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Class XII Biology Preboard Exam 2022-23

This document is a question paper for the SAHODAYA Preboard Examination for Class XII Biology, containing 33 questions divided into five sections with varying marks. The exam is structured to test students on various biological concepts, including genetics, ecology, and cellular processes, with specific instructions for answering. Students are required to demonstrate knowledge through multiple-choice questions, case studies, and diagram-based questions.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
29 views10 pages

Class XII Biology Preboard Exam 2022-23

This document is a question paper for the SAHODAYA Preboard Examination for Class XII Biology, containing 33 questions divided into five sections with varying marks. The exam is structured to test students on various biological concepts, including genetics, ecology, and cellular processes, with specific instructions for answering. Students are required to demonstrate knowledge through multiple-choice questions, case studies, and diagram-based questions.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Roll No.

SET-03

SAHODAYA PREBOARD EXAMINATION – (2022-23)


CLASS-XII
 Please check that this question paper contains 10 printed pages.
 Set number given on the top right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title
page of the answer book by the candidate.
 Check that this question paper contains 33 questions.
 Write down the Serial Number of the question in the left side of the margin before
attempting it.
 15 minutes time has been allotted to read this question paper. The students will read the question
paper only during this time and will not write any answer on the answer book during this period.

BIOLOGY (044)
Time allowed – 3hours Maximum marks - 70

General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section– C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section– D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks
each; and Section–E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A
student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION - A
1. Antigen-binding site in an antibody is found between: 1
a) Two light chains
b) Two heavy chains
c) One heavy and one light chain
d) Either between two light chains or between one heavy and one light chain

044/03 Page 1 of 10
2. 1
Which labelling is not correct in the given diagram?
a) Gas entrainment
b) Decreased surface area
c) Bubbles increase the oxygen transfer
d) Agitator system

3. Saraswati was growing a bacterial colony in a culture flask under ideal laboratory conditions, 1
where the resources are replenished continuously. Which of the following equations will
represent the growth in this case?
(Where the population size is N, birth rate is b, death rate is d, unit time period is t and
carrying capacity is K)
a) dN/dt = KN b) dN/dt= rN
c) dN/dt= rN(K- N/K) d) dN/dt= rN(K+N/K)

4. Pouched animals of Australia survived due to ___________. 1


a) Overpowering b) Continental drift c) Mutation d) Competition
5. When large habitats are broken down into small fragments due to various human activities, 1
which of the following organisms are badly affected?
a) Mammals requiring large territories b) Birds requiring large territories
c) Certain animals with migratory habits d) All of the above
6. Which of the following are the reason(s) for rheumatoid arthritis? Choose the correct option. 1
i) The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells increases.
ii) Body attacks self cells.
iii) More antibodies are produced in the body.
iv) The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost.
a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iv)
c) (iii) and (iv) d) (i) and (iii)
7. After sewage treatment, the water samples A, B and C are tested for BOD value and recorded 1
value of BOD was 6 mg/L , 400 mg/L and 20mg/L respectively . What is correct about these
samples?
a. Sample A could be taken from untreated sewage water.
b. Sample B could be belonging to secondary effluent from sewage water treatment.
c. Sample C could be taken from river water.
d. Sample A could be taken from river water.

044/03 Page 2 of 10
8. A woman’s husband is infertile. So the lady has decided to have baby by taking sperms from 1
sperm bank. Which technique will you suggest for her pregnancy?
a) ICSI b) ZIFT
c) GIFT d) IUT
9. Match the contraceptive methods given under column I with their examples given under 1
column II and select the correct option.

COLOUMN I COLOUMN II
A Chemical (i) Tubectomy and vasectomy

B IUDS (ii) Copper T and lippes’ loop

C Barrier (iii) Condom and cervical cap

D Sterilization (iv) Spermicidal jelly and foam


Coitus interrupts and calendar
(v)
method

a) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) b) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iii)


c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D – (v) d) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
10. Which of the following statements regarding the estimated number of species found on earth, 1
is not correct?
a) Insects constitute more than 70 percent of the animals.
b) According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about 7 million.
c) Plants constitute more than 72 percent of all the species recorded.
d) The number of fungal species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of
fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.
11. A population has more young individuals compared to the older individuals. What would be 1
the status of the population after some years?

a) It will decline b) It will stabilize


c) It will increase d) It will first stabilize and then decline
12. Which of the following is/are synthesised by RNA polymerase III? 1
a) hn RNA b) 28S rRNA, 5sr RNA, r RNA
c) tRNA, 5srRNA, snRNA d) tRNA

044/03 Page 3 of 10
Question No. 13 to 16 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true

13. Assertion: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is popular in genetic engineering as this bacterium is 1


associated with roots of all dicot plants.
Reason: A gene incorporated in the bacterial chromosomal genome gets automatically
transferred to crop with which the bacterium is associated.

14. Assertion- The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia in early 1920s caused havoc by 1
spreading rapidly into millions of hectares of land range.
Reason- When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become
invasive and start spreading fast because the invaded land does not have the natural predators.
15. Assertion- Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set in the absence of pollinators. 1
Reason- Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all.

16. Assertion- The progenies of a test cross can be easily analysed to predict genotype of the test 1
organism.
Reason- In a test cross, an organism showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with any parent
instead of self-crossing.
SECTION-B
17. Cancer is most dreaded disease. Answer the following questions with respect to cancer cells. 2
a. Cell division and growth are highly controlled and regulated process in human body.
How do cancer cells deviate this? Explain.
b. All normal cells have inherent capacity to be cancerous. Justify.
18. A true breeding pea plant, homozygous dominant for inflated green pods is crossed with 2
another pea plant with constricted yellow pods (ffgg). With the help of a punnet square show
the above cross and mention the results obtained phenotypically and genotypically in F1
generation?
19. There are two kinds of species ‘A’ and ‘B’ found in an area. Both 2
the species exchange services between them.
a) What kind of population interaction could be observed here?
b) What would be the fate of species ‘A’ if species ‘B’ is removed?
c) If species ‘A’ undergoes a modification, under what
circumstances ‘B’ would be survived?
d) Mention one appropriate term for this condition.

044/03 Page 4 of 10
OR
a) Give an example of organism that links two different types of food chains. Write the name
of the two different types of food chain
b)
Moist soil, Dry soil, sand,
Gobar, Animal excreta, stone,
Litter fungal mass
‘A’ ‘B’
In which sample area ‘A’ or ‘B' the rate of decomposition will be faster?

20. 2

A C D B

Study the diagram of the gel electrophoresis showing the migration of DNA fragments and
answer the questions given above:
a) Why do the DNA fragments in band 'D' move farther away in comparison to those in band
‘C’.
b) Name the commonly used matrix and mention its source.
c) How are the separated bands visualized and extracted?

21. a) Mention the names of the hormones responsible 2


for ovarian changes during the menstrual cycle in
the boxes provided.
b) Name the phase of menstrual cycle where graafian
follicle transforms into corpus luteum.
c) Name the hormone produced by Corpus luteum.

044/03 Page 5 of 10
SECTION - C
22. a) Identify the given figure and its labelled parts ‘A’ and ‘D’. 3
b) Explain the development of the given structure from the
embryo sac of a dicot flower.

23. a) Identify ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’. 3


b) Mention the two structural modifications
that occur in ‘B’.
c) Name the membrane that surrounds
secondary oocyte. Mention its role during
fertilization
24. a) According to Hardy- Weinberg’s law the allelic frequency of a population is stable and 3
equal to 1. In a population if the allelic frequency of ‘A’ is 0.3, what is the expected
frequency of ‘Aa’ individuals in that population?
b) Identify and define the factor affecting Hardy Weinberg’s law that leads to Founder effect.
c) The genotype of a black fur of rabbit in a population is ‘BB’. The white fur of those with
genotype ‘bb’ and the grey fur with genotype ‘Bb’. If the rabbits lived in an area where
both black and white rocks are available, then black fur and white fur rabbits could easily
obscure themselves from the predators among the black and white rocks. However, the
grey rabbits would stick out in any environment zone, making them more vulnerable to
predators. Draw the natural selection graph for the above situation.

25. a) How is r-DNA transferred into a plant cell? 3


b) Explain the steps involved in isolation of DNA from a cell of tobacco plant.
26. a) Name the amino acids ‘A’ & ‘B’ given in 3
the diagram.
b) Draw the tRNA for the codon ‘P’
mentioning the anticodon and amino
acid.
c) How many amino acids can be coded by
the above mRNA?
d) Write the function of ‘Q’ & ‘R’ in
translation process.

044/03 Page 6 of 10
27. Study the diagram showing replication of HIV in humans and answer the following questions 3
accordingly.
a) Write the chemical nature of ‘A’.

b) Name the enzyme ‘B’ acting on ‘X’ to

produce the molecule ‘C’. Name ‘C’.

c) HIV attacks the host cell ‘D’ first

when it enters into the human body.

Name it.

d) What is the role of ‘C’ on host cell?

OR
After a surgery drug ‘X’ was injected to the patient to counteract the effects of pain receptors
in the body and to induce sleep in patient. The structure of the drug ‘X’ is provided:

a) Identify the drug from the given chemical structure


that was injected to the patient.
b) Give the scientific name of the plant that can be used
to obtain drug ‘X’.
c) Write the effects of compound obtained by drug ‘X’
after acetylation on the human body.
d) Mention anyone receptor present in our body for this
drug.
28. Regions labelled in the map showing ecologically 3
sensitive area with reference to biodiversity status.
a) Specify the term used for these areas. Why
these regions are called so?
b) Which type of conservation approach is
reflected here?
c) What are Ramsar sites? Mention one such
sites present in Odisha.

044/03 Page 7 of 10
SECTION - D
[Link] 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one
subpart.
29. Study the two cases carefully regarding the pattern of inheritance of disease. 4
Case Mother Father Children

Case 1 With disease Normal Sons always with diseases

Case II With disease Normal Sons and daughters could show disease

a) Give two examples of case I diseases.


b) On which chromosome case I diseases are present on?
c) If inheritance pattern of disease is as case II and both parents are carrier of the disease then
what are the chances of having an affected child? Workout a cross for this.
OR
c) The possibility of a human female suffering from case I disease is rare. Why is it so?
30. 4

Given above the schematic representation for sewage treatment.

a) Why secondary treatment is called biological treatment?


b) If continuous aeration is not provided to the aeration tank what will happen to BOD and the
flocs?
c) What is activated sludge and write one role of it which is not provided in the flow chart.
OR
How is biogas produced from the activated sludge? Write any two important compositions
of it.

044/03 Page 8 of 10
SECTION-E
31. Study the image given below and answer the questions that follow- 5

a. Write the polarity of parental strand on which


(i) Continuous synthesis (ii) Discontinuous synthesis
of new DNA strands occur respectively.
b. Write the substrate required for the above process and
also mention another role of it?
c. What is the difference between these two types of
synthesis with reference to number of primers used?
d. Why two strands of DNA do not open at a stretch for
replication process?
e. The main enzyme catalyses replication process plays
two very important roles other than polymerisation.
Mention these.

OR
a. In Griffith’s experiment by heat killing the double stranded DNA of the S-strain of
Streptococcus were separated, then how did it able to transform R-strain in to S-strain?
b. What are the three catalysts used by Oswald Avery and his team to determine the
biochemical nature of transforming principles.
c. By the use of which catalyst the transformation fails to occur?
d. Differentiate between Euchromatin and heterochromatin.

32. 5

a) Write two differences observed between ‘A’ and ‘B’ with reference to first meiotic
division.
b) Mention the ploidy level of ‘C’ and ‘D’.
c) When is the process represented in schematic I and II initiated and terminated
respectively?

044/03 Page 9 of 10
OR
A mango plant produces 260 viable seeds by sexual reproduction.
a) How many male gametes and polar nuclei must have been involved in this process?
b) How many maximum megaspores mother cells and microspore mother cells are involved?
c) How many pollen tubes must have entered the embryo sac and which cells of embryo sac
receives male gametes firs?
d) How many minimum numbers of ovules present in ovary and maximum number of pollen
grains are involved in successful pollination?
e) How many maximum numbers of mitotic cell divisions are involved for the formation of
the required number of male gametes and embryo sacs respectively?

33. a) Identify ‘A’ and mention its role. 5


b) Identify the labeled areas which represent as
selectable marker and mention their names.
c) Write the closing sites of each selectable marker.
d) Identify ‘B’ and mention its role.
e) A researcher used EcoR1 to introduce alien DNA
into pBR322, but he could not identify
transformant. Give the reason.

OR

150
Fasting
blood
glucose
100
in Mg/
100 ml of
blood 50

Individual- A B C
a) Which individual needs insulin therapy & why?
b) How had insulin therapy been carried in older days and mention its demerit.
c) What is the difference between insulin synthesized in beta cells of pancreas and
present in blood plasma.
d) How did scientists synthesize functional human insulin with the help of r-DNA
technology?

044/03 Page 10 of 10

Common questions

Powered by AI

The competitive exclusion principle states that two species that compete for the exact same resources cannot stably coexist. If two species have identical niches, one will outcompete the other, leading to the exclusion or adaptation of the weaker competitor. For example, this principle predicts that one species will dominate, using resources more efficiently unless resource partitioning allows for coexistence by differentiation of niches over time .

Managing invasive species requires targeted strategies aimed at prevention, early detection, and control measures. Approaches include mechanical removal, chemical control, biological control using natural predators, and habitat modification to make environments less hospitable to invaders. These interventions must be carefully managed to avoid unintended ecological consequences and maintain ecosystem balance, integrating with conservation goals and considering economic implications .

The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation in the absence of evolutionary influences. Deviations may occur due to factors such as natural selection, genetic drift, mutation, migration, or non-random mating. For example, the Founder effect, a type of genetic drift, can lead to deviations, as seen in isolated human populations, where a small group forms a new population, leading to reduced genetic variation and allele frequency discrepancies from the original population .

Crossing an organism with a dominant phenotype with a homozygous recessive partner is essential in a test cross to reveal the genotype of the dominant organism. If the dominant organism is homozygous dominant, all offspring will exhibit the dominant phenotype. However, if it is heterozygous, the offspring will exhibit a 1:1 ratio of dominant to recessive phenotypes. This method effectively helps determine whether the dominant phenotype is a result of a homozygous or heterozygous genotype .

Secondary sewage treatment is called biological treatment because it involves microbial processes that digest dissolved and suspended organic matter in wastewater. This process is distinct from primary treatment, which primarily removes large solids and sediments through physical means. Secondary treatment is crucial as it significantly reduces the biological oxygen demand (BOD) of the effluent, making it safer for discharge into water bodies, thereby reducing the risk of environmental pollution and eutrophication .

Internal choices in standardized exams allow students to select questions they are more comfortable or confident with, potentially enhancing performance by reducing anxiety and enabling better demonstration of knowledge. This design aspect respects diverse strengths among students and can lead to a more accurate assessment of their true abilities, as it permits them to avoid their weakest topics .

Biodiversity hotspots are regions with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that are under threat from human activities. They are critical for conservation because they house highly diverse, unique ecosystems with many endemic species. Prioritizing conservation efforts in these areas is essential as they represent environments with high threats of habitat loss but also high returns in terms of preserving global biodiversity. Strategies in these priorities include habitat protection, sustainable development, and restoration, coupled with local community engagement and support .

Cleistogamous flowers, which do not open at all, play an important evolutionary role by ensuring seed set without external pollinators. They self-pollinate because the necessary reproductive structures are contained within the unopened bud, ensuring reproductive success in environments where pollinators are scarce. This adaptation can be favorable in stable environments, promoting energy efficiency and consistency in offspring traits, though it potentially reduces genetic diversity compared to cross-pollination .

Antimicrobial drugs inhibit bacterial growth through various mechanisms: some interfere with cell wall synthesis (e.g., penicillins), others disrupt protein synthesis by targeting ribosomal subunits (e.g., tetracyclines), inhibit nucleic acid synthesis (e.g., quinolones), or disrupt metabolic pathways (e.g., sulfonamides). These targeted actions exploit differences between bacterial and human cells, allowing these drugs to effectively reduce bacterial populations without harming host cells .

RNA polymerase III synthesizes tRNA, 5S rRNA, and snRNA by transcribing genes with specific internal promoters. Unlike RNA polymerase I, which transcribes large rRNAs, and RNA polymerase II, which transcribes mRNA and some snRNA, polymerase III works with different transcription factors and promoter elements. Its activity is crucial for producing components necessary for protein synthesis and RNA splicing, enjoying unique regulation due to its role in cellular growth and proliferation .

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