29-12-2024

9610ZMD801433240011 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Photons of energy 6 eV are incident on a metal surface whose work function is 4 eV. The minimum
kinetic energy of the emitted photo-electrons will be :-

(1) 0 eV
(2) 1 eV
(3) 2 eV
(4) 10 eV

2) In third orbit of hydrogen atom, de Broglie wavelength of electron is λ then radius of third orbit is
:–

(1) 3λ
(2) λ

(3)

(4)

3) If a photocell is illuminated with a radiation of 1240 Å, the stopping potential is found to be 8 volt;
then the work function of emitter and the threshold wavelength are :

(1) 2eV, 2000 Å

(2) 2eV, 6200 Å
(3) 2eV, 2480 Å
(4) 3eV, 6200 Å

4)

Two particles of masses m1 and m2 have identical charges. If they are accelerated through identical
potential differences, then the ratio of their deBroglie wavelength would be

(1) λ1 : λ2 = 1 : 1
(2) λ1 : λ2 = m2 : m1
(3) λ1 :λ2 =
(4) λ1 : λ2 =

5) Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1400 W/m2 falls on metal surface on area 1.5 m2 and completely
absorbed by it. Find out force exerted by beam :-
(1) 14 × 10–5 N
(2) 14 × 10–6 N
(3) 7 × 10–5 N
(4) 7 × 10–6 N

6) The collector plate in an experiment on photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the emitter
plate. Light source is put on and a saturation photo current is recorded. An electric field is switched
on which has a vertically downward direction :-

(1) The photo current will increase

(2) The kinetic energy of the electrons will increase
(3) The stopping potential will decrease
(4) The threshold wavelength will increase

7) When light source is placed at 1 m distant from photo electric cell, then value of stopping
potential is obtained 4 volt. If it is placed at 4 m distant, then value of stopping potential becomes-

(1) 2 volt
(2) 1 volt
(3) 4 volt
(4) 16 volt

8) Two nuclei have their mass numbers in the ratio of 1 : 3. The ratio of their nuclear densities would
be :-

(1) (3)1/3 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

9) Match the following.

Optoelectronic
Application
Devices

Convert
electrical
a. Photodiodes (i)
energy into
light.

Light emitting Detect optical

b. (ii)
diodes (LED) signal.

Photovoltaic Convert optical

c. devices (solar (iii) radiation into
cells) electricity.
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

10) In the diagram, the input is across the terminals A and C and the output is across the terminals

B and D, then the output is :

(1) Zero
(2) Same as input
(3) Full wave rectifier
(4) Half wave rectifier

11) A p-n photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can detect a
signal of wavelength :-

(1) 6000 Å
(2) 4000 nm
(3) 6000 nm
(4) 4000 Å

12) Silicon is a semiconductor. If a small amount of As is added to it, then its electrical conductivity

(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Becomes zero

13) The dominant mechanism for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased
silicon P–N junctions are :

(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias

(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
(3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
(4) Drift in both forward and reverse bias

14) A piece of copper and the other of germanium are cooled from the room temperature to 80 K,
then which of the following would be a correct statement :

(1) Resistance of each increases

(2) Resistance of each decreases
(3) Resistance of copper increases while that of germanium decreases
(4) Resistance of copper decreases while that of germanium increases

15) A Junction diode having forward resistance . Then determine current I :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

16) The relation between number of electron (n) in a semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by
:

(1) n ∝ T
(2) n ∝ T2
n∝
(3)

(4) n ∝ T3/2

17) When the electrical conductivity of a semi-conductor is due to the breaking of its covalent bonds,
then the semiconductor is said to be :-

(1) Donor
(2) Acceptor
(3) Intrinsic
(4) Extrinsic

18) Which of the following impurity decreases the number of negatively charge carriers on mixing in
intrinsic semiconductor ?

(1) Sb
(2) In
(3) Si
(4) Ag

19) A p-n junction diode (D) shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. An alternating current source
(V) is connected in the circuit. The current (I) in the resistor (R) can be shown by:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In the given circuit, the current through the zener diode is :-

(1) 4mA
(2) 6.67 mA
(3) 2 mA
(4) 0 mA

21) Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram attached

(1) OR
(2) NAND
(3) NOR
(4) AND

22) Vm is the maximum voltage between the ends of the secondary terminal of a transformer used in
a half wave rectifier. When the PN junction diode is reverse biased, what will be the potential
difference between the two ends of the diode?

(1) Zero
(2)

(3) Vm
(4) 2 Vm

23) The output wave form of a full-wave rectifier is :

(1) An AC voltage
(2) A DC voltage
(3) Zero
(4) A pulsating unidirectional voltage

24) To reduce ripples in rectifier circuit with capacitor filter :-

(1) RL (Load resistance) should be increased

(2) Input frequency should be increased
(3) Capacitors with high capacitance should be used
(4) All of the above

25) Avalanche breakdown is due to :-

(1) Collision of minority charge carrier

(2) Increase in depletion layer thickness
(3) Decrease in depletion layer thickness
(4) None of these

26) In following configuration of gates is equivalent to.

(1) NAND Gate

(2) XOR Gate
(3) OR Gate
(4) NOR Gate

27) The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 27°C is λ. What will be its wavelength at 927°C :-

(1) λ/2
(2) λ/3
(3) λ/4
(4) λ/9

28) In the nuclear reaction . If mass of the deuterium atom = 2.014741 u, mass
of 2He3 atom = 3.016977 u and mass of neurtron = 1.008987 u then Q value of the reaction is nearly
:-

(1) 0.00352 MeV

(2) 3.27 MeV
(3) 0.82 MeV
(4) 2.45 MeV

29)

Threshold wavelength of a metal surface is 5 × 10–7 m. When it is illuminated by light of wavelength

3 × 10–7m , stopping potential is V0 what will be stopping potential, if wavelength of incident light
is doubled :-

(1)

(2) 2V0
(3) V0
(4) Zero

30) A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will
be the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius)

(1) 21/3 : 1
(2) 1 : 21/3
(3) 31/2 : 1
(4) 1 : 31/2

31) If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times, the percentage change in the de
Broglie wavelength of the particle is :-

(1) 25 %
(2) 75 %
(3) 60 %
(4) 50 %

32) The correct order of ionizing capacity of α, β and γ-rays is :-

(1) α > γ > β

(2) α > β > γ
(3) α < β < γ
(4) α < γ < β

33) In a fission process, nucleus A divides into two nuclei B and C, their binding energies being Ea,
Eb and Ec respectively. Then

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

34) Radiation pressure can be viewed as a consequence of :-

(1) the conservation of mass

(2) the conservation of momentum
(3) the conservation of energy
(4) All of these

35) According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the plot of the maximum kinetic energy of the
emitted photoelectrons from a metal v/s the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line
whose slope :

(1) depends on the intensity of the radiation

(2) depends on the nature of the metal used
(3) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used.
(4) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation.

SECTION-B

1) How much mass is lost by a nuclear reactor operated at 500 MW power level in 1 hour.
(Assume 50% efficiency for conversion of nuclear energy into electricity).

(1) 0.04 gm/hr

(2) 0.02 gm/hr
(3) 0.06 gm/hr
(4) 0.07 gm/hr

2) Assertion (A) :- Amongst α, β and γ-particles, α-particle has maximum penetrating power.
Reason (R) :- The α-particle is heavier than β and γ-particle.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

3) In a P–N junction diode if P region is heavily doped than N region then the width of depletion
layer is :

(1) Greater in P region

(2) Greater in N region
(3) Equal in both region
(4) No depletion layer is formed
4) Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three different metal plates p, q and r
having work functions ϕp = 2.0 eV, ϕq = 2.5 eV and ϕr = 3.0 eV, respectively. A light beam containing
wavelengths of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with equal intensities illuminates each of the plates.
The correct I-V graph for the experiments is :-(Take hc = 1240 eV nm)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) In the following arrangement y = 1.0 mm, d = 0.24 mm and D = 1.2 m. The work function of the
material of the emitter is 2.2 eV. The stopping potential V needed to stop the photo current will be :-

(1) 0.9 V
(2) 0.5 V
(3) 0.4 V
(4) 0.1 V

6) Two identical photo-cathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2. If the velocities of the photo
electrons (of mass m) coming out are respectively v1 and v2, then :-

(1)
v1 – v2 =

(2)

(3)
v1 + v2 =
(4)

7) An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
associated with them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) If maximum velocity with which an electron can be emitted from a photo cell is 4 × 108 cm/s, the
stopping potential is (mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg) :-

(1) 30 volt
(2) 45 volt
(3) 59 volt
(4) Information is insufficient

9) The input and the output wave form of a logic gate is shown in diagram, then identify the logic
gate :-

(1) AND gate

(2) OR gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOT gate

10) Ge and Si diodes conduct of 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode
connection are reversed, the value of VO changes by.

(1) 0.2 V
(2) 0.4 V
(3) 0.6 V
(4) 0.8 V

11) Output Y of the given logic gate network is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

12) Energy released in the fission of a single 92U235 nucleus is 200 MeV. The fission rate of a 92U235
fuelled reactor operating at a power level of 5 W is :-

(1) 1.56 × 10+10 s–1

(2) 1.56 × 10+11 s–1
(3) 1.56 × 10+16 s–1
(4) 1.56 × 10+17 s–1

13) The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its de Broglie wavelength from one nm
to 0.5 nm is :-

(1) Four times the initial energy

(2) Equal to the initial energy
(3) Twice the initial energy
(4) Thrice the initial energy

14) If wavelength of electron and photon is same, then

(1) energy of photon is less than kinetic energy of electron

(2) energy of photon is equal to kinetic energy of electron
(3) energy of photon is greater than kinetic energy of electron
(4) energy of photon is two times of kinetic energy of electron
15) What is the respective number of α and β particles emitted in the following radioactive decay :-
200
90X → 80Y168

(1) 6 and 8
(2) 8 and 8
(3) 6 and 6
(4) 8 and 6

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g), the value of equilibrium constant is 9.0. The degree of
dissociation of HI will be

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.33
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.67

2) For a reversible reaction, the rate constants for the forward and backward reactions are 0.16 and
4 × 104, respectively. What is the value of equilibrium constant of the reaction ?

(1) 0.25 × 106

(2) 2.5 × 105
(3) 4 × 10–6
(4) 4 × 10–4

3) When pressure is applied to the equilibrium system Ice ⇌ water, which of the following
phenomenon will happen ?

(1) More ice will be formed.

(2) Ice will sublime.
(3) More water will be formed.
(4) Equilibrium will not disturb.

4) If pKb for fluoride ion at 25°C is 10.3, the ionization constant of hydrofluoric acid in water at this
temperature is (log 2 = 0.3)

(1) 2 × 10–4
(2) 2 × 10–3
(3) 2 × 10–5
(4) 5 × 10–11

5) Which of the following will occur if a 0.1 M solution of a weak acid is diluted to 0.01 M at constant
temperature?

(1) [H+] will increase.

(2) pH will increase.
(3) Percentage ionization will decrease.
(4) Ka will increase.

6) In which of the following, the solubility of AgCl will be maximum?

(1) 0.1 M AgNO3

(2) water
(3) 0.1 M NH3 (aq.)
(4) 0.1 M NaCl

7) The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) is K1 and the equilibrium

constant for the reaction NO(g) ⇌ N2(g) + O2(g) is K2 both at the same temperature. The value of
K1 and K2 are related as

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A basic buffer is made by mixing the solution :

(1) NH4Cl + NH4OH solution

(2) NH4Cl + NaOH solution
(3) NH4OH + HCl solution
(4) NaOH + HCl solution

9) For the reaction A + B → C + D, the initial concentration of A and B is equal, but the equilibrium
concentration of C is twice that of equilibrium concentration of A. The equilibrium constant is:

(1) 4
(2) 9

(3)

(4)

10) Review the equilibrium and choose the correct statement

HClO4 + H2O ⇌ H3O+ + ClO4¯
(1) HClO4 is the conjugate acid of H2O
+
(2) H3O is the conjugate base of H2O
+
(3) H2O is the conjugate acid of H3O
(4) ClO4¯ is the conjugate base of HClO4

11) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I:-
IUPAC name of compound A is 4-chloro-1 3-dinitrobenzene:

Statement-II:-
IUPAC name of compound B is 4-ethyl-2-methylaniline.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

12) IUPAC name of following hydrocarbon (X) is:

(1) 2-Ethyl-3,6-dimethylheptane
(2) 2-Ethyl-2,6-diethylheptane
(3) 2,5,6-Trimethyloctane
(4) 3,4,7-Trimethyloctane

13) Functional group present in sulphonic acid is:

(1) SO4H
(2) SO3H

(3)

(4) –SO2
14) Given below are two statements
Statement-I:- IUPAC name of HO—CH2—(CH2)3—CH2—COCH3 is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
Statement-II:- 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct IUPAC name for above compound.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

15) Identify structure of 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) IUPAC name of following compound is:

(1) 2-Aminopentanenitrile
(2) 2-Aminobutanenitrile
(3) 3-Aminobutanenitrile
(4) 3-Aminopropanenitrile

17) According to IUPAC system, the compound is named as

(1) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol
(2) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
(3) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol
(4) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene

18) Cyclohexene is _______________ type of an organic compound.

(1) Benzenoid aromatic

(2) Heterocyclic
(3) Acyclic
(4) Alicyclic

19) IUPAC name of following compound (P) is:

(1) 1-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane

(2) 3-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) 1-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
(4) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane

20) The correct decreasing order of priority of functional group in naming an organic compound as
per IUPAC system of nomenclature is:

(1) —COOH > —CONH2 > —COCl > —CHO

(2) —SO3H > —COCl > —CONH2 > —CN

(3) —COOH > —COCl > —NH >

2

(4) —COOH > —COOR > —CONH2 > —COCl

21) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is:

(1) 5-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
(2) 2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene
(3) 3-chloro-4-methyl-1-nitrobenzene
(4) 2-methyl-5-nitro-1-chlorobenzene
22) The IUPAC name of neopentane is

(1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane
(2) 2-methylpropane
(3) 2, 2-dimethylbutane
(4) 2-methylbutane

23) The general formula CnH2nO2 could be for open chain

(1) carboxylic acids

(2) diols
(3) dialdehydes
(4) diketones

24) Compound with molecular formula C3H6O can show

(1) Positional isomerism

(2) Both positional isomerism and metamerism
(3) Metamerism
(4) Functional group isomerism

25) The correct nomenclature for the following compound is:

(1) 4-Hydroxyhept-6-enal
(2) 4-Hydroxyhept-6-enoic acid
(3) 4-Hydroxyhept-7-enal
(4) 4-Hyxroxyhept-7-enoic acid

26) Which amongst the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism ?

(1) Pent-1-ene
(2) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
(3) 2-Methylprop-1-ene
(4) 3,4-Dimethylhex-3-ene

27) The total number of π-bond electron in the following structure is:

(1) 10
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 8

28) Match the column I with column II

List-I List-II

(A) (P) Position isomer

(B) (Q) Functional isomers

(C) (R) Metamer

(D) (S) Chain isomer

(1) (a – s), (b – r), (c – q), (d – p)

(2) (a – p), (b – r), (c – q), (d – s)
(3) (a – q), (b – s), (c – p), (d – r)
(4) (a – r), (b – p), (c – s), (d – q)

29) Type of isomerism exist between:-

CH3—CH2—CH2—CN and

(1) Position
(2) Chain
(3) Both the above
(4) None of these

30) The number of primary alcohol with the formula C4H10Ois.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

31) The total number of aldehyde and ketone with molecular formula C4H8O is:
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

32) Which of the following compound will show geometrical isomerism.

(1) butene-1
(2) propene
(3) 1-phenylpropene
(4) 2-methyl-2-butene

33) Assertion-(A):- Trans - isomers are more stable than cis-isomer

Reason-(R):- The cis-isomer is the one in which two similar group are on the same side of double
bond.

(1) Both (A) and (R) correct but (R) is not correct explanation.
(2) Both (A) and (R) correct but (R) is correct explanation.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

34) The geometrical isomerism is shown by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Number of 3° and 2° carbon atom in the following compound are.

(1) 5, 6
(2) 5, 7
(3) 4, 6
(4) 6, 6

SECTION-B

1) For the reaction,

2NOBr(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) + Br2(g), the ratio , where P is the total pressure of gases at equilibrium and

at a certain temperature is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A catalyst does not influence the value of equilibrium constant.
Reason (R) : Catalyst influence the rates of both forward and backward reactions by the same
factor.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(2) Both (A) and(R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and(R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

3) If 20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M CH3COOH (pKa = 4.74), the pH of the

resulting solution is :

(1) 4.74
(2) 9.56
(3) 8.96
(4) 9.26

4) Given below are two statements:

Statement-1 : On mixing 500 mL of 10–6 M Ca2+ ion and 500 mL of 30 × 10–6 M F¯ ion, the
precipitate of CaF2 will be obtained. (Ksp of CaF2 = 10–8)
Statement-2 : If Ksp is greater than ionic product, a precipitate will develop.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(4) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

5) Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g) (P) KP = KC (RT)
(B) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
2
(Q) KP = KC (RT)
(C) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
–2
(R) KP = KC (RT)
(D) NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g) (S) KP = KC
(1) A – S ; B – R ; C – Q ; D – P
(2) A – Q ; B – S ; C – P ; D – R
(3) A – P ; B – S ; C – Q ; D – R
(4) A – S ; B – R ; C – P ; D – Q

6) Structure of 4-Methylpent-2-enal is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The IUPAC name for the following compound is:

(1) 2, 5-dimethyl-5-carboxy-hex-3-enal
(2) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-carboxy-hex-3-enal
(3) 2, 5-dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid
(4) 6-formyl-2-methyl-hex-3-enoic acid

8) The incorrect statement regarding the geometrical isomers of 2-butene is:

(1) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are not interconvertible at room temperature.

(2) cis-2-butene has less dipole moment than trans-2-butene.
(3) trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene.
(4) cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are stereoisomers.

9) Match List-I with List-II

List-I(Pair of Compounds) List-II(Pair of Compounds)

(A) n-propanol and Isopropanol (I) Metamerism
(B) Methoxypropane and ethoxyethane (II) Chain Isomerism
(C) Propanone and propanal (III) Position Isomerism
(D) Neopentane and Isopentane (IV) Functional Isopentane
(1) (A) — (II), (B) — (I), (C) — (IV), (D) — (III)
(2) (A) — (III), (B) — (I), (C) — (II), (D) — (IV)
(3) (A) — (I), (B) — (III), (C) — (IV), (D) — (II)
(4) (A) — (III), (B) — (I), (C) — (IV), (D) — (II)

10) How many cyclic structures are possible for C4H6?

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

11) The total number of benzene derivatives having formula C7H7Cl

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

12) The correct structure of trans-2-hexenal is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Total number of geometrical isomers in the given compound

CH3—CH=CH—CH=CH—CH=CH—Ph

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 10

14)
Which type of isomerism is observed between I and II

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional isomers
(4) Metamers

15) How many positional isomers are possible for dimethylcyclohexane

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) The flower formula of fabaceae family is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

I Argemone a Coconut

II Mango b Drupe

III Fibrous mesocarp c Seed

IV Tegmen d Parietal placentation

e Axile placentation
(1) I - e, II - b, III - a, IV - c
(2) I - e, II - c, III - b, IV - a
(3) I - d, II - b, III - d, IV - c
(4) I - d, II - b, III - a, IV - c

3) Assertion (A) : Leaf are often modified to perform function other than photosynthesis.
Reason (R) : Modification in plants found as adaptation to their environment.

(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(3) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

4)
Identify A, B and C respectively and pick correct option.

(1) A - Simple leaf, B - Pinnately compound leaf, C - Compound leaf

(2) A - Pinnately compound leaf, B - Simple leaf, C - Palmately compound leaf
(3) A - Simple leaf, B - Compound leaf, C - Simple leaf
(4) A - Palmately compound leaf, B - Simple leaf, C - Pinnately compound leaf
5) Among them how many examples are of epigynous flower.
Guava, Mustard, China rose, Brinjal, Plum, Peach, Rose, Cucumber

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Two

6) Which statement is incorrect among them :-

(1) Sterile stamen is called staminode

(2) Epipetalous condition is found in brinjal
(3) Diadelphous condition is found in china rose.
(4) In mustard, there is variation of length of filaments within flower

7)
Identify the type of aestivation in (a) and (c).

(1) Valvate, Twisted

(2) Valvate, Imbricate
(3) Imbricate, Vexillary
(4) Twisted, Imbricate

8) A layer of endosperm separates the embryo by -

(1) Lipid layer (Aleurone layer)

(2) Carbohydrate layer (Aleurone layer)
(3) Proteinaceous layer (Aleurone layer)
(4) Sporopollenin layer (Aleurone layer)

9) Lodicules are present in members of which family ?

(1) Liliaceae
(2) Poaceae
(3) Compositae
(4) Brassicaceae

10) Statement I : Cotyledons are often fleshy and full of reserve food material.
Statement II : Endosperm in plants always form as a result of double fertilisation.
(1) Both statement are correct.
(2) Only statement II is wrong.
(3) Only statement I is wrong.
(4) Both statement are wrong.

11) Identify A and B inflorescence :-

(1) A-Cymose, B-Racemose

(2) A-Racemose, B-Cymose
(3) A-Racemose, B-Racemose
(4) A-Cymose, B-Cymose

12) Select the incorrect statement among them -

(1) Plant classification is based on morphology along with other characteristics.

(2) Root system is usually underground portion of flowering plant.
(3) Shoot system arises from radicle.
Standard technical terms and standard definitions help in classification of any living organism
(4)
or plant.

13) In roots, stems & leaves epidermis is :-

(1) Parenchymatous
(2) Collenchymatous
(3) Sclerenchymatous
(4) Both (2) & (3)

14) Which one of the following simple tissue composed of more or less elongated cells with primary,
non-lignified cell walls and their cell wall is characteristically unevenly thickned due to localised
deposition of pectin, cellulose and hemicellulose ?

(1) Sclerenchyma
(2) Parenchyma
(3) Collenchyma
(4) Sclereids

15) Phloem fibres are made up of :

(1) Parenchymatous cells

(2) Sclerenchymatous cells
(3) Collenchymatous cells
(4) Bulliform cells

16) Presence of vessels is a characteristic of :-

(1) Angiosperms
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Dicots only
(4) Monocots only

17) Stele excludes :-

(1) Pericycle
(2) Vascular bundle
(3) Pith
(4) Endodermis

18) Select the mismatched pair :

(1) Root hair – unicellular

(2) Stem hair – multicellular
(3) Trichomes – cause water loss
(4) Guard cells – Regulate opening and closing of stomata

19) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I : Endodermis of dicot stem also reffered to as the starch sheath.
Statement-II : The cells of the endodermis are rich in starch grains.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

20) Exarch and polyarch vascular bundle is characteristic feature of :-

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Dicot root
(3) Monocot stem
(4) Monocot root

21) In root, the tangential as well as radial walls of the barrel-shaped endodermal cells have a
deposition of water impermeable, waxy material-suberin in the form of-

(1) Cuticle strips

(2) Protein strips
(3) Casparian strips
(4) lignin strips

22) Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by

(1) Position of protoxylem

(2) Absence of secondary xylem
(3) Absence of secondary phloem
(4) Presence of cortex

23) Parenchyma cells which lies between xylem and phloem of root are called ________.

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Complementary cells
(3) Conjunctive tissue
(4) Casparian cells

24) Initiation of lateral roots & some part of vascular cambium in dicot roots during the secondary
growth takes place by:-

(1) Conjuctive tissue

(2) Pericycle
(3) Endodermis
(4) All of these

25) Identify A & B in the given diagram of nucleotide:

A B

Phosphodiester Glycosidic
(1) I
bond bond

Phosphoester Glycosidic
(2) II
bond bond

Phosphoester Hydrogen
(3) III
bond bond

Glycosidic
(4) Hydrogen bond IV
bond
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
26) A typical fat molecule is made up of three molecule of ---A--- with one molecule of ---B---. The
linkage is called ---C---.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Following structure is :

(1) Cephalin
(2) Ganglioside
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Lecithin

28) Which is incorrect statement for acid soluble pool/filtrate :-

(1) Molecular weight < 1000 Dalton

(2) Has monomers
(3) Has four type chemical compounds like proteins, nucleic acid, polysaccharide, and lipid
(4) It is present in trichloro acetic acid

29) Match the column-I with column-II :-

(1) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

(2) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(4) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I

30) Identify the correct set of statements out of followings :-

(a) Primary structure of protein is like a long straight chain
(b) Secondary structure of protein looks like zig-zag
(c) Tertiary structure of protein are insoluble in water
(d) Maximum proteins present in protoplasm show secondary structure
Choose the correct answer from the given options below :-

(1) a, b and d
(2) only a and b
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d all

31) Which of the following structure represent zwitterionic form-

(1) P
(2) R
(3) P, R
(4) Q

32) Assertion : When Iodine comes in contact with starch, it shows blue colour.
Reason : Starch forms helical 2° structures, and can trap I2 molecules in the helical portion.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(3) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

33) Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

(1) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(2) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(4) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme.

34) Consider the following statements :

(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.

(1) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(2) (A) is true and (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.
(4) (A) is false and (B) is true.

35) Low temperature preserves the enzyme in

a ...'A'... state whereas high temperature destroys enzymatic activity because proteins are ...'B'... by
heat.
Choose the correct option:-

(1) A = temporarily inactive, B = denatured

A = permanently inactive,
(2)
B = temporarily inactive
(3) A = permanently inactive, B = denatured
(4) A = denatured, B = temporarily inactive

SECTION-B

1) Identify A and B and pick correct answer :-

(1) A-Stolon e.g. Jasmine; B- Sucker e.g. Pistia
(2) A-Sucker e.g. Pistia; B-Stolon e.g. Banana
(3) A-offset e.g. Eichhornia; B-Sucker e.g. Pineapple
(4) A-Stolon e.g. Jasmine; B- Sucker e.g. Chrysanthemum

2) When placenta is axial and the ovules are attached to it in a multilocular ovary, such condition is
found in :-

(1) Mustard, Argemone

(2) China rose, Lemon, Tomato
(3) China rose, Lemon, Soyabean
(4) Sunflower, Marigold

3) Identify A,B,C and D :-

(1) Corolla, Calyx, Androecium, Gynoecium

(2) Calyx, Corolla, Androecium, Gynoecium
(3) Corolla, Petals, Stamen, Style
(4) Sepal, Petal, Anther, Stigma

4) Correctly identify the type of leaves. (a)

(b)
(1) Simple Compound
(2) Palmate Pinnate
(3) Pinnate Palmate
(4) Compound Simple

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column-I Column-II

Arrangement of veins and

(i) (a) Stem modified
veinlets

(ii) A bud is present in (b) Alternate phyllotaxy

(iii) Single leaf arise from node (c) Venation

(iv) Phyllode (d) Axial of simple leaf

(e) Petiole modified

(f) Axial of compound leaf

(1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv-(a)
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(f), (iii)-(b), (iv-(a)
(3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(f), (iii)-(b), (iv-(e)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv-(e)

6) The given picture represents

(1) Stomata with dumb- bell shaped subsidiary cells

(2) Stomata with dumb- bell shaped guard cells
(3) Stomata with bean shaped guard cells
(4) Stomata with bean shaped subsidiary cells

7) Assertion : Open vascular bundles are found in dicotyledonous stems.

Reason : In dicotyledonous stems cambium is present between phloem and xylem.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
8) Assertion : Usually polyarch condition is found in monocot root.
Reason : Usually 2-4 xylem bundles are present in the dicot root.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Select the correct option with the reference to monocotyledonous stem.

Vascular bundles conjoint, closed and surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundles sheath, pith
(1)
almost absent
(2) Radial vascular bundles, collenchymatous hypodermis, pith absent
(3) Conjoint open vascular bundles, sclerenchymatous hypodermis, pith present
Vascular bundles conjoint, closed and surrounded by parenchymatous bundle sheath, pith
(4)
absent

10) Given below is the diagram of the transverse section of leaf. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C
and D and select the right option about them: -

(1) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Spongy tissue, C – Palisade, D – Abaxial Epidermis

(2) A – Abaxial epidermis, B – Palisade tissue, C – Spongy tissue, D – Adaxial epidermis
(3) A – Adaxial epidermis, B – Palisade tissue, C – Spongy tissue, D – Abaxial epidermis
(4) A – Abaxial epidermis, B – Spongy tissue, C – Palisade tissue, D – Adaxial epidermis

11) Read the given statements :-

I. Amino acids are linked by peptide bond
II. Polysaccharides are linked by glycosidic bond
III. Only DNA work as a genetic material
IV. Collagen is the most abundant protein in animal world
Which of the given statement are correct

(1) I, II, III & IV

(2) I, & II
(3) I, II & III
(4) I, II & IV

12) Given below is the chemical formula of –

CH3–(CH2)14–COOH
Choose the correct options :-

(1) Stearic, Acid, Cholesterol

(2) Cholesterol, Glycerol
(3) Palmitic, Acid, Cholesterol
(4) Arachidonic, Acid, Cholesterol

13) Catalytic activity is lost when the co-factor is removed from the enzyme. It indicates that :-

(a) Cofactors form one or more coordination bonds with enzymes.

(b) Cofactors play a crucial role in the catalytic activity of the enzyme
(c) Cofactors are not made up of proteins
(d) Cofactors show permanent association with enzymes
Options :

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) Only (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

14)
Above diagram is the indicative diagram of a type of inhibition. Choose the correct match:-

Type of inhibition Substrate Inhibitor

(1) Non competitive reversible Malonate Succinate
(2) Competitive Succinic dehydrogenase Malonate
(3) Non competitive irreversible Succinic dehydrogenase Succinate
(4) Competitive Succinate Malonate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
15)

(1) Energy level of A is low as compared to B

(2) Energy level of B is high as compared to C
(3) Energy level of D is high as compared to E
(4) Energy level of C is low as compared to A and B

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) The nerves carrying impulses to CNS are known as

(1) Motor
(2) Efferent
(3) Afferent
(4) Mixed

2) Identify the incorrect match of types of neurons with its location.

(1) Unipolar neuron - Embryonic stage

(2) Bipolar neuron - Cornea of eyes
(3) Multipolar neuron - Cerebral cortex
(4) Bipolar neuron- retina of eyes

3) Assertion : The chemicals stored in the synaptic vesicles are termed as neurotransmitter.
Reason : The axon terminals contain vesicles filled with these neurotransmitters

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) both Assertion and Reason are false

4) The myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with ……………, and are found in ………and ……..
nerves ?

(1) Schwann cells, spinal and cranial

(2) Nodes of Ranvier , spinal and cranial
(3) Schwann cells, autonomous & somatic
(4) Nodes of Ranvier , , autonomous & somatic

5) Sodium – Postassium pump across membrane, actively transports

(1) 2 Na ions outwards and 3 K ions into the cell.

(2) 3 Na ions outwards and 2 K ions into the cell.
(3) 2 K ions outwards and 3 Na ions into the cell.
(4) 3 K ions outwards and 2 Na ions into the cell

6) Find out the correct statement regarding cerebral cortex -

(1) The layer of cells which covers the cerebrum hemisphere

(2) Referred to as the grey matter due to its appearance.
(3) Clearly sensory and motor in function only
(4) The hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres.

7) Which of the following group of functions was regulated by part of hindbrain?

(1) Memory and communication, cardiovascular reflexes, respiration

(2) Respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric secretions.
(3) Excitement, pleasure, rage and respiration.
(4) Gastric secretion, body temperature, Memory and communication.

8) Match the column I (various phase of an action potential) with column II (ionic activity associated)
and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

Opening and then closing of the sodium

A. Resting stage I.
channels

All voltage gated sodium and potassium

B. Depolarization phase II.
channels are closed.

C Repolarization phase III. The sodium channels remain opened

Opening of potassium gates and the

D. Resting potential IV.
rushing of potassium

Potential difference across the resting

V.
axolemma
(1) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–V
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV
(3) A–III, B–V, C–I, D–II
(4) A–IV, B–II, C–III, D–I

9) What is the function of label X in the given diagram?

(1) It speeds up the impulse transmission.

(2) It provides electrical insulation.
(3) It conducts impulse towards the nerve cell body.
(4) It is the functional unit of nerve

10) Sequence of meninges from inner to outside is

(1) Duramater – Arachnoid – Piamater

(2) Duramater – Piamater – Arachnoid
(3) Arachnoid – Duramater – Piamater
(4) Piamater- Arachnoid – Duramater

11) Which system is concerned with olfaction, regulation of sexual behaviour, motivation etc.

(1) Peripheral neural system

(2) Somatic neural system
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Limbic system

12) Pons varolii in human brain lies

(1) Anterior to corpus callosum

(2) Posterior to medulla oblongata
(3) Ventral to cerebellum
(4) Dorsal to diencephalon

13) Assertion (A): Myasthenia gravis is a genetic disorder that causes muscle degeneration.
Reason (R): Myasthenia gravis is caused by an autoimmune reaction affecting neuromuscular
junctions.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.
14) Assertion (A): ATP is required for the myosin head to bind to actin filaments during muscle
contraction.
Reason (R): ATP hydrolysis provides the energy for muscle contraction.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

15) Assertion (A): Lactic acid accumulates in muscles during prolonged anaerobic activity.
Reason (R): Lactic acid buildup in muscles leads to muscle fatigue and soreness.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

16) Statement I: The sliding filament theory explains how muscles contract by the sliding of thin
actin filaments over thick myosin filaments.
Statement II: During muscle contraction, the A-band shortens while the I-band remains the same.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

17) Statement I: The pelvic girdle supports the lower limbs and consists of two coxal bones.
Statement II: Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones: ilium, ischium, and pubis.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

18) Statement I: Ball and socket joints allow for rotational movements in all planes.
Statement II: The hinge joint at the knee allows for movement in multiple directions.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

19) Statement I: Red muscle fibers are adapted for sustained activity due to their aerobic energy
production.
Statement II: Red muscle fibers have fewer mitochondria and low myoglobin content.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

20) What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction?

(1) It blocks the myosin binding sites

(2) It releases calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
(3) It provides energy for the formation and breaking of cross-bridges
(4) It acts as a neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction

21) Read the following statement carefully :-

(a) Cardiac muscles can function independently of the nervous system.
(b) The sarcomere is the smallest unit of skeletal muscle contraction.
(c) The smooth muscles contract more slowly than skeletal muscles.
(d) The M-line holds thick filaments together in the A-band.
(e) Z-lines bisect the I-band in muscle fibers.
How many statements are incorrect?

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

22) Read the following statement carefully :-

(A) Osteoporosis is due to deficiency of androgen hormone.
(B) Between tarsals condyloid joint present.
(C) Between carpals gliding joint present.
(D) Humerus is longest bone of hindlimb.
How many statements are incorrect?

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, B, C, D

23) Assertion (A): Cartilaginous joints permit limited movement.

Reason (R): These joints are formed by cartilages between bones, such as in the vertebral column.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

24) A gorilla like appearance with huge hands and legs is due to abnormal secretion of -

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) LTH
(4) GH

25) Ovulation in humans is controlled by -

(1) FSH and LTH

(2) FSH and G.H
(3) LTH and LH
(4) FSH and LH

26) Sleep-wake cycle and menstrual cycle are maintained by -

(1) Progesterone
(2) Melatonin
(3) Oxytocin
(4) MSH

27) Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass
through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (mostly in the nucleus) ?

(1) Somatostatin, Oxytocin

(2) Cortisol, Testosterone
(3) Insulin, Glucagon
(4) Thyroxine, Insulin

28) Assertion : Mammary glands are exocrine glands.

Reason : Progesterone also acts on mammary glands.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

29) The given figure shows the hormonal control of female reproductive system in which few steps
are marked as A, B, C and D. Identify the correct labelling.
(1) A- GnRH, B - TSH, C - LTH, D - Uterus
(2) A - GnRH, B - FSH/LH, C - Estrogen or progesterone, D - uterus
(3) A - GnRH, B - STH, C - LH, D - Uterus
(4) A - GnRH, B - ACTH, C - LH, D - Uterus

30) The given diagram represents the location of human endocrine glands I, II, III, IV.

Which of the following gland is correctly matched with their secretions?

Hormones Their secretions

A I Thymosin

B II Thyroxine

C III Epinephrine

D IV Aldosterone
(1) I, II and III only
(2) I, IV and V only
(3) II, IV, and V only
(4) II, III and V only

31) The label X represents ___i_____ and the hormone released by it is _____ii______. Identify (i) and
(ii)
(1) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Epinephrine
(2) i- Adrenal cortex, ii- Aldosterone
(3) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Epinephrine
(4) i- Adrenal medulla, ii- Aldosterone

32) The Hypophyseal portal system transports releasing and inhibiting hormones from the
hypothalamus into which of the following parts marked in I, II, III and IV.

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

33) A pregnant female deliver a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation/low
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of -

(1) Low secretion of growth hormone

(2) Cancer of the thyroid gland
(3) Over secretion of pars distalis
(4) Deficiency of iodine in diet

34) Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed
building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?

(1) Gastrin
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Glucagon

35) Which of the following is (are) not influenced by parathyroid hormone ?

(1) Kidney
(2) Bone
(3) Small intestine
(4) None of the above

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following terms is not correctly matched with its feature?

(1) Efferent neurons - Carries signals from CNS to the concerned peripheral tissues \organ.
(2) Nodes of Ranvier – gap between two adjacent myelin sheaths .
Limbic system - Along with the hypothalamus, it is involved in the regulation of sexual
(3)
behaviour, expression of emotional reactions and motivation.
Association areas - Present in cerebellum and responsible for functions like intersensory
(4)
associations, memory and communication.

2) Refer the given figure which shows the axon terminal and synapse with their parts marked as 1 to
7. Identify the correct parts whose constitution forms the structure of synapse.

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 3 ,4, 5
(3) 4, 5, 6
(4) 5, 6, 7

3) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by an ‘X’ that does not form a myelin sheath around the ‘Y’,
and is commonly found in ‘Z’ and the somatic neural systems. Identify ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z

X Y C
 (1) Schwann cells Axon Autonomous

(2) Nodes of Ranvier Cell body Synaptic knob

(3) Synapse Dendrites Sympathetic

(4) Meninges Nerve impulse Peripheral

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) ‘X’ is an important part of ‘Y’ which lies at the base of the structure which is a major coordinating
centre for sensory and motor signalling. It contains a number of centre which control body
temperature, urge for eating and drinking.
Identify X and Y from the options given below

(1) X -Cerebellum ; Y - Hindbrain

(2) X -Hypothalamus ; Y - Forebrain
(3) X -Corpora quadrigemina ; Y - Midbrain
(4) X -Pituitary gland ; Y – Forebrain

5) (A) Thalamus is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling.
(B) Cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain.
(C) Cerebrum has very convoluted surface in order to provide the additional space for more nerves.
(D) Cerebellum integrates information received from the semicircular canals of the ear and the
auditory system.
Find out the correct option regarding above statement ?

(A) (C) (B) (D)

(1) T F T T

(2) T T F T

(3) F T T F

(4) F F T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Assertion (A): Gout is a condition where uric acid crystals accumulate in joints.
Reason (R): Gout causes inflammation in the joints, leading to pain and swelling.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

7) Statement I: Osteoporosis is an age-related condition characterized by decreased bone density.

Statement II: A decrease in estrogen levels is one of the primary causes of osteoporosis in
postmenopausal women.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

8) Statement I: Arthritis is an inflammatory disorder that affects joints and limits movement.
Statement II: Arthritis is caused by autoimmune reactions that primarily affect muscular tissues.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

9) What statement not correct about cartilaginous joints :-

(1) Joints that allow adjoint vertebrae in the vertebral column

(2) Joints that are connected by vertebral column and allow limited movement
(3) Joints that contain synovial fluid
(4) The bones involved are joint together with the hep of cartilages.

10) What is the structure of actin in muscle fibres?

(1) It is composed of thick filaments

(2) It consists of two helically wound ‘F’ actin chains
(3) It forms the Z-line in sarcomeres
(4) It stores ATP in muscles

11) Deficiency of vasopressin primarily results in -

(1) Increases loss of water through urine

(2) Dilate blood vessels
(3) Excessive secretion of urochrome.
(4) Change in pH from acidic to alkaline range.

12) Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

Organs in the body like gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any
(1)
hormones.
Non-nutrient chemicals produced by the body in trace amount that act as intercellular
(2)
messenger are known as hormones.
(3) Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland .
(4) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.

13) Select the correct match of a hormone with its source and function.

Hormone Source Function

Increases loss of water

(1) Vasopressin Posterior pituitary
through urine.

Increases heart beat, rate of

(2) Nor-epinephrine Adrenal medulla
respiration and alertness.

Beta-cells of Islets
(3) Glucagon Stimulates glycogenolysis.
of langerhans

Regulates growth
(4) Prolactin Posterior Pituitary of mammary glands and
milk formation in females.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) When the B.P. is high and over loading of heart is present then which hormone is released for
compensating this mechanism ?

(1) Aldosterone
(2) A.D.H
(3) Atrial -natriuretic factor
(4) Renin

15) Assertion : Hormone calcitonin has an antagonistic effect to that of parathormone.

Reason : Calcitonin decreases blood calcium level while parathormone increases blood calcium
level.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 3 2 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 4 4 1 2 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 1 4 2 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 1 1 4 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 3 2

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 4 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 1 4 3 4 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 3 2 2 3 4 3 3 2 4 3 4 1 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 2 3 3 3 1 2 1 3 4 3 2 4 3

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 4 4 3 4 1 1 3 1 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 3 1 2 1 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Minimum kinetic energy is always zero.

2)

2πrn = nλ ⇒

3) ϕ = hν – KE

4)
as q and V are same

5)

F=

6) In electric field photoelectron will experience force and accelerate opposite to the field so
it's K.E. increases (i.e. stopping potential will increase), no change in photoelectric current,
and threshold wavelength.

7) Stopping potential does not depend upon distance from light source.

8) Nuclear density is independent of the mass number so the required ratio will be 1 : 1.
9) By theory

10) This is a full wave bridge rectifier.

11)
This is the maximum wavelength i.e., the signals having wavelength greater than this value are
not detected by photodiode. Hence correct option is (4).

12)

Doping increases the conductivity of S.C.

13) In F.B., majority carriers participate & this process is called diffusion. In R.B. minority
carrier particles which is called drift mechanism.

14)

Cu → conductor → T ↓ R ↓
Ge → s.c. → T ↓ R ↑

15)

16) For semiconductor n = AT3/2

So

17) Conductivity is due to the breaking covalent bond

Conductivity is due to the breaking of covalent bond and excess of charge carriers due to
impurity.

18) Number of negatively charge carriers decreases in intrinsic semiconductor if impurity

added produce extra holes for which trivalent impurity are required.

19)

For positive half cycle diode is forward bias, we get positive cycle at resistor R and for
negative half cycle diode is reverse bias, No current flow through resistor.

20)
Potential difference across RL= 2kΩ is

By potential divider Rule

V = 10 volt
As V < Vz = 12 volt
so zener diode is not in breakdown region so current through zener is zero.

21)

Theory based

22)

In R.B. D → O/C so no voltage drop across load, so all voltage of input will drop across diode.

23)

Theory based

25) At high reverse voltage, the minority charge carriers acquire very high velocities. These by
collision break down the covalent bonds. Generating more carriers. The mechanism is called
Avalanche breakdown.

26)

It is XOR Gate!!!

27) λelectron ∝ ⇒

⇒ λ2 =

28) Q value

= 3.27 MeV

29) If wavelength of light is doubled it will be 6 × 10–7 m more than threshold wavelength 5 ×
10–7 m of metal so electron emission, stopping potential will be zero.
30) m1v1 = m2v2 or

or

31)

λ2 = 0.25 λ1

= 0.75 × 100 = 75%

32) Ionising property depends upon the charge and mass.

33)

Eb + Ec > Ea

34) Radiation pressure is viewed as a consequence of the conservation of momentum.

35)

By Einstein's equation
E=K+ϕ
⇒ K=E–ϕ
⇒ K = hν – ϕ
slope = h = planks constant

36) Energy produced by reactor in 1 hr

= 500 × 106 × 3600 J
= 1.8 × 1012 J
nuclear energy released = 3.6 × 1012 J
mass lost = \(\dfrac{{energy\;released}}{{{c^2}}}\) \(\dfrac{{3.6 \times
{{10}^{12}}}}{{{{(3 \times {{10}^8})}^2}}}\)
= 4 × 10–5 kg = 0.04 gm/hr.

37)

Conceptual

38) Width of depletion layer ∝

39)

For metal r; λ3 is able to generate photoelectron.

For metal q; λ2 and λ3 are able to generate photoelectron.
For metal p; all wavelength are able to generate photoelectron.
Hence photoelectric current will be maximum for p and least for r.

40) As we know in Young's double slit experiment fringe width = separation between two

consecutive fringe or dark fringes = b =

Energy of light incident on photo plate

According to Einstein photoelectric equation,

E = ϕ + eV ⇒ V =
0 0 0

41)

42)

For electron

For photon E = pc ⇒ λPh =

43) vmax = 4 × 108 cm/s = 4 × 106 m/sec.

∴ Kmax =
= 7.2 × 10–18 J = 45 eV.
Hence, stopping potential,

0
|V | =
44) A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0

AND gate

45) Equivalent voltage drop across the combination

Ge & Si diode = 0.3 V

Current i =
Output voltage VO = 5 kΩ ×2.34 mA = 11.7 V.
Now Ge diode = 0.7 V

Current i =
Output voltage VO = 2.26 mA × 5 kΩ = 11.3 V.
Hence change in value of VO = 11.7 – 11.3 = 0.4 Volt.

46)

= 0 [∵ A . =B. = 0]

47) = 200 MeV = 200 × 106 × 1.6 × 10–19 J

Fission rate = = 1.56 × 1011 fission/sec

48)

The energy should be added to decrease

wavlength = E'–E = 3E

49) = constant (∵ λ = constant)

Energy of photon Ep = p.c.
 Kinetic energy of electron

(∵ c > v) Ep > Ek

50)

No. of α =

No. of β =

CHEMISTRY

51)
⇒ α = 0.4

52)

53) Increase in pressure will shift the equilibrium in the direction of decrease in volume and
hence, more water will form.

54) pKb = 10.3 = –log Kb ⇒ Kb = 5 × 10–11

55) Dilution results in increased degree of dissociation but decrease in concentrations of all
active components.

56)

Solubility of AgCl in NH3 (aq.) is greater than in pure water.

When AgCl dissolve in NH3 (aq.), complex ion formation Ag(NH3)2+ takes place and solubility
equilibria of AgCl shifted in forward direction.

57)

58) A basic buffer solution is made by mixing a weak base with salt of its conjugate acid.
59)

A + B ⇌ C + D
Initial cM cM 0 0
Equilibrium (c–x)M (c–x)M xM xM

From Question : x = 2 × (c – x) ⇒

60)

61) Statement-I is incorrect.

Correct IUPAC name is 1-chloro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene.

62)

63) Group present in sulphonic acids is

64) 7-Hydroxyheptan-2-one is correct IUPAC name.

65)
66)
3-Aminobutane nitrile
Priority order = –CN > –NH2.

67) The given compound has a six-membered ring with a double bond and a hydroxyl group.

IUPAC Name = cyclohex-2-en-1-ol.

68) For Aromaticity, it must fallow Huckel’s rule as per which it must have (4n + 2)π electrons
and all C atoms sp2.

is Alicyclic (cyclic + Aliphatic)

69)

70) —SO3H > —COCl > —CONH2 > —CN

71)
2-chloro-1-methyl-4-nitrobenzene

72)
73) CnH2nO2 is general formula for carboxylic acid.

74) Given compound contains one double bond. Hence, possible isomer can be written as
follows:

They are functional group isomers.

75)
4-Hydroxyhept-6-enoic acid

76)

77) There are two double bond and one triple bond hence, number of π-electron = (8)

78)

79)

80)
81) D.U. = 5 – =5–4=1

82)

84)
∵ groups are different connected with double bond.

85)

86)

2NOBr ⇌ 2NO + Br2

P0 0 0

0
Equilibrium P –2x 2x
Ptotal = (P0–2x) + 2x + x = P0 + x

=P⇒

87) Theory based

88)
 CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
Initial milli moles 6 2 - -
After reaction 4 - 2 -

89) CaF2 ⇌ Ca2+ + 2F¯

Which is less than Ksp.

Hence no precipitate will develop. Thus, both statements are wrong.

90) KP = KC(RT)Δn g

91)

92)
2,5-dimethyl-6-oxo-hex-3-enoic acid

93)

cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are [Link]-2-butene is more stable than

cis-2-butene. cis-2-butene has more dipole moment than trans-2-butene.
cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene are not interconvertible at room temperature due to rotational
barrier.
94)

95) Five cyclic structures are possible for C4H6. These are as follows.

96)

97)

98)
Molecule is unsymmetrical
number of G.I. = 2n = 23 = 8

99)
 100)

BIOLOGY-I

109) Poaceae family has 2 tepal in flower also called lodicules.

112) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 57

115) NCERT XIth Pg.#88

116)

NCERT XI Pg. # 87
Para-3

118) NCERT XI, Pg # 88,89

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 75

120) NCERT XI Pg. # 91

122) Allen module pg 112 q.9

123)

Ncert page 74.

124) NCERT XI Pg. # 97

137) Axile placentation is present in china rose, Lemon, Tomato.

140) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 60,61

141) dicotyledon stomata with bean shaped guard cells.

142) NCERT Pg.76

 143) NCERT XI Pg. # 74

145) NCERT - Pg. # 94

BIOLOGY-II

151) NCERT XI, Page # 231

152) NCERT XI, Page # 232

153) NCERT XI, Page # 234

154) NCERT XI, Page # 232

155) NCERT XI, Page # 232

156) NCERT XI, Page # 236

157) NCERT XI, Page # 236

158) NCERT XI, Page # 233,234

159) NCERT XI, Page # 232

160) NCERT XI, Page # 235

161) NCERT XI, Page # 237

162) NCERT XI, Page # 236

163) NCERT XI, Page # 227

164) NCERT XI, Page # 222

165) NCERT XI, Page # 223

166) NCERT XI, Page # 222

167) NCERT XI, Page # 226

168) NCERT Xi, Page # 227

169) NCERT Xi, Page # 223

170) NCERT Xi, Page # 222

171) NCERT XI, Page # 219-220

172) NCERT XI, Page # 227

173) NCERT-XI, Page # 227

174)

NCERT XI, Page # 241

175)

NCERT XI, Page # 246

176)

NCERT XI, Page # 242

177)

NCERT XI, Page # 248,249

178)

NCERT XI, Page # 247

180)

NCERT XI, Page # 240

181)

NCERT XI, Page # 244

182)

NCERT XI, Page # 241

183)

NCERT XI, Page # 242

184)

NCERT XI, Page # 244

185)

NCERT XI, Page # 243

186) NCERT XI, Page # 236

187) NCERT XI, Page # 234

188) NCERT XI, Page # 232

189) NCERT XI, Page # 236

190) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 236, 237

191) NCERT XI, Page # 227

192) NCERT XI, Page # 227

193) NCERT Xi, Page # 227

194) NCERT Xi, Page # 227

195) NCERT Xi, Page # 221-222

196)

NCERT XI, Page # 241

197)
NCERT XI, Page # 239

199)

NCERT XI, Page # 247

200)

NCERT XI, Page # 243