1 SEPOY PHARMA | MODEL PAPER - I
MODEL PAPER – I
Part-I: General Knowledge
Q1. Which of the following was the first metal used by man?
(a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Bronze (d) Brass
Q2. Which Mughal king tried to stop the practice of Sati?
(a) Akabar (b) Humayun (c) Shahjahan (d) Aurangzeb
Q3. The Sultan of Delhi, who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was
(a)Iltutmish (b) Ghiyas-ud- din - Tughlaq (c) Firoze Shah Tughlaq (d) Sikandar Lodi
Q4. Which caves is a network of sculpted caves located in Mumbai harbour?
(a) Ajanta (b) Ellora (c) Elephanta (d) Khajuraho
Q5. The Panama canal links
(a) Pacific and Atlantic Ocean (b) Atlantic & Arctic Ocean
(c) Pacific and Indian Ocean (d) Antarctic & Atlantic Ocean
Q6. India is developing Chabahar port in which of the following countries?
(a) Iraq (b) Oman (c) Iran (d) Pakistan
Q7. Who is the author of the book 'The White Tiger'?
(a) R K Narayan (b) Aravind Adiga (c) Vikram Seth (d) Arundhati Roy
Q8. Kisan Diwas (Farmer's Day) is observed on?
(a) 23rd December (b) 15th July (c) 14rd December (d) 1st May
Q9. The world economic report is published by?
(a) World bank (b) UNDP (c) IMF (d) UNCTAD
Q10. Eutrophication
(a) Is a normal process that converts dry land into marshes.
(b) Is slowed by the presence of Phosphate and Nitrate fertilisers.
(c) Is characterised by an excess amount of oxygen in large bodies of water.
(d) Is characterised by a rapid enrichment of water body with minerals and nutrients.
Q11. Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy?
(a) To raise the level of nutrition. (b) To develop a scientific temper.
(c) To promote economic interests of weaker sections. (d) To separate the judiciary from the executive.
Q12. MALABAR is a Naval exercise between India and
(a) Singapore (b) USA (c) China (d) Britain
Q13. In a pressure cooker, cooking is faster because the increase in vapour pressure
(a) Increase the specific heat (b) Decrease the specific heat
(c) Decrease the boiling point (d) Increase the boiling point
Q14. In 1991, India's first indigenous super computer named.............was developed by Vijay Bhatkar.
(a) Prayag 400 (b) Pragati 5000 (c) Param 8000 (d) Prabhas 6000
Q15. A data warehouse is always
(a) Subject Oriented (b) Object Oriented
(c) programme Oriented (d) Compiler Oriented
Q16. Jallikattu is associated with which Indian festival?
(a) Onam (b) Pongal (c) Biku (d) Hornbill
Q17. Which of the following countries have an unwritten constitution?
(a) USA (b) UK (c)Iran (d) Pakistan
Q18. Supernova is
(a) Comet (b) Asteroid (c) Exploding Star (d) Black Hole
Q19. The largest tiger reserve in India is
(a) Pench (b) Manas (c) Nagarjun (d) Corbett
Q20. Sahara is located in which part of Africa?
(a) Eastern (b) Western (c) Northern (d) Southern
Q21. Which among the following comes under the primary sector of Indian economy?
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(a) Sugar Industry (b) Dairy (c) Banking (d) Transport of goods
Q22. As we go from equator to North Pole, the value of ‘g’ (the acceleration due to gravity)
(a) Remains the same (b) decreases (c) Increases (d) None of the above
Q23. Ozone layer above the surface of earth provides a shield against?
(a) X-rays (b) Ultra violet rays (c) Gamma rays (d) Infra-red rays
Q24. Which foreign country is closest to Andaman Islands?
(a) Srilanka (b) Myanmar (c) Indonesia (d) Pakistan
Q25. Fiscal policy is connected with
(a) Issue of currency (b) Exports and Imports
(c) Public revenue & expenditure (d) None of above
1-a 2-d 3-c 4-c 5-a 6-c 7-b 8-a 9-c 10-d
11-b 12-b 13-d 14-c 15-a 16-b 17-b 18-c 19-c 20-c
21-b 22-c 23-b 24-b 25-c
Part-I: English
Directions Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
No one can look back on his schooldays and say with truth that they were altogether unhappy. I have good
memories of Oak Grove's, among a horde of bad ones, Sometimes on summer afternoons there were wonderful
expeditions across the Duns to a village called Tsango Gap, or to Birchha lake, where one bathed dangerously
among the boulders and came home covered with cuts. And there were still more wonderful mid summer
evenings, when as a special treat, we were not driven off to bed as usual but allowed to wander about the grounds
in the long twilight, ending up with a plunge into a swimming bathe at about nine o' clock. There was a joy of
waking early on summer mornings and getting in an hour's undisturbed reading (Premchand, Ruskin Bond, HG
Wells, Anton Chekhov were the favourite authors of my childhood) in the sunlit sleeping dormitory. There was
also cricket, which I was no good at but with which I conducted a sort of hopeless love affair upto the age of about
eighteen. And there was the pleasure of keeping caterpillars- the silky green and purple puss-moth specimen of
which could be illicitly purchased for six paise at a shop in the town- and, when one could escape long enough
from the master who was talking the walk' there was the excitement of dredging the dew ponds on the Duns for
the enormous newts with orange coloured bellies. The business of being out for a walk, coming across something
of fascinating interest and then being dragged away from it by a yell from the master, like a dog jerked onwards
by the leash, is an important feature of school life and helps to build up the conviction, so strong in many children,
that the things you most want to do are always unattainable.
Q26. We can infer that the author was a
(a) disobedient student (b) lonely child
(c) mischievous boy (d) studious boy
Q27. Why does writer call cricket a hopeless affair?
(a) He was forced to give it up (b) He did not play it at all
(c) He played it secretly (d) He tried hard to learn
Q28. “Where one bathed dangerously”. Why the writer call bathing dangerous?
(a) They were punished later (b) There were snakes in the water
(c) The boulders gave them bruises (d) The water was too deep
Q29. What is the 'moral' the boy draws from his childhood experiences ?
(a) Things you enjoy doing are always unreachable (b) Only do the things that masters tell you to
(c) Do not walk alone in the grounds (d) Do not collect insects like caterpillars
Q30. Which of the following the boys not do on summer mornings ?
(a) Read in bed (b) Play cricket (c) Sleep until late (d) Collect caterpillar
Directions: In the following questions, some part of the sentences have errors and some are correct. Find
out which part of a sentence has error. The number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from
error, your answer is "No error".
Q31. A senior doctor (a)/ expressed concern (b)/ about physician's recommended the vaccine (c) / No error (d)
Q32. "The Arabian Nights" (a)/ are indeed (b)/ an interesting book (c)/ No error (d)
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Q33. A chill wind blew (a)/ and icy fingers of death (b) /crept up my spine (c) / No error (d)
Q34. They dreamed of a society (a) /where everyone (b) were equal (c) / No error (d)
Q35. Her behavior (a)/ around him (b) /was little oddly (c) No error (d)
Directions: In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which expresses the meaning
of the word given in the bold.
Q36. Loquacious
(a) talkative (b) slow (c) content (d) unclear
Q37. Bliss
(a) pleasure (b) fantasy (c) happiness (d) laughter
Q38. Labyrinth
(a) meandering (b) rotating (c) pacing (d) wriggling
Q39. Conscientious
(a) concentrated (b) honest (c) scientific (d) false
Q40. Fustian
(a) unpretentious (b) timid (c) arrogant (d) courteous
Directions: In the questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom / Phrase in 'bold'. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idioms / phrase given in bold.
Q41. to show a clean pair of heels
(a) to hide (b) to escape (c) to pursue (d) to follow
Q42. a little gush of gratitude
(a) gradual recovery (b) friendly feeling (c) excessive labour (d) excessive enthusiasm
Q43. to get wind
(a) to forget (b) come to know (c) to tell (d) to meet
Q44. a man of straw
(a) a unreasonable person (b) a man of no substance (c) a very active person (d) a worthy fellow
Q45. was plain sailing
(a) was very easy (b) was complicated (c) was competitive (d) was uncomfortable
Directions: In this questions, out of four alternative choose the one which can be substituted for the given
words/ sentences.
Q46. A person very reserved in speech
(a) confident (b) reticent (c) eloquent (d) adamant
Q47. Free from punishment
(a) posterity (b) stoicism (c) impunity (d) wrath
Q48. A person who devotes his/her life for the welfare of others
(a) altruist (b) hermit (c) volunteer (d) martyr
Q49. Excessive desire to work
(a) ergomania (b) idolomania (c) islomania (d) ethnomania
Q50. Speaking with stammer or lips
(a) melliloquent (b) dentiloquent (c) fatiloquent (d) stuttering
26-c 27-d 28-c 29-a 30-c 31-c 32-b 33-c 34-c 35-c
36-a 37-c 38-a 39-b 40-c 41-a 42-b 43-b 44-b 45-a
46-b 47-c 48-a 49-a 50-d
Part-II: Pharmacy I
Q1. The chemical name of vitamin C is
(a) Ascorbic acid (b) Benzoic acid (c) Maleic acid (d) None of the above
Q2. Caustic soda is synonym of
(a) NaOH (b) HCl (c) CaCO2 (d) I2
Q3. All are essential amino acid except
(a) Leucine (b) Lysine (c) Phenylalanine (d) Tyrosine
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Q4. Ibuprofen is a
(a) 2-(4-Propylphyl) propionic acid (b) 2-(4-Isobutylphenyl) propionic acid
(c) 2-(4- Ethylphenyl) propionic acid (d) 2-(4- Hexylphenyl) propionic acid
Q5. Multiple form of same enzyme are called
(a) Coenzymes (b) Apoenzymes (c) Isoenzymes (d) Holoenzymes
Q6. The normal blood pH is
(a) 5.5 - 6.5 (d) 8.8 - 9.6 (c) 7.35 - 7.45 (d) 2.35 - 3.78
Q7. The body fluids found within cells is called
(a) Plasma (b) Extracellular fluid (c) Interstitial fluid (d) Intracellular fluid
Q8. Hepatitis is characterized by
(a) Inflammation of lungs (b) Skin rashes
(c) Inflammation of liver (d) Edema
Q9. Spinal cord ends at vertebral level of
(a) T11T12 (b) T12L1 (c) L1L2 (d) L3L4
Q10. Pentoses and hexoses can be distinguished by one of the following test
(a) Bail’s test (b) Molish test (c) Seliwanoff’s test (d) Benzidine test
Q11. Which of the following is not a non-communicable disease
(a) AIDS (b) Chronic kidney disease (c) Diabetes (d) Cancer
Q12. What are the major lymphoid organs in the body
(a) Peer’s patch (b) Liver (c) Malto (d) Lymph nodes
Q13. Which of the following is an example of an infectious disease
(a) Osteoarthritis (b) Cataract (c) Cancer (d) Chicken Pox
Q14. Which of the following is used to improve medication adherence in patients with tuberculosis
(a) Directly Observed Therapy (b) Regular monitoring of the patient
(c) Simplification of the regimen (d) Clinical treatment
Q15. The first step of patient counselling after meeting the patient is
(a) To evaluate the patient’s knowledge of medicines
(b) Introduction
(c) To discuss the information required by the patient
(d) To tell about medicines and their importance
Q16. What is the tissue connecting muscle to bone called
(a) Tendon (b) Cartilage white fibre (c) Ligament (d) Interstitial fluid
Q17. Keeping disease frequency with intolerable limits is stated as
(a) Disease control
(b) Disease surveillance
(c) Disease prevention
(d) Disease eradication
Q18. The supporting membrane that regulates the temperature and moisture of the air coming in &
through the respiratory tract is
(a) Nasal membrane (b) Mucous membrane
(c) Nasopharyngeal (d) Alveoli
Q19. Limit tests are conducted to
(a) detect the presence or absence of impurities
(b) quantify the impurities
(c) differentiate the impurities
(d) react with impurities we
Q20. Dispensing of medicines would be difficult in absence of pharmacist in the following system
(a) Floor stock system (b) Unit dose system
(c) Combination system (d) Individual prescription order system
Q21. One of the simplest and fastest tests used to evaluate heart function is
(a) PET Scan (b) Electrocardiogram (c) MRI Sean (d) Total blood profile
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Q22. According to Lowry Bronsted theory Acid is
(a) Electron pair donor (b) Electron pair acceptor
(c) Proton acceptor (d) Proton donor
Q23. Tuberculosis is diagnosed by
(a) Widal Test (b) ELISA Test (c) Mantoux test (d) Alerts Method
Q24. The antifungal drug, fluconazole belongs to the class of
(a) Pyridine (b) Azoles (c) Pyrimidines (d) Acridines
Q25. Potassium permanganate is a powerful
(a) Oxidizing agent (b) Reducing agent (c) Catalytic agent (d) Mixing agent
1-a 2-a 3-d 4-b 5-c 6-c 7-d 8-c 9-c 10-a
11-a 12-d 13-d 14-a 15-c 16-a 17-c 18-a 19-a 20-d
21-b 22-d 23-c 24-b 25-a
Part-II: Pharmacy II
Q26. In which of the following is the antimicrobial agent bactericidal in nature?
(a) Chloramphenicol (b) Erythromycin (c) Cephalosporins (d) Ethambutol
Q27. What is the minimum area which is required to start a retail drug store?
(a) 50 sq. Meter (b) 10 sq. Meter (d) 30 sq. Meter (c) 100 sq. Meter
Q28. When doses of a drug are repeated in quick succession, a reduction in response occurs which is
called
(a) Tachyphylaxis (b) Drug resistance (c) Acquired tolerance (d) Idiosyncrasy
Q29. According to Drugs and Cosmetics Act, List of substances that should be sold by retail only on
prescription of registered medical practitioner is given in which of the following Schedule
(a) Schedule H (b) Schedule V (c) Schedule X (d) Schedule Q
Q30. Pyridoxine is administered with isoniazid to minimize the
(a) Hepatotoxicity (b) Allergic reaction (c) Neurotoxicity (d) Nephrotoxicity
Q31. Infantile myoclonus is best treated with
(a) Clonazepam (b) Diazepam (c) Phenytoin (d) Phenobarbitone
Q32. Coca, Opium and Hemp comes under
(a) Dangerous Drug Act (b) Poison Act
(c) Drug and Cosmetic Act (d) None of these
Q33. The volume of distribution (Vd) relates
(a) Single to a daily dose of an administrated drug
(b) An administrated dose to a body weight
(c) An uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation
(d) The amount of a drug in the body to the concentration of a drug in plasma
Q34. Penicillin-G is
(a) Aminopenicillin (b) Carboxypenicillin
(c) Benzylpenicillin (d) Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Q35. ________ are drugs which treat rhinitis and other allergic conditions
(a) Antimicrobial agents (b) Amphetamine
(c) Penicillamine (d) Antihistamines
Q36. Phenformin withdrawn was worldwide owing to high risk of
(a) Lactic acidosis (b) Lactic alkalosis (c) Keto acidosis (d) Keto alkalosis
Q37. Which drug is an HIV protease inhibitor
(a) Delavirdine (b) Acyclovir (c) Nevirapine (d) Lopinavir
Q38. __________ is the space required for a hospital pharmacy in a 200-bedded hospital
(a) 1200 [Link] (b) 630 [Link] (c) 205 [Link] (d) 420 [Link]
Q39. In ABC analyses, the A items are
(a) 10%-20% of items and 70%-80% of the expenditures.
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6 SEPOY PHARMA | MODEL PAPER - I
(b) 1% -2% of items and 70%-80% of the expenditures
(c) 10%-20% of items and 90%-95% of the expenditures
(d) 1% -2% of items and 90% 95% of the expenditures
Q40. The version of GMP in India that describe requirement of factory premises for manufacture of
cosmetics
(a) Schedule-M (b) Schedule-M III (c) Schedule-M II (d) Schedule -MI
Q41. One of the ex-officio members of the Pharmacy Council of India is
(a) Director General of Health Services
(b) Government Analyst
(c) Registrar of the State Pharmacy Council
(d) Director General of veterinary Research Institute
Q42. Which of the following drags possesses Antiplatelet effects
(a) Erythropoietin (b) Urokinase (c) Desmopressin (d) Clopidogrel
Q43. Materials management refers to:
(a) Drug storage (b) Inventory control
(c) Drug procurement process (d) All the above
Q44. The retailer in pharmaceutical trade is known as:
(a) Chemist (b) Pharmacist
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Distributor
Q45. Which of the following is used for recording sales of goods on credit
(a) Purchase journal (b) Sales journal
(c) Sales returns journal (d) None
Q46. A book of original entry is
(a) Ledger (b) Journal (c) Cash book (d) None
Q47. In a drug store, the expiry dated drug formulations are called
(a) Scrap items (b) Surplus items (c) Obsolete items (d) Dormant materials
Q48. Unit-dose dispensing system is used for
(a) In-patient (b) Out-patient
(c) Both in & out patient (d) Emergency patients
Q49. As per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act-1940, if a drug is not labelled in prescribed manner, it is a
(a) Spurious drug (b) Substandard drug
(c) Adulterated drug (d) Misbranded drug
Q50. Which among the following method is associated with drug distribution
(a) Individual prescription Order method
(b) Unit Dose Drug Distribution Method
(c) Drug Basket Method
(d) All of these
26-c 27-b 28-a 29-a 30-c 31-a 32-a 33-d 34-c 35-d
36-a 37-d 38-a 39-a 40-c 41-a 42-d 43-a 44-c 45-b
46-a 47-c 48-a 49-d 50-d
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