∠QPA = 27°, then ∠QAR
equals to

1
(a) 63° (b) 153° (c) 126° (d) 117°

4. The next term of the AP:√18 ,√50, √98, ,….. is

(a) √146 (b) √128 (c) √162 (d) √200 1
Page 1 of 7
5. Volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64 : 27. The ratio of their surface areas is
(a) 3 : 4 (b) 4 : 3 (c) 9 : 16 (d) 16 : 9 1

6. 5
If 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝐴 = 12 , then find the value of (𝑠𝑖𝑛𝐴 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝐴). 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝐴
1
12/5 (b) 17/12 (c) 7/12 (d) None of these

7. In the given figure AB, AC and AD are tangents to the circle. If AB =5 cm , then AD is
equal to
1

a) 5 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 9 cm (d) 10 cm

8. If zeroes of p(x) = 2x2 – 7x + k are reciprocal of each other, then value of k is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 1

9. The median class of the following marks of 100 students is:

Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60
Number of students 8 10 12 22 30 18
1
(a) 20 – 30 (b) 30 – 40 (c) 40 – 50 (d) 50 – 60

10. In the figure PA and PB are tangents to the circle with centre O. If ∠APB = 60°, then
∠OAB is

(a) 30° (b) 60° (c) 90° (d) 15°

1
11. 2
The nature of the roots of the quadratic equation 9𝑥 − 6𝑥 − 2 = 0
(a) Irrational and distinct (b) Not real
(c) Real and distinct (d) Real and equal 1

12. If 3 cot θ = 2, then the value of tan θ

2 3 3 2 1
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) (d)
√13 √13

13. A toy is in the form of a cone of radius r cm mounted on a hemisphere of the same
radius. The total height of the toy is (r + h) cm, then the volume of the toy is
(a) π (2r +h) cm3 (b) π r2(2r + h) cm3
1 1 1
(c) 3 𝜋r2(2r +h) cm 3 (d) 3 πr2 (r + h) cm3

Page 2 of 7
14. 17 cards numbered 1,2,3……,17 are put in a box and mixed thoroughly. One person
draws a card from the box. Find the probability that the number on the card is: a prime
number
(a)
5 6
(b) 17
7
(c) 17
8
(d) 17 1
17

𝑎
15. If P (3 , 4) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q (– 6, 5) and R (–2, 3),
then the value of a is
(a) –12 (b) – 4 (c) 12 (d) –6 1

16. Using the empirical formula, find the mode of a distribution whose mean is 8.32 and the
median is 8.05.
(a) 24.51 (b) 8.32 (c) 8.05 (d) 7.51 1

17. Three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are A(1, 4), B(–2, 3) and C(5, 8). The ordinate
of the fourth vertex D is
(a) 9 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) 6 1

18. The probability that a non-leap year has 53 Sundays, is

2 5 6 1
(a) (b) 7 (c) (d)
7 7 7
1
DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of Assertion (A) is
followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option:
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A): If LCM of two numbers is 2475 and their product is 12375, then their
HCF is 5 1
Reason (R): HCF (a, b) × LCM (a, b) = a × b.
20. Assertion (A): The length of the minute hand of a clock is 7 cm. Then the area swept by
77
the minute hand in 5 minute is 6 cm2 .
Reason (R): The length of an arc of a sector of angle 𝜃 and radius r is given by
𝜃
𝑙 = 360° × 2𝜋𝑟 1

SECTION-B
Section B Consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each
21. Find the HCF and LCM of 96 and 404 using prime factorisation method.
OR
The HCF of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form 65m-117. Find the value of m. 2

22. A box contains 5 red marbles, 8 white marbles and 4 green marbles. One marble is taken
out of the box at random. What is the probability that the marble taken out will be
(i) red?
(ii) not green?
OR

Page 3 of 7
 A lot consists of 144 ball pens of which 20 are defective and the others are good. Nuri
will buy a pen if it is good, but will not buy if it is defective. The shopkeeper draws one
pen at random and gives it to her. What is the probability that 2
(i) She will buy it ?
(ii) She will not buy it
23. 5𝑐𝑜𝑠2 60°+4𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 30°−𝑡𝑎𝑛2 45°
Evaluate:
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 30°+𝑐𝑜𝑠2 30°
2
24. Find the point on x-axis which is equidistant from the points (2, – 5) and (–2, 9).
2
25. If the point C (–1, 2) divides the line segment AB in the ratio 3 : 4, where the coordinates
of A are (2, 5), find the coordinates of B. 2

SECTION-C

Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each

26. Sides AB and BD and median AC of a triangle ABD are respectively proportional to
sides PQ and QR and median PM of Δ PQR. Show that ΔABD∼ΔPQR.

OR
In figure, ΔABC is right angled at C and DE ⊥ AB. Prove that ΔABC ~ ΔADE and
hence find the lengths of AE and DE.

27. The sum of two numbers is 34. If 3 is subtracted from one number and 2 is added to
another, the product of these two numbers becomes 260, Find the numbers. 3

28. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the zeroes of the polynomial 6𝑦 2 − 7𝑦 + 2, find a quadratic polynomial
1
whose zeroes are 𝛼 and 𝛽.
1 3
29. If x = a cos θ – b sin θ and y = a sin θ + b cos θ, then prove that a2 + b2 = x2 + y2
3
30. A chord of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the areas
of the corresponding minor segment of the circle. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)

OR

Page 4 of 7
 A brooch is made with silver wire in the form of a circle with diameter 35 mm. The wire
is also used in making 5 diameters which divide the circle
into 10 equal sectors as shown in fig find:

(i) The total length of the silver wire required. 3

(ii) The arc of each sector of the brooch

31. Prove that √5 is irrational 3

SECTION - D
Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each
32. Solve the following system of equations graphically
𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 6
2𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 12
and hence find the value of 𝑎,
If 4𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 𝑎
OR
The area of a rectangle gets reduced by 9 square units, if its length is reduced by 5 units
and breadth is increased by 3 units. If we increase the length by 3 units and the breadth
by 2 units, the area increases by 67 square units. Find the dimensions of the rectangle. 5

33. Prove that if a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the other two
sides in distinct points, then other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
Use this theorem to find the value of x in the following question
In ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶, DE || BC. If BD = x – 3, AB = 2x, CE = x – 2 and AC = 2x + 3.

34. A 1.2 m tall girl spots a balloon moving with the wind in a horizontal line at a height
of 88.2 m from the ground. The angle of elevation of the balloon from the eyes of the
girl at any instant is 60°. After some time, the angle of elevation reduces to 30°. Find the 5
distance travelled by the balloon during the interval.

35. If the median of the distribution given below is 868, find the values of x and y.

Class interval Frequency

800-820 7
820-840 14
840-860 x
860-880 25
880-900 y
900-920 10
920-940 5
Total 100

Page 5 of 7
 OR

During a medical check-up of 35 students, their weights were recorded as follows:

Weight in kgs No. of

students
Below 40 3
Below 42 5
Below 44 9
Below 46 14
5
Below 48 28
Below 50 31
Below 52 35

Compute the modal weight.

SECTION-E
Section E consists of 3 Case Based Questions of 4 marks each

36. In a pathology lab, a culture test has been conducted. In the test, the number of bacteria
taken into consideration in various samples is all 3- digit numbers that are divisible by 7,
taken in order

1
On the basis of above information, answer the following questions
(a) How many bacteria are considered in the fifth sample? 1
(b) How many samples should be taken into consideration?
(c) Find the total number of bacteria in first 10 samples. 2
OR

How many bacteria are there in the 7th sample from the last.

37. A Ferris wheel is an amusement ride (temporarily fixed during festivals) consisting of a
rotating upright wheel with multiple passengers carrying components attached to the rim
in such a way that as the wheel turns, they are kept upright, usually by gravity. After
taking a ride in Ferris wheel, Monika came out from the crowd and was observing her
friends who were enjoying the ride. She was curious about the different angles and
measures that the wheel will form. She forms the figure as given below.
Page 6 of 7
 Observe the figure carefully and answer the following questions giving reason:

(a) What is the measure of ∠ROQ? 1

(b) Find the measure of ∠RQP. 2
(c) Find measure of ∠RSQ. 1
OR
Find the sum of ∠ORP and ∠OQP.

38. A pen stand made of wood is in the shape of a cuboid with four conical depressions to
hold pens. The dimensions of the cuboid are 15 cm by 10 cm by 3.5 cm. The radius of
each of the depressions is 0.5 cm and the depth is 1.4 cm. Find the volume of wood in
the entire stand.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions. 1

(a) Find the volume of pen stand without any conical depression.
(b) Find the volume of one conical depression. 1
(c) Find the volume of wood in pen stand with four conical depressions 2
OR
Find the total surface area of wood stand without any conical depression.

Page 7 of 7
 Series C5ABD/5 SET~2

amob Z§.
àíZ-nÌ H$moS>
Q.P. Code 30/5/2
Roll No.
narjmWu àíZ-nÌ H$moS> >H$mo CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$
_wI-n¥ð >na Adí` {bIo§ &
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code on
the title page of the answer-book.

ZmoQ> / NOTE :
(i) H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _o§ _w{ÐV n¥ð>
23 h¢ &
Please check that this question paper contains 23 printed pages.
(ii) H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _| >38 àíZ h¢ &
Please check that this question paper contains 38 questions.
(iii) àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H$s Amoa {XE JE àíZ-nÌ H$moS H$mo narjmWu CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$ _wI-n¥ð> na
{bI| &
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(iv) H¥$n`m àíZ H$m CÎma {bIZm ewê$ H$aZo go nhbo, CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| àíZ H$m H«$_m§H$ Adí`
{bI| &
Please write down the serial number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
(v) Bg àíZ-nÌ H$mo n‹T>Zo Ho$ {bE 15 {_ZQ >H$m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H$m {dVaU nydm©• _|
10.15 ~Oo {H$`m OmEJm & 10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH$ N> mÌ Ho$db àíZ-nÌ H$mo n‹T>|Jo Am¡a Bg
Ad{Y Ho$ Xm¡amZ do CÎma-nwpñVH$m na H$moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo &
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the
answer-book during this period.

J{UV (_mZH$)
MATHEMATICS (STANDARD)
{ZYm©[aV g_` : 3 KÊQ>o A{YH$V_ A§H$ : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

15-30/5/2 Page 1 P.T.O.

gm_mÝ` {ZX}e :
{ZåZ{b{IV {ZX}em| H$mo ~hþV gmdYmZr go n{‹T>E Am¡a CZH$m g™Vr go nmbZ H$s{OE :
(i) Bg àíZ-nÌ _| 38 àíZ h¢ & g^r àíZ A{Zdm`© h¢ &
(ii) `h àíZ-nÌ nm±M IÊS>m| _| {d^m{OV h¡ – H$, I, J, K Ed§ L> &
(iii) IÊS> H$ _| àíZ g§»`m 1 go 18 VH$ ~hþ{dH$ënr` (MCQ) VWm àíZ g§»`m 19 Ed§ 20
A{^H$WZ Ed§ VH©$ AmYm[aV 1 A§H$ Ho$ àíZ h¢ &
(iv) IÊS> I _| àíZ g§»`m 21 go 25 VH$ A{V bKw-CÎmar` (VSA) àH$ma Ho$ 2 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ h¢ &
(v) IÊS> J _| àíZ g§»`m 26 go 31 VH$ bKw-CÎmar` (SA) àH$ma Ho$ 3 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ h¢ &
(vi) IÊS> K _| àíZ g§»`m 32 go 35 VH$ XrK©-CÎmar` (LA) àH$ma Ho$ 5 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ h¢ &
(vii) IÊS> L> _| àíZ g§»`m 36 go 38 VH$ àH$aU AÜ``Z AmYm[aV 4 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ h¢ & àË`oH$
àH$aU AÜ``Z _| Am§V[aH$ {dH$ën 2 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ _| {X`m J`m h¡ &
(viii) àíZ-nÌ _| g_J« {dH$ën Zht {X`m J`m h¡ & `Ú{n, IÊS> I Ho$ 2 àíZm| _|, IÊS> J Ho$ 2 àíZm|
_|, IÊS> K Ho$ 2 àíZm| _| VWm IÊS> L> Ho$ 3 àíZm| _| Am§V[aH$ {dH$ën H$m àmdYmZ {X`m J`m
h¡ &
(ix) Ohm± Amdí`H$ hmo ñdÀN> AmH¥${V`m± ~ZmBE & Ohm± Amdí`H$ hmo p = 22 br{OE, `{X AÝ`Wm
7
Z {X`m J`m hmo &
(x) H¡$ëHw$boQ>a H$m Cn`moJ d{O©V h¡ &

IÊS> H$

Bg IÊS> _| ~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ (MCQ) h¢, {OZ_| àË`oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & 20´1=20

1. `{X a VWm b ~hþnX p(x) = kx2 – 30x + 45k Ho$ eyÝ`H$ h¢ VWm a + b = ab h¡, Vmo k

H$m _mZ h¡ :
2 3
(A) – (B) –
3 2

3 2
(C) (D)
2 3

15-30/5/2 Page 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into five Sections – A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) In Section A, Questions no. 1 to 18 are Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) and
questions number 19 and 20 are Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark
each.
(iv) In Section B, Questions no. 21 to 25 are Very Short Answer (VSA) type
questions, carrying 2 marks each.
(v) In Section C, Questions no. 26 to 31 are Short Answer (SA) type questions,
carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) In Section D, Questions no. 32 to 35 are Long Answer (LA) type questions
carrying 5 marks each.
(vii) In Section E, Questions no. 36 to 38 are case study based questions carrying
4 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 2 marks questions in each
case study.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
2 questions in Section B, 2 questions in Section C, 2 questions in Section D and
3 questions in Section E.
22
(ix) Draw neat diagrams wherever required. Take p = wherever required, if not
7
stated.
(x) Use of calculator is not allowed.

SECTION A

This section comprises Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of 1 mark each. 20´1=20

1. If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial p(x) = kx2 – 30x + 45k and
a + b = ab, then the value of k is :
2 3
(A) – (B) –
3 2
3 2
(C) (D)
2 3

15-30/5/2 Page 3 P.T.O.

2. 10 cm {ÌÁ`m dmbo EH$ d¥Îm H$s EH$ Ordm, d¥Îm Ho$ H|$Ð na g_H$moU A§V[aV H$aVr h¡ & Vmo
Ordm H$s b§~mB© (cm _|) h¡ :

(A) 5 2 (B) 10 2

5
(C) (D) 5
2

3. g_m§Va lo‹T>r 7, 28 , 63 , ... H$m AJbm (Mm¡Wm) nX h¡ :

(A) 70 (B) 84
(C) 97 (D) 112

4. `{X Xmo gh-A^mÁ` g§»`mAm| H$m JwUZ\$b 553 h¡, Vmo CZH$m _.g. (HCF) h¡ :
(A) 1 (B) 553
(C) 7 (D) 79

5. `{X x = a cos q VWm y = b sin q h¡, Vmo b2x2 + a2y2 H$m _mZ h¡ :
(A) a2b2 (B) ab
(C) a4b4 (D) a2 + b2

6. `{X {ÛKmV g_rH$aU ax2 + bx + c = 0 Ho$ _yb dmñV{dH$ Am¡a g_mZ h¢, Vmo c H$m _mZ
h¡ :
b b
(A) (B) –
2a 2a

b2 b2
(C) (D) –
4a 4a

15-30/5/2 Page 4
2. A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at its centre.
The length of the chord (in cm) is :

(A) 5 2 (B) 10 2

5
(C) (D) 5
2

3. The next (4th) term of the A.P. 7, 28 , 63 , ... is :

(A) 70 (B) 84
(C) 97 (D) 112

4. If the product of two co-prime numbers is 553, then their HCF is :

(A) 1 (B) 553
(C) 7 (D) 79

5. If x = a cos q and y = b sin q, then the value of b2x2 + a2y2 is :

(A) a2b2 (B) ab
(C) a4b4 (D) a2 + b2

6. If the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has real and equal roots, then
the value of c is :
b b
(A) (B) –
2a 2a
b2 b2
(C) (D) –
4a 4a

15-30/5/2 Page 5 P.T.O.

7. Xr JB© AmH¥${V _|, D ABC _|, DE || BC h¡ & `{X AD = 2·4 cm, DB = 4 cm VWm
AE = 2 cm h¡, Vmo AC H$s b§~mB© h¡ :

10 3
(A) cm (B) cm
3 10

16
(C) cm (D) 1·2 cm
3

8. 12 cm {ÌÁ`m dmbo d¥Îm H$s EH$ Mmn 10p cm b§~r h¡ & Bg Mmn Ûmam d¥Îm Ho$ H|$Ð na
A§V[aV H$moU h¡ :
(A) 120° (B) 6°

(C) 75° (D) 150°

9. `{X 4 sec q – 5 = 0 h¡, Vmo cot q H$m _mZ h¡ :

3 4
(A) (B)
4 5

5 4
(C) (D)
3 3

10. 21 cm {ÌÁ`m dmbo d¥Îm Ho$ Cg {ÌÁ`IÊS>, Omo d¥Îm Ho$ Ho$ÝÐ na 60° H$m H$moU A§V[aV
H$aVm h¡, H$m n[a_mn h¡ :
(A) 22 cm (B) 43 cm

(C) 64 cm (D) 462 cm

15-30/5/2 Page 6
7. In the given figure, in D ABC, DE || BC. If AD = 2·4 cm, DB = 4 cm and
AE = 2 cm, then the length of AC is :

10 3
(A) cm (B) cm
3 10
16
(C) cm (D) 1·2 cm
3

8. The length of an arc of a circle with radius 12 cm is 10p cm. The angle
subtended by the arc at the centre of the circle, is :

(A) 120° (B) 6°

(C) 75° (D) 150°

9. If 4 sec q – 5 = 0, then the value of cot q is :

3 4
(A) (B)
4 5
5 4
(C) (D)
3 3

10. The perimeter of the sector of a circle of radius 21 cm which subtends an

angle of 60° at the centre of circle, is :

(A) 22 cm (B) 43 cm

(C) 64 cm (D) 462 cm

15-30/5/2 Page 7 P.T.O.

11. Xr JB© AmH¥${V _|, RJ VWm RL, d¥Îm na ItMr JB© Xmo ñne©-aoImE± h¢ & `{X Ð RJL = 42°
h¡, Vmo Ð JOL H$s _mn h¡ :

(A) 42° (B) 84°

(C) 96° (D) 138°

12. `{X 2520 H$m A^mÁ` JwUZIÊS>Z 23 ´ 3 a ´ b ´ 7 h¡, Vmo a + 2b H$m _mZ h¡ :
(A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 9 (D) 7

13. g_rH$aU {ZH$m` 3x + 4y = 5 VWm 6x + 8y = 7 Ûmam {ZåZ{b{IV _| go {H$g àH$ma

H$s gab aoImE± {Zê${nV hmo ahr h¢ ?
(A) g_m§Va
(B) à{VÀN>oXr
(C) g§nmVr
(D) EH$-Xÿgao Ho$ b§~dV²

14. EH$ W¡bm, {Og_| 1 go 40 VH$ A§{H$V {Q>H$Q>| h¢, _| go `mÑÀN>`m EH$ {Q>H$Q> {ZH$mbr OmVr
h¡ & {ZH$mbr JB© {Q>H$Q> H$s A§{H$V g§»`m Ho$ 7 H$m JwUO hmoZo H$s àm{`H$Vm h¡ :
1 1
(A) (B)
7 8
1 7
(C) (D)
5 40

15. VrZ g§»`mAm| 28, 44, 132 H$m b.g. (LCM) h¡ :

(A) 258 (B) 231
(C) 462 (D) 924

15-30/5/2 Page 8
11. In the given figure, RJ and RL are two tangents to the circle. If
Ð RJL = 42°, then the measure of Ð JOL is :

(A) 42° (B) 84°

(C) 96° (D) 138°

12. If the prime factorisation of 2520 is 23 ´ 3a ´ b ´ 7, then the value of

a + 2b is :
(A) 12 (B) 10
(C) 9 (D) 7

13. Which out of the following type of straight lines will be represented by
the system of equations 3x + 4y = 5 and 6x + 8y = 7 ?
(A) Parallel
(B) Intersecting
(C) Coincident
(D) Perpendicular to each other

14. One ticket is drawn at random from a bag containing tickets numbered
1 to 40. The probability that the selected ticket has a number which is a
multiple of 7 is :
1 1
(A) (B)
7 8
1 7
(C) (D)
5 40

15. The LCM of three numbers 28, 44, 132 is :

(A) 258 (B) 231
(C) 462 (D) 924
15-30/5/2 Page 9 P.T.O.
16. g_m§Va lo‹T>r 3, 6, 9, 12, …, 111 Ho$ nXm| H$s g§»`m h¡ :
(A) 36 (B) 40
(C) 37 (D) 30

17. EH$ Iå^o H$s b§~mB© VWm BgH$s ^y{_ na n‹S> ahr N>m`m H$s b§~mB© _| AZwnmV 1: 3 h¡ &
Vmo gy`© H$m CÞVm§e h¡ :
(A) 90° (B) 60°
(C) 45° (D) 30°

18. `{X Hw$N> Am±H$‹S>m| Ho$ _mÜ` VWm ~hþbH$ H«$_e: 24 VWm 12 h¢, Vmo BZH$m _mÜ`H$ h¡ :
(A) 25 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 22

àíZ g§»`m 19 Am¡a 20 A{^H$WZ Ed§ VH©$ AmYm[aV àíZ h¢ & Xmo H$WZ {XE JE h¢ {OZ_| EH$ H$mo
A{^H$WZ (A) VWm Xÿgao H$mo VH©$ (R) Ûmam A§{H$V {H$`m J`m h¡ & BZ àíZm| Ho$ ghr CÎma ZrMo {XE
JE H$moS>m| (A), (B), (C) Am¡a (D) _| go MwZH$a Xr{OE &
(A) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a VH©$ (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢ Am¡a VH©$ (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s ghr
ì¶m»¶m H$aVm h¡ &
(B) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a VH©$ (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢, naÝVw VH©$ (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s ghr
ì¶m»¶m Zht H$aVm h¡ &
(C) A{^H$WZ (A) ghr h¡, naÝVw VH©$ (R) µJbV h¡ &
(D) A{^H$WZ (A) µJbV h¡, naÝVw VH©$ (R) ghr h¡ &

19. A{^H$WZ (A) : ABCD EH$ g_b§~ h¡ {Og_| DC || AB h¡ & E VWm F H«$_e… AD VWm
AE BF
BC na Eogo q~Xþ h¢ {H$ EF || AB h¡ & Vmo = &
ED FC

VH©$ (R) : {H$gr g_b§~ H$s g_m§Va ^wOmAm| Ho$ g_m§Va H$moB© aoIm Ag_m§Va ^wOmAm|
H$mo g_mZwnmV _| ~m±Q>Vr h¡ &

20. A{^H$WZ (A) : eyÝ` ~hþnX H$s KmV n[a^m{fV Zht h¡ &
VH©$ (R) : EH$ eyÝ`oVa AMa ~hþnX H$s KmV 0 hmoVr h¡ &
15-30/5/2 Page 10
16. The number of terms in the A.P. 3, 6, 9, 12, …, 111 is :
(A) 36 (B) 40
(C) 37 (D) 30

17. The ratio of the length of a pole and its shadow on the ground is 1 : 3.
The angle of elevation of the Sun is :
(A) 90° (B) 60°
(C) 45° (D) 30°

18. If the mean and mode of a data are 24 and 12 respectively, then its
median is :
(A) 25 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 22

Questions number 19 and 20 are Assertion and Reason based questions. Two
statements are given, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B),
(C) and (D) as given below.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A) : ABCD is a trapezium with DC || AB. E and F are points

on AD and BC respectively, such that EF || AB. Then

AE BF
= .
ED FC
Reason (R) : Any line parallel to parallel sides of a trapezium divides
the non-parallel sides proportionally.

20. Assertion (A) : Degree of a zero polynomial is not defined.

Reason (R): Degree of a non-zero constant polynomial is 0.

15-30/5/2 Page 11 P.T.O.
 IÊS> I
Bg IÊS> _| A{V bKw-CÎmar` (VSA) àH$ma Ho$ àíZ h¢, {OZ_| àË`oH$ Ho$ 2 A§H$ h¢ & 5´2=10

1 1
21. `{X {ÛKmV ~hþnX p(x) = x2 – 5x + 4 Ho$ eyÝ`H$ a VWm b h¢, Vmo + – 2ab H$m
a b
_mZ kmV H$s{OE &

22. (a) dh AZwnmV kmV H$s{OE {Og_| q~Xþ P(– 4, 6), q~XþAm| A(– 6, 10) VWm B(3, – 8)
H$mo {_bmZo dmbo aoImIÊS> H$mo {d^m{OV H$aVm h¡ &
AWdm
(b) {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ q~Xþ (3, 0), (6, 4) VWm (– 1, 3) EH$ g_{Û~mhþ {Ì^wO Ho$ erf©
h¢ &

23. _mZ kmV H$s{OE :

2 tan 30° . sec 60° . tan 45°
1 – sin 2 60°

24. EH$ {S>ã~o _| 60 H$_rO| h¢, {OZ_| 48 AÀN>r H$_rO| h¢, O~{H$ 8 _| à_wI Xmof h¢ VWm 4 _|
N>moQ>o Xmof h¢ & {ZJ_, EH$ ì`mnmar, Ho$db AÀN>r H$_rO| hr ñdrH$ma H$aVm h¡, O~{H$ EH$
Xÿgam ì`mnmar AZ_mob, Ho$db CÝht H$_rOm| H$mo AñdrH$ma H$aVm h¡ {OZ_| à_wI Xmof hm| &
{S>ã~o _| go `mÑÀN>`m EH$ H$_rO {ZH$mbr JB© & àm{`H$Vm kmV H$s{OE {H$ {ZH$mbr JB©
H$_rO AZ_mob H$mo ñdrH$ma h¡ &

25. (a) `{X 3 cm {ÌÁ`m dmbo EH$ d¥Îm na ItMr JB© Xmo ñne© -aoImE± nañna 60° Ho$ H$moU na
PwH$s h¢, Vmo àË`oH$ ñne©-aoIm H$s b§~mB© kmV H$s{OE &
AWdm
(b) {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ d¥Îm Ho$ {H$gr ì`mg Ho$ {gam| na ItMr JB© ñne©-aoImE± nañna
g_m§Va hmoVr h¢ &
15-30/5/2 Page 12
 SECTION B

This section comprises Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions of 2 marks
each. 5´2=10

21. If a and b are zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p(x) = x2 – 5x + 4, then

1 1
find the value of + – 2ab.
a b

22. (a) Find the ratio in which the point P(– 4, 6) divides the line segment
joining the points A(– 6, 10) and B(3, – 8).

OR
(b) Prove that the points (3, 0), (6, 4) and (– 1, 3) are the vertices of an
isosceles triangle.

23. Evaluate :

2 tan 30° . sec 60° . tan 45°

1 – sin2 60°

24. A carton consists of 60 shirts of which 48 are good, 8 have major defects
and 4 have minor defects. Nigam, a trader, will accept the shirts which
are good but Anmol, another trader, will only reject the shirts which have
major defects. One shirt is drawn at random from the carton. Find the
probability that it is acceptable to Anmol.

25. (a) If two tangents inclined at an angle of 60° are drawn to a circle of
radius 3 cm, then find the length of each tangent.

OR
(b) Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle
are parallel.

15-30/5/2 Page 13 P.T.O.

 IÊS> J
Bg IÊS> _| bKw-CÎmar` (SA) àH$ma Ho$ àíZ h¢, {OZ_| àË`oH$ Ho$ 3 A§H$ h¢ & 6´3=18

26. 10 cm {ÌÁ`m dmbo d¥Îm H$s EH$ Mmn d¥Îm Ho$ H|$Ð na g_H$moU ~ZmVr h¡ & Vmo g§JV XrK©
{ÌÁ`IÊS> H$m joÌ\$b kmV H$s{OE & (p = 3·14 à`moJ H$s{OE)

27. {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ EH$ d¥Îm Ho$ n[aJV g_m§Va MVw^w©O EH$ g_MVw^w©O hmoVm h¡ &

28. (a) {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ 3 EH$ An[a_o` g§»`m h¡ &

AWdm
{gÕ H$s{OE {H$ ( 2 )
2
(b) + 3 EH$ An[a_o` g§»`m h¡, {X`m J`m h¡ {H$ 6 EH$
An[a_o` g§»`m h¡ &

29. (a) `{X EH$ g_m§Va lo‹T>r Ho$ nhbo 14 nXm| H$m `moJ\$b 1050 h¡ VWm BgH$m àW_ nX
10 h¡, Vmo Bg g_m§Va lo‹T>r H$m 20dm± nX VWm ndm± nX kmV H$s{OE &

AWdm
(b) EH$ g_m§Va lo‹T>r H$m àW_ nX 5, A§{V_ nX 45 VWm g^r nXm| H$m `moJ\$b 400
h¡ & Bg g_m§Va lo‹T>r Ho$ nXm| H$s g§»`m VWm gmd© A§Va kmV H$s{OE &

30. {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ :

sin q 1 + cos q
+ = 2 cosec q
1 + cos q sin q

31. EH$ Oma _| 54 H§$Mo h¢ {OZ_| go àË`oH$ Zrbm, ham `m g\o$X h¡ & Oma _| go `mÑÀN>`m EH$
1
Zrbm H§$Mm {ZH$mbZo H$s àm{`H$Vm h¡ VWm `mÑÀN>`m EH$ ham H§$Mm {ZH$mbZo H$s
3
4
àm{`H$Vm h¡ & Bg Oma _| {H$VZo g\o$X H§$Mo h¢ ?
9

15-30/5/2 Page 14
 SECTION C

This section comprises Short Answer (SA) type questions of 3 marks each. 6´3=18

26. An arc of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre of

the circle. Find the area of the corresponding major sector. (Use p = 3·14)

27. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

28. (a) Prove that 3 is an irrational number.

OR

( )
2
(b) Prove that 2 + 3 is an irrational number, given that 6 is

an irrational number.

29. (a) If the sum of the first 14 terms of an A.P. is 1050 and the first term
is 10, then find the 20th term and the nth term.

OR

(b) The first term of an A.P. is 5, the last term is 45 and the sum of all
the terms is 400. Find the number of terms and the common
difference of the A.P.

30. Prove that :

sin q 1 + cos q
+ = 2 cosec q
1 + cos q sin q

31. A jar contains 54 marbles, each of which is blue, green or white. The
1
probability of selecting a blue marble at random from the jar is , and
3
4
the probability of selecting a green marble at random is . How many
9
white marbles does this jar contain ?

15-30/5/2 Page 15 P.T.O.

 IÊS> K
Bg IÊS> _| XrK©-CÎmar` (LA) àH$ma Ho$ àíZ h¢, {OZ_| àË`oH$ Ho$ 5 A§H$ h¢ & 4´5=20

32. EH$ ZXr Ho$ nwb Ho$ EH$ q~Xþ go, ZXr Ho$ gå_wI {H$Zmam| Ho$ AdZ_Z H$moU H«$_e: 30° Am¡a
60° h¢ & `{X nwb, {H$Zmam| go 4 m H$s D±$MmB© na hmo, Vmo ZXr H$s Mm¡‹S> mB© kmV H$s{OE &

33. (a) Xr JB© AmH¥${V _|, D FEC @ D GDB VWm Ð 1= Ð 2 h¡ & {gÕ H$s{OE {H$
D ADE ~ D ABC.

AWdm
(b) EH$ D ABCH$s ^wOmE± AB Am¡a AC VWm _mpÜ`H$m AD H«$_e: EH$ AÝ` {Ì^wO
D PQR H$s ^wOmAm| PQ Am¡a PR VWm _mpÜ`H$m PM Ho$ g_mZwnmVr h¢ & Xem©BE
{H$ D ABC ~ D PQR.
34. EH$ V§~y EH$ ~obZ Ho$ AmH$ma H$m h¡, {Og na EH$ e§Hw$ AÜ`mamo{nV h¡ & `{X ~obZmH$ma
^mJ H$s D±$MmB© Am¡a ì`mg H«$_e: 3·5 m VWm 6 m h¢ Am¡a e§Hw$ H$s {V`©H $ D±$MmB© 4·2 m
h¡, Vmo Bg V§~y H$mo ~ZmZo _| à`wº$ H¡$Zdg H$m joÌ\$b kmV H$s{OE & < 500 à{V dJ© _rQ>a
H$s Xa go V§~y Ho$ H¡$Zdg H$m _yë` ^r kmV H$s{OE &
35. (a) 2-A§H$m|
H$s EH$ g§»`m Ho$ A§H$m| H$m JwUZ\$b 14 h¡ & O~ Bg g§»`m _| 45 Omo‹S>
{X`m OmE, Vmo A§H$m| Ho$ ñWmZ nbQ> OmVo h¢ & g§»`m kmV H$s{OE &
AWdm
(b) EH$ dJ© H$s ^wOm Xÿgao dJ© H$s ^wOm go 4 cm A{YH$ h¡ VWm XmoZm| dJm] Ho$ joÌ\$bm|
H$m `moJ’$b 400 cm2 h¡ & dJm] H$s ^wOmE± kmV H$s{OE &
15-30/5/2 Page 16
 SECTION D
This section comprises Long Answer (LA) type questions of 5 marks each. 4´5=20
32. From a point on a bridge across the river, the angles of depressions of the
banks on opposite sides of the river are 30° and 60° respectively. If the
bridge is at a height of 4 m from the banks, find the width of the river.

33. (a) In the given figure, D FEC @ D GDB and Ð 1 = Ð 2.

Prove that D ADE ~ D ABC.

OR

(b) Sides AB and AC and median AD of a D ABC are respectively

proportional to sides PQ and PR and median PM of another D PQR.
Show that D ABC ~ D PQR.
34. A tent is in the shape of a cylinder, surmounted by a conical top. If the
height and diameter of the cylindrical part are 3·5 m and 6 m, and slant
height of the top is 4·2 m, find the area of canvas used for making the
tent. Also, find the cost of canvas of the tent at the rate of < 500 per m2.

35. (a) A 2-digit number is such that the product of the digits is 14. When
45 is added to the number, the digits are reversed. Find the
number.
OR
(b) The side of a square exceeds the side of another square by 4 cm
and the sum of the areas of the two squares is 400 cm 2. Find the
sides of the squares.
15-30/5/2 Page 17 P.T.O.
 IÊS> L>
Bg IÊS> _| 3 àH$aU AÜ``Z AmYm[aV àíZ h¢ {OZ_| àË`oH$ Ho$ 4 A§H$ h¢ & 3´4=12

àH$aU AÜ``Z – 1
36. Xm¡‹ S>Zo `m gmB{H$b MbmZo O¡gr J{V{d{Y`m± VZmd Am¡a AdgmX O¡go _mZ{gH$ {dH$ma Ho$
Omo{I_ H$mo H$_ H$aVr h¢ & Xm¡‹S>Zo go ghZe{º$ ~‹T>mZo _| _XX {_bVr h¡ & ~ƒm| H$s h{È>`m±
Am¡a _m§gno{e`m± _O~yV hmoVr h¢ Am¡a CZH$m dOZ ~‹T>Zo H$s g§^mdZm H$_ hmoVr h¡ & EH$
ñHy$b Ho$ emar[aH$ {ejm {ejH$ Zo AnZo ñHy$b n[aga _| EH$ B§Q>a -ñHy$b aqZJ à{V`mo{JVm
Am`mo{OV H$aZo H$m {ZU©` {b`m & N>mÌm| Ho$ g_yh Ûmam 100 m H$s Xm¡‹S> _| {b`m J`m g_`
ZmoQ> {H$`m J`m, Omo {ZåZ àH$ma h¡ :

g_` (goH$ÊS> _|) 0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100

N>mÌm| H$s g§»`m 8 10 13 6 3

Cn`wº© $ Ho$ AmYma na, {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE :

(i) D$na {XE JE Am±H$‹S>m| H$m _mÜ`H$ dJ© Š`m h¡ ? 1

15-30/5/2 Page 18
 SECTION E
This section comprises 3 case study based questions of 4 marks each. 3´4=12

Case Study – 1

36. Activities like running or cycling reduce stress and the risk of mental
disorders like depression. Running helps build endurance. Children
develop stronger bones and muscles and are less prone to gain weight.
The physical education teacher of a school has decided to conduct an inter
school running tournament in his school premises. The time taken by a
group of students to run 100 m, was noted as follows :

Time
0 – 20 20 – 40 40 – 60 60 – 80 80 – 100
(in seconds)
Number of
8 10 13 6 3
students
Based on the above, answer the following questions :

(i) What is the median class of the above given data ? 1

15-30/5/2 Page 19 P.T.O.

 (ii) (a) Xm¡‹S> nyar H$aZo _| N>mÌm| Ûmam {b`m J`m _mÜ` g_` kmV H$s{OE & 2
AWdm
(b) D$na {XE JE Am±H$‹S>m| H$m ~hþbH$ kmV H$s{OE & 2

(iii) {H$VZo N>mÌm| Zo 60 goH$ÊS> go H$_ g_` {b`m ? 1

àH$aU AÜ``Z – 2
37. Eñgob dëS>© ^maV Ho$ g~go ~‹S>o _Zmoa§OZ nmH$m] _| go EH$ h¡ Omo g^r C_« Ho$ AmJ§VwH$m| Ho$
{bE amo_m§MH$ gdmar, Ob AmH$f©U Am¡a _Zmoa§OZ {dH$ënm| H$s EH$ {d{dY ûm¥§Ibm àXmZ
H$aVm h¡ & `h nmH©$ AnZo à{VpîR>V ‘‘dm°Q>a qH$JS>_’’ Ho $ {bE OmZm OmVm h¡, Omo Bgo
nm[adm[aH$ g¡a Am¡a _Zmoa§OZ Ho$ {bE EH$ bmoH${à` J§Vì` ~ZmVm h¡ & nmH©$ H$m {Q>H$Q> ewëH$
< 150 à{V ~ƒm VWm < 250 à{V d`ñH$ h¡ &

EH$ {XZ, nmH©$ Ho$ IOm§Mr Zo `h nm`m {H$ 300 {Q>H$Q> {~H$s h¢ VWm < 55,000 EH$Ì hþE h¢ &
Cn`w©º$ Ho$ AmYma na, {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE :
(i) `{X Cg {XZ AmE ~ƒm| H$s g§»`m x VWm d`ñH$m| H$s g§»`m y h¡, Vmo Xr JB©
pñW{V H$mo ~rOJ{UVr` ê$n _| {b{IE & 1
(ii) (a) Bg _Zmoa§OZ nmH©$ _| Cg {XZ {H$VZo ~ƒo AmE ? 2
AWdm
(b) Bg _Zmoa§OZ nmH©$ _| Cg {XZ {H$VZo d`ñH$ AmE ? 2

(iii) _Zmoa§OZ nmH©$ _| `{X 250 ~ƒo VWm 100 d`ñH$ AmE, Vmo {H$VZr am{e EH$Ì hmoJr ? 1

15-30/5/2 Page 20
 (ii) (a) Find the mean time taken by the students to finish the race. 2
OR
(b) Find the mode of the above given data. 2
(iii) How many students took time less than 60 seconds ? 1

Case Study – 2

37. Essel World is one of India’s largest amusement parks that offers a
diverse range of thrilling rides, water attractions and entertainment
options for visitors of all ages. The park is known for its iconic ‘‘Water
Kingdom’’ section, making it a popular destination for family outings and
fun-filled adventure. The ticket charges for the park are < 150 per child
and < 250 per adult.

On a day, the cashier of the park found that 300 tickets were sold and an
amount of < 55,000 was collected.
Based on the above, answer the following questions :
(i) If the number of children visited be x and the number of adults
visited be y, then write the given situation algebraically. 1
(ii) (a) How many children visited the amusement park that day ? 2
OR
(b) How many adults visited the amusement park that day ? 2
(iii) How much amount will be collected if 250 children and 100 adults
visit the amusement park ? 1

15-30/5/2 Page 21 P.T.O.

 àH$aU AÜ``Z – 3
38. EH$ ~JrMm EH$ dJ© Ho$ AmH$ma H$m h¡ & _mbr Zo ~JrMo H$s gr_m na EH$-Xÿgao go 1 m H$s
Xÿar na AemoH$ Ho$ no‹S> Ho$ nm¡Yo CJmE & dh ~JrMo H$mo Jwbm~ Ho$ nm¡Ym| go gOmZm MmhVm h¡ &
CgZo Jwbm~ Ho$ nm¡Yo CJmZo Ho$ {bE ~JrMo Ho$ AÝXa EH$ {Ì^wOmH$ma joÌ MwZm & Cn`w©º$
pñW{V _|, _mbr Zo H$jm 10 Ho $ N>mÌm| H$s _XX br {OÝhm|Zo {ZåZ àH$ma H$m MmQ>© ~Zm`m &

Cn`w©º$ Ho$ AmYma na, {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE :

(i) A H$mo _yb-q~Xþ boH$a, D PQR Ho $ erfm] Ho$ {ZX}em§H$ Š`m h¢ ? 1

(ii) (a) Xÿ[a`m± PQ VWm QR kmV H$s{OE & 2

AWdm
(b) q~XþAm| P VWm R H$mo {_bmZo dmbo aoImIÊS> H$mo 2:1 Ho$ AÝV: {d^mOZ
H$aZo dmbo q~Xþ Ho$ {ZX}em§H$ kmV H$s{OE & 2

(iii) kmV H$s{OE {H$ Š`m D PQR EH$ g_{Û~mhþ {Ì^wO h¡ & 1

15-30/5/2 Page 22
 Case Study – 3
38. A garden is in the shape of a square. The gardener grew saplings of
Ashoka tree on the boundary of the garden at the distance of 1 m from
each other. He wants to decorate the garden with rose plants. He chose a
triangular region inside the garden to grow rose plants. In the above
situation, the gardener took help from the students of class 10. They
made a chart for it which looks like the given figure.

Based on the above, answer the following questions :

(i) If A is taken as origin, what are the coordinates of the vertices of
D PQR ? 1
(ii) (a) Find distances PQ and QR. 2
OR
(b) Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line
segment joining points P and R in the ratio 2 : 1 internally. 2
(iii) Find out if D PQR is an isosceles triangle. 1

15-30/5/2 Page 23 P.T.O.

 Series C4ABD/4 SET~3

amob Z§.
àíZ-nÌ H$moS>
Q.P. Code 30/4/3
Roll No.
narjmWu àíZ-nÌ H$moS> >H$mo CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$
_wI-n¥ð >na Adí` {bIo§ &
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code on
the title page of the answer-book.

ZmoQ> / NOTE :
(i) H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _o§ _w{ÐV n¥ð>
23 h¢ &
Please check that this question paper contains 23 printed pages.
(ii) H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _| >38 àíZ h¢ &
Please check that this question paper contains 38 questions.
(iii) àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H$s Amoa {XE JE àíZ-nÌ H$moS H$mo narjmWu CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$ _wI-n¥ð> na
{bI| &
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(iv) H¥$n`m àíZ H$m CÎma {bIZm ewê$ H$aZo go nhbo, CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| àíZ H$m H«$_m§H$ Adí`
{bI| &
Please write down the serial number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
(v) Bg àíZ-nÌ H$mo n‹T>Zo Ho$ {bE 15 {_ZQ >H$m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H$m {dVaU nydm©• _|
10.15 ~Oo {H$`m OmEJm & 10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH$ N>mÌ Ho$db àíZ-nÌ H$mo n‹T>|Jo Am¡a Bg
Ad{Y Ho$ Xm¡amZ do CÎma-nwpñVH$m na H$moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo &
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
students will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the
answer-book during this period.

J{UV (_mZH$)
MATHEMATICS (STANDARD)
{ZYm©[aV g_` : 3 KÊQ>o A{YH$V_ A§H$ : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

14-30/4/3 Page 1 P.T.O.

gm_mÝ` {ZX}e :
{ZåZ{b{IV {ZX}em| H$mo ~hþV gmdYmZr go n{‹T>E Am¡a CZH$m g™Vr go nmbZ H$s{OE :
(i) Bg àíZ-nÌ _| 38 àíZ h¢ & g^r àíZ A{Zdm`© h¢ &
(ii) `h àíZ-nÌ nm±M IÊS>m| _| {d^m{OV h¡ – H$, I, J, K Ed§ L> &
(iii) IÊS> H$ _| àíZ g§»`m 1 go 18 VH$ ~hþ{dH$ënr` (MCQ) VWm àíZ g§»`m 19 Ed§ 20
A{^H$WZ Ed§ VH©$ AmYm[aV 1 A§H$ Ho$ àíZ h¢ &
(iv) IÊS> I _| àíZ g§ »`m 21 go 25 VH$ A{V bKw-CÎmar` (VSA) àH$ma Ho$ 2 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ h¢ &
(v) IÊS> J _| àíZ g§»`m 26 go 31 VH$ bKw-CÎmar` (SA) àH$ma Ho$ 3 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ h¢ &
(vi) IÊS> K _| àíZ g§»`m 32 go 35 VH$ XrK© -CÎmar` (LA) àH$ma Ho$ 5 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ h¢ &
(vii) IÊS> L> _| àíZ g§»`m 36 go 38 VH$ àH$aU AÜ``Z AmYm[aV 4 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ h¢ & àË`oH$
àH$aU AÜ``Z _| Am§V[aH$ {dH$ën 2 A§H$m| Ho$ àíZ _| {X`m J`m h¡ &
(viii) àíZ-nÌ _| g_J« {dH$ën Zht {X`m J`m h¡ & `Ú{n, IÊS> I Ho$ 2 àíZm| _|, IÊS> J Ho$ 2 àíZm|
_|, IÊS> K Ho$ 2 àíZm| _| VWm IÊS> L> Ho$ 3 àíZm| _| Am§V[aH$ {dH$ën H$m àmdYmZ {X`m J`m
h¡ &
(ix) Ohm± Amdí`H$ hmo ñdÀN> AmH¥${V`m± ~ZmBE & Ohm± Amdí`H$ hmo p = 22 br{OE, `{X AÝ`Wm
7
Z {X`m J`m hmo &
(x) H¡$ëHw$boQ>a H$m Cn`moJ d{O©V h¡ &

IÊS> H$
Bg IÊS> _| ~hþ{dH$ënr` àíZ (MCQ) h¢, {OZ_| àË`oH$ àíZ 1 A§H$ H$m h¡ & 20´1=20

1. 12 cm {ÌÁ`m dmbo EH$ d¥Îm Ho$ EH$ {ÌÁ`IÊS> H$m joÌ\$b 60p cm2 h¡ & Bg {ÌÁ`IÊS>
Ho$ H|$Ðr` H$moU H$s _mn h¡ :
(A) 120° (B) 6°
(C) 75° (D) 150°

2. Xr JB© Xmo aoImE± nañna g_m§Va h¢ & BZ_| go EH$ aoIm H$m g_rH$aU 5x – 3y = 2 h¡ & Vmo
Xÿgar aoIm H$m g_rH$aU hmo gH$Vm h¡ :
(A) – 15x – 9y = 5 (B) 15x + 9y = 5
(C) 9x – 15y = 6 (D) – 15x + 9y = 5

14-30/4/3 Page 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into five Sections – A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) In Section A, Questions no. 1 to 18 are multiple choice questions (MCQs) and
questions number 19 and 20 are Assertion-Reason based questions of 1 mark
each.
(iv) In Section B, Questions no. 21 to 25 are very short answer (VSA) type
questions, carrying 2 marks each.
(v) In Section C, Questions no. 26 to 31 are short answer (SA) type questions,
carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) In Section D, Questions no. 32 to 35 are long answer (LA) type questions
carrying 5 marks each.
(vii) In Section E, Questions no. 36 to 38 are case study based questions carrying
4 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 2 marks questions in each
case study.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
2 questions in Section B, 2 questions in Section C, 2 questions in Section D and
3 questions in Section E.
22
(ix) Draw neat diagrams wherever required. Take p = wherever required, if not
7
stated.
(x) Use of calculators is not allowed.

SECTION A

This section comprises Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) of 1 mark each. 20´1=20

1. The area of the sector of a circle of radius 12 cm is 60p cm2. The central
angle of this sector is :
(A) 120° (B) 6°
(C) 75° (D) 150°

2. Two lines are given to be parallel. The equation of one of these lines is
5x – 3y = 2. The equation of the second line can be :
(A) – 15x – 9y = 5 (B) 15x + 9y = 5
(C) 9x – 15y = 6 (D) – 15x + 9y = 5
14-30/4/3 Page 3 P.T.O.
3. {XZ _| {H$gr g_`, EH$ _rZma H$s N>m`m H$s b§~mB© BgH$s D±$MmB© Ho$ ~am~a hmoVr h¡ & Vmo
Cg g_` gy`© H$m CÞVm§e h¡ :
(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
4. a¡{IH$ g_rH$aU `w½_ y = 0 VWm y = – 7 H$m/Ho$
(A) _mÌ EH$ hb h¡ (B) Xmo hb h¢ $
(C) An[a{_V ê$n go AZÝV hb h¢ (D) H$moB© hb Zht h¡
5. 5 2 cm {ÌÁ`m dmbo d¥Îm Ho$ A§VJ©V ~Zo dJ© H$m joÌ\$b h¡ :
(A) 50 cm2 (B) 100 cm2
(C) 25 cm2 (D) 200 cm2
6. Xr JB© AmH¥${V _|, q~Xþ A na ~mø ñne© H$aZo dmbo Xmo d¥Îmm| H$s EH$ C^`{Zð> ñne©-aoIm
QR h¡ & q~Xþ A na ItMr JB© ñne©-ao Im QR H$mo P na {_bVr h¡ & `{X AP = 4.2 cm
h¡, Vmo QR H$s b§~mB© h¡ :

(A) 4.2 cm (B) 2.1 cm

(C) 8.4 cm (D) 6.3 cm
7. Xr JB© AmH¥${V _|, AB VWm AC EH$ d¥Îm na ItMr JB© ñne©-aoImE± h¢ & `{X
Ð ABC = 42° h¡, Vmo Ð BAC H$s _mn h¡ :

(A) 96° (B) 42°

(C) 106° (D) 86°
14-30/4/3 Page 4
3. At some time of the day, the length of the shadow of a tower is equal to
its height. Then, the Sun’s altitude at that time is :
(A) 30° (B) 45°
(C) 60° (D) 90°
4. The pair of linear equations y = 0 and y = – 7 have
(A) exactly one solution (B) two solutions
(C) infinitely many solutions (D) no solution

5. The area of the square inscribed in a circle of radius 5 2 cm is :

(A) 50 cm2 (B) 100 cm2
(C) 25 cm2 (D) 200 cm2
6. In the given figure, QR is a common tangent to the two given circles
touching externally at A. The tangent at A meets QR at P. If AP = 4 .2 cm,
then the length of QR is :

(A) 4.2 cm (B) 2.1 cm

(C) 8.4 cm (D) 6.3 cm
7. In the given figure, AB and AC are tangents to the circle. If Ð ABC = 42°,
then the measure of Ð BAC is :

(A) 96° (B) 42°

(C) 106° (D) 86°
14-30/4/3 Page 5 P.T.O.
8. ^wOm ‘a’ dmbo Xmo EH$g_mZ R>mog KZm| H$mo {H$Zmao go {H$Zmam {_bmH$a aIm J`m & Bg àH$ma
~Zo KZm^ H$m gånyU© n¥îR>r` joÌ\$b h¡ :
(A) 6a2 (B) 10a2

(C) 5a2 (D) 4a2

9. Xmo g§»`mAm| 65 VWm 104 H$m _.g. (HCF) 13 h¡ & `{X 65 VWm 104 H$m b.g.
(LCM) 40x h¡, Vmo x H$m _mZ h¡ :
(A) 5 (B) 13

(C) 40 (D) 8

10. {H$gr KQ>Zm E Ho$ {bE, `{X P(E) + P(E) = q h¡, Vmo q2 – 4 H$m _mZ h¡ :
(A) –3 (B) 3

(C) 5 (D) –5

11. EH$∆ ABC _|, DE || BC h¡ (O¡gm {H$ AmH¥${V _| Xem©`m J`m h¡) & `{X AD = 4 cm,
AB = 9 cm VWm AC = 13.5 cm h¡, Vmo EC H$s b§~mB© h¡ :

(A) 6 cm (B) 7.5 cm

(C) 9 cm (D) 5.7 cm

12. `{X EH$ ~hþnX p(x) = x2 – 5x + 6 h¡, Vmo p(1) + p(4) H$m _mZ h¡ :

(A) 0 (B) 4

(C) 2 (D) –4

14-30/4/3 Page 6
8. Two identical solid cubes of side ‘a’ are joined end-to-end. The total
surface area of the resulting cuboid is :

(A) 6a2 (B) 10a2

(C) 5a2 (D) 4a2

9. The HCF of two numbers 65 and 104 is 13. If LCM of 65 and 104 is 40x,
then the value of x is :

(A) 5 (B) 13

(C) 40 (D) 8

10. For an event E, if P(E) + P(E) = q, then the value of q2 – 4 is :

(A) –3 (B) 3

(C) 5 (D) –5

11. In ∆ ABC, DE || BC (as shown in the figure). If AD = 4 cm, AB = 9 cm

and AC = 13.5 cm, then the length of EC is :

(A) 6 cm (B) 7.5 cm

(C) 9 cm (D) 5.7 cm

12. If a polynomial p(x) is given by p(x) = x2 – 5x + 6, then the value of

p(1) + p(4) is :

(A) 0 (B) 4

(C) 2 (D) –4
14-30/4/3 Page 7 P.T.O.
13. EH$ g_m§Va MVw^w©O ABCD Ho$ VrZ erf© A(– 2, 3), B(6, 7) VWm C(8, 3) h¢, Vmo BgH$m
Mm¡Wm erf© D h¡ :
(A) (0, 1) (B) (0, – 1)

(C) (– 1, 0) (D) (1, 0)

14. `{X {H$Ýht Am±H$‹S>m| Ho$ ~hþbH$ VWm _mÜ`H$ H$m A§Va 24 h¡, Vmo BZHo$ _mÜ`H$ Am¡a _mÜ`
H$m A§Va h¡ :
(A) 12 (B) 24

(C) 8 (D) 36

15. VrZ g§»`mE± Omo EH$ g_m§Va lo‹T>r _| h¢, H$m `moJ\$b 30 h¡ & BgH$m _Ü` nX Š`m h¡ ?

(A) 4 (B) 10

(C) 16 (D) 8

16. EH$ {Zînj nmgo H$mo EH$ ~ma CN>mbZo na 2 go ~‹S>r g§»`m AmZo H$s àm{`H$Vm h¡ :
2 1
(A) (B)
3 3
1 5
(C) (D)
2 6

17. `{X y = 1, {ÛKmV g_rH$aU py2 + py + 3 = 0 H$m EH$ hb h¡, Vmo p H$m _mZ h¡ :
(A) –3 (B) 2
3
(C) – (D) –2
2

1
18. q H$m dh _mZ {OgHo$ {bE 2 sin2 q = ; O~{H$ 0° £ q £ 90°, h¡
2
(A) 30° (B) 60° $
(C) 45° (D) 90°

14-30/4/3 Page 8
13. The fourth vertex D of a parallelogram ABCD whose three vertices are
A(– 2, 3), B(6, 7) and C(8, 3) is :

(A) (0, 1) (B) (0, – 1)

(C) (– 1, 0) (D) (1, 0)

14. If the difference of mode and median of a data is 24, then the difference of
its median and mean is :

(A) 12 (B) 24

(C) 8 (D) 36

15. Three numbers in A.P. have the sum 30. What is its middle term ?

(A) 4 (B) 10

(C) 16 (D) 8

16. The probability of throwing a number greater than 2 with a fair die is :
2 1
(A) (B)
3 3
1 5
(C) (D)
2 6

17. If y = 1 is one of the solutions of the quadratic equation py2 + py + 3 = 0,

then the value of p is :

(A) –3 (B) 2
3
(C) – (D) –2
2

1
18. The value of q for which 2 sin2 q = ; 0° £ q £ 90° is :
2

(A) 30° (B) 60°

(C) 45° (D) 90°

14-30/4/3 Page 9 P.T.O.

àíZ g§»`m 19 Am¡a 20 A{^H$WZ Ed§ VH©$ AmYm[aV àíZ h¢ & Xmo H$WZ {XE JE h¢ {OZ_| EH$ H$mo
A{^H$WZ (A) VWm Xÿgao H$mo VH©$ (R) Ûmam A§{H$V {H$`m J`m h¡ & BZ àíZm| Ho$ ghr CÎma ZrMo {XE
JE H$moS>m| (A), (B), (C) Am¡a (D) _| go MwZH$a Xr{OE &
(A) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a VH©$ (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢ Am¡a VH©$ (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s ghr
ì¶m»¶m H$aVm h¡ &
(B) A{^H$WZ (A) Am¡a VH©$ (R) XmoZm| ghr h¢, naÝVw VH©$ (R), A{^H$WZ (A) H$s ghr
ì¶m»¶m Zht H$aVm h¡ &
(C) A{^H$WZ (A) ghr h¡, naÝVw VH©$ (R) µJbV h¡ &
(D) A{^H$WZ (A) µJbV h¡, naÝVw VH©$ (R) ghr h¡ &

19. A{^H$WZ (A) : EH$ aoImIÊS> H$m _Ü`-q~Xþ Bgo 1 : 1 Ho$ AZwnmV _| {d^m{OV H$aVm h¡ &
VH©$ (R) : q~Xþ (– 3, k), q~XþAm| (– 5, 4) VWm (– 2, 3) H$mo {_bmZo dmbo aoImIÊS>
H$mo 1 : 2 Ho$ AZwnmV _| {d^m{OV H$aVm h¡ &

20. A{^H$WZ (A) : `{X EH$ d¥Îm H$s n[a{Y 176 cm h¡, Vmo BgH$s {ÌÁ`m 28 cm h¡ &
VH©$ (R) : d¥Îm H$s n[a{Y = 2p ´ {ÌÁ`m

IÊS> I

Bg IÊS> _| A{V bKw-CÎmar` (VSA) àH$ma Ho$ àíZ h¢, {OZ_| àË`oH$ Ho$ 2 A§H$ h¢ & 5´2=10

21. Xr JB© AmH¥${V _|, EH$ d¥Îm Ho$ n[aJV EH$ {Ì^wO ABC h¡ & `{X AR = 4 cm,
BR = 3 cm VWm AC = 11 cm h¡, Vmo BC H$s b§~mB© kmV H$s{OE &

14-30/4/3 Page 10
Questions number 19 and 20 are Assertion and Reason based questions. Two
statements are given, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B),
(C) and (D) as given below.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A) : Mid-point of a line segment divides the line segment in
the ratio 1 : 1.
Reason (R) : The ratio in which the point (– 3, k) divides the line
segment joining the points (– 5, 4) and (– 2, 3) is 1 : 2.

20. Assertion (A) : If the circumference of a circle is 176 cm, then its radius is
28 cm.
Reason (R): Circumference = 2p ´ radius of a circle.

SECTION B
This section comprises Very Short Answer (VSA) type questions of 2 marks
each. 5´2=10

21. In the given figure, D ABC is circumscribing a circle. Find the length of
BC, if AR = 4 cm, BR = 3 cm and AC = 11 cm.

14-30/4/3 Page 11 P.T.O.

 5 cos 2 60° + 4 sec2 30° – tan 2 45°
22. (a) _mZ kmV H$s{OE :
sin2 30° + sin2 60°
AWdm
1 1
(b) `{X sin (A – B) = , cos (A + B) = ; 0 < A + B £ 90°, A > B h¡; Vmo
2 2
Ð A VWm Ð B kmV H$s{OE &

23. Xr JB© AmH¥${V _|, ∆ AHK ~ ∆ ABC h¡ & `{X AK = 8 cm, BC = 3.2 cm VWm
HK = 6.4 cm h¡, Vmo AC H$s b§~mB© kmV H$s{OE &

24. (a) EH$ K‹S>r H$s {_ZQ> dmbr gwB© H$s b§~mB© 14 cm h¡ & 5 {_ZQ> _| BgHo$ Ûmam K‹S>r Ho$
Vb na a{MV joÌ\$b kmV H$s{OE &
AWdm
(b) 42 cm {ÌÁ`m dmbo d¥Îm H$s Cg Mmn H$s b§~mB© kmV H$s{OE Omo d¥Îm Ho$ H|$Ð na
60° H$m H$moU A§V[aV H$aVr h¡ &

25. VrZ K§{Q>`m± H«$_e… 9, 12 VWm 15 {_ZQ> Ho$ A§Vamb na ~OVr h¢ & `{X dh EH$ gmW
~OZm ewê$ H$aVr h¢, Vmo {H$VZo g_` Ho$ ~mX dh Xmo~mam EH$ gmW ~O|Jr ?

IÊS> J
Bg IÊS> _| bKw-CÎmar` (SA) àH$ma Ho$ àíZ h¢, {OZ_| àË`oH$ Ho$ 3 A§H$ h¢ & 6´3=18

26. (a) VrZ {gŠH$m| H$mo EH$ gmW CN>mbm J`m & {ZåZ Ho$ àmßV hmoZo H$s àm{`H$Vm Š`m h¡ ?

(i) H$_-go-H$_ EH$ {MV

(ii) _mÌ Xmo nQ>
(iii) A{YH$ -go-A{YH$ EH$ nQ>
AWdm
14-30/4/3 Page 12
 5 cos 2 60° + 4 sec2 30° – tan 2 45°
22. (a) Evaluate :
sin2 30° + sin2 60°
OR
1 1
(b) If sin (A – B) = , cos (A + B) = ; 0 < A + B £ 90°, A > B; find
2 2
Ð A and Ð B.

23. In the given figure, ∆ AHK ~ ∆ ABC. If AK = 8 cm, BC = 3.2 cm and

HK = 6.4 cm, then find the length of AC.

24. (a) The minute hand of a clock is 14 cm long. Find the area on the face
of the clock described by the minute hand in 5 minutes.
OR
(b) Find the length of the arc of a circle which subtends an angle of 60°
at the centre of the circle of radius 42 cm.

25. Three bells toll at intervals of 9, 12 and 15 minutes respectively. If they

start tolling together, after what time will they next toll together ?

SECTION C

This section comprises Short Answer (SA) type questions of 3 marks each. 6´3=18

26. (a) Three coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability of
getting
(i) at least one head ?
(ii) exactly two tails ?
(iii) at most one tail ?
OR
14-30/4/3 Page 13 P.T.O.
 (b) EH$ noQ>r _| 90 {S>ñH$ (discs) h¢, {OZ na 1 go 90 VH$ g§»`mE± A§{H$V h¢ & `{X
Bg noQ>r _| go EH$ {S>ñH$ `mÑÀN>`m {ZH$mbm OmVm h¡, Vmo BgH$s àm{`H$Vm kmV
H$s{OE {H$ Bg {S>ñH$ na A§{H$V hmoJr :
(i) Xmo A§H$m| H$s g§»`m Omo 40 go H$_ h¡ &
(ii) 5 go ^mÁ` dh g§»`m Omo 50 go ~‹S>r h¡ &
(iii) EH$ nyU© dJ© g§»`m &

27. {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ {H$gr d¥Îm Ho$ n[aJV g_m§Va MVw^w©O g_MVw^w©O hmoVm h¡ &

28. (a) ~hþnX 4x2 + 4x – 3 Ho$ eyÝ`H$ kmV H$s{OE VWm eyÝ`H$m| VWm ~hþnX Ho$ JwUm§H$m| Ho$
~rM Ho$ g§~Y§ H$s Om±M H$s{OE &
AWdm
a b
(b) `{X a VWm b ~hþnX x2 + x – 2 Ho$ eyÝ`H$ h¢, Vmo + H$m _mZ kmV
b a
H$s{OE &

2– 3
29. {X`m J`m h¡ {H$ 3 EH$ An[a_o` g§»`m h¡, Vmo {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ EH$ An[a_o`
5
g§»`m h¡ &

30. EH$ N>mÌmdmg Ho$ _m{gH$ ì`` H$m EH$ ^mJ {Z`V h¡ VWm eof Bg na {Z^©a H$aVm h¡ {H$
N>mÌ Zo {H$VZo {XZ _og _| ^moOZ {b`m h¡ & EH$ {dÚmWu A H$mo, Omo 20 {XZ ^moOZ H$aVr
h¡, N>mÌmdmg ì`` Ho$ ê$n _| < 1,500 AXm H$aZo n‹S>Vo h¢, O~{H$ EH$ AÝ` {dÚmWu B
H$mo, Omo 26 {XZ ^moOZ H$aVm h¡, < 1,800 AXm H$aZo n‹S>Vo h¢ & {Z`V ì`` Am¡a à{V{XZ
Ho$ ^moOZ H$m _yë` kmV H$s{OE &

31. {gÕ H$s{OE {H$ sec 2 q + cos ec2 q = tan q + cot q .

14-30/4/3 Page 14
 (b) A box contains 90 discs which are numbered 1 to 90. If one disc is
drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears a :

(i) 2-digit number less than 40.

(ii) number divisible by 5 and greater than 50.

(iii) a perfect square number.

27. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

28. (a) Find the zeroes of the polynomial 4x 2 + 4x – 3 and verify the
relationship between zeroes and coefficients of the polynomial.

OR

(b) If a and b are the zeroes of the polynomial x2 + x – 2, then find the
a b
value of + .
b a

2– 3
29. Prove that is an irrational number, given that 3 is an irrational
5
number.

30. A part of monthly hostel charges is fixed and the remaining depends on
the number of days one has taken food in the mess. When a student A
takes food for 20 days, she has to pay < 1,500 as hostel charges while
another student B, who takes food for 26 days, pays < 1,800. Find the
fixed charges and the cost of food.

31. Prove that sec 2 q + cos ec2 q = tan q + cot q .

14-30/4/3 Page 15 P.T.O.

 IÊS> K
Bg IÊS> _| XrK©-CÎmar` (LA) àH$ma Ho$ àíZ h¢, {OZ_| àË`oH$ Ho$ 5 A§H$ h¢ & 4´5=20

32. {ZåZ{b{IV ~§Q>Z EH$ _mohëbo Ho$ ~ƒm| Ho$ X¡{ZH$ Oo~ IM© H$mo Xem©Vm h¡ & _mÜ` X¡{ZH$ Oo~
IM© < 36.10 h¡ & bwßV ~ma§~maVm f kmV H$s{OE &
X¡{ZH$ Oo~ IM©
20 – 25 25 – 30 30 – 35 35 – 40 40 – 45 45 – 50 50 – 55
(< _|)
~ƒm| H$s g§»`m 7 6 9 13 f 5 4

33. (a) EH$ aobJm‹S>r 90 km H$s Xÿar EH$ pñWa Mmb go MbVr h¡ & `{X BgH$s Mmb
15 km/h A{YH$ hmoVr, Vmo Bgo `h `mÌm ny ar H$aZo _| 30 {_ZQ> H$_ bJVo & aobJm‹S>r
H$s _yb Mmb kmV H$s{OE &
AWdm
(b) ‘c’ H$m dh _mZ kmV H$s{OE, {OgHo$ {bE {ÛKmV g_rH$aU
(c + 1) x2 – 6 (c + 1) x + 3 (c + 9) = 0; c ¹ –1
Ho$ _yb dmñV{dH$ VWm g_mZ hm| &

34. (a) EH$ g_m§Va MVw^w©O ABCD H$s ~‹T>mB© JB© ^wOm AD na q~Xþ E Bg àH$ma h¡ {H$
BE, ^wOm CD H$mo F na H$mQ>Vr h¡ & Xem©BE {H$ ∆ ABE ~ ∆ CFB.

AWdm
(b) ∆ ABC H$s ^wOmE± AB, BC VWm _mpÜ`H$m AD H«$_e… ∆ PQR H$s ^wOmAm|
PQ, QR VWm _mpÜ`H$m PM Ho$ g_mZwnmVr h¢ & {gÕ H$s{OE {H$
∆ ABC ~ ∆ PQR.

35. EH$ ~hþ_§{µObo ^dZ Ho$ erf© go EH$ 8 m D±$Mo ^dZ Ho$ {eIa VWm nmX Ho$ AdZ_Z H$moU
H«$_e… 30° VWm 45° h¢ & ~hþ_§{µObo ^dZ H$s D±$MmB© VWm XmoZm| ^dZm| Ho$ ~rM H$s Xÿar kmV
H$s{OE &
14-30/4/3 Page 16
 SECTION D

This section comprises Long Answer (LA) type questions of 5 marks each. 4´5=20

32. The following distribution shows the daily pocket allowance of children of
a locality. The mean daily pocket allowance is < 36.10. Find the missing
frequency, f.
Daily pocket
20 – 25 25 – 30 30 – 35 35 – 40 40 – 45 45 – 50 50 – 55
allowance (in <)
Number of
7 6 9 13 f 5 4
children

33. (a) A train travels a distance of 90 km at a constant speed. Had the

speed been 15 km/h more, it would have taken 30 minutes less for
the journey. Find the original speed of the train.

OR
(b) Find the value of ‘c’ for which the quadratic equation
(c + 1) x2 – 6 (c + 1) x + 3 (c + 9) = 0; c ¹ –1
has real and equal roots.

34. (a) E is a point on the side AD produced of a parallelogram ABCD and

BE intersects CD at F. Show that ∆ ABE ~ ∆ CFB.
OR
(b) Sides AB, BC and the median AD of ∆ ABC are respectively
proportional to sides PQ, QR and the median PM of another
∆ PQR. Prove that ∆ ABC ~ ∆ PQR.

35. The angles of depression of the top and the bottom of a 8 m tall building
from the top of a multi-storeyed building are 30° and 45° respectively.
Find the height of the multi-storeyed building and the distance between
the two buildings.

14-30/4/3 Page 17 P.T.O.

 IÊS> L>

Bg IÊS> _| 3 àH$aU AÜ``Z AmYm[aV àíZ h¢ {OZ_| àË`oH$ Ho$ 4 A§H$ h¢ & 3´4=12

àH$aU AÜ``Z – 1

36. Q´>oOa h§Q> EH$ amo_m§MH$ Am¡a gmh{gH$ Iob h¡, Ohm± à{V^mJr {N>no hþE IOmZo H$mo ImoOZo Ho$
{bE gwamJm|/g§»`mAm|/_mZ{MÌm| H$s EH$ ûm¥§Ibm H$m AZwgaU H$aVo h¢ & {Ibm‹S>r à{V{ð>V
nwañH$ma H$m ñWmZ OmZZo Ho$ {bE EH$ amo_m§MH$ ImoO _| bJo ahVo h¢ , g_ñ`mAm| Am¡a
nho{b`m| H$mo gwbPmVo h¢ &
EH$ Q´>oOa h§Q> Iob IobVo g_` Hw$N> gwamJ (g§»`mE±) {d{^Þ ñWmZm| _| {N>no hmoVo h¢ Omo
gm_y{hH$ ê$n _| EH$ A.P. ~ZmVo h¢ & `{X nd| ñWmZ na g§»`m 20 + 4n h¡, Vmo {Ibm{‹S>`m|
H$s _XX Ho$ {bE {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE :

(i) nhbo ñWmZ na H$m¡Z -gr g§»`m h¡ ? 1

(ii) (a) H$m¡Z-gm ñWmZ 112 H«$_m§{H$V h¡ ? 2

AWdm
(b) nhbo 10 ñWmZm| H$s g^r g§»`mAm| H$m `moJ\$b Š`m h¡ ? 2

(iii) H$m¡Z-gr g§»`m (n – 2)d| ñWmZ na h¡ ? 1

14-30/4/3 Page 18
 SECTION E

This section comprises 3 case study based questions of 4 marks each. 3´4=12

Case Study – 1

36. Treasure Hunt is an exciting and adventurous game where participants

follow a series of clues/numbers/maps to discover hidden treasures.
Players engage in a thrilling quest, solving puzzles and riddles to unveil
the location of the coveted prize.
While playing a treasure hunt game, some clues (numbers) are hidden in
various spots collectively forming an A.P. If the number on the n th spot is
20 + 4n, then answer the following questions to help the players in
spotting the clues :

(i) Which number is on first spot ? 1

(ii) (a) Which spot is numbered as 112 ? 2

OR
(b) What is the sum of all the numbers on the first 10 spots ? 2

(iii) Which number is on the (n – 2)th spot ? 1

14-30/4/3 Page 19 P.T.O.

 àH$aU AÜ``Z – 2

37. Q>¡åna-ày\$ Q>oQ´>m-n¡H$ XÿY VmµOJr Am¡a gwajm XmoZm| H$s Jma§Q>r XoVm h¡ & `h XÿY ~oOmo‹S> JwUdÎmm
gw{ZpíMV H$aVm h¡, Bg_| {Z{hV nmofU _yë`m| H$mo g§a{jV H$aVm h¡ Am¡a Bgo ñdmñÏ` Ho$ à{V
OmJéH$ ì`{º$`m| Ho$ {bE EH$ {dídgZr` {dH$ën ~ZmVm h¡ &

500 mL XÿY 15 cm ´ 8 cm ´ 5 cm Am`m_ Ho$ KZm^mH$ma n¡Ho$Q> _| n¡H$ h¢ VWm `h XÿY

Ho$ n¡Ho$Q> 30 cm ´ 32 cm ´ 15 cm Ho$ KZm^mH$ma H$mQ>©Z ({S>ã~o) _| aIo h¢ &
Cn`w©º$ Xr JB© OmZH$mar Ho$ AmYma na {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE :

(i) KZm^mH$ma H$mQ>©Z ({S>ã~o) H$m Am`VZ kmV H$s{OE & 1

(ii) (a) XÿY Ho$ EH$ n¡Ho$Q> H$m g§nyU© n¥ð>r` joÌ\$b kmV H$s{OE & 2

AWdm

(b) EH$ H$mQ>©Z ({S>ã~o) _| {H$VZo XÿY Ho$ n¡Ho$Q> Am gH$Vo h¢ ? 2

(iii) AmH¥${V _| {XImE JE H$n _| {H$VZm XÿY Am gH$Vm h¡ ? 1

14-30/4/3 Page 20
 Case Study – 2

37. Tamper-proof tetra-packed milk guarantees both freshness and security.

This milk ensures uncompromised quality, preserving the nutritional
values within and making it a reliable choice for health-conscious
individuals.

500 mL milk is packed in a cuboidal container of dimensions

15 cm ´ 8 cm ´ 5 cm. These milk packets are then packed in cuboidal
cartons of dimensions 30 cm ´ 32 cm ´ 15 cm.

Based on the above given information, answer the following questions :

(i) Find the volume of the cuboidal carton. 1

(ii) (a) Find the total surface area of a milk packet. 2

OR
(b) How many milk packets can be filled in a carton ? 2

(iii) How much milk can the cup (as shown in the figure) hold ? 1

14-30/4/3 Page 21 P.T.O.

 àH$aU AÜ``Z – 3
38. ao`mZ H$mo N>moQ>r C_« go hr Vmam| H$s OJ_JmhQ> Am¡a A§V[aj H$s {dembVm ~hþV AmH${f©V H$aVr
Wr & dh h_oem EH$ {XZ A§V[aj -`mÌr ~ZZo H$m gnZm XoIVm Wm & Bg{bE CgZo J«m\$ nona na
AnZo amHo $Q> {S>µOmBZ H$mo ñHo$M H$aZm ewê$ H$a {X`m & Eogm EH$ {S>µOmBZ ZrMo {X`m J`m h¡ :

Cn`w©º$$ na AmYm[aV, {ZåZ{b{IV àíZm| Ho$ CÎma Xr{OE :

(i) F VWm G H$mo {_bmZo dmbo ao ImIÊS> H$m _Ü`-q~Xþ kmV H$s{OE & 1
(ii) (a) q~XþAm| A VWm C Ho $ ~rM H$s Xÿar {H$VZr h¡ ? 2
AWdm
(b) q~XþAm| A VWm B H$mo {_bmZo dmbo aoImIÊS> H$mo 1 : 3 Ho$ AZwnmV _|
A§V… {d^mOZ H$aZo dmbo q~Xþ Ho$ {ZX}em§H$ kmV H$s{OE & 2
(iii) q~Xþ D Ho $ {ZX}em§H$ Š`m h¢ ? 1
14-30/4/3 Page 22
 Case Study – 3
38. Ryan, from a very young age, was fascinated by the twinkling of stars
and the vastness of space. He always dreamt of becoming an astronaut
one day. So he started to sketch his own rocket designs on the graph
sheet. One such design is given below :

Based on the above, answer the following questions :

(i) Find the mid-point of the segment joining F and G. 1
(ii) (a) What is the distance between the points A and C ? 2
OR
(b) Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line
segment joining the points A and B in the ratio 1 : 3
internally. 2
(iii) What are the coordinates of the point D ? 1
14-30/4/3 Page 23 P.T.O.
Series CD1BA/3 SET~1

Q.P. Code 30/3/1

Roll No.
 -   - 
-    
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

NOTE :
(i)       -    23  
Please check that this question paper contains 23 printed pages.
(ii)       -  38   
Please check that this question paper contains 38 questions.
(iii) -        -    -  - 
 
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(iv)
Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
(v)  -     15        -     10.15
    10.15   10.30     -      
  -      
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
candidates will read the question paper only and will not write any answer
on the answer-book during this period.

MATHEMATICS (Standard)

{ZYm©[aV g‘¶ : 3 KÊQo A{YH V‘ A§H : 80

Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 108 A Page 1 P.T.O.

             :
(i)  -  38      
(ii)  -     –   
(iii)  –    1  18   (MCQ)    19  20

    1     

(iv)  –    21  25   - (VSA)   2     
(v)  –    26  31  - (SA)   3     
(vi)  –    32  35    (LA)   5     
(vii)  –    36  38     4      
     2        
(viii) -         , –  2  , –  2  ,
–  2    -  3          
22
(ix)            p = ,  
7
    
(x)     

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 2 P.T.O.

General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :

(i) This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) This Question Paper is divided into FIVE Sections – Section A, B, C, D

and E.

(iii) In Section–A, questions number 1 to 18 are Multiple Choice Questions

(MCQs) and question number 19 & 20 are Assertion-Reason based
questions of 1 mark each.

(iv) In Section–B, questions number 21 to 25 are Very Short-Answer (VSA)

type questions, carrying 2 marks each.

(v) In Section–C, questions number 26 to 31 are Short Answer (SA) type

questions, carrying 3 marks each.

(vi) In Section–D, questions number 32 to 35 are Long Answer (LA) type

questions, carrying 5 marks each.

(vii) In Section–E, questions number 36 to 38 are Case Study based questions

carrying 4 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 2 marks questions
in each case-study.

(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
in 2 questions in Section–B, 2 questions in Section–C, 2 questions in
Section–D and 3 questions in Section–E.

22
(ix) Draw neat diagrams wherever required. Take p = wherever required,
7
if not stated.

(x) Use of calculators is not allowed.

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 3 P.T.O.

 – 20 1 = 20

   20      1   

1.    x + 2y + 5 = 0  –3x = 6y – 1 / 1

(A)    
(B)     
(C)       
(D)     

1 1 – 4x 1 – 8x
2.   , , ,................     : 1
2x 2x 2x

(A) –2x (B) –2

(C) 2 (D) 2x

3.                 : 1

(A) 1/6 (B) 5/6

(C) 1/3 (D) 2/3

x
4.              6      
2
     3 ,  x    : 1

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 6

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 4
 SECTION – A 20 1 = 20

This section consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. The pair of linear equations x + 2y + 5 = 0 and –3x = 6y – 1 has 1

(A) unique solution (B) exactly two solutions

(C) infinitely many solutions (D) no solution

2. The common difference of the A.P. 1

1 1 – 4x 1 – 8x
, , ,................is :
2x 2x 2x

(A) –2x (B) –2

(C) 2 (D) 2x

3. Two dice are thrown together. The probability that they show different
numbers is : 1

(A) 1/6 (B) 5/6

(C) 1/3 (D) 2/3

4. The probability of guessing the correct answer to a certain test question is

x
. If the probability of not guessing the correct answer to this question is
6
2
, then the value of x is : 1
3

(A) 2 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 6
30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 5 P.T.O.
5.  a = 22 ´ 3x, b = 22 ´ 3 ´ 5, c = 22 ´ 3 ´ 7  LCM (a, b, c) = 3780 ,  x
   : 1

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0

6.   2x2 – 3x – 9    : 1

–3 –3
(A) 3, (B) –3,
2 2

3 3
(C) –3, (D) 3,
2 2

7.     ,         30 m    ,    
   60° ,     ( )  : 1

(A) 10 3 (B) 30 3
(C) 60 (D) 30

3 1
8.  cos q =  sin f = ,  tan (q + f)  : 1
2 2

1
(A) 3 (B)
3

(C) 1 (D)  

9.  -              -
     : 1

(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 6
5. If a = 22 ´ 3x, b = 22 ´ 3 ´ 5, c = 22 ´ 3 ´ 7 and LCM (a, b, c) = 3780, then x
is equal to 1
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 0

6. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 – 3x – 9 are : 1

–3 –3
(A) 3, (B) –3,
2 2

3 3
(C) –3, (D) 3,
2 2

7. From a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a vertical
tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be 60°. The
height (in metres) of the tower is : 1

(A) 10 3 (B) 30 3
(C) 60 (D) 30

3 1
8. If cos q = and sin f = , then tan (q + f) is : 1
2 2

1
(A) 3 (B)
3
(C) 1 (D) not defined

9. Maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles

intersecting at two distinct points is : 1
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 7 P.T.O.

10.    ,  O     - PT      ÐTPO = 35°, 
Ðx     1

(A) 110° (B) 115°

(C) 120° (D) 125°

11.             ,     : 1

(A)   (B) 

(C)  (D) 

12.    , DABC  DE úú BC    AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm  BC = 7.5 cm

,  DE   (cm )  : 1

(A) 2.5 (B) 3

(C) 5 (D) 6

13.    HCF (2520, 6600) = 40  LCM (2520, 6600) = 252 ´ k ,  k 
  : 1

(A) 1650 (B) 1600

(C) 165 (D) 1625

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 8
10. In the given figure, if PT is a tangent to a circle with centre O and
ÐTPO = 35°, then the measure of Ðx is : 1

(A) 110° (B) 115°

(C) 120° (D) 125°

11. If the diagonals of a quadrilateral divide each other proportionally, then it

is a : 1
(A) parallelogram (B) rectangle
(C) square (D) trapezium

12. In D ABC, DE úú BC (as shown in the figure). If AD = 2 cm, BD = 3 cm,

BC = 7.5 cm, then the length of DE (in cm) is : 1

(A) 2.5 (B) 3

(C) 5 (D) 6

13. Given HCF (2520, 6600) = 40, LCM (2520, 6600) = 252 ´ k, then the value
of k is : 1
(A) 1650 (B) 1600
(C) 165 (D) 1625

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 9 P.T.O.

14.         ,  : 1
(A) ( 16, 4) (B) ( 5, 2)
(C) ( 3, 27) (D) ( 36, 2)

15.   1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9           
       : 1
1 2
(A) (B)
3 3
4 5
(C) (D)
9 9

16.     15          14      
 17 ,      1
(A) 20 (B) 19
(C) 18 (D) 17

17. 7 cm       ,    90°     ,  
  1
(A) 35 cm (B) 11 cm
(C) 22 cm (D) 25 cm

18.    , O      MN      M  - ML   
  MN   70°      ÐMON    : 1

(A) 120° (B) 140°

(C) 70° (D) 90°

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 10
14. A pair of irrational numbers whose product is a rational number is : 1
(A) ( 16, 4) (B) ( 5, 2)
(C) ( 3, 27) (D) ( 36, 2)

15. If a digit is chosen at random from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9; then

the probability that this digit is an odd prime number is : 1
1 2
(A) (B)
3 3
4 5
(C) (D)
9 9

16. The mean of five observations is 15. If the mean of first three observations
is 14 and that of the last three observations is 17, then the third
observation is 1
(A) 20 (B) 19
(C) 18 (D) 17

17. Perimeter of a sector of a circle whose central angle is 90° and radius 7 cm
is : 1
(A) 35 cm (B) 11 cm
(C) 22 cm (D) 25 cm

18. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. MN is the chord and the
tangent ML at point M makes an angle of 70° with MN. The measure of
ÐMON is : 1

(A) 120° (B) 140°

(C) 70° (D) 90°

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 11 P.T.O.

 :  19  20             (A)  

  (R)      (A), (B), (C)  (D)        

(A)  (A)   (R)      (R),  (A)      

(B)  (A)   (R)      (R)  (A)     

(C)  (A)  ,   (R)   

(D)  (A)  ,   (R)   

19. (A) :  A (1, 2)  B(–1, 1)        

æ–1 5ö
1 : 2      ç , ÷   1
è 3 3ø

(R) :  A(x1,y1)  B(x2 , y2)      m1 : m2 

æm1x2 + m2x1 m1y2 + m2y1ö

      ç , ÷  
è m1 + m2 m1 + m2 ø

20. (A) :      ,   45    9    
4
            5   1

(R) : P(E) + P(E ) = 1

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 12
Directions : Questions number 19 and 20 are Assertion and Reason based
questions carrying 1 mark each. Two statements are given, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given
below :

(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.

(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A) : The point which divides the line segment joining the
æ–1 5ö
points A (1, 2) and B(–1, 1) internally in the ratio 1 : 2 is ç , ÷ 1
è 3 3ø

Reason (R) : The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment
joining the points A (x1, y1) and B(x2, y2) in the ratio m1 : m2 are

æm1x2 + m2x1 m1y2 + m2y1ö

ç , ÷
è m1 + m2 m1 + m2 ø

20. Assertion (A) : In a cricket match, a batsman hits a boundary 9 times out
of 45 balls he plays. The probability that in a given ball, he does not hit
4
the boundary is . 1
5

Reason (R) : P(E) + P(not E) = 1

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 13 P.T.O.

 –
   5      2   
21. 52                   
      (i)     (ii)       1+1

22. (a)  2x + y = 13  4x – y = 17 ,  (x – y)      2

(b)     105     45       2

23. (a)   P(x, y),  A(7, 1)  B(3, 5)   ,  x  y   
    2

(b)  A(–1, y)  B(5, 7),  O(2, –3y)          AB 
     y             2

EA EB
24.     EC = ED ,    DEAB ~ DECD 2

cos 45° + sin 60°

25.    : sec 30° + cosec 30°. 2

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 14
 SECTION – B
This section consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.

21. One card is drawn at random from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find
the probability that the card drawn
(i) is queen of hearts;
(ii) is not a jack. 1+1

22. (a) If 2x + y = 13 and 4x – y = 17, find the value of (x – y). 2

OR
(b) Sum of two numbers is 105 and their difference is 45. Find the
numbers. 2

23. (a) Find a relation between x and y such that the point P(x, y) is
equidistant from the points A(7, 1) and B(3, 5). 2
OR
(b) Points A(–1, y) and B(5, 7) lie on a circle with centre O(2, –3y) such
that AB is a diameter of the circle. Find the value of y. Also, find the
radius of the circle. 2

EA EB
24. In the given figure, = , prove that DEAB ~ DECD 2
EC ED

cos 45° + sin 60°

25. Evaluate : . 2
sec 30° + cosec 30°

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 15 P.T.O.

 –

   6      3   

26. (a)       7    49     17    289 ,
   20       3

(b)     10  30   1 : 3         
 42               3

27.   x2 – 15               
   3

28.           : 3

x–y+1=0
x+y=5

29. (a)       (5, 3)  (–1, 6)    
Y-      3

(b) P(–2, 5)
 Q(3, 2)      PQ    R    
 PR = 2QR   3

sin q – 2 sin 3 q
30.   : = tan q. 3
2 cos3 q – cos q

31.             -,     
   3

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 16
 SECTION – C
This section consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

26. (a) If the sum of first 7 terms of an A.P. is 49 and that of first 17 terms is
289, find the sum of its first 20 terms. 3
OR
(b) The ratio of the 10 th term to its 30th term of an A.P. is 1 : 3 and the
sum of its first six terms is 42. Find the first term and the common
difference of A.P. 3

27. Find the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 – 15 and verify the
relationship between the zeroes and the coefficients of the polynomial. 3

28. Solve the following system of linear equations graphically : 3

x–y+1=0
x+y=5

29. (a) Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points (5, 3) and
(–1, 6) is divided by Y-axis. 3
OR
(b) P(–2, 5) and Q(3, 2) are two points. Find the coordinates of the point
R on line segment PQ such that PR = 2QR. 3

sin q – 2 sin3 q
30. Prove that = tan q. 3
2 cos3 q – cos q

31. Prove that the tangents drawn at the end points of a chord of a circle
makes equal angles with the chord. 3

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 17 P.T.O.

 –

   4      5   

32. (a) 2800 km      ,         
100 km/h         30        
    5

(b)                    
16
2 ,      5
21

33.            5

34.       20 m              
   45°  60°         5

35. (a)  200 cm    28 cm    ,    50 cm 
 7 cm      ,           
   ,     1 cm3    8 g    5

(b)                  
      14 mm    4 mm      
        5

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 18
 SECTION – D
This section consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.

32. (a) In a flight of 2800 km, an aircraft was slowed down due to bad
weather. Its average speed is reduced by 100 km/h and by doing so,
the time of flight is increased by 30 minutes. Find the original
duration of the flight. 5

OR

(b) The denominator of a fraction is one more than twice the numerator.
16
If the sum of the fraction and its reciprocal is 2 , find the fraction. 5
21

33. State and prove Basic Proportionality theorem. 5

34. From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and the
top of a transmission tower fixed at the top of a 20 m high building are 45°
and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower. 5

35. (a) A solid iron pole consists of a solid cylinder of height 200 cm and base
diameter 28 cm, which is surmounted by another cylinder of height
50 cm and radius 7 cm. Find the mass of the pole, given that 1 cm3 of
iron has approximately 8 g mass. 5

OR

(b) A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two

hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. The length of the entire
capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 4 mm, find its
surface area. Also, find its volume. 5

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 19 P.T.O.

 –
          4   :
36.       4               
20           7 m.         
                     
          

         

(i)          1
(ii) (a)               2

(b)       7 m   10 m   ,    
         (p = 3.14 ) 2
(iii)      7 cm  ,          ? 1
37.               
          ,    
           ,      

      ,  /      
          :
30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 20
 SECTION – E
This section consists of 3 case study based questions of 4 marks each :
36. A stable owner has four horses. He usually tie these horses with 7 m long rope
to pegs at each corner of a square shaped grass field of 20 m length, to graze in
his farm. But tying with rope sometimes results in injuries to his horses, so he
decided to build fence around the area so that each horse can graze.

Based on the above, answer the following questions :

(i) Find the area of the square shaped grass field. 1
(ii) (a) Find the area of the total field in which these horses can graze. 2
OR
(b) If the length of the rope of each horse is increased from 7 m to
10 m, find the area grazed by one horse. (Use p = 3.14) 2
(iii) What is area of the field that is left ungrazed, if the length of the
rope of each horse is 7 cm ? 1
37. Vocational training complements traditional education by providing
practical skills and hands-on experience. While education equips
individuals with a broad knowledge base, vocational training focuses on
job-specific skills, enhancing employability thus making the student self-
reliant. Keeping this in view, a teacher made the following table giving
the frequency distribution of students/adults undergoing vocational
training from the training institute.

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 21 P.T.O.

 15-19 20-24 25-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54
( )

62 132 96 37 13 11 10 4

       

(i)             ? 1

(ii) (a)         2

(b) 50                
  2

(iii) ,         1

38.                 
       ,     5         
          2        
                       
             173250   
         :
(i)             ? 1
(ii) (a)      ? 2

(b)              ? 2
(iii)           ? 1
____________

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 22
 Age 15-19 20-24 25-29 30-34 35-39 40-44 45-49 50-54
(in years)
Number of 62 132 96 37 13 11 10 4
participants
From the above answer the following questions :
(i) What is the lower limit of the modal class of the above data ? 1
(ii) (a) Find the median class of the above data. 2
OR
(b) Find the number of participants of age less than 50 years who
undergo vocational training. 2
(iii) Give the empirical relationship between mean, median and mode. 1

38. Teaching Mathematics through activities is a powerful approach that

enhances students’ understanding and engagement. Keeping this in mind,
Ms. Mukta planned a prime number game for class 5 students. She
announces the number 2 in her class and asked the first student to
multiply it by a prime number and then pass it to second student. Second
student also multiplied it by a prime number and passed it to third
student. In this way by multiplying to a prime number, the last student
got 173250.
Now, Mukta asked some questions as given below to the students :
(i) What is the least prime number used by students ? 1
(ii) (a) How many students are in the class ? 2
OR
(b) What is the highest prime number used by students ? 2
(iii) Which prime number has been used maximum times ? 1
____________

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 Page 23 P.T.O.

30/3/1/CD1BA/22 108 A Page 24
 Series DA2AB/2 SET~2

Q.P. Code 30/2/2

Roll No.
 -   - 
-    
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

NOTE :
(i)       -    23  
Please check that this question paper contains 23 printed pages.
(ii)       -  38   
Please check that this question paper contains 38 questions.
(iii) -        -    -  - 
 
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(iv)
Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
(v)  -     15        -     10.15
    10.15   10.30     -      
  -      
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the
candidates will read the question paper only and will not write any answer
on the answer-book during this period.

MATHEMATICS (Standard)

{ZYm©[aV g‘¶ : 3 KÊQo A{YH V‘ A§H : 80

Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 107 B Page 1 P.T.O.

             :
(i)  -  38      
(ii)  -     -  
(iii)  –    1  18   (MCQ)    19  20

    1     

(iv)  –    21  25   - (VSA)   2     
(v)  –    26  31  - (SA)   3     
(vi)  –    32  35  - (LA)   5     
(vii)  –    36  38     4      
     2        
(viii) -         ,  –  2  ,  –  2 
,  –  2    -  3          
22
(ix)           p = ,   
7
   
(x)     

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :

(i) This question paper contains 38 questions. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) This question paper is divided into FIVE Sections – A, B, C, D and E.

(iii) In Section–A questions number 1 to 18 are Multiple Choice Questions

(MCQs) and question number 19 and 20 are Assertion-Reason based
questions of 1 mark each.

(iv) In Section–B questions number 21 to 25 are Very Short Answer (VSA)

type questions, carrying 2 marks each.

(v) In Section–C questions number 26 to 31 are Short Answer (SA) type

questions, carrying 3 marks each.

(vi) In Section–D questions number 32 to 35 are Long Answer (LA) type

questions, carrying 5 marks each.

(vii) In Section–E question number 36 to 38 are Case Study based questions

carrying 4 marks each. Internal choice is provided in 2 marks questions
in each case-study.

(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided
in 2 questions in Section–B, 2 questions in Section–C, 2 questions in
Section–D and 3 question in Section–E.

22
(ix) Draw neat diagrams wherever required. Take p = wherever required,
7
if not stated.

(x) Use of calculator is NOT allowed.

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 3 P.T.O.

 – 20 × 1 = 20

20 1

1.   (A.P.) –29, –26, –23, ....., 61     16  ? 1

(A) 11 (B) 16

(C) 10 (D) 31

2.     PT  O     -    PQ     65° 
     ÐQPT    : 1

(A) 65° (B) 57.5°

(C) 67.5° (D) 32.5°

3.    ,  O     P    - PA  PB  
   PA = 5 cm ,  AB    : 1

(A) 5 cm (B) 5 2 cm
(C) 2 5 cm (D) 10 cm

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 4
 SECTION – A 20 × 1 = 20
This section consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. Which term of the A.P. –29, –26, –23, ....., 61 is 16 ? 1

(A) 11th (B) 16th

(C) 10th (D) 31st

2. In the given figure, PT is tangent to a circle with centre O. Chord PQ

subtends an angle of 65° at the centre. The measure of ÐQPT is : 1

(A) 65° (B) 57.5°

(C) 67.5° (D) 32.5°

3. In the given figure, tangents PA and PB to the circle centred at O, from

point P are perpendicular to each other. If PA = 5 cm, then length of AB is
equal to 1

(A) 5 cm (B) 5 2 cm

(C) 2 5 cm (D) 10 cm
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 5 P.T.O.
4. AB  CD        P            : 1

(A) DADP ~ DCBA (B) DADP ~ DBPC

(C) DADP ~ DBCP (D) DADP ~ DCBP

5.         2    ,      1

(A) 2     (B) 2n    

(C)    (D) 2     

6.  a  b  2x2 – 9x + 5   ,  a2 + b2    : 1

1 61
(A) (B)
4 4
71
(C) 1 (D)
4

7.    ,             
     1
(A)  (B) 
(C)  (D) 

8. k        3x – y + 8 = 0  6x – ky + 16 = 0 

     ,  1

(A) –2 (B) 2
1 1
(C) (D) –
2 2

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 6
4. AB and CD are two chords of a circle intersecting at P. Choose the correct
statement from the following : 1

(A) DADP ~ DCBA (B) DADP ~ DBPC

(C) DADP ~ DBCP (D) DADP ~ DCBP

5. If value of each observation in a data is increased by 2, then median of the

new data 1
(A) increases by 2 (B) increases by 2n
(C) remains same (D) decreases by 2

6. If a and b are zeroes of the polynomial 2x2 – 9x + 5, then value of a2 + b2 is 1

1 61
(A) (B)
4 4
71
(C) 1 (D)
4

7. After an examination, a teacher wants to know the marks obtained by

Maximum number of the students in her class. She requires to calculate
_____ of marks. 1
(A) median (B) mode
(C) mean (D) range

8. The value of k for which the system of equations 3x – y + 8 = 0 and

6x – ky + 16 = 0 has infinitely many solutions, is 1
(A) –2 (B) 2
1 1
(C) (D) –
2 2
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 7 P.T.O.
9.  P,  A(4, –5)  B(1, 2)      5:2      
 P    : 1

æ 5 -3 ö æ 11 ö
(A) ç , ÷ (B) ç , 0÷
è2 2 ø è7 ø

æ 13 ö æ 13 ö
(C) ç , 0÷ (D) ç 0, ÷
è7 ø è 7ø

10.        6  55            

               : 1

7 7
(A) (B)
50 55
1 5
(C) (D)
10 49

11.  sin q = cos q, (0° < q < 90°) ,  (sec q · sin q)    : 1

1
(A) (B) 2
2
(C) 1 (D) 0

12.               10     
 : 1

1 1
(A) (B)
9 6
7 1
(C) (D)
12 12

13. k      x = 2  5x2 – 4x + (2 + k) = 0    ,  : 1

(A) 10 (B) –10
(C) 14 (D) –14
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 8
9. Point P divides the line segment joining the points A(4, –5) and B(1, 2) in
the ratio 5:2. Co-ordinates of point P are 1

æ 5 -3 ö æ 11 ö
(A) ç , ÷ (B) ç , 0÷
è2 2 ø è7 ø

æ 13 ö æ 13 ö
(C) ç , 0÷ (D) ç 0, ÷
è7 ø è 7ø

10. A box contains cards numbered 6 to 55. A card is drawn at random from
the box. The probability that the drawn card has a number which is a
perfect square, is 1
7 7
(A) (B)
50 55
1 5
(C) (D)
10 49

11. If sin q = cos q, (0° < q < 90°), then value of (sec q · sin q) is : 1
1
(A) (B) 2
2
(C) 1 (D) 0

12. Two dice are rolled together. The probability of getting the sum of the two
numbers to be more than 10, is 1
1 1
(A) (B)
9 6
7 1
(C) (D)
12 12

13. Value of k for which x = 2 is a solution of the equation 5x2 – 4x + (2 + k) = 0,

is 1
(A) 10 (B) –10
(C) 14 (D) –14
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 9 P.T.O.
14.    ABC  PQR   : 56 cm  48 cm   PQ/AB 
 : 1
7 6
(A) (B)
8 7
7 8
(C) (D)
6 7

15.  200      : 1

(A) 2010 (B) 2000
(C) 20100 (D) 21000

16.  HCF (2520, 6600) = 40  LCM (2520, 6600) = 252 ´ k ,  k    : 1

(A) 1650 (B) 1600

(C) 165 (D) 1625

17.     DABC     DE || BC ,  AD = 5 cm, DB = 2.5 cm
 BC = 12 cm ,  DE   : 1

(A) 10 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm (D) 7.5 cm

18. XOYZ      X(–3, 0), O(0, 0), Y(0, 4)  Z(x, y)    
    : 1
(A) 5  (B) 5 
(C) x2 + y2  (D) 4 
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 10
14. The perimeters of two similar triangles ABC and PQR are 56 cm and
48 cm respectively. PQ/AB is equal to 1
7 6
(A) (B)
8 7
7 8
(C) (D)
6 7

15. The sum of first 200 natural numbers is 1

(A) 2010 (B) 2000
(C) 20100 (D) 21000

16. If the HCF (2520, 6600) = 40 and LCM (2520, 6600) = 252 ´ k, then the
value of k is 1
(A) 1650 (B) 1600
(C) 165 (D) 1625

17. In the given figure DABC is shown. DE is parallel to BC. If AD = 5 cm,

DB = 2.5 cm and BC = 12 cm, then DE is equal to 1

(A) 10 cm (B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm (D) 7.5 cm

18. XOYZ is a rectangle with vertices X(–3, 0), O(0, 0), Y(0, 4) and Z(x, y). The
length of its each diagonal is 1
(A) 5 units (B) 5 units
(C) x2 + y2 units (D) 4 units
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 11 P.T.O.
  19  20      (A)    (R)   
      :
(A)   (A)    (R)      (R),  (A)  

  
(B)   (A)    (R)      (R),  (A)  
   
(C)  (A)      (R)   
(D)  (A)      (R)   

19. (A) : 10 cm              
  1200 cm2  

(R) : ,   10 cm ,      100 cm2   1

1 2 2
20. (A) :  sin A = (0° < A < 90°) ,  cos A    
3 3

(R) :   q   sin2 q + cos2 q = 1. 1

5 2
21.    , AB  CD,  O     -    ÐBAC = ÐDCA ?
      2

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 12
 Directions : In Question 19 and 20, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
given. Select the correct option from the following :
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).

(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true. Reason (R) does not give
correct explanation of (A).

(C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is not true.

(D) Assertion (A) is not true but Reason (R) is true.

19. Assertion (A) : Two cubes each of edge length 10 cm are joined together.

The total surface area of newly formed cuboid is 1200 cm2.

Reason (R) : Area of each surface of a cube of side 10 cm is 100 cm2. 1

1 2 2
20. Assertion (A) : If sin A = (0° < A < 90°), then the value of cos A is
3 3

Reason (R) : For every angle q, sin2 q + cos2 q = 1. 1

SECTION – B
In this section, there are 5 questions of 2 marks each.

21. In the given figure, AB and CD are tangents to a circle centred at O. Is

ÐBAC = ÐDCA ? Justify your answer. 2

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 13 P.T.O.

22. (a)  (3, –5)  (–1, 6)      y = x    
   ? 2

(b) A(3, 0), B(6, 4)  C(–1, 3)  DABC      BE   
  2

23.    7 × 11 × 13 + 13  7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 5  

   2

24.   DABC   A(–2, 4), B(4, 3)  C(1, –6) ,   BD   
  2

25. (a) 2 sin2 30° sec 60° + tan2 60°      2

(b)  2 sin (A + B) = 3  cos (A – B) = 1 ,   A  B   
, 0 £ A, B, (A + B) £ 90°. 2

–
6 3
26. (a)    ,  O     - PQ   ÐBAQ = 30° , 
  BP = BQ  3

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 14
22. (a) In what ratio is the line segment joining the points (3, –5) and (–1, 6)
divided by the line y = x ? 2
OR
(b) A(3, 0), B(6, 4) and C(–1, 3) are vertices of a triangle ABC. Find
length of its median BE. 2

23. Explain why 7 × 11 × 13 + 13 and 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 5 are

composite numbers. 2

24. The vertices of a DABC are A(–2, 4), B(4, 3) and C(1, –6). Find length of
the median BD. 2

25. (a) Evaluate : 2 sin2 30° sec 60° + tan2 60°. 2

OR
(b) If 2 sin (A + B) = 3 and cos (A – B) = 1, then find the measures of
angles A and B. 0 £ A, B, (A + B) £ 90°. 2

SECTION – C
This section consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

26. (a) In the given figure, PQ is tangent to a circle centred at O and

ÐBAQ = 30°; show that BP = BQ. 3

OR
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 15 P.T.O.
 (b)    , AB, BC, CD  DA  O    -   
 ABCD      3

ÐAOB + ÐCOD = 180°

27.    100   50         : 3

: 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50

: 12 23 34 25 6

        

28.                     161
         3

29. (a)     (A.P.)   m      n  (m ¹ n) 
   ,      (m + n)       3

(b)          24       194  
    3

30.    5      3

31.   : sin6 q + cos6 q = 1 – 3 sin2 q cos2 q. 3

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 16
 (b) In the given figure, AB, BC, CD and DA are tangents to the circle
with centre O forming a quadrilateral ABCD. 3
Show that ÐAOB + ÐCOD = 180°

27. In a test, the marks obtained by 100 students (out of 50) are given below : 3

Marks obtained : 0 – 10 10 – 20 20 – 30 30 – 40 40 – 50

Number of students : 12 23 34 25 6

Find the mean marks of the students.

28. Three consecutive integers are such that sum of the square of second and
product of other two is 161. Find the three integers. 3

29. (a) If the sum of first m terms of an A.P. is same as sum of its first n
terms (m ¹ n), then show that the sum of its first (m + n) terms is zero. 3

OR

(b) In an A.P., the sum of three consecutive terms is 24 and the sum of
their squares is 194. Find the numbers. 3

30. Prove that 5 is an irrational number. 3

31. Prove that sin 6 q + cos6 q = 1 – 3 sin2 q cos2 q. 3

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 17 P.T.O.

 –

4 5
32.      A           60°   30 . 
      30°         3500 3 m
              5

33.      5 cm      2 cm       
80 cm2        10 cm      5 cm     
  50 cm2             5

34. (a)           : 5

3x + y + 4 = 0  3x – y + 2 = 0

(b)      40         3    
   1          4      
 2  ,   50              , 
       5

35. (a)             -   
      ,            
     5

(b)   ABC   AB  AC   AD    PQR 
 PQ  PR   PM  :      DABC ~
DPQR  5
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 18
 SECTION – D

This section consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.

32. The angle of elevation of an aircraft from a point A on the ground is 60°.
After a flight of 30 seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. The
aircraft is flying at a constant height of 3500 3 m at a uniform speed.
Find the speed of the aircraft. 5

33. If the length of a rectangle is reduced by 5 cm and its breadth is increased

by 2 cm, then the area of the rectangle is reduced by 80 cm2. However, if
we increase the length by 10 cm and decrease the breadth by 5 cm, its
area is increased by 50 cm2. Find the length and breadth of the rectangle. 5

34. (a) Using graphical method, solve the following system of equations : 5
3x + y + 4 = 0 and 3x – y + 2 = 0
OR
(b) Tara scored 40 marks in a test, getting 3 marks for each right
answer and losing 1 mark for each wrong answer. Had 4 marks been
awarded for each correct answer and 2 marks been deducted for each
wrong answer, then Tara would have scored 50 marks. Assuming
that Tara attempted all questions, find the total number of questions
in the test. 5

35. (a) If a line is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersect the
other two sides in distinct points, then prove that the other two sides
are divided in the same ratio. 5
OR
(b) Sides AB and AC and median AD to DABC are respectively
proportional to sides PQ and PR and median PM of another triangle
PQR. Show that DABC ~ DPQR. 5

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 19 P.T.O.

 –

3 4

36. ‘’  :  ()              
            
    8 m              
28 m       18.5 m  

         :

(i)         1
(ii)         1
(iii) (a)             2

(iii) (b)            2

37.        120            
       -       

-         :

(i)      ,      ()    
    1

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 20
 SECTION – E
This section consists of 3 case based questions of 4 marks each.

36. The word ‘circus’ has the same root as ‘circle’. In a closed circular area,
various entertainment acts including human skill and animal training are
presented before the crowd.
A circus tent is cylindrical upto a height of 8 m and conical above it.
The diameter of the base is 28 m and total height of tent is 18.5 m.

Based on the above, answer the following questions :

(i) Find slant height of the conical part. 1
(ii) Determine the floor area of the tent. 1
(iii) (a) Find area of the cloth used for making tent. 2
OR
(iii) (b) Find total volume of air inside an empty tent. 2

37. In a survey on holidays, 120 people were asked to state which type of
transport they used on their last holiday. The following pie chart shows
the results of the survey.

Observe the pie chart and answer the following questions :

(i) If one person is selected at random, find the probability that he/she
travelled by bus or ship. 1
30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 21 P.T.O.
 (ii)   /            
 ? 1
(iii) (a)             4/5    
       ? 2

(iii) (b)              7/60 , 
      ,     ` 5,000   2

38.          t     ,    
h     h = 25t – 5t2      

           :

(i)        1
(ii)           1
(iii) (a)         30 m     ? 2

(iii) (b)     20 m   t        2

__________

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 22
 (ii) Which is most favourite mode of transport and how many people
used it ? 1

(iii) (a) A person is selected at random. If the probability that he did

not use train is 4/5, find the number of people who used train. 2

OR

(iii) (b) The probability that randomly selected person used aeroplane is
7/60. Find the revenue collected by air company at the rate of `
5,000 per person. 2

38. A ball is thrown in the air so that t seconds after it is thrown, its height h
metre above its starting point is given by the polynomial h = 25t – 5t2.

Observe the graph of the polynomial and answer the following questions :
(i) Write zeroes of the given polynomial. 1
(ii) Find the maximum height achieved by ball. 1
(iii) (a) After throwing upward, how much time did the ball take to
reach to the height of 30 m ? 2
OR
(iii) (b) Find the two different values of t when the height of the ball was
20 m. 2

_______________

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 Page 23 P.T.O.

30/2/2/DA2AB/21 107 B Page 24
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN CHENNAI REGION
PREBOARD - I EXAMINATION 2024 - 25

CLASS X MATHEMATICS BASIC (241)

Time Allowed : 3 hrs Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions:
1. This Question Paper has 5 Sections A - E.
2. Section A has 20 MCQs carrying 1 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessment (04 marks each) with
subparts of the values of 1, 1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All Questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice in 2 Qs of 5 marks, 2
Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided. An internal choice
has been provided in the 2 marks questions of Section E 8. Draw neat figures
wherever required.
[Link] π =22/7 wherever required if not stated
Section A

1 The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2 - 3x - 9 are: [1]

−3
a) −3,
2
3
b) 3,
2
−3
c) 3,
2
3
d) −3,
2

2 For what value of k, the product of zeroes of the polynomial kx 2 - 4x - [1]

7 is 2?
 7
a)
2
2
b) −
7
1
c) −
14
7
d) −
2

3 The pair of linear equations 4x + 6y = 9 and 2x + 3y = 6 has [1]

a) no solution
b) two solutions
c) one solution
d) many solutions

4 2x2 - 3x + 2 = 0 have [1]

a) Real and Distinct roots
b) Real and Equal roots
c) Real roots
d) No Real roots

5 Which term of the A.P. - 29, - 26, - 23, ..., 61 is 16? [1]
a) 11𝑡ℎ
b) 31𝑠𝑡
c) 10𝑡ℎ
d) 16𝑡ℎ

6 If (3, –6) is the mid - point of the line segment joining (0, 0) and (x, y), [1]
then the point (x, y) is:
a) (6, - 6)
b) (6, - 12)
 3
c) ( , −3)
2

d) ( - 3, 6)

7 Distance of point P(3, 4) from x - axis is [1]

a) 5 units
b) 1 unit
c) 4 units
d) 3 units
1
8 If sin A = , then the value of cot A is [1]
2

a) √3
√3
b)
2
1
c)
√3

d) 1

9 The value of sin 45°+ cos 45°is [1]

a) √2
1
b)
√2

c) 1
1
d)
√3

10 The length of the tangent drawn from a point 8 cm away from the [1]
centre of a circle of radius 6 cm is
a) 5 cm

b) √7 cm
c) 10 cm
 d) 2√7 cm

11 In the given figure, the perimeter of△ ABC is: [1]

a) 15 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 60 cm
d) 45 cm

12 A circle is of radius 3 cm. The distance between two of its parallel [1]
tangents is:
a) 3 cm
b) 4.5 cm
c) 6 cm
d) 12 cm

13 A solid is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with both [1]

their radii being equal to 1cm and the height of the cone is equal to its
radius. The volume of the solid is
a) 𝜋𝑐𝑚3
b) 4𝜋𝑐𝑚3
c) 2𝜋𝑐𝑚3
d) 3𝜋𝑐𝑚3

14 How many bricks each measuring (25 cm× 11.25 cm × 6 cm) will be [1]
required to construct a wall (8 m × 6 m × 22.5 cm)?
a) 7200
 b) 4800
c) 8000
d) 6400

15 The mean of all the factors of 24 is [1]

a) 7.5
b) 7
c) 6.5
d) 24

16 For a frequency distribution, mean, median and mode are connected by [1]
the relation
a) Mode = 3 Median - 2 Mean
b) Mode = 2 Median - 3 Mean
c) Mode = 3 Mean - 2 Median
d) Mode = 3 Median + 2 Mean

17 Which of the following cannot be the probability of occurrence of an [1]

event?
a) 0.2
b) 1.6
c) 0.8
d) 0.4

18 An unbiased die is thrown once. The probability of getting a composite [1]

number is
2
a)
5
1
b)
3
 2
c)
3
1
d)
2

19 Assertion (A): The HCF of two numbers is 5 and their product is 150, [1]
then their LCM is 30.
Reason (R): For any two positive integers a and b, HCF (a, b) + LCM
(a, b) = a × b.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

20 Assertion (A): Area of a sector of a circle of radius r and central angle [1]
𝜃
𝜃 = ( × 2𝜋𝑟)
180

Reason (R): Sector is a part of a circle enclosed between two bounding

radii and a corresponding arc.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is false but R is true.
d) A is true but R is false.
Section B

21 Find the HCF of 96 and 404 by prime factorisation method. Hence, find [2]
their LCM.
OR
Find the LCM and HCF of the integers 12, 15 and 21 by applying the
prime factorisation method.

22 Find the value of y for which the distance between the points P (2, - 3) [2]
and Q(10, y) is 10 units.
23 Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining [2]
the points (4, - 3) and (8, 5) in the ratio 3 : 1 internally.
24 If cos A = 5 ,then verify that cos𝐴 + sin𝐴 = cos A + sin A. [2]
13 1−tan𝐴 1−cot𝐴
25 Gopi buys a fish from a shop for his aquarium. The shopkeeper takes [2]
out one fish at random from a tank containing 5 male fish and 8 female
fish. What is the probability that the fish taken out is a male fish?

(OR)
A bag contains 2 green, 3 red and 4 black balls. A ball is taken out from
the bag at random. Find the probability that the selected ball is
a) Not Green
b) Not Black
Section C

26 Prove that√2 is an irrational number. [3]

27 Find a quadratic polynomial, the sum and product of whose zeroes [3]
are√2
1
and , respectively.
3

28 Is it possible to design a rectangular park of perimeter 80 m and area [3]

400 m2 ? If so, find its length and breadth.
29 Write all the other trigonometric ratios of∠ A in terms of sec A. [3]
30 ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC. E and F are two points on non - [3]
parallel sides AD and BC respectively, such that EF is parallel to AB.
𝐴𝐸 𝐵𝐹
Show that =
𝐸𝐷 𝐹𝐶

OR
 E is a point on side AD produced of a parallelogram ABCD and BE
intersects CD at F. Prove that𝛥𝐴𝐵𝐸 ∼ 𝛥𝐶𝐹𝐵.

31 In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60 𝑜 at the [3]

center. Find:
1. the length of the arc.
2. area of the sector formed by the arc.
3. area of the segment formed by the corresponding chord
OR
A brooch is made with silver wire in the form of a circle with diameter
35 mm. The wire is also used in making 5 diameters which divide the
circle into 10 equal sectors as shown in figure. Find:
1. the total length of the silver wire required.
2. the area of each sector of the brooch.

Section D

32 Half the perimeter of a rectangular garden, whose length is 4 m more [5]

than its width, is 36 m. Find the dimensions of the garden graphically.
OR
If we add 1 to the numerator and subtract 1 from the denominator, a
1
fraction reduces to 1. It becomes if we only add 1 to the denominator.
2
What is the fraction?

33 A statue, 1.6 m tall, stands on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the [5]
ground, the angle of elevation of the top of the statue is 60 𝑜 and from
the same point the angle of elevation of the top of the pedestal is 45 𝑜 .
Find the height of the pedestal.
34 In figure AB and CD are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O. [5]
ST is tangent segment between the two parallel tangents touching the
circle at Q. Show that∠ SOT = 90 𝑜

35 The following table shows the ages of the patients admitted in a [5]

hospital during a year:

Find the mode and the mean of the data given above. Compare and
interpret the two measures of central tendency.
OR
The following table gives the distribution of the life time of 400 neon

lamps:
Find the median life time of a lamp.
Section E

36 Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that [4]
follow:
Akshat’s father is planning some construction work in his terrace area.
He ordered 360 bricks and instructed the supplier to keep the bricks in
such as way that the bottom row has 30 bricks and next is one less than
that and so on.
 The supplier stacked these 360 bricks in the following manner, 30
bricks in the bottom row, 29 bricks in the next row, 28 bricks in the row
next to it, and so on.
1. In how many rows, 360 bricks are placed? (1)
2. How many bricks are there in the top row? (1)
3. How many bricks are there in 10 𝑡ℎ row? (2)
OR
If which row 26 bricks are there? (2)

37 Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that [4]
follow:
In the figure given below, a folding table is shown:

The legs of the table are represented by line segments AB and CD

intersecting at O. Join AC and BD.
Considering table top is parallel to the ground, and OB = x, OD = x + 3,
OC = 3x + 19 and OA = 3x + 4, answer the following questions:
1. Prove that△ OAC is similar to △ OBD.
OA OB
2. Prove that =
AC BD

3.
 a. Observe the figure and find the value of x. Hence, find the
length of OC.
OR
BD
b. Observe the figure and find .
AC

38 Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that [4]
follow:
A carpenter in the small town of Bareilly used to make and sell
different kinds of wood items like a rectangular box, cylindrical pen
stand, and cuboidal pen stand. One day a student came to his shop and
asked him to make a pen stand with the dimensions as follows:
A pen stand should be in the shape of a cuboid with four conical
depressions to hold pens. The dimensions of the cuboid should be 15
cm by 10 cm by 3.5 cm. The radius of each of the depressions is0.5 cm
and the depth is1.4 cm.

1. The volume of the cuboidal part. (1)

2. The volume of wood in the entire stand. (1)
3. Total volume of conical depression. (2)
OR
If the cost of wood used is ₹ 10 per cm 3 , then the total cost of
making the pen stand. (2)