2 Environment

Q1. Which of the following statements Q4. With reference to CITES (the
is/are correct regarding the Graded Convention on International Trade in
Response Action Plan? Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
1. The Graded Response Action Plan to Flora), consider the following:
control air pollution in the National 1. It is an international agreement to
Capital Region was notified by the which States and regional economic
Government of India. integration organizations adhere,
2. The Central Pollution Control Board and it is binding in nature.
is the implementing agency of the 2. States that have agreed to be bound by
plan. the Convention are known as Parties.
 Select the correct answer using the 3. CITES was drafted as a result of a
codes given below: resolution adopted at a meeting of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only members of IUCN.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2  Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
Q2. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
which of the following statements is/ (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
are correct?
Q5. Rotterdam Convention concerned with
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas
the Prior Informed Consent Procedure
that are declared under the Wildlife
for:
(Protection) Act, 1972.
(a) Public Participation in Decision-
2. The purpose of the declaration of
making and Access to Justice in
Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit
Environmental Matters
all kinds of human activities in those
(b) Certain Hazardous Chemicals and
zones except agriculture.
Pesticides in International Trade
 Select the correct answer using the
(c) Transboundary movement of
code given below: shipping goods and related services
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) Conservation of Marine Living
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Resources

Q3. Consider the following statements: Q6. What is Alpha diversity?

1. The boundaries of a National Park (a) It refers to the diversity within a
are defined by legislation. particular area or ecosystem and is
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to usually expressed by the number of
conserve a few specific species of species in that ecosystem.
flora and fauna. (b) It is a comparison of diversity between
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic ecosystems, usually measured as
interference is permitted. the change in the number of species
Which of the above statements is/are between the ecosystems.
correct? (c) It is a measure of the overall diversity
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only of the different ecosystems within a
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 region.

Environment 79
 (d) Genetic diversity is the total number Q10. Which of the following is/are the
of genetic characteristics in the sources of arsenic poisoning in the
genetic makeup of a species. groundwater?
1. Mining of gold and lead
Q7. Consider the following statements 2. Combustion of fossil fuels
with regard to Photochemical smog: 3. Pesticides and herbicides
1. It is also known as oxidising smog. 4. Usage of wood preservatives
2. It occurs in warm, dry and sunny  Select the correct answer using the
climates. codes given below:
3. It can be controlled by using catalytic (a) 1 and 2 only
converters in automobiles. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
is/are correct? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q11. Recently, Punjab and Haryana are
switching to the Direct Seeding of
Q8. Under the National Air Quality Rice methodology to arrest the fast-
Monitoring Programme (NAMP), which deteriorating groundwater levels.
of the following are monitored? Consider the following statements
1. Sulphur dioxide related to the methodology:
2. Oxides of nitrogen as NO2 1. Under the Direct Seeding of Rice
3. Suspended particulate matter methodology, farmers prepare
(PM2.5) nurseries where the paddy seeds
4. Respirable Suspended Particulate are first sown and raised into young
Matter (RSPM / PM10) plants.
 Select the correct answer using the 2. Flooding of fields is not required
codes below. during sowing to kill weeds.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. Methane emission reduces due to a
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only shorter flooding period.
(c) 1 and 4 only Which of the statements given above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q9. The Government of India has recently (b) 1 and 2 only
released the Desertification and Land (c) 2 and 3 only
Degradation Atlas of India. Which of (d) 1, 2 and 3
the following is/are the causes of land
degradation in India? Q12. Which of the following mammals and
1. Water erosion birds act as pollinators?
2. Over irrigation and waterlogging 1. Hummingbirds
3. Mass Movement 2. Flying foxes
4. Frost Shattering 3. Gecko
 Select the correct answer using the 4. Mites
code given below:  Select the correct answer using the
(a) 1 and 2 only codes given below:
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

80 Environment
Q13. Tokyo 2020 Olympic medals were made (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
from old smartphones and laptops. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the following other metals
can be recovered from processing Q16. Which of the following statements
e-waste? about Ecological Niche is/are correct?
1. Copper 1. The ecological niche describes
2. Iron how a species interacts within an
3. Platinum ecosystem.
4. Palladium 2. The niche of a species affects the
5. Arsenic ability of a species to survive and
 Select the correct answer using the endure.
codes given below: 3. Every organism has a unique niche
(a) 1 and 2 only in its habitat.
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only  Select the correct answer using the
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only codes given below:
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Q14. Which of the following is/are the (c) 1 only
environmental impact of acid rain? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Alters the chemical composition of
the aquatic ecosystem Q17. Which of the following environmental
2. Reduces Photosynthetic rate. terms is/are correctly defined?
3. Increases in methane emission from 1. Net primary productivity of
wetlands. an ecosystem is the rate of
4. Releases aluminium into the soil, production of organic matter during
which makes it difficult for trees to photosynthesis.
take up water. 2. Secondary productivity is defined as
 Select the correct answer using the the rate of formation of new organic
code given below: matter by consumers.
(a) 1 and 2 only  Select the correct answer using the
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only codes given below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q15. Which of the following properties Q18. Which of the following methods can be
of the fly ash allows it to be used in used for carbon sequestration?
construction? 1. Carbon farming by using plants to
1. It reduces crack problems, trap CO₂
permeability, and bleeding 2. Formation of biochar.
2. It provides cold weather resistance 3. Iron Fertilization of Oceans
3. It is Non-shrink material. encourages the growth of plankton.
4. It has a slower strength gain  Select the correct answer using the
mechanism. codes given below:
 Select the correct answer using the (a) 1 and 2 only
codes given below: (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Environment 81
 Q19. Recently, the Union Government 3. Plastic sticks for balloons
approved the ratification of the Kigali 4. Wrapping and packaging films
Amendment. Consider the following Select the correct answer using the
statements related to it: codes given below:
1. It aims for the phase-down of (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
hydrochlorofluorocarbons by (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
cutting their production and
consumption. Q22. Consider the following statements
2. Under this, all the nations have related to the Gross Environment
to stop the production and Product:
consumption of HFCs by 2024. 1. It is an indicator of economic growth
3. It is an amendment to the Vienna with environmental factors taken
consumption for the reduction of into consideration along with the
ozone-depleting substances. standard GDP of a country.
Which of the above statements is/are 2. It is considered as the product and
correct? service value that the ecosystem
(a) 1 only provides for human welfare and
(b) 2 and 3 only economic and social sustainable
(c) 2 only development.
(d) None of the above Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
Q20. Recently, Indian sites have been (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
recognised as wetlands of international (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
importance under the Ramsar
Convention. Which of the following Q23. Which of the following is/are the
wetlands and their locations have been components of smog?
correctly matched? 1. Tropospheric ozone
1. Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary – 2. Ammonia Gas
Gujarat 3. Particulate matter such as pollen
2. The Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary - and dust
Himachal Pradesh 4. Fly ash
3. Sultanpur National Park – Haryana  Select the correct answer using the
 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
codes given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only Q24. Consider the following statements
(d) 1, 2 and 3 about the State of Cities Climate
Finance report:
Q21. Recently, the government has notified 1. An average of $384 billion was
the Plastic Waste Management invested in urban climate finance
Amendment Rules, 2021, to prohibit annually in 2017-2018.
specific single-use plastic items which 2. Urban climate finance flows are
have “low utility and high littering heavily concentrated in OECD
potential” by 2022. Which of the countries and China.
following items are part of it? 3. Vastly insufficient amounts of urban
1. Thermocol for decorations climate finance were invested in
2. Straw many developing economy regions,

82 Environment
 including South Asia and sub- Q26. Which of the following statements is/
Saharan Africa. are correct about “Project Dolphin”?
4. Finance for adaptation projects 1. Announced in 2020 has been
amounted to $7 billion in 2017- envisaged along the lines of ‘Project
2018, representing 9 percent of Tiger’ to enhance the dolphin
investments tracked at the project population.
level, against 91 percent ($69 2. It will be implemented by the
billion) for mitigation and dual Ministry of Environment, Forest, and
uses. Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above 3. It involves the conservation of
is/are correct? dolphins and aquatic habitats
(a) 1 and 2 only through the use of modern
(b) 3 only technology, especially in anti-
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 poaching activities.
(d) 1 and 4 only 4. It will engage fishermen and
other rivers / ocean-dependent
Q25. Which of the following statements populations and will strive to
is/are correct about the UN-backed improve the livelihood of the local
international climate funds? communities.
1. Clean Technology Fund (CTF): It  Select the correct answer using the
aims at empowering transformation codes given below.
in developing countries by providing (a) 1 and 3 only
resources to scale up low carbon (b) 3 only
technologies. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Climate Investment Funds (CIFs): It (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
aims to accelerate climate action
by empowering transformations in Q27. Which of the following is/are the
clean technology, energy access, reasons for the rise in pollution in Delhi
climate resilience, and sustainable during winters?
forests in developing and middle- 1. Dip in temperatures
income countries. 2. Increase in wind speed
3. UN- Reducing emissions 3. Biomass burning in neighbouring
from deforestation and forest states
degradation (REDD): It aims to 4. Combustion of Firecrackers
protect forests, a pre-eminent  Select the correct answer using the
nature-based solution to the codes given below:
climate emergency. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. Net Zero Asset Owner Alliance: It (b) 1 and 2 only
has 129 members, including pension (c) 3 only
funds, insurance companies, (d) 2 and 4 only
and sovereign wealth funds,
and is working on substantial Q28. The “Global Climate Risk Report”, which
methodologies to align portfolios is often in the news, is released by:
with net-zero Paris targets. (a) UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
 Select the correct answer using the (b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
codes given below: (c) International Union for Conservation
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only of Nature (IUCN)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) None of the above

Environment 83
 Q29. Consider the following statements 2. Along with state pollution bodies,
about the Intergovernmental Panel on Central Pollution Control Board
Climate Change (IPCC): (CPCB) will monitor the ban, identify
1. The IPCC was created by the World violations, and impose penalties
Meteorological Organization (WMO) already prescribed under the
and the United Nations Environment Environmental Protection Act, 1986.
Programme (UNEP) in 1988. 3. The plastic packaging waste, which
2. It currently has 195 members, is not covered under the phase-
including India. out of identified single-use plastic
3. The IPCC and the U.S. Vice-President items, shall be collected and
Al Gore were jointly awarded the managed through the Extended
Nobel Peace Prize in 2007 for their Producer Responsibility (EPR) of the
efforts to build up and disseminate Producer, importer and Brand owner
greater knowledge about man-made as per Plastic Waste Management
climate change. Rules, 2016.
Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the
is/are correct? codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only

Q30. Which of the following statements Q32. Which of the following are the adverse
is/are correct about the initiatives health outcomes associated with
launched under the UNCCD to combat Biomedical Waste?
land desertification and degradation? 1. The decline of drug-resistant
1. Under the Land Degradation Neutrality microorganisms.
(LDN) Target Setting Programme, 2. Radiation burns.
UNCCD, in collaboration with multiple 3. Chemical burns arise in the context
international partners, is supporting of disinfection, sterilization, or
interested countries with their waste treatment activities.
national LDN target setting process. 4. Thermal injuries occur in conjunction
2. Land Degradation Neutrality Fund with open burning and the operation
(LDN Fund) was officially launched at of medical waste incinerators.
UNCCD COP 13 in Ordos, China, as a  Select the correct answer using the
first-of-its-kind investment vehicle codes given below:
leveraging public money to raise (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
private capital for sustainable land (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
projects.
 Select the correct answer using the Q33. Consider the following statements
codes given below: regarding ‘Octane rating’:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Octane rating is the percentage or
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 volume fraction of isooctane in a
mixture of isooctane and normal
Q31. Which of the following statements is/ heptane fuel where knock is initiated
are correct about the Key Provisions at the same compression ratio as in
of Plastic Waste Management (PWM) the fuel.
Amendment Rules, 2021? 2. It measures the fuel’s ability to resist
1. It prohibits specific single-use unwanted sounds due to auto-ignition
plastic items which have “low utility with a higher octane number.
and high littering potential” by 2030. 3. For diesel fuel, the cetane number is

84 Environment
 used to measure the ignition delay (c) International Union for Conservation
property of the fuel, with a higher of Nature (IUCN)
cetane number meaning reduced (d) None of the above
ignition delay to avoid knocking.
Which of the statements given above Q37. Consider the following statements
is/are correct? regarding the process of “ecological
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only succession”:
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It results from the disparity in
the physical atmosphere of the
Q34. Consider the following statements community.
about “Keystone species”: 2. It is a systematic procedure of
1. Keystone species is a species community development.
whose addition to or loss from an 3. It involves variations in species
ecosystem leads to major changes structure, and it decreases the
in the occurrence of other species. diversity of species.
2. All top predators (Tiger, Lion, 4. Nutrient variation regulates the
Crocodile) are considered keystone settlement of new communities.
species because they regulate all Which of the statements given above
other animal populations indirectly. is/are correct?
3. If keystone species are lost, it will (a) 1 and 2 only
result in the degradation of the (b) 2 only
whole ecosystem. (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only Q38. Consider the following statements
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only with reference to the National Green
Tribunal (NGT):
Q35. Consider the following statements
1. NGT was established under the
regarding “Nutrient Cycles”:
Environment Protection Act 1986
1. A perfect nutrient cycle is one in
for the effective and expeditious
which nutrients are replaced as fast
disposal of cases relating to
as they are utilized.
environmental protection.
2. Gaseous cycles are generally
2. It is vested with the powers of
considered perfect cycles.
a civil court under the Code of
3. Sedimentary cycles are considered
Civil Procedure for discharging its
relatively imperfect, as some nutrients
functions.
are lost from the cycle and get locked
3. It is not bound by the procedure under
into sediments, and so become
the code of civil procedure 1908
unavailable for immediate cycling.
4. India is the third country to form
Which of the statements given above
a body like NGT after Australia and
are correct?
New Zealand.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
are correct?
Q36. The Global Environment Outlook is often (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
seen in the news. It is released by: (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) United Nations Environment (c) 2 and 3 only
Programme (UNEP) (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)

Environment 85
 Q39. Which of the following is the most the following are the impacts of climate
appropriate example of character change on agriculture?
displacement? 1. Increased frequency of infestation by
(a) Two related species depending pests, insects, and other pathogens.
on the same prey species avoid 2. Increased soil moisture imbalance.
competition by feeding at different 3. Increased changes in temperature,
times of the day. irregular precipitation, and higher
(b) The body sizes of two related carbon dioxide concentrations.
species are very similar when they 4. Increased agricultural productivity.
are allopatric, but in geographical 5. Increased concentration of protein
areas of sympatry, one species and essential minerals in most plant
is significantly smaller than the species, including wheat, soybean,
other. and rice.
(c) The food niche of a species is 6. Increased vulnerability of livestock
generally wider in the absence of to disease, reducing fertility and
competing species than in their declining milk production.
presence. Select the correct answer using the
(d) Closely related species can coexist code given below:
if their densities are regulated by a (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
predator. (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
Q40. Consider the following statements (d) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
regarding aerosols:
1. Aerosols can be natural or Q42. …..X1……. marks the date when
anthropogenic in origin. humanity’s demand for ecological
2. The accumulation of aerosols in the resources and services in a given year
atmosphere can help in mitigating exceeds what Earth can regenerate in
climate change. that year. It is hosted and calculated
3. Aerosols can modify the size of by ………X2……. an international
existing cloud particles in the think tank that coordinates research,
atmosphere. develops methodological standards
4. They can change how the clouds and provides decision-makers
reflect and absorb sunlight. with a menu of tools to help the
5. Ozone concentrated in the human economy operate within
stratosphere plays a major role in Earth’s ecological limits. X1 and X2
the formation of aerosols in the stand for:
atmosphere. (a) Ecological footprint, IUCN
Which of the statements given above (b) Biocapacity, WWF
are correct? (c) Earth Hour, UNEP
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Earth Overshoot Day, Global
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only Footprint Network
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Q43. Which of the following are not
the components of the in-situ
Q41. Climate change is a great concern bioremediation technique?
nowadays that can be due to natural 1. Bioventing
and anthropogenic factors. Which of 2. Biosparging
3. Bioaugmentation

86 Environment
 4. Bio-piles (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
5. Land farming (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the (d) 3, 4 and 5 only
code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only Q47. Which amongst the following best
(b) 4 and 5 only describes the term ‘Polynya’?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) It is an area of unfrozen seawater
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only within otherwise contiguous pack
ice or fast ice.
Q44. Which of the following are not the (b) It is an area of unfrozen freshwater
impact of global warming? within glaciers.
1. Drought in Interior of Continents (c) It is an area of underground water
2. Flood in the coastal area within the hilly areas.
3. Loss of keystone species (d) None of the above
4. Coral and mangrove loss
5. Protection of coastal ecosystem Q48. Which of the following is/are the
6. High diurnal range of temperature environmental impact of waterlogging?
 Select the correct answer using the 1. It produces aerobic conditions,
code given below: which constrain the growth of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only plants.
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 5 and 6 only 2. It lowers the temperature of the soil,
hence reducing bacterial activity
Q45. Which of the following is/are not the leading to poor crops.
positive effect(s) of the greenhouse effect? 3. It leads to salinization of soil and
1. High diurnal range of temperature retards the growth of weeds.
2. Increased water use efficiency  Select the correct answer using the
3. Increased nutrient absorbance code given below:
4. Increased drought tolerance (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
 Select the correct answer using the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
code given below:
(a) 1 only Q49. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 and 3 only with respect to plastic pollution:
(c) 3 and 4 only 1. Plastisphere denotes the living
(d) None of the above microbiotic and macrobiotic
community colonizing plastic.
Q46. The burning of firecrackers increases 2. Microbeads are solid plastic particles
the concentration of dust and of less than one millimetre used in
pollutants in the air. Which of the the cosmetic industry.
following pollutants get discharged by 3. Plasticrust is formed when plastic
the burning of firecrackers? trash melts and fuses together
1. Aluminium with natural materials like sand and
2. Cadmium basalt.
3. Sulphur dioxide Which of the statements given above
4. Sodium is/are correct?
5. Nitrogen (a) 1 only
 Select the correct answer using the (b) 1 and 2 only
code given below: (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Environment 87
 Q50. Which of the following steps has/have Q53. Which of the following statements is/
been taken by the Government of India to are correct about the “Khadi Prakritik
implement Paris agreement obligations? distemper paint”?
1. The Government of India has 1. It is made up of cow dung.
constituted a high-level inter- 2. It is an eco-friendly, non-toxic paint.
ministerial Apex Committee for the 3. It is free from heavy metals like
Implementation of the Paris Agreement lead, mercury, chromium, arsenic,
(AIPA) under the chairmanship of cadmium, and others.
“Minister of Environment, Forest 4. It has anti-fungal and antibacterial
and Climate Change.” properties.
2. The Committee will act as a national  Select the correct answer using the
authority for the regulation of carbon code given below:
markets in India. (a) 1 only
 Select the correct answer using the (b) 2 only
code given below: (c) 1,2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q54. Consider the following statements
Q51. Consider the following statements regarding the “Montreux Record”:
about the “Kunming Declaration on 1. It is a register of wetland sites on
Biodiversity”? the List of Wetlands of International
1. It discusses the funding procedure Importance.
for conservation in poorer countries. 2. Sites may be added to and removed
2. It binds nations to support the from the Montreux Record only with
development, adoption, and the approval of the Contracting
implementation of an effective Parties in which they lie.
post-2020 implementation plan. Which of the statements given above
3. It binds nations to ensure sustainable is/are correct?
post-pandemic recovery policies. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only Q55. Which of the following are the benefits
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of declaring an area as a “marine
protected area”?
Q52. The ‘Red Data Book’ published by the 1. It led to the conservation of
International Union for Conservation biodiversity by completely restricting
of Nature (IUCN) contains which of the fishing in the region.
following lists? 2. It encourages sustainable marine
1. Endemic plant and animal species are tourism and broadens local
present in the biodiversity hotspots. economic options.
2. Threatened plant and animal species. 3. Allows scientific study in the
3. Protected sites for conservation region to boost the knowledge for
of nature and natural resources in conservation.
various countries.  Select the correct answer using the
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only

88 Environment
Q56. Carbon farming is seen as a way to help legally claim to have purchased
restore the balance within the carbon renewable energy.
cycle. Which of the following is/are the 2. One Renewable Energy Certificate
methods of carbon farming? (REC) is taken as equivalent to 100
1. Reduction of soil tillage MWh of energy injected into the grid.
2. Wetland conservation Which of the statements given above
3. Water harvesting is/are correct?
4. Agroforestry (a) 1 only
 Select the correct answer using the (b) 2 only
code given below: (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q60. With reference to the extended
Q57. Consider the following statements producer responsibility (EPR), consider
about “green tax”: the following statements
1. A green tax could be levied only on 1. EPR is a policy approach under
transport or commercial vehicles which producers are given
older than 10 years. significant responsibility for the
2. Vehicles used for farming, such as treatment or disposal of post-
tractors and combined harvesters, consumer products.
could be exempted. 2. Assigning such responsibility could,
3. The revenue collected through the in principle, provide incentives
green tax will be kept in a different to prevent waste at the source,
account and will only be utilized for promote product design for the
tackling pollution. environment, and support the
Which of the statements given above achievement of public recycling and
is/are correct? materials management goals.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 only is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Q58. Which of the following species has (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
undergone a change in their IUCN status?
1. Komodo dragon Q61. Consider the following statements
2. Albacore Tuna and Yellowfin Tuna regarding the ‘India Plastics Pact’:
3. Yercaud Day Gecko 1. It was launched in collaboration with
4. Satara Gecko WWF India and the Confederation of
5. Yellow Monitor Indian Industry (CII).
 Select the correct answer using the 2. It aims to transform the current
code given below. linear plastics system into a circular
(a) 1 and 2 only plastics economy.
(b) 2 and 4 only 3. It aims to promote public-private
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only collaborations that enable solutions
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 to eliminate the plastic waste
problem in India.
Q59. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above
the ‘Renewable Energy Certificates (REC)’: is/are correct?
1. It is a market-based instrument (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
where the owner of the REC can (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Environment 89
 Q62. Consider the following statements Q65. Oil extraction in the Arctic may lead to
regarding ‘Marine Protected Areas’: the release of:
1. Marine Protected Areas are spaces 1. Black carbon
in the ocean where human activities 2. Methane
are more strictly regulated. 3. Carbon Monoxide
2. They are given special protections for  Select the correct answer using the
natural or historic marine resources code given below:
by local, state, territorial, native, (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
regional, or national authorities. (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
3. They offer a nature-based solution to
support global efforts towards climate Q66. The concept of ‘ecological footprint’
change adaptation and mitigation. implies:
4. The World Database on Protected (a) Non-monetary assessment of
Areas reported that only 7.65% of ecosystem integrity, health, or
the global seas had been covered as resilience.
of March 2021. (b) The way in which ecological agents
Which of the statements given above reveal their preferences through
is/are correct? ecological activity.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 4 only (c) A degree of impairment to an
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 ecosystem, which when surpassed
is too severe to allow recovery of
Q63. Consider the following statements that ecosystem.
about the ‘primary productivity of (d) An index of the area of a productive
organisms’: ecosystem is required to produce
1. Primary productivity is defined as the resources used and to assimilate
the rate of formation of new organic the wastes produced by a defined
matter by the major ‘Consumers’ of population.
the ecosystem.
2. It depends on the plant species Q67. Consider the following statements
inhabiting a particular area, about the ‘black-necked crane’:
environmental factors, availability 1. The black-necked crane (Grus
of nutrients, and photosynthetic nigricollis) is recently declared as
capacity of plants. the state bird of Arunachal Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above 2. The IUCN status of the black-necked
is/are correct? crane is Near Threatened.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Which of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Q64. Which of the following bacterium can (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
be used for bioremediation?
1. Haemophilus Q68. The UNEP Colombo Declaration is
2. Mycobacterium related to:
3. Rhodococcus (a) Pollution caused by the aviation
4. Ralstonia sector
 Select the correct answer using the (b) Pollution caused by Coal-fired power
code given below: plants
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3, and 4 only (c) Global Nitrogen Challenge
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) Pollution caused by ships

90 Environment
Q69. Consider the following statements Q72. Which of the following ecological
about ‘keystone species’: services are provided by urban lakes?
1. Keystone species exert a strong 1. They help regulate streamflow and
control on community structure recharge groundwater aquifers.
as they form a major part of the 2. They ease the impact of floods and
ecosystem. manage urban stormwater.
2. The disappearance of keystone 3. They preserve the biodiversity and
species results in the degradation of habitat of the area.
the whole ecosystem.  Select the correct answer using the
Which of the statements given above code given below:
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q73. Which of the following human activities
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 create edge effects?
1. Habitat fragmentation
Q70. Consider the following statements 2. Introduction of invasive species
regarding the ‘Nationally Determined 3. Frequent forest fires
Contributions (NDC)’: 4. Commercial cropping
1. These are binding national plans  Select the correct answer using the
highlighting the climate actions of code given below:
the particular nation. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. The nation which has formally signed (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
the Kyoto Protocol has to follow the
NDC by submitting an instrument of Q74. Which of the following is/are the
ratification. primary reasons for high air pollution in
3. All nations submit their NDCs the Delhi-NCR region?
annually to the United Nations. 1. Occurrence of open waste burning.
Which of the statements given above 2. In-situ power generation via diesel
is/are not correct? generators in industries.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 3. The flow of south-easterly winds,
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 which bring pollutants from Punjab
in winters.
Q71. According to a recent report, the  Select the correct answer using the
leopard faces an 83% increased risk code given below:
of extinction in Northern India due (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
to human activities. Which of the (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
following factors make a few species
more vulnerable to extinction? Q75. Consider the following statements
1. Species have a low population with about “ecosystem services”:
high genetic variability. 1. Provisioning services - This includes
2. Special living in the ecotone regions. the products/raw materials or
3. Species have low reproductive energy outputs like food, water,
offspring. medicines, and other resources
 Select the correct answer using the from ecosystems.
code given below: 2. Regulating services - This includes
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only the services which regulate the
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 ecological balance. For example,

Environment 91
 terrestrial environs like forest purify Q78. With reference to various types of‘
and regulates air quality, prevent Coral Reefs’, consider the following
soil erosion, and control greenhouse statements:
gases. 1. Fringing reefs grow near the coastline
3. Supporting services - Supporting around islands and continents.
services form the basis for other 2. Barrier reefs are also parallel to
services. the coastline but are separated by
4. Cultural services - It includes deeper, wider lagoons.
tourism; provides recreational, 3. Atolls are rings of coral that create
aesthetic, cultural, and spiritual protected lagoons and are usually
services, etc. Most natural elements located in the middle of the sea.
such as landscapes, mountains, 4. Patch reefs are small, isolated reefs
caves, are used as a place for that grow up from the open bottom
cultural and artistic purposes. of the island platform or continental
Which of the statements given above shelf.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 and 3 only are correct?
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q76. Consider the following statement
about the ‘circular economy’: Q79. Consider the following statement
1. It is an economic system that tackles about the ‘cryosphere’:
global challenges like climate 1. It is located just below the exosphere.
change, biodiversity loss, waste, and 2. Its plays an important role in climate
pollution. change.
2. A circular economy focuses on 3. The gaseous composition of
increasing productivity in terms the cryosphere is altered by
of more efficient utilization of anthropogenic emissions.
resources. Which of the statements given above
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q80. Atmospheric layers have distinctive
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 temperature gradients. Which of the
following layer have inversions in
Q77. The “Greenhouse Gas Bulletin” is in the temperature?
news. It is released by: 1. Troposphere
(a) United Nations Environment 2. Stratosphere
Programme (UNEP) 3. Mesosphere
(b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF) 4. Thermosphere
(c) International Union for Conservation  Select the correct answer using the
of Nature (IUCN) code given below:
(d) None of the above (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only

92 Environment
Q81. Which of the following is/are the Q84. Which of the following are the
reasons for the low undergrowth of objective(s) of the “National Mission for
“coniferous forest”? Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem”?
1. Excessively leached and very acidic 1. Study the Himalayan glaciers
soils and associated hydrological
2. The evergreen leaves provide little consequences.
leaf fall for humus formation 2. Assess the vulnerability of the
3. Low temperature slows down the Himalayan region with respect to
rate of decomposition of leaves climate change.
4. Absence of direct sunlight and the 3. Building a quick response
short duration of summer mechanism to preserve and protect
 Select the correct answer using the the ecosystem.
code given below:  Select the correct answer using the
(a) 1 and 4 only code given below:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q85. Which of the following are the special
Q82. Which of the following statements is/ features of the “Arctic tundra”?
are correct regarding ‘ecotones’? 1. There is a layer of permafrost
1. Edge effects can be seen in an or permanent frost with varying
ecotone. thicknesses.
2. Ecotone stands for ecological tone. 2. The permafrost prevents the
3. Ecotone is the sharp line separating penetration of roots, and hence
two ecosystems. trees cannot grow.
4. An ecotone may contain species not 3. Permafrost is melting because of
found in the adjoining ecosystems. global warming.
 Select the correct answer using the 4. The tundra takes time to recover
code given below from any disturbance.
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only  Select that correct answer using the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 formatting:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q83. Which of the following are examples (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
of ecosystem services provided by
nature? Q86. Consider the following statements
1. Cultural services such as recreation about “keystone species”:
2. Regulating services such as flood 1. They play roles affecting many other
control organisms in an ecosystem.
3. Provisioning services such as water 2. They determine the ability of a large
4. Supporting services such as soil number of other species to survive.
formation 3. When a keystone species becomes
 Select the correct answer using the extinct, it could result in a cascade
code given below: of extinctions of other species.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. They are indicator species.
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only is/are correct?
(d) 1 and 4 only (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Environment 93
 Q87. With reference to the 26th UN Climate for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure
Change Conference of the Parties (CDRI), etc.
(COP26), consider the following 2. It will provide a globally consistent
statements: model for the assessment of
1. The 26th Conference of the Parties resilience across all sectors and
(COP 26) of the United Nations geographies.
Framework Convention on Climate Select the correct answer using the
Change (UNFCCC) was held in code given below:
Glasgow, hosted by the UK. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. The Conference included the 16th (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
session of the Conference of the
Parties, serving as the meeting of the Q90. Consider the following statements with
Parties to the Kyoto Protocol, and respect to Climate Change Performance
the third session of the Conference Index (CCPI)2020:
of the Parties, serving as the meeting 1. India has retained its spot in the top
of the Parties to the Paris Agreement. ten best-performing countries in CCPI.
3. The COP26 holds significance as it 2. Slovenia is the highest-ranked country
aims to finalise the Paris rulebook. (the top three places remained empty).
Which of the statements given above 3. CCPI evaluated fifty-seven countries
is/are correct? and the European Union in four
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only categories— GHG emissions,
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 renewable energy, energy use, and
climate policy.
Q88. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above
about the “Graded Response Action is/are correct?
Plan (GRAP)”: (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
1. GRAP is essentially a step-by-step (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
guide for what to do when the air in
Delhi-NCR gets heavily polluted. Q91. Consider the following statements
2. It was approved by the Supreme regarding the “e-Amrit portal”:
Court in 2021. 1. e-Amrit is a web portal on electric
3. It includes extreme measures such vehicles (EVs), launched by India
as shutting down schools and at the COP26 Summit in Glasgow, UK.
implementing the odd-even road- 2. It is a one-stop destination for all
space rationing scheme in case of information on electric vehicles—
severe degradation of air quality. busting myths around the adoption
Which of the statements given above of EVs and complements initiatives
is/are correct? of the government on raising
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only awareness of EVs.
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The portal has been developed
and hosted by NITI Aayog under a
Q89. Which of the following statements is/ collaborative knowledge exchange
are correct about the “Global Resilience programme with the UK government
Index Initiative (GRII)”? and as part of the UK–India Joint
1. It was launched during COP26 by ten Roadmap 2030.
global organisations, including the Which of the statements given above
United Nations Office for Disaster is/are correct?
Risk Reduction (UNDRR), Insurance (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Development Forum (IDF), Coalition (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

94 Environment
Q92. Recently a “Green Hydrogen Microgrid (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Project” was established in Andhra (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Pradesh. Which of the following are the
benefits of green hydrogen? Q95. Identify the zoological park having the
1. It is produced from renewable following salient features.
energy sources. 1. It is the first zoo in the country to
2. It stabilizes the electricity and heat become a member of the World
supply. Association of Zoos and Aquariums
3. It produces minimal greenhouse (WAZA).
gases. 2. It was the world’s first captive
4. It will reduce import dependency on crocodile breeding center, where
fossil fuels. gharials were bred in captivity in 1980.
 Select the correct answer using the  Select the correct answer using the
codes given below: codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) Bannerghatta National Park
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological
Park
Q93. Consider the following statements (c) Sakkarbaug Zoological Garden
regarding the “river dolphin species”: (d) Nandankanan Zoological Park
1. River dolphins are mainly found in
Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers. Q96. With reference to the Kunming
2. They have been declared as Declaration on biodiversity, consider
endangered by the World Wide Fund the following statements:
for nature. 1. It calls for urgent and integrated
3. They are known as indicator species action to reflect biodiversity
as it indicates the status of water considerations in all sectors of the
pollution in the river. global economy.
Which of the statements given above 2. The signatories have committed to
is/are correct? maintaining biodiversity-friendly
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only supply chains.
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 2 only 3. It is a binding international agreement
but not for the least developed nations.
Q94. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above
1. Cropland is defined as ‘’land used is/are correct?
for annual and perennial herbaceous (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only
crops for human consumption, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
forage excluding hay, and biofuel’’.
2. Net primary production (NPP) is Q97. Which of the following is/are natural
defined as the difference between carbon sinks?
the energy fixed by autotrophs and 1. Volcanic eruptions
their respiration. 2. Fossil fuels and sedimentary rocks
3. Agricultural land refers to the 3. Soil
share of land area that is arable, 4. Planktons and algae
under permanent crops, and under  Select the correct answer using the
permanent pastures. codes given below:
Which of the statements given above (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
is/are correct? (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Environment 95
 Q98. Which of the following is/are the impact Q101. Consider the following statements with
of temperature on the water quality? respect to different types of droughts:
1. It influences the amount of oxygen 1. Meteorological drought occurs
that can be dissolved in water. when seasonal rainfall over an area
2. It influences the rate of is less than 25% of its long-term
photosynthesis by algae and other average.
aquatic plants. 2. Hydrological drought is defined as
3. It influences the timing of deficiencies in surface and sub-
reproduction, migration, and surface water supplies leading to a
aestivation of aquatic organisms. lack of water for normal and specific
 Select the correct answer using the needs.
codes given below: 3. Agricultural drought occurs when soil
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only moisture and rainfall are inadequate
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 during the crop growing season,
and it is usually triggered by both
Q99. Consider the following statements meteorological and hydrological
about the “National Interlinking of droughts.
Rivers Authority (NIRA)”: Which of the statements given above
1. NIRA is an autonomous body for is/are correct?
planning, investigation, financing, (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 only
and implementing river interlinking (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
projects in the country.
2. NIRA will be headed by a secretary- Q102. The “Living Planet Index” was recently
rank officer of the Government of in the news. It is released by:
India. (a) UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
3. It will replace the existing National (b) World Wildlife Fund for Nature
Water Development Agency (NWDA) (WWF)
and function as an umbrella body (c) International Union for Conservation
for all river linking projects. of Nature (IUCN)
Which of the statements given above (d) None of these
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only Q103. Consider the following statements
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 about the “National Coal Gasification
Mission”:
Q100. Which of the following statements is/ 1. The government aims to achieve the
are correct about “River Cities Alliance gasification of 100 million tonnes
(RCA)”: (MT) of coal by 2030, and this is the
1. The Ministry of Jal Shakti launched first time that a mission document
the River Cities Alliance (RCA). has been released.
2. RCA is a dedicated platform for 2. Coal gasification is the process
river cities to ideate, discuss, of converting coal into synthesis
and exchange information for the gas (also called syngas), which is
sustainable management of urban a mixture of hydrogen (H2), carbon
rivers. monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide
 Select the correct answer using the (CO2).
code given below: 3. The syngas technology allows the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only conversion of non-mineable coal/
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 lignite into combustible gasses

96 Environment
 through in situ gasifications of the Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole
material. National Park, and Silent Valley.
Which of the statements given above (d) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary,
is/are correct? Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuary,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Bandipur National Park, Nagarahole
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 National Park, and Silent Valley.

Q104. Which of the following are the most Q107. With reference to the Wildlife
likely places to find the snow leopard Protection Act, consider the following
in its natural habitat? statements:
1. Hemis National Park 1. It empowers the Government of India
2. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary to form wildlife advisory boards,
3. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve and wildlife wardens specifies their
4. khangchendzonga National Park powers and duties, etc.
 Select the correct answer using the 2. It provides for licenses for the sale,
code given below: transfer, and possession of some
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only wildlife species.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. It provides for the establishment of
wildlife sanctuaries, national parks,
Q105. Why is there a concern about steel etc.
producing plants? Which of the statements given above
1. They may release sulphur oxides, is/are correct?
nitrogen oxides, and carbon monoxide (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
into the environment. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Fugitive emissions occur during every
stage of the steel manufacturing Q108. Consider the following states:
process causing hazardous 1. Madhya Pradesh
pollution. 2. Maharashtra
3. They may release particulate matter 3. Bihar
as a pollutant. In which of the above states do ‘tropical
 Select the correct answer using the deciduous forests’ occur?
codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q109. Consider the following statements
Q106. Which of the following are in Nilgiri about “keystone species”:
Biosphere Reserve? 1. They play roles affecting many other
(a) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, organisms in an ecosystem.
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary 2. They determine the ability of a large
Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole number of other species to survive.
National Park, and Silent Valley. 3. When a keystone species becomes
(b) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, extinct, it could result in a cascade
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary of extinctions of other species.
Bandipur National Park, Nagarahole 4. They are indicator species.
National Park, and Shendurney Which of the statements given above
Wildlife Sanctuary. is/are correct?
(c) Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 only
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary, (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Environment 97
 Q110. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Q114. In the context of solving pollution
Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the problems, what is/are the advantage/
news in the context of : advantages of the bioremediation
(a) The European countries made technique?
pledges to rehabilitate refugees 1. It is a technique for cleaning up
from the war-affected Middle East. pollution by enhancing the same
(b) Plan of action outlined by the biodegradation process that occurs
countries of the world to combat in nature.
climate change. 2. Any contaminant with heavy metals
(c) Capital contributed by the member such as cadmium and lead can
countries in the establishment of be readily and completely treated
the Asian Infrastructure Investment by bioremediation using micro-
Bank. organisms.
(d) Plan of action outlined by the 3. Genetic engineering can be used to
countries of the world regarding create microorganisms specifically
Sustainable Development. designed for bioremediation.
 Select the correct answer using the
Q111. Consider the following statements code given below:
regarding ‘Red Sanders’: (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It is a tree species found in the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
North-east part of India.
2. It is one of the most important trees Q115. Which of the following is/are the
in the tropical rainforest areas of possible consequences of heavy sand
South India. mining in riverbeds?
Which of the statements given above 1. Increased salinity in the river.
is/are correct? 2. Pollution of groundwater.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Lowering of the water-table.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2  Select the correct answer using the
code given below :
Q112. The ‘Operation Save KURMA’ is (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
sometimes seen in the news in the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
context of
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna Q116. How is the National Green Tribunal
(b) Operation for maintenance of Tiger (NGT) different from the Central
Reserves Pollution Control Board
(c) Security of Indigenous Tribes 1. The NGT was established by an act,
(d) Combat with illegal trade of Turtles whereas the CPCB was created by an
executive order of the Government.
Q113. From the ecological point of view, 2. The NGT provides environmental
which one of the following assumes justice and helps reduce the burden
importance in being a good link of litigation in the higher courts, and
between the Eastern Ghats and the orders of NGT are final and can not
Western Ghats? be appealed In any court.
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve  Select the correct answer using the
(b) Nallamala Forest code given below:
(c) Nagarhole National Park (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

98 Environment
Q117. Which of the following are parts of (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve? (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney
Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Q121. Consider the following statements:
Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve 1. Genetically modified (GM) mustard
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and is the first transgenic crop approved
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and by the Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Silent Valley National Park Committee (GEAC).
(c) Kaundinya, GundlaBrahmeswaram 2. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; Committee (GEAC) is the apex body
and Mukurthi National Park constituted under the Ministry of
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Environment, Forest and Climate
Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar- Change.
Srisailam Tiger Reserve Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q118. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
regarding ‘Artificial Leaf’: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. It absorbs sunlight to generate
carbon fuel from water. Q122. Which of the following is/are considered
2. It is a wireless device that mimics as ‘adaptations’ in mangroves to
plant leaves to produce energy using cope with the harsh environmental
water and sunlight. conditions?
Which of the statements given above 1. Breathing roots
is/are correct? 2. Vivipary
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Stilt roots
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2  Select the correct answer using the
codes given below:
Q119. Coral reefs are found in which of the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
following places in India? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Palk bay
2. Gulf of Kutch Q123. Arrange the following sources of
3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands freshwater in ascending order of their
4. Netrani island percentage contribution to the total
5. Gulf of Mannar available water:
 Select the correct options using the 1. Atmosphere
codes given below: 2. Ice-caps
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 3. Groundwater
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 4. Rivers
 Select the correct answer using the
Q120. How does the human body acclimatize codes given below:
to ‘altitude sickness’? (a) 4-1-3-2 (b) 3-2-1-4
1. By increasing the red blood cells (c) 2-4-3-1 (d) 1-3-2-4
(RBCs) production.
2. By decreasing the breathing rate. Q124. Which of the following committees
3. By decreasing the binding affinity of are related to “Ecologically Sensitive
haemoglobin. Areas”?
Which of the statements given above 1. Kasturirangan Committee
is/are correct? 2. Vijay Kelkar Committee

Environment 99
 3. Pronab Sen Committee Q128. Which of the following statements
Select the correct answer using the related to the food chains is/are not
codes given below: correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. The arctic landscape has a much
(b) 2 and 3 only shorter food chain than a temperate
(c) 1 and 3 only or tropical one.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. 1% of the energy stored in the
organic matter of each trophic level
Q125. Which of following statement(s) is/are is converted to organic matter at the
correct about the SECURE Himalayas next trophic level.
Project ? 3. In all the food chains, the source of
1. The project will work on snow energy is living plant biomass.
leopard smuggling and poaching.  Select the correct answer using the
2. It is implemented by the Government code given below:
of India in partnership with Food and (a) 1 and 2 only
Agriculture Organisation. (b) 2 and 3 only
 Select the correct answer using the (c) 2 only
codes given below: (d) None of the above
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q129. Consider the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 related to the processes occurring in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 nutrient cycles:
1. Nitrogen fixation occurs only by
Q126. Which of the following components is/ prokaryotic organisms which fix
are included in the ecosystem? molecular nitrogen into ammonia.
1. Calcium 2. Nitrification is the conversion of
2. Protein ammonium ions to nitrite.
3. Hydrogen 3. Decomposition of organic matter
4. Phosphorus occurs fast in highly wet and heat
 Select the correct answer using the conditions.
code given below: Which of the above statements is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
Q127. Ecological relationships describe (c) All of the above
the interactions between and among (d) None of the above
organisms within their environment.
Which of the following are the Q130. Which of the following denotes an
negative interactions among the ecotone region?
species? 1. Grasslands
1. Commensalism 2. Estuary
2. Herbivory 3. Mangroves
3. Predation 4. Coral Reefs
4. Amensalism  Select the correct answer using the
 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

100 Environment
Q131. Consider the following pairs: Q134. Which of the following are associated
1. Mutualism : Both species with the effects of noise pollution on
benefit human health?
2. Amensalism : One species
1. Effects on the nervous system
benefits,
the other is 2. High blood pressure
unaffected 3. Effects on lungs
3. Commensalism : One species is 4. Anxiety
harmed, the other  Select the correct answer using the
is unaffected code given below:
Which of the pairs given is/are correct? (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Q135. Which of the following methods of
Q132. Consider the following statements reducing air pollution is not correctly
about the effects of aerosols: stated?
1. They affect the atmospheric (a) IISC Bangalore has developed a
chemical composition. PUSA bio decomposer that converts
2. They can enhance visibility. crop residue into manure in 15-20
3. Impacts on air quality and human days.
health (e.g. aerosols can cause (b) UNDP promotes start-up-led
damage to the heart and lungs). innovations like filter-less retrofit
4. They serve as nuclei for cloud devices to cut down the particulate
droplets or ice crystals in ice clouds. matter at the source level.
5. The atmospheric aerosols play (c) Breathing root technology is
a key role in the regional/global developed to improve indoor air
climate system by scattering and quality by purifying the air.
absorbing incoming solar radiation (d) UNDP & the University of Nottingham
and modifying the cloud formations, has developed a GeoAI platform to
and impacting atmospheric warming identify non-compliant brick kilns.
and glacier retreat. The platform has mapped over
Which of the statements given above 37,000 brick manufacturing units
is/are correct? across the Indo-Gangetic plains.
(a) 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only Q136. In which of the following alternate
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only ways can fly ash be used.
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only 1. As a substitute material for portland
cement, sand.
Q133. Consider the following statements 2. Fly-ash pellets can replace normal
with respect to the types of smog. aggregate in the concrete mixture.
1. London-type smog: Occurs at very 3. Embankments and other structural
cold temperatures. fills.
2. Los Angeles type or Photochemical 4. Stabilisation of soft soils.
Smog: Forms on sunny days and is 5. Road sub-base construction.
the result of emissions from traffic.  Select the correct answer using the
Which of the statements given above code below:
is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Environment 101
 Q137. Consider the following statements Q140. With reference to the United Nations
about the Stockholm Convention: Environment Assembly (UNEA),
1. Stockholm Convention is a global consider the following statements?
treaty to protect human health and 1. The United Nations Environment
the environment from POPs. Program (UNEP) is the governing
2. It is not legally binding. body of the UNEA.
3. India ratified the Stockholm 2. The United Nations Environment
Convention in 2020. Assembly is the world’s highest
Which of the statements given above decision-making body in the context
is/are correct? of the environment.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements is/are
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Q138. Which one of the following statements (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
is not correct with reference to the
Basel Convention? Q141. Consider the following statements :
(a) The Basel Convention on the Control 1. United Nations Framework Convention
of Transboundary Movements of on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal 2. United Nations Environment Program
is a multilateral treaty aimed at (UNEP)
suppressing environmentally and 3. United Nations Convention on
socially detrimental hazardous Biodiversity (UNCBD)
waste trading patterns. 4. United Nations Convention to
(b) It was adopted in, 1989 and came Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
into force in 1992 and, to date, has Which of the above are included under
been signed by 187 countries. the “Three Sisters Convention”?
(c) India became a party to the Basel (a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Convention in 2020. (b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) Basel Convention obliges its Parties (c) 2, 3, and 4 only
to ensure that such wastes are (d) 1, 2, and 4 only
managed and disposed of in an
environmentally sound manner. Q142. Which of the following statements is/
are correct about The Nagoya Protocol?
Q139. Consider the following pairs: 1. It was adopted on 29 October 2010
1. Ramsar convention: Conservation of in Nagoya, Japan as a supplementary
wetlands agreement to the Convention on
2. Bonn convention: Conservation of Biological Diversity.
migratory species 2. The objective is the fair and equitable
3. Vienna convention: Protection of the sharing of benefits arising from the
ozone layer utilisation of genetic resources, thereby
4. Cartagena protocol: Trans-boundary contributing to the conservation and
movement of hazardous waste sustainable use of biodiversity.
5. Basel convention: Safe handling of  Select the correct answer using the
living modified organisms code given below:
Which of the above is/are correctly (a) 1 only
matched? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (d) Neither 1 nor 2

102 Environment
Q143. Which of the following statements Q145. Which of the following statements is not
is/are correct about the Nairobi correct for the Ramsar convention, 1971?
Convention? (a) It is an international
1. It is a partnership between intergovernmental treaty, signed
governments, civil society and the in Ramsar (Iran) to preserve the
private sector, working towards a ecological character of selected
prosperous Western Indian Ocean wetlands across the globe.
Region with healthy rivers, coasts, (b) India is not a party to the convention.
and oceans. (c) It aims to develop a global network
2. It entered into force in 1996 and of wetlands for the conservation of
is part of UNEP’s Regional Seas biological diversity and for sustaining
Programme. human life.
3. The Convention offers a regional (d) The wetlands declared as Ramsar
legal framework and forum for inter- sites are protected under strict
governmental discussions that lead guidelines of the convention.
to a better understanding of regional
environmental problems and the Q146. This species is found in Arunachal
strategies needed to address them. Pradesh in India. Its presence has
4. The Mangrove Network, the Coral also been reported in Sikkim. Apart
Reef Task Force and Marine Turtle from India, it is also found in Bhutan,
Task Force are associated with the Myanmar, and China. Its scientific name
convention. is Budorcas taxicolor. In the Red List
5. India is not a party to the convention. of IUCN, it is placed in the ‘vulnerable’
 Select the correct answer using the category. A special feature of this
code given below. species is that it contains a mixture of
(a) 1 and 3 only organs of different animals.
(b) 2 and 4 only The species explained in the above
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only passage is:
(d) None of the above (a) Mishmi Takin
(b) Nicobar Megapode
Q144. Consider the following statements: (c) Northern River Terrapin
1. Under the Ramsar Convention, a (d) Hoolock gibbon
conference of the concerned parties
is held after every two years. Q147. Which of the following states is an
2. The body conference of parties abode to the Sangai deer?
governing the Biodiversity (a) Himachal Pradesh
Conference meets every year. (b) Uttar Pradesh
3. To prevent desertification, a meeting (c) Manipur
is held every two years under the (d) Sunderbans
United Nations Convention.
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Environment 103
 Q148. Which amongst the following species Which of the statements given above
are categorised as critically endangered is/are correct?
by IUCN? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Kondana rat (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Pygmy hog
3. Sumatran rhinoceros Q152. Which of the following are the
4. Olive ridley turtles characteristic features of invasive
 Select the correct answer using the species?
code given below: 1. High reproduction rate
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 2. High dispersal ability
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only 3. Phenotypic plasticity
4. High speed of nitrogen fixation
Q149. Consider the statements regarding  Select the correct answer using the
Olive Ridley turtles: code given below:
1. They inhabit the cold waters of the (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian oceans. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. They are categorised as ‘endangered’
in the IUCN Red List. Q153. Which of the following is/are correct
3. The most severe threat they face is about Gene Sanctuaries?
the accidental killing of adult turtles 1. A gene sanctuary is an area where
through entanglement in trawl nets plants are conserved.
of seafarers. 2. It includes both biosphere reserves
Which of the statements given above as well as national parks.
is/are correct? 3. India has set up its first gene
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only sanctuary in the Garo Hills of
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Meghalaya for wild relatives of citrus
4. It is a cheap method of germplasm
Q150. Which of the following states is conservation.
an abode to all the three types of  Select the correct option from the
crocodiles; namely, the gharial, the codes given below:
mugger, and the saltwater crocodile? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 ,2 and 3 only
(a) Himachal Pradesh (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Odisha Q154. Consider the following statements
(d) West Bengal regarding the Peatlands:
1. They are a heterogeneous mixture of
Q151. Consider the following statements plant material (mosses, humus, etc) that
about lichens: have accumulated in a water-saturated
1. These are useful bioindicators for air area and are only partially decomposed
pollution, especially sulphur dioxide due to the absence of oxygen.
pollution. 2. Peatland covers 3% of the global
2. They are used to measure toxic land surface and is the largest
elemental pollutants and radioactive natural terrestrial carbon store.
metals. 3. They are found in permafrost regions
3. These are plant forms that combine towards the poles and at high
algae and fungi in a single symbiotic altitudes, in coastal areas, beneath
organism. tropical rainforests, and in boreal
(taiga) forests.

104 Environment
 Which of the above-given statements Q159. Hydrofluorocarbons were banned
is/are correct? under the Kigali Agreement because:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only 1. It was responsible for ozone
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 depletion.
2. It was responsible for global
Q155. Plant species with a wide range of warming.
genetic distribution evolve into a local  Select the correct answer using the
population known as: code given below:
(a) Ecotype (b) Population (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Ecosystem (d) Biome (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q156. Consider the following statements Q160. The Protected Area, located in Western
in regard to the Similipal biosphere India, is one of the richest bird areas
reserve: in the world and is known for nesting
1. It derives its name from the ‘Simul’ of resident birds and visiting migratory
(silk cotton) tree. birds including water birds. A Ramsar
2. It is situated in the northern part of site it is
Bihar’s Mayurbhanj district. (a) Betla National Park
3. It is part of UNESCO World Network (b) Dachigam National Park
of Biosphere Reserve. (c) Keoladeo National Park
Which of the statements given above (d) Sanjay Gandhi National Park
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Q161. The Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Landscape (KKL) is a vital site classified
as a critical region by the WWF (India).
Q157. Which of the following wildlife In this context, consider the following
sanctuary is referred to as the ‘the statements:
Amazon of the East’? 1. It is situated within the Indo-Burma
(a) Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary. Biodiversity hotspot.
(b) Bura-Chapori Wildlife Sanctuary. 2. The area is critical for the protection
(c) Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary. and conservation of elephants,
(d) Dehing-Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary. tigers, and rhinoceros.
Which of the statements given above
Q158. Which of the following pairs indicate is/are correct?
India’s largest and smallest tiger (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
reserves? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) MundanThurai and Namdapha Tiger
Reserve Q162. Consider the following statements
(b) Nagarjuna Sagar and Bor Tiger related to the Wildlife Sanctuaries:
Reserve 1. A Wildlife Sanctuary is defined by the
(c) Sundarbans Tiger Reserve and State Government via a Notification.
Dudhwa Tiger Reserve 2. No alteration of the boundaries of
(d) Jim Corbett Tiger Reserve and a Wildlife Sanctuary shall be made
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve except on the Bill passed by the
Legislature (Assembly) of the State.
3. Some restricted human activities are
allowed under it with the permission
of Chief Wildlife Warden of the State.

Environment 105
 Which of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the
is/are correct? code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) All of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q163. 
With reference to Ethanol Blended
Petrol (EBP) Program in India, consider Q166. Consider the following statements with
the following statements: respect to the Climate Adaptation and
1. The Government has introduced a Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Project:
free market pricing mechanism for 1. The project will build resilience to
procurement of ethanol under the climate threats and disasters by
EBP Programme. sharing regional data and knowledge.
2. The government has allowed the 2. It will help in developing regional
procurement of ethanol produced standards and guidelines for
from cellulosic and lignocellulosic infrastructure and promoting
feedstock. climate-resilient policies and
 Select the correct option using the investments.
code given below: 3. The project will help develop a public
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only platform to inform climate planning
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 and investments but will not fund
technology to support resilience in
Q164. What is the major difference(s) in the South Asia.
standards between the existing BS-IV Which of the statements given above
and new BS-VI auto fuel norms? is/are not correct?
1. Reduced Sulphur content in BS-VI (a) 1 only
2. Inclusion of particulate matter (PM) (b) 2 only
emissions from Petrol Vehicles in (c) 3 only
BS-VI, which was not included under (d) None of the above
BS-IV.
3. Inclusion of CO₂ emissions in BS-VI, [Link] of the following is not correct
which were ignored under BS-IV. about the World Meteorological
 Select the correct answer using the Organisation (WMO)?
code given below (a) It is an intergovernmental
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only organisation with a membership of
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 193 member states and territories.
(b) It is the specialised agency of the
Q165. Recently, the government of India United Nations for meteorology
launched the E-100 project to promote (weather and climate), operational
bioethanol. Which of the following is hydrology, and related geophysical
the benefits of ethanol blending in sciences.
petrol? (c) India is not a member.
1. Ethanol molecules comprises (d) It is a member of the United Nations
oxygen and carbon which allows the Development Group.
engine to completely combust fuel
which results in fewer emissions. Q168. Which of the following is not correct
2. Ethanol-blended fuel keeps the about the UNFCCC?
fuel system clean for optimal (a) Established in 1992, UNFCCC acts
performance as it does not leave as a framework for international
gummy deposits. cooperation to combat climate

106 Environment
 change by limiting average global 3. The industrialised nations agree
temperature increases and the under the convention to financially
resulting climate change and coping support climate change activities in
with impacts. developing countries.
(b) The UNFCCC is a “Rio Convention”, Which of the statements given above
one of two opened for signature at is/are correct?
the “Rio Earth Summit” in 1992. Its (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
sister Rio Conventions are the UN (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Convention on Biological Diversity
(UNCBD) and the Convention to Q171. The Global Environment Facility provides
Combat Desertification (UNCCD). funding to assist developing countries in
(c) It entered into force in March meeting the objectives of international
2000. Today, it has near-universal environmental conventions. The GEF
membership. The 197 countries that serves as a “financial mechanism” to
have ratified the convention are which of the following conventions?
called Parties to the convention. 1. Convention on Biological Diversity
(d) The UNFCCC secretariat is located 2. United Nations Framework
in Bonn, Germany. Convention on Climate Change
3. Stockholm Convention on Persistent
Q169. Which of the following statements is/ Organic Pollutants
are not correct in the context of the 4. UN Convention to Combat
Green Climate Fund, which is often in Desertification
the discussion? 5. Vienna Convention on Ozone
1. The decision to set up the Green Depletion
Climate Fund was taken at the Bali  Select the correct answer using the
Conference. code given below:
2. The Green Climate Fund Board has (a) 1,2,3 and 4 only (b) 1,2,3 and 5 only
been created to oversee this fund. (c) 2,3,4 and 5 only (d) 1,2,3,4 and 5
3. The United Nations has been made
the final trustee of the Green Climate Q172. Which of the following statements is/
Fund. are correct about “Biological Oxygen
 Select the correct answer using the Demand (BOD)”?
code given below: 1. Water pollution caused by organic
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only wastes is measured in terms of
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
2. BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen
Q170. With reference to the ‘United Nations needed by bacteria in decomposing
Framework Convention on Climate the organic wastes present in water.
Change (UNFCCC), consider the 3. It is expressed in milligrams of
following statements: oxygen per litre of water.
1. It aims to prevent dangerous  Select the correct answer using the
anthropogenic interference with code given below:
the climate system by stabilising (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
greenhouse gas concentrations. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It places the heaviest burden
on fighting climate change on Q173. Global Carbon Project (GCP) seeks to :
industrialised nations. 1. Quantify global carbon emission and
their causes

Environment 107
 2. Sequester global carbon generation Q177. ‘Mycoremediation’ is a bioremediation
using geo-engineering technique that uses which of the
Select the correct answer using the following living organisms to break
code given below: down contaminants?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) Bacteria (b) Algae
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Fungi` (d) Amoeba

Q174. Global Environment Facility(GEF) Q178. Biomedical wstes are divided into four
colour categories. Which of the following
serves as a financial mechanism for the categories are correctly matched?
following conventions/protocols. 1. Yellow    : Cortaminated plastic
1. UN Convention to Combat bags and bottles
Desertification 2. Red/Orange : Humananatomical
2. Stockholm Convention on Persistent waste and animal
Organic Pollutants (POPs) anatomical waste
3. White     : Scapels, blades, and
3. Minamata Convention on Mercury needles
 Select the correct answer using the 4. Blue     : Broken Glassware
code given below: or metallic body
(a) 1 only implant
(b) 1 and 2 only  Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q175. Which of the following may be the Q179. With reference to air pollution, which
cause of lead poisoning? of the following is/are secondary
1. Batteries pollutants?
2. Cosmetics 1. Carbon Monoxide
3. Paints 2. Ground Level Ozone
4. Ceramic wares 3. Sulphur dioxide
 Select the correct answer using the 4. Acid Rain
code given below:  Select the correct answer using the
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only code given below:
(b) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q180. Which of the following fuels can be
Q176. About the freshwater aquatic derived from the algae?
ecosystem, which of the following 1. Biodiesel
belongs to the lentic category? 2. Butanol
1. Lake 3. Gasoline
2. Marshes 4. Methane
3. River 5. Jet Fuel
4. Spring 6. Vegetable Oil
 Select the correct answer using the  Select the correct answer using the
code given below: code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

108 Environment
Q181. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, Q184. In the context of solving pollution
which of the following statements is/ problems, consider the following
are correct? statements about the bioremediation
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas technique:
that are declared under the Wildlife 1. It is a technique for treating
(Protection) Act, 1972. contaminated water, soil, and
2. The purpose of the declaration of subsurface material.
Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit 2. Bioremediation cannot wholly treat
all kinds of human activities in those heavy metals such as cadmium and
zones except agriculture. lead.
 Select the correct answer using the 3. Genetic engineering can be used to
code given below: create microorganisms specifically
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only designed for bioremediation.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
Q182. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
about National Clean Air Programme (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(NCAP):
1. Central ministries, state Q185. Consider the following statements:
governments, and local bodies 1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition
are important partners in this (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived
programme. Climate Pollutants is a unique
2. It is a part of the National Action initiative of G7 countries.
Plan for Climate Change (NAPCC). 2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black
Which of the statements given above carbon, and hydrofluorocarbons.
is/are correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q183. Consider the following statements
regarding “Trade Related Analysis Q186. With reference to an organization
of Fauna and Flora in Commerce known as ‘Birdlife International’, which
(TRAFFIC)”: of the following statements is/are
1. TRAFFIC is a non-governmental correct?
body working in Asia and Australia 1. It is a Global Partnership of
only. Conservation Organizations.
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure 2. It aims to find, monitor, and protect
that trade in wild plants and animals birds across the world and various
is not a threat to the conservation of other wildlife.
nature. 3. It identifies the sites referred to as
Which of the statements given above ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
is/are correct?  Select the correct answer using the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only code given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

Environment 109
 Q187. Which of the following regions of India Q191. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and
has a combination of mangrove forest, ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’,
evergreen forest, and deciduous forest? sometimes seen in the news. They are
(a) Coastal Andhra Pradesh related to:
(b) South-West Bengal (a) Constitutional reforms
(c) Southern Rajasthan (b) Ganga Action Plan
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) Linking of rivers
Q188. Which one of the following is associated (d) Protection of Western Ghats
with the issue of control and phasing out of
the use of ozone-depleting substances? Q192. Consider the following statements
(a) Kigali Amendment regarding the ‘Agricultural Photovoltaic
(b) Montreal Protocol (Agri-PV)’:
(c) Both (a) and (b) 1. Agricultural photovoltaic is an
(d) Nagoya Protocol evolving practice in sustainable
development that combines the
Q189. Which of the following best describes/ production of food and energy in the
describe the aim of the ‘Green India same land at the same time.
Mission’ of the Government of India? 2. Cochin International Airport Ltd
1. Incorporating environmental (CIAL) has developed the country’s
benefits and costs into the Union first large-scale Agri-voltaic
and State Budgets, implementing farming.
the green accounting. 3. PV-module are installed in the Agri
2. Launching the second green voltaic system (AVS) inclination
revolution to enhance agricultural angle equal to the latitude of the
output to ensure food security to place of installation.
one and all in the future. Which of the statements given above
3. Aimed at protecting, restoring, and is/are correct?
enhancing India’s diminishing forest (a) 1 and 3 only
cover and responding for climate (b) 1 and 2 only
change through a combination of (c) 3 only
adaptation and mitigation measures. (d) 1, 2 and 3
 Select the correct answer using the
Q193. Arrange the following national parks in
code given below:
a North to South direction:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Bandipur
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Silent Valley
3. Rajaji
Q190. Consider the following statements:
4. Bandhavgarh
1. The Sustainable Development Goals
 Select the correct answer using the
were first proposed in 1972 by a global
codes given below:
think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
(a) 4-3-1-2
2. The Sustainable Development Goals
(b) 1-3-4-2
are a collection of 10 global goals
(c) 3-4-1-2
set by the United Nations and need
(d) 2-3-1-4
to be achieved by 2022.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

110 Environment
Q194. Which of the following statements is/ 4. Kachchh
are correct about the Dam Safety Act, 5. Khangchendzonga
2021? Select the correct answer using the
1. It proposes to help all states codes given below:
and UTs adopt uniform dam (a) 4-3-1-2-5
safety procedures and set up an (b) 1-3-4-2-5
institutional mechanism to ensure (c) 3-5-4-1-2
the safe functioning of specific (d) 2-3-1-5-4
dams in the country.
2. It provides for adequate surveillance, Q197. The ‘Climate Change Performance
inspection, operation, and Index (CCPI)’ report is seen often in the
maintenance of all the large dams in news. It is released by:
the country to prevent dam failure (a) Germanwatch
related disasters. (b) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
 Select the correct answer using the (c) International Union for Conservation
codes given below: of Nature (IUCN)
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) None of the above
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q198. Consider the following statements
Q195. Consider the following statements regarding the “Polavaram Irrigation
regarding “development induced Project”:
displacement (DID)”: 1. Upon completion, it will displace the
1. It is characterized by the permanent highest number of people in India’s
relocation of all households within history of such projects, nearly 1
a geographic area due to the lakh families in Andhra Pradesh.
construction of infrastructure 2. Polavaram Irrigation Project is to be
projects. built on the Godavari River.
2. Around 50 million people have Which of the statements given above
been displaced in India due to is/are correct?
development projects over 50 years. (a) 1 only
3. A study of 54 large dams by the Indian (b) 2 only
Institute of Public Administration (c) Both 1 and 2
concluded that the average number (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of people displaced by a large dam
is 44,182. Q199. Which of the following statements are
Which of the statements given above correct about “Black carbon”?
is/are correct? 1. It is a solid particle or aerosol that
(a) 1 and 3 only contributes to the warming of the
(b) 3 only atmosphere.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. It is commonly known as soot.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Black carbon warms the earth by
absorbing heat in the atmosphere
Q196. Arrange the following biosphere
and by reducing albedo.
reserves in the North to South
4. It is the strongest absorber of
direction:
sunlight and heats the air directly.
1. Seshachalam
 Select the correct answer using the
2. Agasthyamalai
code given below:
3. Cold Desert

Environment 111
 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only accounting for two million deaths
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 and $3.64 trillion in losses.
2. More than 91% of all deaths occurred
[Link] the following Ramsar Sites in in developing countries.
the west to the east direction: 3. The number of disasters had risen
1. Deepor Beel by a factor of five. But the number
2. Chilika of deaths decreased.
3. Renuka Which of the statements given above
4. Thol is/are correct?
 Select the correct answer using the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
code given below: (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 4-3-1-2
(b) 1-3-4-2 [Link] of the following national parks
(c) 4-3-2-1 have ‘tropical vegetation’?
(d) 2-3-1-4 1. Khangchendzonga
2. Mudumalai
Q201. Consider the following pairs: 3. Simlipal
Enviornment laws   Key provisions  Select the correct answer using the
1. Enviornment : Forms code given below:
(Protection) Act, National (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
1986 Board for (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Wildlife to
protect and Q204. Arrange the following national parks
improve the in a North to South Direction:
enviornment 1. Nagarahole National Park
2. Forest (Conservation) : Declaration 2. Silent Valley National Park
Act, 1980 and 3. Corbett National Park
Protection 4. Bandhavgarh National Park
of Wildlife  Select the correct answer using the
Sanctuaries code given below:
and National (a) 4-3-2-1 (b) 1-3-4-2
Parks (c) 3-4-1-2 (d) 2-1-3-4
3. Wildlife Protection : Prohibits the
Act, 1972 hunting of Q205. Arrange the following biosphere
wild animals reserves in a west to east direction.
Which of the pairs given above is/are 1. Simlipal
not correctly matched? 2. Nokrek
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only 3. Cold Desert
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Rann of Kutch
5. Dihang-Dibang
[Link] the following statements  Select the correct answer using the
regarding the findings of the ‘Atlas of code given below:
mortality and economic losses from (a) 4-3-1-2-5 (b) 1-3-4-2-5
weather, climate, and water extremes (c) 5-2-1-3-4 (d) 2-3-1-5-4
1970-2019’:
1. There were more than 11,000
disasters attributed to weather,
climate and water-related hazards,

112 Environment
2 Environment: Explanations

Q1. Answer: (a) Q3. Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: The Graded Response Protected Areas
Action Plan to control air pollution in the Statement 1 is correct: Under the Wildlife
National Capital Region was notified by the (Protection) Act, 1972, National Parks
Government of India. are defined by the state government via
Statement 2 is not correct: The Environmental notification. Whenever it appears to the
Pollution Control Board (EPCA) is the State Government that an area, whether
implementing agency of the plan. within a sanctuary or not, is, by reason of its
ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological,
Q2. Answer: (d) or zoological association of importance,
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESAs): ESAs are defined needed to be constituted as a National Park
as those areas that are ecologically and for the purpose of protecting & propagating or
economically important but vulnerable even developing wildlife therein or its environment,
to mild disturbances and hence demand it may, by notification, declare its intention
careful management. Therefore ‘ecologically to constitute such area as a National Park.
and economically important’ areas are those The notification shall specify, as nearly as
areas that are biologically and ecologically possible, the situation and limits of such an
‘rich’, ‘valuable’ and or ‘unique’ and are largely area.
irreplaceable if destroyed. Statement 2 is not correct: Biosphere reserves
Statement 1 is not correct: Section 3 of the are areas comprising terrestrial, marine and
Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (EPA) coastal ecosystems. Each reserve promotes
gives power to the Central Government, solutions reconciling the conservation of
i.e. the Union Ministry of Environment and biodiversity with its sustainable use, including
Forests, to take all measures that it feels are all species of flora and fauna.
necessary for protecting and improving the Statement 3 is correct:A wildlife sanctuary
quality of the environment and to prevent can be declared to conserve a few specific
and control environmental pollution. To species of flora and fauna. The difference
meet this objective, the Central Government between a national park and a sanctuary
can restrict areas in which any industries, is that no human activity is allowed inside
operations or processes or class of industries, a national park, while limited activities are
operations or processes shall not be carried permitted within the sanctuary. Certain
out or shall be carried out subject to certain activities which are regulated in sanctuaries,
safeguards. Thus the government came up such as grazing of livestock, are prohibited in
with the concept of Eco-Sensitive Zones. National parks.
Statement 2 is not correct: The purpose
of declaring Eco-sensitive Zones around Q4. Answer: (d)
National Parks and Sanctuaries is to create Statement 1 is correct : It is an international
some kind of “Shock Absorber” for the agreement between governments. Because
Protected Areas. They would also act as a the trade in wild animals and plants
transition zone from areas of high protection crosses borders between countries, the
to areas involving lesser protection. effort to regulate it requires international
It does not imply the prohibition of all kinds cooperation to safeguard certain species
of human activities. from overexploitation.

Environment: Explanations 113

 Statement 2 is correct: Although CITES is There are two types of smog:
legally binding on the Parties – in other words, (1) Classical smog occurs in a cool, humid
they have to implement the Convention climate. It is a mixture of smoke, fog
– it does not take the place of national and sulphur dioxide. Chemically it is a
laws. Rather it provides a framework to be reducing mixture, and so it is also called
respected by each Party, which has to adopt reducing smog.
its own domestic legislation to ensure that (2) Photochemical smog has a high
CITES is implemented at the national level. concentration of oxidising agents and is,
Statement 3 is correct: CITES was drafted as therefore, called oxidising smog.
a result of a resolution adopted at a meeting Statement 2 is correct. Photochemical smog
of members of IUCN. It was adopted in 1963. occurs in warm, dry and sunny climates.
The main components of the photochemical
Q5. Answer: (b) smog result from the action of sunlight on
Option (b) is correct: It is a United Nations unsaturated hydrocarbons and nitrogen
treaty multilateral treaty signed in 1998 and oxides produced by automobiles and
came into effect in 2004. It covers pesticides, factories.
and industrial chemicals that have been Statement 3 is correct. Many techniques are
banned or severely restricted for health or used to control or reduce the formation of
environmental reasons by Parties and which photochemical smog. If we control the primary
have been notified by Parties for inclusion in precursors of photochemical smog, such as
the PIC procedure Convention creates legally NO2 and hydrocarbons, and the secondary
binding obligations for the implementation of precursors, such as ozone and PAN, the
the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure It photochemical smog will automatically be
built on the voluntary PIC procedure, initiated reduced.
by UNEP and FAO in 1989 and ceased in 2006. • Usually, catalytic converters are used in
automobiles, which prevent the release of
Q6. Answer: (a) nitrogen oxide and hydrocarbons into the
Option (a) is correct: Alpha diversity-It refers atmosphere and thus help in controlling
to the diversity within a particular area or the formation of photochemical smog.
ecosystem and is usually expressed by the • Certain plants, e.g. Pinus, Juniparus,
number of species (i.e., species richness) in Quercus, Pyrus and Vitis, can metabolize
that ecosystem. nitrogen oxide, and therefore, their
Beta diversity-It is a comparison of diversity plantation could help in controlling the
between ecosystems, usually measured as formation of photochemical smog.
the change in the number of species between Photochemical smog is a type of smog
the ecosystems. produced when ultraviolet light from the
Gamma diversity-It is a measure of the sun reacts with nitrogen oxides in the
overall diversity of the different ecosystems atmosphere. It is visible as a brown haze and
within a region. is most prominent during the morning and
Genetic diversity-Genetic diversity is the afternoon, especially in densely populated,
total number of genetic characteristics in warm cities.
the genetic makeup of a species.
Q8. Answer: (d)
Q7. Answer: (d) Option (d) is correct: Under N.A.M.P., four
Statement 1 is correct. Classical smog/ air pollutants viz ., Sulphur Dioxide (SO2),
London/Sulphurous smog is called reducing Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Respirable
smog, while Photochemical smog is called Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10)
oxidising smog. and Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5) have

114 Environment: Explanations

been identified for regular monitoring at all use of arsenical fungicides, herbicides
the locations. and insecticides in agriculture, and wood
The monitoring of meteorological parameters preservatives.
such as wind speed and wind direction, Arsenic is a semimetal or metalloid: its
relative humidity (RH) and temperature were properties lie between those of metals and
also integrated with the monitoring of air those of non-metals. It occurs naturally on
quality. the earth and in the seas. It is odourless
and tasteless. Arsenic is an element (As)
Q9. Answer: (d) that occurs in the earth’s crust-rock, soil,
Option (d) is correct: As per United Nations all-natural sources of exposure, or can be
Convention for Combating Desertification traced to deep water brines used to produce
(UNCCD), Desertification is defined as “land oil and natural gas. Environmental sources
degradation in arid, semi-arid and dry sub- of arsenic stem from the continuing use
humid areas resulting from various factors of its compounds and pesticides, from its
including climatic variations and human unintended release during the mining of
activities” (UNCCD, 1994). Here ‘‘land’’ means gold and lead and from the combustion of
the terrestrial bio-productive system’’ and coal, of which it is a contaminant. Industrial
“land degradation” means “reduction or loss effluents also contribute arsenic to water
of biological or economic productivity and in some areas. It is widely thought that
complexity of rainfed cropland, irrigated naturally occurring arsenic dissolves out of
cropland, or range, pasture, forest and certain rock formations when groundwater
woodlands resulting from land uses or from levels drop significantly. Surface arsenic-
a process or combination of processes, related pollutants enter the groundwater
including processes arising from human systems by gradually moving with the
activities and habitation patterns. Causes of flow of groundwater from rains, melting
land degradation are vegetation degradation, of snow, etc. Drinking water, especially
water erosion, wind erosion, salinity, water groundwater, is a major source of arsenic for
logging, mass movement, frost heaving, most people.
frost shattering, etc. According to the Inorganic arsenic can occur in the environment
Desertification and Land Degradation Atlas in several forms but in natural waters, and
of India, some 97.85 million hectares (mha) of thus in drinking water, it is mostly found
India’s total geographical area (TGA) of 328.72 as trivalent arsenate (As(III)) or pentavalent
mha underwent land degradation during arsenate.
2018-19. This means that 29.7 per cent of the Contaminated water used for drinking, food
country’s land in that year became degraded. preparation and irrigation of food crops pose
Besides land degradation, desertification has the greatest threat to public health from
also increased. Some 83.69 mha underwent arsenic.
desertification in 2018-19. This was greater Long-term exposure to arsenic from
than the 81.48 mha in 2003-2005 and 82.64 drinking-water and food can cause cancer,
mha in 2011-13 that underwent desertification. skin disease, cardiovascular disease and
Land degradation within dryland regions diabetes.
(arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid regions) Early childhood exposure has been linked to
is termed ‘desertification’. negative impacts on cognitive development
and increased deaths in young adults.
Q10. Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct: The main anthropogenic Q11. Answer: (c)
sources for contamination of groundwater The water crisis and escalating labour costs
with As are mining, burning of fossil fuels, are threatening rice production. Because of

Environment: Explanations 115

 its low-input demand, direct-seeded rice is And all these fancy technology metals are
an attractive alternative. widely used by the electronics industry.
Statement 1 is not correct: In DSR, the pre- Materials and Components Description:
germinated seeds are directly drilled into the Batteries Heavy metals such as lead, mercury
field by a tractor-powered machine. There and cadmium are present in batteries.
is no nursery preparation or transplantation Cathode ray tubes (CTRs) Lead in the cone
involved in this method. Farmers have to glass and fluorescent coating cover the
only level their land and give one pre-sowing inside of panel glass.
irrigation. Mercury-containing components such as
Statement 2 is correct: In this, flooding of switches mercury is also used in thermostats,
fields is not done during sowing; chemical sensors, relays and switches (e.g., on PCBs
herbicides are used to kill weeds. and in measuring equipment and discharge
Statement 3 is correct: Reduce methane lamps). It is also used in medical equipment,
emissions due to a shorter flooding period data transmission, telecommunication, and
and decreased soil disturbance compared to mobile phones.
transplanting rice seedlings. Asbestos waste has to be treated selectively.
Early-maturing varieties, weed and nutrient Toner cartridges, liquid and pasty, as well as
management favour its adoption. color toner Toner and toner cartridges, have to
Weeds, blast, lodging, poor kernel quality be removed from any separately collected WEEE
and low yields are the major challenges. PCBs In PCBs, cadmium occurs in certain
components, such as SMD chip resistors,
Q12. Answer: (a) infrared detectors and semiconductors.
Option (a) is correct: Pollinators are animals Polychlorinated biphenyl (PCB) containing
of all types that visit flowers and take away capacitors PCB-containing capacitors have
their pollen. Pollen is a sex cell of plants and to be removed for safe destruction.
is essential for reproduction. As pollinators Liquid crystal displays (LCDs) LCDs of a
move from flower to flower, they deposit surface greater than 100 cm2 have to be
the collected pollen, basically allowing the removed from WEEE.
plants to mate. Plastics containing halogenated flame
More than 100,000 different animal species - retardants During incineration/combustion
and perhaps as many as 200,000 - play roles of the plastics, halogenated flame retardants
in pollinating the 250,000 kinds of flowering can produce toxic components.
plants on this planet. Insects (bees, wasps, Equipment containing chlorofluorocarbons
moths, butterflies, flies, beetles) are the (CFCs), hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
most common pollinators, but as many as or hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) CFCs present
1,500 species of vertebrates such as birds in foam and the refrigerating circuits must
and mammals serve as pollinators, including be properly extracted and destroyed. HCFCs
hummingbirds, perching birds, flying foxes, or CFCs present in foam and refrigerating
fruit bats, possums, lemurs and even a lizard circuits must be properly extracted and
(gecko) destroyed or recycled.
In gas discharge lamps, Mercury has to be
Q13. Answer: (d) removed.
Option (d) is correct: The majority of
electronic waste is metal-dominated: iron, Q14. Answer: (b)
copper, aluminium and then plastics, of Option (b) is correct: Acid rain describes any
course. In much smaller amounts, you have form of precipitation that contains high levels
more precious metals like copper, silver, gold, of nitric and sulfuric acids. It can also occur
palladium, iridium, and rare earth metals. in the form of snow, fog, and tiny bits of dry

116 Environment: Explanations

material that settle on Earth. Normal rain is many markets. Fly ash is also recognized as
slightly acidic, with a pH of 5.6, while acid an environmentally friendly material because
rain generally has a pH between 4.2 and 4.4. it is a byproduct and has low embodied
Causes of acid rain energy, the measure of how much energy
Rotting vegetation and erupting volcanoes is consumed in producing and shipping
release some chemicals that can cause a building material. By contrast, Portland
acid rain, but most acid rain is a product of cement has a very high embodied energy
human activities. The biggest sources are because its production requires a great deal
coal-burning power plants, factories, and of heat. Fly ash requires less water than
automobiles. Portland cement and is easier to use in cold
Acid Rain Harms Forests weather. Other benefits include:
Acid rain can be extremely harmful to forests. • Produces various set times
Acid rain that seeps into the ground can • Cold weather resistance
dissolve nutrients, such as magnesium and • High strength gains, depending on use
calcium, that trees need to be healthy. Acid • It can be used as an admixture
rain also causes the aluminium to be released • Considered a non-shrink material
into the soil, which makes it difficult for • Produces dense concrete with a smooth
trees to take up water. Trees that are located surface and sharp detail
in mountainous regions at higher elevations, • Great workability
such as spruce or fir trees, are at greater risk • Reduces crack problems, permeability,
because they are exposed to acidic clouds and bleeding
and fog, which contain greater amounts of • Reduces heat of hydration
acid than rain or snow. The acidic clouds • Allows for a lower water-cement ratio for
and fog strip important nutrients from their similar slumps when compared to no-fly-
leaves and needles. This loss of nutrients ash mixes
makes it easier for infections, insects, and • Reduces CO2 emissions
cold weather to damage trees and forests. Disadvantages
Acid Rain Damages Lakes and Streams Smaller builders and housing contractors may
Without pollution or acid rain, most lakes and not be familiar with fly ash products, which
streams would have a pH level near 6.5. In can have different properties depending on
addition, aluminium that is released into the where and how it was obtained. Additionally,
soil eventually ends up in lakes and streams. fly ash applications may face resistance from
Unfortunately, this increase in acidity and traditional builders due to their tendency to
aluminium levels can be deadly to aquatic effloresce along with concerns about freeze/
wildlife, including phytoplankton, mayflies, thaw performance. Other concerns about
rainbow trout, smallmouth brass and frogs. using fly ash in concrete include:
This problem can become much worse during • Slower strength gain.
heavy downpours of rain or when the snow • Seasonal limitation.
begins to melt in the spring. These types of • Increased need for air-entraining
events are known as episodic acidification. admixtures.
Sulphur loving microbes in wetlands during • Increase in salt scaling produced by
acid rain outcompete the methane-producing higher proportions of fly ash.
microbes thereby, decreasing methane
output in wetlands. Q16. Answer: (a)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The
Q15. Answer: (a) ecological niche describes how a species
Option (a) is correct: Fly ash can be a cost- interacts within an ecosystem. The niche of
effective substitute for Portland cement in a species depends on both biotic and abiotic

Environment: Explanations 117

 factors, which affect the ability of a species • The Gross primary productivity of an
to survive and endure. ecosystem is the rate of production of
Biotic factors affecting a species’ niche organic matter during photosynthesis.
include food availability and predators. Abiotic Gross primary productivity minus
factors affecting ecological niches include respiration losses (R) is the net primary
temperature, landscape characteristics, soil productivity (NPP).
nutrients, light and other non-living factors. • Secondary productivity is defined as the
A niche is unique for a species while many rate of formation of new organic matter
species share the habitat. No two species in by consumers. Organisms responsible for
a habitat can have the same niche. secondary production include animals,
Characteristic features of an ecological protists, fungi and bacteria.
niche are:
• The number of species in a niche of a Q18. Answer: (d)
natural ecosystem becomes large with Option (d) is correct: Carbon sequestration
a high abundance of resources and vice is the process of capturing and storing
versa. atmospheric carbon dioxide. It is one method
• With the increase in the number of species of reducing the amount of carbon dioxide in
in a community, the average width of a the atmosphere with the goal of reducing
niche of species within that community global climate change.
decreases (and hence the availability of Methods used are:
resources also decreases). • Carbon farming uses plants to trap CO2,
• Dominant species occupy an extensive and then strategically uses practices such as
broader ecological niche in comparison reducing tilling, planting longer-rooted
to less dominant species because they crops and incorporating organic materials
are specialists as they have adapted into the soil to encourage the trapped
themselves to a particular niche having carbon to move into—and stay in—the soil.
a single dimension of environmental • Another way to enhance plants’ ability to
variation. store carbon is to partly burn materials
• More species may be added to the such as logging slash or crop waste to
ecosystem by ‘compression of existing make a carbon-rich, slow-to-decompose
niches’. substance known as biochar, which can
• If the sites (habitats or locations) are then be buried or spread on farmland.
most equitable having an equitable, • Plants and plantlike organisms that live in
distribution of resources, the dominance the ocean absorb immeasurable amounts
of a particular species becomes minimum. of CO2 each year, their ability to do so
Statement 3 is not correct: A niche is unique limited only by the availability of iron,
for a species, not for every organism. nitrogen and other nutrients they need
to grow and multiply. So researchers are
Q17. Answer: (b) looking at strategies for fertilizing the
Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 ocean or bringing nutrients up from the
is correct: depths to hyperdrive plants’ ability to
• Primary production is defined as the trap and store carbon.
amount of biomass or organic matter • CO2 is naturally removed from the
produced per unit area over a time period atmosphere every day through reactions
by plants during photosynthesis. It is between rainwater and rocks. Some
expressed in terms of weight (g –2 ) or climate scientists propose enhancing this
energy (kcal m–2 ). The rate of biomass process—and so increasing CO2 removal
production is called productivity. from the atmosphere—through artificial

118 Environment: Explanations

 measures such as crushing rocks and is an international treaty for the conservation
exposing them to CO2 in a reaction chamber and wise use of wetlands.
or spreading them over large areas of land • Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary, the largest
or ocean, increasing the surface area over wetland in Haryana, is a human-made
which the reactions can occur. freshwater wetland.
• Direct air capture and storage approaches • Sultanpur National Park from Haryana
use chemicals or solids to capture the supports more than 220 species of
gas from thin air and then store it for the resident, winter migratory and local
long haul underground or in long-lasting migratory waterbirds at critical stages of
materials. Already used in submarines their life cycles.
beneath the surface of the ocean and • The Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary in Gujarat
in space vehicles far above it, direct air lies on the Central Asian Flyway, and more
capture theoretically can remove CO2 than 320 bird species can be found here.
from the air a thousand times more • Wadhwana Wetland from Gujarat is
efficiently than plants. internationally important for its birdlife as
it provides wintering ground to migratory
Q19. Answer: (d) waterbirds, including over 80 species that
Option (d) is correct: The Kigali migrate on the Central Asian Flyway.
Amendment aims for the phase-down of These wetlands are home to endangered
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by cutting their bird species like the Egyptian Vulture, Saker
production and consumption. Falcon, Sociable Lapwing, and the near-
The goal is to achieve an over 80% reduction threatened Dalmatian Pelican.
in HFC consumption by 2047.
Given their zero impact on the depletion of Q21. Answer: (d)
the ozone layer, HFCs are currently used as Option (d) is correct: Plastic items are
replacements for hydrochlorofluorocarbons completely banned from July 1, 2022 Earbuds
(HCFCs) and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air with plastic sticks, plastic sticks for balloons,
conditioning, refrigeration and foam insulation. plastic flags, polystyrene(thermocol) for
However, they are powerful greenhouse gasses. decoration, plates, cups, glasses, cutlery such
Under the amendment : as forks, spoons, knives, straw, trays, wrapping
• Developed countries will reduce HFC or packaging films, cigarette packets.
consumption beginning in 2019. Plastic bags to be thicker
• Most developing countries will freeze Since September 30 this year, the thickness
consumption in 2024, of plastic carry bags has increased from
• Some developing countries, including 50 microns to 75. From December 31, 2022,
India, with unique circumstances, will the thickness will increase to 100 microns.
freeze consumption in 2028.
• The plan also provides financing to Q22. Answer: (b)
certain countries to help them transition Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is
to climate-friendly alternatives. correct: Green GDP is an indicator of economic
With the Kigali Amendment, the Montreal growth with environmental factors taken into
Protocol has become an even more powerful consideration along with the standard GDP of
instrument against global warming. a country. It factors in biodiversity losses and
costs attributed to climate change.
Q20. Answer: (b) About GEP:
Option (b) is correct: Recently, the Ramsar • It was established back in 1997 by
Convention has designated four new wetlands ecological economists like Robert
in India as wetlands of global importance. It Costanza at the global level.

Environment: Explanations 119

 • It is an assessment system to measure project level, against 91 per cent (USD 69
ecological status. billion) for mitigation and dual uses.
• It is considered as the product and service
value that the ecosystem provides for Q25. Answer: (d)
human welfare and economic and social Option (d) is correct: Clean Technology Fund
sustainable development, including (CTF): It aims at empowering transformation
provisioning, regulating and cultural in developing countries by providing resources
ecosystem services. to scale up low carbon technologies.
Climate Investment Funds (CIFs): It aims to
Q23. Answer: (a) accelerate climate action by empowering
Option (a) is correct: Smog, formed mainly transformations in clean technology, energy
above urban centres, is composed mainly of access, climate resilience, and sustainable
tropospheric ozone (O3); primary particulate forests in developing and middle-income
matter such as pollen and dust; and countries.
secondary particulate matter such as sulphur UN- Reducing emissions from deforestation
oxides, volatile organic compounds, nitrogen and forest degradation (REDD): It aims to
oxides (NOx) and ammonia gas. protect forests, a pre-eminent nature-based
Recently the smog towers have been solution to the climate emergency.
installed in Delhi on the lines of China, which Net Zero Asset Owner Alliance: It has 29
has experimented with this technology in members, including pension funds, insurance
its capital Beijing and other cities. Smog companies, and sovereign wealth funds, and
towers are structures designed to work as is working on substantial methodologies to
large-scale air purifiers. They are fitted with align portfolios with net-zero Paris targets.
multiple layers of air filters and fans at the
base to suck the air. Q26. Answer: (c)
After the polluted air enters the smog tower, Option (c) is correct: The Project Dolphin.
it is purified by multiple layers before being • Announced in 2020 has been envisaged
re-circulated into the atmosphere. along the lines of ‘Project Tiger’ to
enhance the dolphin population.
Q24. Answer: (c) • It will be implemented by the Ministry of
Option (c) is correct: The State of Cities Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
Climate Finance report 2021 was recently • It involves the conservation of dolphins
released by the Cities Climate Finance and aquatic habitats through the use of
Leadership Alliance and the World Bank. modern technology, especially in anti-
The Key Highlights of the report are: poaching activities.
• An average of USD 384 billion was invested • It will engage fishermen and other river/
in urban climate finance annually in 2017- ocean dependent populations and will
2018. strive to improving the livelihood of the
• Urban climate finance flows are heavily local communities.
concentrated in OECD countries and
China. Q27. Answer: (a)
• Vastly insufficient amounts of urban Option (a) is correct: Biomass burning in
climate finance were invested in many neighbouring states, Dip in temperatures,
developing economy regions, including and combustion of Firecrackers are the main
South Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. reason for pollution in Delhi during winters.
• Finance for adaptation projects amounted Dip in wind speed: High-speed winds are
to USD 7 billion in 2017-2018, representing very effective at dispersing pollutants, but
9 per cent of investments tracked at the winters bring a dip in wind speed overall

120 Environment: Explanations

as compared to summers. As a result of Global Land Outlook (GLO) is a strategic
this, dust particles and pollutants in the air communications platform and associated
become unable to move. Due to stagnant publications of the UNCCD secretariat that
winds, these pollutants get locked in the air demonstrates the central importance of land
and affect weather conditions, resulting in quality to human well-being.
smog. Land for Life Programme was launched at
the tenth UNCCD Conference of the Parties
Q28. Answer: (d) (COP 10) in 2011 as part of the Changwon
Option (d) is correct: The Global Climate Initiative. The Programme seeks to address
Risk report is the flagship publication of the the challenges of land degradation,
Germanwatch. desertification and mitigation of drought.

Q29. Answer: (d) Q31. Answer: (c)

Option (d) is correct: Intergovernmental Panel Statement 1 is not correct: The Ministry of
on Climate Change (IPCC) was created in 1988 Environment, Forest, and Climate Change
by the World MeteorologicalOrganization (MoEF&CC) has notified the Plastic Waste
(WMO) and the United Nations Environment Management Amendment Rules, 2021, which
Programme (UNEP). The objective of the IPCC prohibits identified single-use plastic items
is to provide governments at all levels with which have low utility and high littering
scientific information that they can use to potential by 2022.
develop climate policies. Statement 2 is correct: Along with state
The IPCC currently has 195 members, pollution bodies, Central Pollution Control Board
including India. (CPCB) will monitor the ban, identify violations,
In 2007, the IPCC and U.S. Vice-President and impose penalties already prescribed under
Al Gore were jointly awarded the Nobel the Environmental Protection Act, 1986.
Peace Prize for their efforts to build up Statement 3 is correct: The plastic packaging
and disseminate greater knowledge about waste, which is not covered under the
man-made climate change and to lay the phase-out of identified single-use plastic
foundations for the measures that are items, shall be collected and managed in an
needed to counteract such changes. environmentally sustainable way through the
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) of the
Q30. Answer: (c) Producer, importer and Brand owner (PIBO),
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The initiatives as per Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016.
were launched under the UNCCD to combat
land desertification and degradation. Q32. Answer: (c)
Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) Target Option (c) is correct: Adverse health
Setting Programme: UNCCD, in collaboration outcomes associated with Biomedical Waste
with multiple international partners, are are:
supporting interested countries with their • Rise of drug-resistant microorganisms.
national LDN target setting process. To date, • Radiation burns.
over 120 countries, including India, have • Toxic exposure to pharmaceutical
committed to setting LDN targets. products, in particular, antibiotics and
The land Degradation Neutrality Fund (LDN cytotoxic drugs and to substances such
Fund): Officially launched at UNCCD COP as mercury or dioxins, during the handling
13 in Ordos, China, it is the first-of-its-kind or incineration of health care wastes.
investment vehicle leveraging public money • Chemical burns arise in the context
to raise private capital for sustainable land of disinfection, sterilization or waste
projects. treatment activities.

Environment: Explanations 121

 • Thermal injuries occur in conjunction recycled mainly in soil and are available
with open burning and the operation of locally.
medical waste incinerators. A perfect nutrient cycle is one in which
nutrients are replaced as fast as they are
Q33. Answer: (d) utilized. Most gaseous cycles are generally
Option (d) is correct:Octane rating, also considered perfect cycles.
known as Octane number or Octane Value, is Sedimentary cycle elements move from land
defined as the percentage or volume fraction to water to sediment. The main reservoirs
of isooctane in a mixture of isooctane and are the soil and sedimentary rocks.
normal heptane fuel where knock is initiated
at the same compression ratio as in the fuel. Q36. Answer: (a)
It measures the fuel’s ability to resist Option (a) is correct: Global Environment
unwanted sounds due to auto-ignition with Outlook, which is often seen in the news, is
a higher octane number. E.g., adding ethanol released by the United Nations Environment
to petrol helps in reducing knocking as the Programme (UNEP).
ethanol octane rating is around 109. United Nations Environment Program
For diesel fuel, the Cetane number is used • United Nations Environment Programme
to measure the ignition delay property of the (UNEP) was established in 1972 to guide
fuel, with a higher cetane number meaning and coordinate environmental activities
reduced ignition delay to avoid knocking. within the United Nations (UN) system.
• UNEP promotes international cooperation
Q34. Answer: (c) on environmental issues and provides
Option (c) is correct: Keystone species is a guidance to UN organizations.
species whose addition to or loss from an • Through its scientific advisory groups,
ecosystem leads to major changes in the UNEP encourages the international
occurrence of other species. Certain species scientific community to participate in
in an ecosystem are considered more formulating policy for many of the UN’s
important in determining the presence of environmental projects.
many other species in that ecosystem. • UNEP is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
All top predators (Tiger, Lion, Crocodile) • The organization also encourages
are considered keystone species because participation by the private sector to
they regulate all other animal populations promote the sustainable use of the
indirectly. Hence, top predators are given world’s natural resources.
much consideration in conservation.
If keystone species are lost, it will result in Q37. Answer: (d)
the degradation of the whole ecosystem. Option (d) is correct: The process by which
communities of plant and animal species in
Q35. Answer: (c) an area are replaced or changed into another
Option (c) is correct: Nutrient cycling is over a period of time is known as ecological
a cyclic process that encompasses the succession.
movement of nutrients from the physical Primary succession takes place over where
environment to living organisms and back to no community has existed previously.
the environment. Nutrients are present on the Secondary succession is the sequential
earth where they are recycled, transformed development of biotic communities after
into different forms and reutilized. the complete or partial destruction of the
Recycling of Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen and existing community.
Oxygen occurs in water, air and soil, whereas Unlike the primary succession, the secondary
calcium, phosphorus, potassium, etc., are succession starts on a well-developed soil

122 Environment: Explanations

already formed at the site. Thus, secondary leading to haze and much redder sunrises
succession is relatively faster. and sunsets.
• The accumulation of aerosols in the
Q38. Answer: (d) troposphere is thought to have a cooling
Option (d) is correct: The National Green effect, as clouds reflect the sun’s energy.
Tribunal (NGT) was established under the • It may provide an alternative way to
National Green Tribunal Act 2010 and not mitigate the human-induced effects of
under the Environment Protection Act, 1986. climate change.
It was created for effective and expeditious • Ammonia concentrated in the upper layer
disposal of cases relating to environmental of the troposphere plays a major role in the
protection. formation of Aerosols in the atmosphere.
NGT is vested with the powers of a civil Such concentration of ammonia in the
court under the code of civil procedure for troposphere is due to high agricultural
discharging its functions. emissions from livestock farming and
NGT is not bound by the procedure under the fertilization.
code of civil procedure 1908 but works on
the principle of natural justice. Q41. Answer: (d)
India is the third country to establish a body Option (d) is correct: Agricultural productivity
like NGT after Australia and New Zealand. is sensitive to two broad classes of climate-
induced effects. The first one is its direct
Q39. Answer: (b) effect due to changes in temperature,
Option (b) is correct: Character displacement precipitation and carbon dioxide
occurs when similar species that live in the concentration, and the other is the indirect
same geographical region and occupy similar effect through changes in soil moisture and
niches differentiate in order to minimize niche the distribution and frequency of infestation
overlap and avoid competitive exclusion. by pests and diseases.
Several species of Galapagos finches display According to IPCC, agricultural productivity
character displacement. in India was estimated to decrease by 2.5 to
Each closely related species differs in beak 10% by 2020and to 5 to 30% by 2050.
size and beak depth, allowing them to coexist Nutritional Security: Rising levels of
in the same region since each species eats a atmospheric carbon dioxide reduce the
different type of seed: the seed best fit for concentrations of protein and essential
its unique beak. minerals in most plant species, including
The finches with the deeper, stronger beaks wheat, soybeans and rice.
consume large, tough seeds, while the Heat waves, which are projected to increase
finches with smaller beaks consume the under climate change, and clouds directly
smaller, softer seeds. threaten livestock by increasing their
vulnerability to disease, reducing fertility and
Q40. Answer: (b) declining milk production.
Option (b) is correct: Aerosols are tiny
particles made from superfine solid Q42. Answer: (d)
particles and liquid droplets carried in the Option (d) is correct: The 2022 Earth Overshoot
atmosphere. Day will fall on the second week of May, the
• They often act as cloud condensation earliest date since ecological overshoot began
nuclei around which cloud droplets are in the early 1970s. This year the overshoot day
formed. Aerosols can also modify the size falls two days earlier than last year’s.
of existing cloud particles and change how To determine the date of Earth Overshoot
the clouds reflect and absorb sunlight, Day for each year, Global Footprint Network

Environment: Explanations 123

 calculates the number of days of that • Bio-reactors: It involves the processing
year that Earth’s biocapacity suffices of contaminated soil materials such as
to provide for humanity’s Ecological soil, sediment, sludge or water through
Footprint. an engineered system.
The remainder of the year corresponds to
global overshoot. The Earth Overshoot Day is Q44. Answer: (d)
computed by dividing the planet’s biocapacity Option (d) is correct: Global warming is
(the amount of ecological resources Earth is the result of increased greenhouse gas
able to generate that year), by humanity’s concentration, i.e., and it is responsible for
Ecological Footprint (humanity’s demand for more absorbance of long waves and, finally,
that year) and multiplying by 365, the number the maintenance of a low diurnal range of
of days in a year. temperature.
Global warming causes the destruction of
Q43. Answer: (c) the coastal ecosystem.
Option (c) is correct: In-situ bioremediation
technique: It includes treatment of Q45. Answer: (a)
contaminants on site. It has the following Option (a) is correct: The greenhouse effect
process: has both positive and negative effects. The CO2
• Bioventing: In this, air and nutrients are fertilization effect is responsible for increased
supplied through the neck/opening/ productivity, deeper roots, increased nutrient
wells to stimulate the growth of absorbance and drought tolerance. The low
microbes/bacteria. It is used for simple diurnal range of temperature is also an effect
hydrocarbons or where contaminants are of CO2 fertilization effect.
deeper under the surface.
• Biosparging: In this, injection of air under Q46. Answer: (c)
pressure below the water table to increase Option (c) is correct: The burning of fireworks/
groundwater oxygen concentration and firecrackers releases pollutants like sulfur
enhance the rate of biological degradation dioxide, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide,
of contaminants by naturally occurring suspended particles, and several metals like
bacteria. aluminium, manganese and cadmium, etc.
• Bio-augmentation: In this, microorganisms They are harmful to human health as well as
are imported to contaminated sites to to the environment.
enhance the degradation process. • Copper: Irritates the respiratory tract.
Ex-situ bioremediation techniques include • Cadmium: Leads to anaemia by reducing
the following: the capacity of blood to carry oxygen.
• Land farming: In this, contaminated soil • Zinc: Can cause metal fume fever and
is excavated and required over a great induce vomiting.
area periodically to promote aeration • Lead: Harms the nervous system.
until pollutants are degraded. The goal is • Magnesium: Metal fume fever is caused
to stimulate indigenous biodegradative by Magnesium fumes.
microorganisms and facilitate their • Sodium: It is a highly reactive element
aerobic degradation of contaminants. and causes burns when it is combined
• Bio-piles: It is a hybrid of land farming with moisture.
and composting. It is typically used for
the treatment of surface contamination Q47. Answer: (a)
with petroleum hydrocarbons. In this Option (a) is correct: New research by the
engineered cells are constructed as United States National Aeronautics and
aerated compost piles. Space Administration (NASA) found that

124 Environment: Explanations

melting Arctic ice due to global warming Statement 2 is correct: Microbeads are
impacts cloud formation and climate. manufactured solid plastic particles of
A polynya is an area of open water surrounded less than one millimetre in their largest
by sea ice. It is now used as a geographical dimension.
term for an area of unfrozen seawater within Plastic cycle “The continuous and complex
otherwise contiguous pack ice or fast ice. movement of plastic materials between
different abiotic and biotic ecosystem
Q48. Answer: (b) compartments, including human”.
Option (b) is correct:: Waterlogging is simply Plastic rust, plastic debris attached to tropical
the saturation of soil with water, either or subtropical rocky intertidal shores; crusts
temporarily or permanently. When there is are variable in size, colour, and thickness.
too much water in an area, the soil is unable Statement 3 is not correctPlastiglomerate,
to absorb the water as it should ordinarily. “an indurated, multi-composite material
When the air phase is restricted, anaerobic made hard by agglutination of rock and
conditions prevail, adversely affecting molten plastic … an in situ type, in which
crops. plastic adheres to rock outcrops, and a clastic
Waterlogging constrains plant growth and type, in which combinations of basalt, coral,
production in anaerobic conditions, leading shells, and local woody debris are cemented
to the death of certain crops and plants. with grains of sand in a plastic matrix”.
Also, plant roots fail to respire as a result of
the excess water in the soil profile, making Q50. Answer: (b)
them weak and either die or fall. Statement 1 is not correct and Statement
Effects of Waterlogging 2 is correct: A high-level inter-ministerial
Apart from the ill-aeration of plants, many Apex Committee has been constituted for
other problems are created by waterlogging, implementation of the Paris Agreement
such as: (AIPA) under the chairmanship of Secretary,
• The normal cultivation operations such MoEFCC. to ensure that India is “on track”
as tilting, ploughing etc., cannot be easily towards meeting its obligations under the
carried out in wet soils. In extreme cases, Paris Agreement, including its submitted
free water may rise above the surface of Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)”.
the land, making cultivation operations Another key function of AIPA would be to
impossible. In ordinary languages, such operate as a National Authority to regulate
land is called swampy land. carbon markets in India under Article 6 of
• Certain water-loving plants like grass, the Paris Agreement.
weeds etc., grow profusely and luxuriantly • The NDCs are implemented in the post-
in water-logging lands, thus affecting and 2020 period.
interfering with the growth of the crops. • India submitted its NDCs in 2015.
• The presence of excessive moisture
lowers the temperature of the soil, which Q51. Answer: (d)
retards the bacterial activity of the plants, Option (d) is correct: The Kunming Declaration
thus reducing crop yields. was adopted by over 100 countries at the
• Waterlogging leads to salinity. 15th Conference of the Parties (COP) to the
United Nations Convention on Biological
Q49. Answer: (b) Diversity in China.
Terms associated with plastic pollution are: It calls for urgent and integrated action to
Statement 1 is correct: Plastisphere, the reflect biodiversity considerations in all
living microbiotic and macrobiotic community sectors of the global economy but crucial
colonizing plastic. issues - like funding conservation in poorer

Environment: Explanations 125

 countries and committing to biodiversity- of that respective state or nation. All the
friendly supply chains have been left to known endangered species and subspecies
discuss later. It is not a binding international of plants, fungi and animals are recorded in
agreement. the “Red Data Book”.
It calls upon the parties to mainstream • The “Red Data Book” helps to provide
biodiversity protection in decision- detailed information for studies and
making and recognizes the importance of research regarding the endangered species
conservation in protecting human health. and subspecies of animals. In addition
The theme of the declaration is “Ecological to that, it also helps in coordinating and
Civilization: Building a Shared Future for All developing monitoring programs on these
Life on Earth”. endangered and rare species.
By adopting this, the nations have committed • It is of great help in designing effective
themselves to support the development, measures that could help in protecting
adoption and implementation of an effective various endangered species.
post-2020 implementation plan, a capacity
building action plan for the Cartagena Q53. Answer: (c)
Protocol on biosafety. Option (c) is correct: Khadi Prakritik paint
The Protocol seeks to protect biological • An innovative, eco-friendly and cost-
diversity from the potential risks posed by effective product inspired by the age-old
living modified organisms resulting from Indian tradition of coating the walls and
modern biotechnology. floor of the houses with cow dung.
As per the declaration, the signatory nations • The ancient practice is redesigned into
will ensure that the post-pandemic recovery a modern product - Emulsion Paint by
policies, programs and plans contribute scientifically treating cow dung, the main
to the conservation and sustainable use raw material of this paint.
of biodiversity, promoting sustainable and • The eight natural benefits, i.e., the Ashta
inclusive development. Laabh of the paint, make it unique and
The funding issue for the Kunming Biodiversity ideal protection for the walls. The paint is
Fund will be taken up in January 2022 at washable, waterproof, durable and dries
negotiations in Geneva. China’s pledge is quickly in just 4 hours.
below the $4 billion committed by Britain • It conforms to BIS standards. Khadi
for conservation projects across the world, Prakritik emulsion paint comes in a white
as well as France’s commitment to spend colour base with a matt finish. It can be
30 per cent of its climate finance on the developed into any colour of choice by
protection of biodiversity. mixing colourants suitably.
• Khadi Commission has developed this
Q52. Answer: (b) innovative paint with the objective of
Option (b) is correct: The International increasing farmers’ income, creating
Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is sustainable livelihood through technology
an NGO. It publishes the “Red Data Book” transfer and providing high-quality paint
which contains a list of ‘Threatened species’ to the general public at a reasonable price.
(vulnerable, endangered and critically
endangered). Q54. Answer: (c)
The “Red Data Book” refers to a document Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Montreux
maintained by a state or a nation that is Record is a register of wetland sites on the
established to record and document the List of Wetlands of International Importance
rare and endangered species of plants and where changes in ecological character have
animals that exist within the boundary occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur

126 Environment: Explanations

as a result of technological developments, • Providing opportunities for education,
pollution or other human interference. training, heritage, and culture.
• It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List. • Providing broad benefits as sites for
• The Montreux Record was established by reference in long term research.
Recommendation of the Conference of
the Contracting Parties (1990). Q56. Answer: (d)
• Sites may be added to and removed from Option (d) is correct: Carbon Farming is a
the record only with the approval of the new way of farming to sequestrate carbon
Contracting Parties in which they lie. in the soil. Carbon that otherwise ends up
• Currently, two wetlands of India are in as CO₂in our atmosphere, causing climate
Montreux record: Keoladeo National Park change. There are many ways to do this:
(Rajasthan) and Loktak Lake (Manipur). from small adjustments on the farm
• Chilka Lake (Odisha) was placed in the level - like applying fertilizers rich in carbon,
record but was later removed from it. reduced or no-tillage, or planting cover
crops - to changes in the entire farming
Q55. Answer: (b) system - like enriched crop rotation or
Option (d) is correct: A marine protected agroforestry.
area (MPA) is an area of the sea especially
dedicated to the protection and maintenance Q57. Answer: (b)
of biodiversity and natural and associated Statement 1 is not correct: The Ministry of
cultural resources and managed through legal Road, Transport and Highways approved
or other effective means. MPAs include marine a proposal to impose a green tax on some
parks, nature reserves and locally managed categories of vehicles, setting the stage for
marine areas that protect reefs, seagrass phasing out old pollution-causing vehicles.
beds, shipwrecks, archaeological sites, tidal According to the proposal, a green tax
lagoons, mudflats, salt marshes, mangroves, could be levied on transport or commercial
rock platforms, underwater areas on the coast vehicles older than eight years at the time of
and the seabed in deep water, as well as open renewal of fitness certificates. The levy will
water (the water column). Marine protected have to be in the range of 10-25 % of the
areas help to protect important habitats and road tax. In the case of personal vehicles, it
representative samples of marine life and could be charged at the time of renewal of
can assist in restoring the productivity of the registration certificate after 15 years.
the oceans and avoiding further degradation. Statement 2 is correct: Vehicles like strong
They are also sites for scientific study and hybrids, electric vehicles and those running
can generate income through tourism and on alternate fuels like CNG, ethanol and LPG
sustainable fishing. and vehicles used in farming, such as tractors,
MPAs provide a range of benefits for harvesters and tillers, will be exempted from
fisheries, local economies, and the marine green tax.
environment, including: Statement 3 is correct: The revenue collected
• Conservation of biodiversity and through the green tax will be kept in a
ecosystems. different account and will only be utilized for
• Arresting and possibly reversing the global tackling pollution.
and local decline in fish populations
and productivity by protecting critical Q58. Answer: (d)
breeding, nursery and feeding habits. Option (d) is correct:
• Raising the profile of an area for marine • The Komodo dragon (the world’s largest
tourism and broadening local economic living lizard, endemic to Indonesia) has been
options. moved from vulnerable to endangered.

Environment: Explanations 127

 • Albacore Tuna and Yellowfin Tuna were transform the current linear plastics
moved from near threatened to least system into a circular plastics economy.
concern. • It aims to promote public-private
• Yercaud Day Gecko was moved from least collaborations that enable solutions to
concern to endangered. eliminate the plastic waste problem in
• Satara Gecko was moved from vulnerable India and bring innovation to the way
to critically endangered. plastic is designed, used, and reused.
• Yellow Monitor was moved from least • The plastic pact model is currently
concern to endangered. implemented in countries such as the
UK, South Africa, and Australia.
Q59. Answer: (a)
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is Q62. Answer: (d)
not correct: Renewable Energy Certificate Option (d) is correct:
(REC), also called Renewable Energy Credit, • Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) are
is a market-based instrument where the essentially a space in the ocean where
owner of the REC can legally claim to have human activities are more strictly
purchased renewable energy. regulated than the surrounding waters-
One Renewable Energy Certificate (REC) is similar to parks we have on land.
treated as equivalent to 1 MWh of energy • These places are given special protections
injected into the grid. for natural or historic marine resources
There are two categories of RECs, which are by local, state, territorial, native, regional,
Solar RECs and Non-solar RECs. or national authorities.
• MPAs and their network offer nature-
Q60. Answer: (c) based solutions to support global efforts
Statement 1 is correct: EPR is a policy towards climate change adaptation and
approach under which producers are given mitigation.
significant responsibility for the treatment or • As of March 2021, the World Database on
disposal of post-consumer products. Protected Areas reported that only 7.65%
Statement 2 is correct: Assigning such of the global seas had been covered.
responsibility could, in principle, provide
incentives to prevent waste at the source, Q63. Answer: (b)
promote product design for the environment, Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2
and support the achievement of public is correct: Primary production is defined as
recycling and materials management the amount of biomass or organic matter
goals. produced per unit area over a time period by
plants during photosynthesis. It is expressed
Q61. Answer: (d) in terms of weight or energy. The rate of
Option (d) is correct: biomass production is called productivity.
• The ‘India Plastics Pact’ was launched It is expressed in terms of g–2 yr–1 or (kcal
in collaboration with WWF India and the m–2) yr–1 to compare the productivity of
Confederation of Indian Industry (CII). different ecosystems. It can be divided
It focuses on addressing the barriers to into gross primary productivity (GPP) and
circularity in the plastic packaging sector. net primary productivity (NPP). The Gross
• The ‘India Plastics Pact’ is an ambitious, primary productivity of an ecosystem is the
collaborative initiative that aims to bring rate of production of organic matter during
together businesses, governments, and photosynthesis. A considerable amount of
NGOs to reduce, reuse, and recycle GPP is utilized by plants in respiration. Gross
plastics in their value chain. It aims to primary productivity minus respiration losses

128 Environment: Explanations

(R) is the net primary productivity (NPP). aquatic ecosystems required to produce
GPP – R = NPP the resources used and to assimilate the
Net primary productivity is the available wastes produced by a defined population
biomass for the consumption of heterotrophs at a specified material standard of living,
(herbivores and decomposers). Secondary wherever on Earth that land may be
productivity is defined as the rate of formation located.
of new organic matter by consumers. ‘Ecological footprint’ analysis is widely used
Primary productivity depends on the plant around the Earth in support of sustainability
species inhabiting a particular area. It also assessments.
depends on a variety of environmental It can be used to measure and manage the
factors, availability of nutrients and the use of resources throughout the economy
photosynthetic capacity of plants. Therefore, and explore the sustainability of individual
it varies in different types of ecosystems. lifestyles, goods and services, organizations,
industry sectors, neighbourhoods, cities,
Q64. Answer: (d) regions, and nations.
Option (d) is correct: Bacteria are widely In 2013, the Global Footprint Network
diverse organisms and thus make excellent estimated the global ‘ecological footprint’ as
players in biodegradation and bioremediation. 1.6 planet Earths. This means that, according
There are few universal toxins to bacteria, so to their calculations, the planet’s ecological
there is likely an organism able to break down services were being used 1.6 times faster
any given substrate when provided with the than they were being renewed.
right conditions (anaerobic versus aerobic
environment, sufficient electron donors or Q67. Answer: (b)
acceptors, etc.). The fast development of Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is
molecular microbiological tools has enabled correct: Ladakh has adopted two endangered
the identification of many un-culturable species as its state animal and bird. The
microbes and therefore extended the state animal and the state bird include the
list of microbial species with petroleum snow leopard (Panther unica) and the black-
hydrocarbon-degrading abilities. necked crane (Grus nigricollis).
Species of Pseudomonas, Mycobacterium, • The IUCN status of the Snow Leopard is
Haemophilus, Rhodococcus, Paenibacillus Vulnerable.
and Ralstonia are some of the most • The IUCN status of the Black-necked
extensively studied bacteria for their Crane is Near Threatened.
bioremediation capability.
Q68. Answer: (c)
Q65. Answer: (a) Option (c) is correct: The UN Environment
Option (a) is correct: Oil extraction in Programme (UNEP) member states adopted
the Arctic may release black carbon and the “Colombo Declaration” which calls for
methane, leading to global warming and tackling global nitrogen challenges.
thawing of Arctic ice. It subsequently causes • The Colombo Declaration has been
climate change. Some studies estimate the developed with the technical support of
cost involved as USD 60 trillion to the world the International Nitrogen Management
economy. System (INMS), a joint activity of the UNEP,
and the International Nitrogen Initiative
Q66. Answer: (d) supported by the Global Environmental
Option (d) is correct: As per the Millennium Facility.
Eco Assessment, ‘ecological footprint’ is an • The aim is to halve nitrogen waste by
index of the area of productive land and 2030.

Environment: Explanations 129

 Q69. Answer: (b) • The larger the body size of an animal, the
Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is longer it lives and the fewer offspring it
correct: Keystone species are not necessarily produces each year.
in abundance in a community yet exert a • Some species have aggregation
strong control on community structure by behaviours that make them vulnerable to
the nature of its ecological role or niche. A disturbance.
small number of keystone species can have a • When the population size is severely
large number of impacts on the environment. reduced, inbreeding may be the final insult
The disappearance of such species may that will cause the remaining population
lead to significant ecosystem change or to go extinct.
dysfunction, which may have knock-on
effects on a broader scale. Examples include Q72. Answer: (d)
the elephant’s role in maintaining habitat Option (d) is correct: Ecological services of
structure and bats and insects in pollination. lakes
By focusing on keystone species, conservation • The moderate temperatures and affect
actions for that species may help to preserve the climate of the surrounding area.
the structure and function of a wide range • By storing water, they help regulate
of habitats that are linked with that species streamflow, recharge groundwater
during its life cycle. aquifers and moderate droughts.
• They provide habitat to aquatic and semi-
Q70. Answer: (d) aquatic plants and animals, which in turn
Statement 1 is not correct: Nationally provide food to many terrestrial animals,
Determined Contributions (NDC) or Intended adding to the diversity of the landscape.
Nationally Determined Contributions • Proper lake function can ease the impact
(INDC) are non-binding national plans of floods and droughts by storing large
highlighting climate actions, including amounts of water and releasing it during
climate-related targets for greenhouse gas shortages.
emission reductions, policies, and measures • Lakes also work to replenish groundwater,
governments aim to implement in response positively influence the water quality of
to climate change. downstream watercourses, and preserve
Statements 2 and 3 are not correct: According the biodiversity and habitat of the area.
to the global climate pact, a country’s INDC • Lakes located in most Indian cities are
is converted to a Nationally Determined generally permanent bodies of open
Contribution (NDC) when it formally joins water with significant size (>0.1 ha). These
the Paris Agreement by submitting an lakes are located according to the cities’
instrument of ratification, acceptance, topography and are often placed in a
approval, or accession, unless a country series (inter-linked) to play a key role in
decides otherwise. urban stormwater management. Urban
lakes also help to mitigate the density of
Q71. Answer: (c) urban developments by creating passive
Option (c) is correct: Some species are much open space areas.
more vulnerable than others to becoming
dangerously rare. These are: Q73. Answer: (d)
• A small geographic range makes a Option (d) is correct: Edge effects are the
species particularly vulnerable to global result of an abrupt transition between two
extinction. significantly different natural habitats that

130 Environment: Explanations

are adjacent to each other in the same Low temperature and moisture in the air
ecosystem. It is essentially a break in trap pollutants close to the surface. Both
continuity between two adjacent habitats, months witness ‘severe’ air days.
leading to changes in the environmental • March and April: Wind direction changes
and biological conditions. Edge effects from north-westerly to south-westerly,
may appear, for example, because of the and temperature begins to rise. The mixing
construction of a highway or a forest fire. height increases, allowing pollutants to
Edge effects are usually linked to the habitat disperse freely.
fragmentation, destruction, or degradation. • May and June: Temperatures peak during
When habitat fragmentation occurs, the this period, which is good for the dispersal
perimeter of habitat increases, creating of pollutants. But a combination of local
new borders and increasing edge effects. winds and south-westerly transport-level
Additionally, fragmentation breaks habitat winds bring large quantities of dust from
continuity, reducing reproductive success, Rajasthan.
genetic exchange and, therefore, reducing • July, August, and September: South-
genetic diversity in species. easterly and easterly winds start blowing
Edge effects refer to the changes in population from the Bay of Bengal as a precursor to
or community structures that occur at the monsoon winds and bring moisture and
boundary of two habitats. Generally, there rain to Delhi. Rain settles pollutants, as
is a greater number of species found in pollution levels stay at their lowest.
these regions (ecotones), and this is called • October, November, and December:
the edge effect. The species found here are Monsoon withdraws, and wind direction
called edge species. changes to north-westerly bringing
emissions from stubble fires in Punjab
Q74. Answer: (a) and Haryana. This coincides with a drop
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The primary in temperature. December generally sees
reasons for air pollution in Delhi include the first ‘very dense’ fog spell of the year,
vehicle exhaust, heavy industry such as with temperatures dipping below 5 degrees
power generation, small-scale industries like Celsius. This makes it difficult for pollutants
brick kilns, suspended dust on the roads to disperse. (Statement 3 is not correct)
due to vehicle movement and construction
activities, open waste burning, combustion Q75. Answer: (c)
of fuels for cooking, lighting, and heating, Option (c) is correct:
and in-situ power generation via diesel • Provisioning Services: This includes the
generator sets. Compounding the problem products/raw materials or energy outputs
are seasonal emissions from dust storms, like food, water, medicines and other
forest fires, and open field fires during resources from ecosystems. Ecosystems
harvest season. Extreme air pollution from are a source of food, water, medicines,
these sources affects millions of people wood, biofuels, etc. Also, they provide
in densely populated regions who are conditions for these resources to grow.
exposed to thick, toxic smog for long periods • Regulating Services: This includes the
of time. services which regulate the ecological
Factors in play: balance. For example, terrestrial environs
• January and February: Extremely low like forests purify and regulate air
temperatures and low mixing height, with quality, prevent soil erosion, and control
moderate to dense fog in the morning. greenhouse gases. Biotic components

Environment: Explanations 131

 such as birds, rats, and frogs, act as • Atolls are rings of coral that create
natural controllers and thus help in pest protected lagoons and are usually located
and disease control. Hence, ecosystems in the middle of the sea. Atolls usually
act as regulators. form when islands surrounded by fringing
• Supporting Services: Supporting services reefs sink into the sea or the sea level
form the basis for other services. rises around them.
• Cultural Services: It includes tourism; • Patch reefs are small, isolated reefs
provides recreational, aesthetic, cultural that grow up from the open bottom of
and spiritual services, etc. Most natural the island platform or continental shelf.
elements such as landscapes, mountains, They usually occur between fringing reefs
caves, are used as a place for cultural and and barrier reefs. They vary greatly in
artistic purposes. size, and they rarely reach the surface of
the water.
Q76. Answer: (c)
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: A circular Q79. Answer: (b)
economy (also referred to as “circularity”) Statement 1 is not correct: The cryosphere
is an economic system that tackles global is the portion of the Earth’s surface where
challenges like climate change, biodiversity water is in solid form, including sea ice,
loss, waste, and pollution. lake ice, river ice, snow cover, glaciers,
A circular economy entails markets that give ice caps, ice sheets, and frozen ground
incentives to reuse products rather than (which includes permafrost). It includes
scrapping them and then extracting new the Antarctic and Arctic region, glaciers of
resources. mountains like glaciers etc. So, it is not part
In such an economy, all forms of waste, of the atmosphere.
such as clothes, scrap metal and obsolete Statement 2 is correct: The cryosphere
electronics, are returned to the economy or plays a significant role in determining the
used more efficiently. Earth’s climate as a result of the albedo of
This can provide a way to not only protect the light-coloured ice and snow. The high
the environment but use natural resources albedo of the different components of the
more wisely, develop new sectors, create cryosphere reflects a large majority of the
jobs and develop new capabilities. incoming solar radiation, helping to regulate
the Earth’s temperature by balancing Earth’s
Q77. Answer: (d) energy budget.
Option (d) is correct: The Greenhouse Gas Statement 3 is not correct: Since the
Bulletin report is released by the World cryosphere is not a part of the atmosphere,
Meteorological Organization (WMO). there is no question of gaseous composition
alteration.
Q78. Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct Q80. Answer: (d)
• Fringing reefs grow near the coastline Option (d) is correct: Temperature inversion
around islands and continents. They are is the reversal of the normal behaviour
separated from the shore by narrow, of temperature. That is, in a temperature
shallow lagoons. inversion, there is an increase in temperature
• Barrier reefs also parallel the coastline with the height (which is the reverse of the
but are separated by deeper, wider normal pattern).
lagoons. At their shallowest points, they Usually, within the lower atmosphere (the
can reach the water’s surface forming a troposphere), the air near the surface of the
“barrier” to navigation. Earth is warmer than the air above it, largely

132 Environment: Explanations

because the atmosphere is heated from • Low temperature slows down the rate of
below as solar radiation warms the Earth’s decomposition of leaves
surface, which in turn then warms the layer • Absence of direct sunlight and the short
of the atmosphere directly above it, e.g., by duration of summer
thermals (convective heat transfer).
The figure below shows the graphical Q82. Answer: (a)
temperature gradient with respect to the Option (a) is correct: Edge effects refer to
altitude. In the graph, the stratosphere and the changes in population or community
thermosphere are two layers where the structures that occur at the boundary of two
slope is positive, which means the increase habitats. Generally, there is a greater number
of temperature with the altitude. of species found in these regions (ecotones),
and this is called the edge effect. The species
found here are called edge species.
Ecotone is the transitional area of vegetation
between two different plant communities,
such as forest and grassland. It has some
of the characteristics of each bordering
biological community and often contains
species not found in the overlapping
communities.

Q83. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Services provided by
nature
• Cultural services such as recreation
• Regulating services such as flood control
• Provisioning services such as water
• Supporting services such as soil formation

Q81. Answer: (d)

Q84. Answer: (a)
Option (d) is correct: Coniferous forest,
Option (a) is correct: The “National Mission
vegetation composed primarily of cone-
for Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
bearing needle-leaved or scale-leaved
(NMSHE)” is one of the eight missions
evergreen trees, is found in areas that
under the National Action Plan on Climate
have long winters and moderate to high
Change (NAPCC). NMSHE is a multi-pronged,
annual precipitation. The northern Eurasian
cross-cutting mission across various
coniferous forest is called the taiga, or
sectors. NMSHE intends to evolve suitable
the boreal forest. Pines, spruces, firs, and
management and policy measures for
larches are the dominant trees in coniferous
sustaining and safeguarding the Himalayan
forests. They are similar in shape and height
ecosystem along with developing capacities
and often form a nearly uniform stand with a
at the national level to continuously assess
layer of low shrubs or herbs beneath. Mosses,
its health status.
liverworts, and lichens cover the forest floor.
• The main goal of NMSHE is to assess
Reasons for the low undergrowth of
scientifically the vulnerability of the
“coniferous forest”.
Himalayan region to climate change in
• Excessively leached and very acidic soils
physical, biological, and sociocultural
• The evergreen leaves provide little leaf
contexts.
fall for humus formation

Environment: Explanations 133

 • NMSHE also aims to build and support sustain life. Rainfall may vary in different
capacities at the central and state levels regions of the arctic. Annual precipitation,
to assess climate change and formulate including melting snow, is 15 to 25 cm.
adequate response measures to the • In summer, the upper layer of Permafrost
challenges in the Himalayan region. gets melted, and when water saturates the
• The mission attempts to address some upper surface, bogs and ponds may form,
important issues concerning providing moisture for plants. There are
○ Himalayan Glaciers and the associated no deep root systems in the vegetation of
hydrological consequences. the arctic tundra; however, there are still
○  Biodiversity conservation and a wide variety of plants that are able to
protection. resist the cold climate. There are about
○  Wildlife conservation and protection. 1,700 kinds of plants in the arctic and
○  Traditional knowledge societies and subarctic, and these include low shrubs,
their livelihood. sedges, reindeer mosses, liverworts,
○  Planning for sustaining the Himalayan and grasses, more than 400 varieties of
Ecosystem. flowers and crustose and lichen.

Q85. Answer: (d) Q86. Answer: (c)

Option (d) is correct: In Tundra Biome, tree Option (c) is correct: A keystone species is
growth is hindered by low temperatures a species that has a disproportionately large
and short growing seasons. The vegetation effect on its natural environment relative
in Tundra is composed of Dwarf Shrubs, to its abundance, a concept introduced in
mosses, lichens etc. Some scattered trees 1969 by the zoologist Robert T. Paine. Such
are also found. The ecological boundary species are described as playing a critical
(ecotone) between the tundra and taiga role in maintaining the structure of an
forests is called the tree line or timberline. ecological community, affecting many other
The most important characteristic of the organisms in an ecosystem, and helping to
Tundra is the Permafrost. Permafrostis determine the types and numbers of various
permanently frozen soil. Permafrost consists other species in the community. Without
mostly of gravel and finer material. The soil keystone species, the ecosystem would
is frozen from 25-90 cm down and very few be dramatically different or cease to exist
plants can grow in it, so the permafrost is altogether. Some keystone species, such as
plain without many trees. Some parts of the the wolf, are also apex predators.
permafrost are bare and support the growth The role that a keystone species plays in
of some lichens. its ecosystem is analogous to the role of
• There are ONLY two seasons in Polar a keystone in an arch. While the keystone
Tundra regions, viz. summer and winter. is under the least pressure of any of the
During winter, it is very cold and dark, stones in an arch, the arch still collapses
while during summer, the temperature without it. Similarly, an ecosystem may
rises a bit and the permafrost melts at experience a dramatic shift if a keystone
some points, making the ground soggy. species is removed, even though that
• The Arctic Tundra is known for its cold, species was a small part of the ecosystem
desert-like conditions. In winter, the by measures of biomass or productivity. It
temperature of Arctic Tundra regions became a popular concept in conservation
may drop as down as -50°C. The average biology, alongside flagship and umbrella
winter temperature is -34° C (-30° F), but species. Keystone species are not indicator
the average summer temperature is 3-12° species.
C (37-54° F) which enables this biome to

134 Environment: Explanations

Q87. Answer: (d) Q90. Answer: (a)
Option (d) is correct: The 26th Conference Statements 1 and 3 are correct: The Climate
of the Parties (COP 26) of the United Nations Change Performance Index (CCPI) was
Framework Convention on Climate Change developed by Germanwatch as a tool for
(UNFCCC) was held in Glasgow, hosted by increasing transparency in international
the UK. climate change policy.
The Conference also included the 16th • It is an independent monitoring tool
session of the Conference of the Parties for tracking the climate protection
serving as the meeting of the Parties to the performance of 57 countries and the
Kyoto Protocol(CMP 16), and the third session European Union.
of the Conference of the Parties serving • The CCPI looks at four categories, with
as the meeting of the Parties to the Paris 14 indicators: Greenhouse Gas Emissions
Agreement (CMA 3). (40% of the overall score), Renewable
The COP26 holds significance as it aims to Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and
finalise the Paris rulebook following the 2019 Climate Policy (20%).
COP25 summit in Madrid, where many issues • India, for the second time in a row,
had not been agreed upon and had been continued to remain in the top 10. Last
pushed into the next year under the “Rule year (2019), India was ranked at the ninth
16” of the UN climate process. position.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Sweden is
Q88. Answer: (a) the highest-ranked country (the top three
Statement 1 is correct: The Graded Response places remained empty).
Action Plan (GRAP) is essentially a step-by-
step guide for what to do when the air in Q91. Answer: (d)
Delhi-NCR gets heavily polluted. Option (d) is correct: e-Amrit portal:
Statement 2 is not correct: It was approved • e-Amrit, a web portal on electric vehicles
by the Supreme Court in 2016. (EVs), was launched by India at the COP26
Statement 3 is correct: It includes extreme Summit in Glasgow, UK.
measures such as shutting down schools • It is a one-stop destination for all
and implementing the odd-even road- information on electric vehicles—
space rationing scheme in case of severe busting myths around the adoption of
degradation of air quality. EVs and complements initiatives of the
government on raising awareness of EVs.
Q89. Answer: (c) • The portal has been developed and
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Global hosted by NITI Aayog under a collaborative
Resilience Index Initiative (GRII): It was knowledge exchange programme with the
launched during COP26 by 10 global UK government and as part of the UK–
organisations, including the United Nations India Joint Roadmap 2030.
Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR),
Insurance Development Forum (IDF), Q92. Answer: (d)
Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure Option (d) is correct: Green hydrogen is
(CDRI), etc. hydrogen that is produced using renewable
It will provide a globally consistent model energy through electrolysis. This method uses
for the assessment of resilience across all an electrical current to separate hydrogen
sectors and geographies. from oxygen in the water. If the electricity

Environment: Explanations 135

 needed for electrolysis is generated from 90 kg. The breeding season of the Gangetic
renewable sources such as solar or wind, the dolphin extends from January to June. They
production of hydrogen in this way emits no feed on several species of fish, invertebrates
greenhouse gasses. etc.
Benefits of Using Green Hydrogen for Gangetic dolphin is at the top of the food
India: chain, protecting the species and its habitat
• Green hydrogen can drive India’s will ensure the conservation of the aquatic
transition to clean energy and combat lives of the river.
climate change. Under the Paris Climate Conservation efforts:
Agreement, India pledged to reduce the • The Gangetic dolphin remains listed as
emission intensity of its economy by 33- endangered by the International Union for
35% from 2005 levels by 2030. the Conservation of Nature.
• It will reduce import dependency on fossil • Wildlife Protection Act: After the launch
fuels. of the Ganga Action Plan in 1985, the
• Green hydrogen is produced from government on November 24, 1986,
renewable energy sources. included Gangetic dolphins in the First
• Green hydrogen stabilizes the electricity Schedule of the Indian Wildlife (Protection),
and heat supply. Act 1972. This was aimed at checking
• Green hydrogen is versatile and can be hunting and providing conservation
used innovatively. facilities such as wildlife sanctuaries.
• Green hydrogen reduces CO₂ emissions. For instance, Vikramshila Ganges Dolphin
Sanctuary was established in Bihar under
Q93. Answer: (a) this Act.
Option (a) is correct: Project Dolphin will • Conservation Plan: The government also
be on the lines of Project Tiger, which has prepared The Conservation Action Plan
helped increase the tiger population. So far, for the Ganges River Dolphin 2010-2020,
the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), which “identified threats to Gangetic
which implements the government’s flagship Dolphins and impact of river traffic,
scheme Nanami Gange, has taken some irrigation canals and depletion of prey-
initiatives to save dolphins. Now, Project based on Dolphins populations”.
Dolphin is expected to be implemented by • National Aquatic Animal: On October 5,
the Ministry of Environment, Forest and 2009, the then Prime Minister declared
Climate Change. the Gangetic River dolphin as the national
The Gangetic River system is home to a aquatic animal. A notification was
vast variety of aquatic life, including the issued by the Ministry of Environment
Gangetic dolphin. The Gangetic dolphin is and Forests the following year. Now,
one of five species of river dolphin found the National Mission for Clean Ganga
around the world. It is found mainly in the celebrates October 5 as National Ganga
Indian subcontinent, particularly in Ganga- River Dolphin Day.
Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu
rivers. Q94. Answer: (b)
The Conservation Action Plan for the Ganges Statement 1 is not correct: Cropland is
River Dolphin, 2010-2020, describes male defined as “land used for annual and perennial
dolphins as being about 2-2.2 meters long herbaceous crops for human consumption,
and females as a little longer at 2.4-2.6 m. An forage (including hay), and biofuel’’.
adult dolphin could weigh between 70 kg and Statement 2 is correct: Agricultural land
refers to the share of land area that is

136 Environment: Explanations

arable, under permanent crops, and under making and recognises the importance of
permanent pastures. conservation in protecting human health.
Statement 3 is correct: Net primary (Statement 1 is correct)
production (NPP) is defined as the difference • By adopting this, the nations have
between the energy fixed by autotrophs and committed themselves to support
their respiration, and it is most commonly the development, adoption and
equated to increments in biomass per unit of implementation of an effective post-2020
land surface and time. implementation plan capacity building an
action plan for the Cartagena Protocol on
Q95. Answer: (d) biosafety.
Option (d) is correct: To standardize the • The theme of the declaration is Ecological
rehabilitation protocol for such rescued Civilization: Building a Shared Future for
animals, a radio-tagged Indian pangolin All Life on Earth.
was released into the wild in Nandankanan • Signatory nations will ensure that
Wildlife Sanctuary following soft release the post-pandemic recovery policies,
protocols and provision for post-release programmes and plans contribute to
monitoring. the conservation and sustainable use of
Nandankanan Zoological Park biodiversity, promoting sustainable and
• It is 15 km from Odisha’s capital, inclusive development.
Bhubaneswar. It was inaugurated in 1960. • But crucial issues - like funding
• The first zoo in the country to become a conservation in poorer countries and
member of the World Association of Zoos committing to biodiversity-friendly supply
and Aquariums (WAZA). chains have been left to discuss later.
• It is recognized as a leading zoo for the (Statement 2 is not correct)
breeding of the Indian pangolin and white
tiger. Q97. Answer: (b)
• It was the world’s first captive crocodile Option (b) is correct: The process by which
breeding centre, where gharials were bred carbon sinks remove carbon dioxide (CO2)
in captivity in 1980. from the atmosphere is known as carbon
• The State Botanical Garden of sequestration.
Nandankanan is one of the pioneering Oceans are considered the main natural
plant conservation and nature education carbon sinks, as they are capable of absorbing
centers of Odisha. about 50% of the carbon emitted into the
atmosphere. In particular, plankton, corals,
Q96. Answer: (b) fish, algae, and other photosynthetic bacteria
Kunming Declaration on Biodiversity are responsible for this capture.
• The Kunming Declaration was adopted by In the case of forests and other woodland
over 100 countries on October 13, 2021 at areas, carbon sequestration is done through
the first part of the ongoing virtual 15th photosynthesis. Plants absorb CO2 from the
meeting of the Conference of the Parties atmosphere, store some of its carbon content,
to the United Nations Convention on and return oxygen to the atmosphere.
Biological Diversity. Volcanic eruptions produce carbon.
• It is not a binding international agreement. Carbon is also stored in the lithosphere as
(Statement 3 is not correct) fossil fuels and sedimentary rock deposits
• It calls upon the parties to “mainstream” such as limestone, dolomite, etc.
biodiversity protection in decision-

Environment: Explanations 137

 Q98. Answer: (d) • NIRA will have the power to raise funds
Option (d) is correct: Physical properties and act as a repository of borrowed funds
of water quality include temperature and or money received on deposit or loans
turbidity. Chemical characteristics involve given on interest.
parameters such as pH and dissolved oxygen. • It will also have the power to set up
Biological indicators of water quality include a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) for
algae and phytoplankton. individual link projects.
• Temperature is a measure of the average
energy (kinetic) of water molecules. It is Q100. Answer: (c)
measured on a linear scale of degrees Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Recently
Celsius or degrees Fahrenheit. the Ministry of Jal Shakti, along with the
• It is one of the most important water Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, has
quality parameters. Temperature affects launched the River Cities Alliance (RCA). It
water chemistry and the functions of is a dedicated platform for river cities to
aquatic organisms. ideate, discuss, and exchange information
• It influences the: amount of oxygen that for the sustainable management of urban
can be dissolved in water, the rate of rivers.
photosynthesis by algae and other aquatic The River Cities Alliance (RCA) includes cities
plants, metabolic rates of organisms, the from both the Ganga basin and non-Ganga
sensitivity of organisms to toxic wastes, basin states.
parasites and diseases, and the timing of It gives opportunities to these cities to
reproduction, migration, and aestivation strengthen governance aspects for river
of aquatic organisms. cities and improves their liveability to attract
external economic investments.
Q99. Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct: The Center has set in Q101. Answer: (d)
motion the process of creating the exclusive Option (d) is correct: Droughts are classified
body- National Interlinking of Rivers Authority into three categories:
(NIRA)- to implement river-linking projects in • Meteorological Drought: It occurs when
India. seasonal rainfall over an area is less than
NIRA is supposed to be an independent, 25% of its long-term average. If the deficit
autonomous body for planning, investigation, lies between 26-50%, it is a moderate
financing and the implementation of the river drought, and over 50% is a severe drought.
interlinking projects in the country. • Hydrological Drought: It is defined as
NIRA Key points deficiencies in surface and sub-surface
• NIRA will function as an umbrella body for water supplies leading to a lack of water
all river linking projects and to be headed for normal and specific needs.
by a Government of India Secretary-rank • Agricultural Drought: It occurs when soil
officer. moisture and rainfall are inadequate
• It will replace the existing National Water during the crop growing season. It is
Development Agency (NWDA). usually triggered by both meteorological
• It will coordinate with neighbouring and hydrological droughts.
countries and concerned states and The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s
departments and will also have powers Welfare is the nodal Ministry for monitoring
on issues related to the environment, and managing drought conditions. The Indian
wildlife and forest clearances under river Meteorological Department (IMD) is the
linking projects and their legal aspects. designated agency for providing early warning
and forecasting.

138 Environment: Explanations

Q102. Answer: (b) • In Uttarakhand, snow leopards are found
Option (b) is correct: The Living Planet in Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, Gangotri
Index (LPI) is an indicator of the state of National Park, Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
global biological diversity based on trends and other places of altitude between
in vertebrate populations of species from 3000-4500 meters in a total geographical
around the world. area of around 13,000 square kilometres.
The Zoological Society of London (ZSL)
manages the index in cooperation with the Q105. Answer: (d)
World Wildlife Fund for Nature (WWF). Option (d) is correct: The steel industry is
the third-largest contributor to air pollution
Q103. Answer: (d) and one of the largest contributors to carbon
Option (d) is correct: The government aims dioxide emissions. Steel, in particular,
to achieve the gasification of 100 million requires coal for energy, so coal combustion
tonnes (MT) of coal by 2030, and this is the is responsible for a significant amount of
first time that a mission document has been emissions. Steel plants emit air pollutants
released. such as particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10),
Coal gasification is the process of converting carbon dioxide, sulphur oxides, nitrogen
coal into synthesis gas (also called syngas), oxides, carbon monoxide, etc.
which is a mixture of hydrogen (H2), carbon One of the major challenges faced by the steel
monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO2). industry is unaccounted or ‘fugitive’ emissions.
The syngas technology allows the conversion Fugitive emissions refer to pollutants that are
of non-mineable coal/lignite into combustible ‘fugitive’ or escape from a source without being
gases through in situ gasifications of the accounted for. Regular emissions from known
material. sources are accounted for and hence easier to
track and control. Fugitive emissions, on the
Q104. Answer: (d) other hand, are difficult to track since their
Option (d) is correct: Snow leopards are top source is unknown. Hence, they contribute to
predators in their environment, and their prey ambient air pollution in an untraceable way.
includes Siberian ibex (Capra sibrica), blue The problem of fugitive emissions occurs
sheep (Pseudois nayaur), Himalayan tahr during every stage of the steel manufacturing
(Hemitragus jemlahicus), argali (Ovis ammon) process and poses a huge challenge.
and marmots (Marmota himalayana).
Without the snow leopard, the ecological Q106. Answer: (a)
balance would be disrupted. For example – Option (a) is correct: The total area of the
herbivore populations will increase, resulting Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is 5,520 sq. km. It
in changes in the vegetation that will affect is in the Western Ghats between 76°- 77°15‘E
other wildlife and disrupt the important and 11°15‘ - 12°15‘N. The Nilgiri Biosphere
ecosystem services. Reserve encompasses parts of Tamil Nādu,
• Snow leopards are distributed across the Kerala and Karnataka. The annual rainfall of
100,146 sq. km of snowy forests in five the reserve ranges from 500 mm to 7000 mm
Himalayan states - Jammu & Kashmir, with temperatures ranging from 0°C during
Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim & winter to 41°C during summer.
Arunachal Pradesh. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve falls under
• Hemis National Park, Gangotri National the biogeographic region of the Malabar rain
Park, Khangchendzonga National Park and forest. The Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary,
Great Himalayan National Park are some Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary Bandipur
protected areas where snow leopards are National Park, Nagarahole National Park,
known to be found. Mukurthi National Park and Silent Valley

Environment: Explanations 139

 are the protected areas present within this • The schedules also include species that
reserve. It is the largest protected forest may be hunted.
area in India, spreading across Tamil Nadu,
Karnataka and Kerala. Q108. Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct: Tropical deciduous
Q107. Answer: (d) forests are the most widespread forests
Option (d) is correct: The Wildlife Protection in India. They are also called the monsoon
Act provides for the protection of a listed forests and spread over the region, receiving
species of animals, birds, and plants, and rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm. Trees of
also for the establishment of a network of this forest type shed their leaves for about six
ecologically important protected areas in the to eight weeks in dry summer. On the basis
country. of the availability of water, these forests are
• The Act provides for the formation of further divided into moist and dry deciduous.
wildlife advisory boards, wildlife wardens, The former is found in areas receiving rainfall
specifies their powers and duties, etc. between 200 and 100 cm.
• It helped India become a party to the In India, tropical deciduous forests are found
Convention on International Trade in in Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Odisha,
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and some parts of
Flora (CITES). Maharashtra.
• CITES is a multilateral treaty with the
objective of protecting endangered Q109. Answer: (c)
animals and plants. Option (c) is correct: A keystone species is
• It is also known as the Washington a species that has a disproportionately large
Convention and was adopted as a result effect on its natural environment relative
of a meeting of IUCN members. to its abundance, a concept introduced in
• For the first time, a comprehensive list 1969 by the zoologist Robert T. Paine. Such
of the endangered wildlife of the country species are described as playing a critical
was prepared. role in maintaining the structure of an
• The Act prohibited the hunting of ecological community, affecting many other
endangered species. organisms in an ecosystem, and helping to
• Scheduled animals are prohibited from determine the types and numbers of various
being traded as per the Act’s provisions. other species in the community. Without
• The Act provides for licenses for the sale, keystone species, the ecosystem would
transfer, and possession of some wildlife be dramatically different or cease to exist
species. altogether. Some keystone species, such as
• It provides for the establishment of the wolf, are also apex predators.
wildlife sanctuaries, national parks, etc. The role that a keystone species plays in
• Its provisions paved the way for the its ecosystem is analogous to the role of a
formation of the Central Zoo Authority. keystone in an arch. While the keystone is
This is the central body responsible for under the least pressure of any of the stones
the oversight of zoos in India. It was in an arch, the arch still collapses without
established in 1992. it. Similarly, an ecosystem may experience
• The Act created six schedules that gave a dramatic shift if a keystone species is
varying degrees of protection to classes removed, even though that species was a
of flora and fauna. small part of the ecosystem by measures of
• Schedule I and Schedule II (Part II) get biomass or productivity. It became a popular
absolute protection, and offences under concept in conservation biology, alongside
these schedules attract the maximum flagship and umbrella species.
penalties.
140 Environment: Explanations
Q110. Answer: (b) then most likely it ought to be in Tamil
Option (b) is correct: Many countries across Nadu, then in Karnataka, because of the
the globe committed to creating a new location. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is
international climate agreement by the the correct answer because it’s located in
conclusion of the U.N. Framework Convention Tamil Nadu.
on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Conference
of the Parties (COP21) in Paris in December
2015.
INDC is associated with UNFCCC-Climate
change.

Q111. Answer: (d)

Statement 1 is not correct: Pterocarpus
santalinus, with the common names Red
Sanders, Red Sandalwood, and sanders
wood, is a species of Pterocarpus endemic
to the southern Eastern Ghats mountain
range of South India. This tree is valued for
the rich red colour of its wood. The wood is
not aromatic. Q114. Answer: (c)
It was in the national media during April 2015, • Statement 1 is correct: Biosparging is an
when Andhra Pradesh police killed 20 Red in-situ Bioremediation technique in which
Sander smugglers in an encounter. we inject the air under pressure below
Statement 2 is not correct: Red Sanders is the water table to enhance the rate of
associated with Tropical dry deciduous forest, biological degradation of contaminants
as per the environment ministry website. by naturally occurring bacteria. Hence
statement 1 is right.
Q112. Answer: (d)
• Statement 2 is not correct: But not all
Option (d) is correct:
compounds are susceptible to rapid
• The operation was conducted to combat
and complete biodegradation, and
the proliferating illegal trade of live
bioremediation often takes a longer time
turtles and its parts from the country to
than other treatment processes.
destinations abroad.
• The operation was also aimed to invite Q115. Answer: (d)
the attention of the enforcement agencies Option (d) is correct: Consequences of heavy
towards such illegal trade. sand mining in riverbeds:
• During the operation conducted from • Increased salinity in the river.
December 15, 2016 to January 30, 2017, • Pollution of groundwater.
approximately 16,000 live turtles and • Lowering of the water-table
tortoises were seized and released back
into the wild. Q116. Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is not correct: Central
Q113. Answer: (a) Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory
Option (a) is correct: The Eastern and organization constituted in September 1974
Western Ghats meet at Nilgiri hills. Nilgiri under the Water (Prevention and Control of
hills are in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Now, Pollution) Act, 1974. The principal functions of
If there is a place serving as an Ecological the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention
link between Eastern and Western Ghats,

Environment: Explanations 141

 and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the • Lakshadweep
Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, • Andaman and Nicobar Islands
1981, to promote the cleanliness of streams • Gulf of Mannar
and wells in different areas. • Gulf of Kutch
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was set up • Netrani Island in Karnataka
in 2010 under the NGT Act, 2010 to effectively • Malwan Island in Maharashtra
and expedite disposal of cases relating to • Palk Bay
environmental protection. The Tribunal shall
not be bound by the procedure laid down Q120. Answer: (a)
under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, Option (a) is correct: Some organisms
but shall be guided by principles of natural possess physiological adaptations that
justice. respond quickly to stressful situations. At
Statement 2 is not correct: The Tribunal is high altitudes, we get acclimatized and stop
mandated to attempt disposal of applications experiencing altitude sickness. Our body
or appeals within six months of filing and it compensates for low oxygen availability by
can be appealed in the Supreme Court of increasing red blood cells (RBCs) production,
India. decreasing haemoglobin’s binding affinity,
and increasing breathing rate.
Q117. Answer: (b)
Option (b) is correct: Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Q121. Answer: (b)
includes the protected areas Mudumalai, Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2
Mukurthi, Nagarhole, Bandipur, Silent Valley is correct:
National Park, and Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary, • GM mustard is the third crop after BT
Wayanad, Karimpuzha and Sathyamangalam cotton, BT Brinjal, approved by the
wildlife sanctuaries. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC).
Q118. Answer: (b) • GEAC is the apex body created under
Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
correct: Scientists have developed an artificial Climate Change.
leaf that absorbs sunlight to generate hydrogen • The Genetic Engineering Appraisal
fuel from water, an advance that may provide Committee (GEAC) functions in the
clean energy for powering eco-friendly cars Ministry of Environment, Forest and
in the future. The ultra-thin wireless device Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules,
mimics plant leaves to produce energy using 1989, it is responsible for the appraisal
water and sunlight. of activities involving large scale use
The device consists of semiconductors, and of hazardous microorganisms and
when visible lights strike the semiconductor, recombinants in research and industrial
electron moves in one direction producing the production from the environmental angle.
electric current and this current instantaneously The committee is also responsible for the
splits water into hydrogen- which researchers appraisal of proposals relating to release
believe is one of the cleanest fuel as its main of genetically engineered (GE) organisms
by-product is water. and products into the enviornment
including experimental field trials.
Q119. Answer: (d) • GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/
Option (d) is correct: India is centrally placed Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and
within the warm tropical region of the Indian co-chaired by a representative from
Ocean and exhibits extensive coral reefs. the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Prominent coral reefs places in India are: Presently, it has 24 members and meets

142 Environment: Explanations

 every month to review the applications in penetrate the soil some distance away from
the areas indicated above. the main stem. These roots have many pores
• The functions of GEAC as prescribed in through which atmospheric oxygen enters
the Rules 1989, are as follows: into the roots.
○ To appraise activities involving Vivipary: It’s a method of reproduction in
large scale use of hazardous which seeds germinate and develop into
microorganisms and recombinants in seedlings while the seeds are still attached
research and industrial production to the parent tree. In mangroves, this method
from the environmental angle. helps in germination.
To appraise proposals relating to
○

release of genetically engineered Q123. Answer: (a)

organisms and products into the Option (a) is correct:
environment including experimental • Ice caps - 2%
field trials. • Groundwater - .68%
○ The committee or any persons • Freshwater lakes - .009%
authorized by it has powers to take • Atmosphere - .0019%
punitive action under the Environment • Rivers - .0001%
Protection Act. The rest of the water is saline stored in seas.
Genetic Modification is a technology that
involves inserting DNA into the genome Q124. Answer: (c)
of an organism. To produce a GM plant, Option (c) is correct: Kasturirangan
new DNA is transferred into cells of a Committee Report and Gadgil Committee
plant. These cells are then grown in tissue Report were regarding the demarcation of
culture where they transform into plants. ecologically sensitive areas in the Western
The seeds produced by these plants will Ghats. Pronab Sen Committee was for
have new DNA. The most common way of identifying parameters for designating
inserting is using the gene guns method. Ecologically Sensitive Areas in India. The
The other genetic engineering techniques parameters identified were richness of flora &
are electroporation, microinjection and fauna, slope, rarity, and endemism of species
agrobacterium. There are 3 main types in the area, origins of rivers etc.
of genetic modifications which are listed
below. Q125. Answer: (a)
1. Transgenic – plants have genes inserted Option (a) is correct: The “SECURE Himalayas
into them that are derived from other Project” was launched by the Union Ministry
species. of Environment, Forests and Climate
2. Cisgenic – plants are made using genes Change in collaboration with the United
of the same species or closely related. Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
3. Subgeneric – Alter the genetic makeup of It will cover Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim,
a plant without incorporating genes from Uttarakhand and Jammu and Kashmir. The
other plants. project will work on snow leopard smuggling
and poaching.
Q122. Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct: Breathing roots: To Q126. Answer: (d)
take up the oxygen from the atmosphere, Option (d) is correct: An ecosystem is a
the mangroves have specialized roots called geographic area where plants, animals, and
breathing roots. other organisms, as well as weather and
Stilt roots: In some mangrove species, landscape, work together to form a bubble
roots diverge from stems and branches and of life. Ecosystems contain biotic or living,

Environment: Explanations 143

 as well as abiotic factors, or nonliving parts. do not.
All the nutrients—such as carbon, nitrogen, • Amensalism: Amensalism describes an
oxygen, phosphorus,Calcium, protein, interaction in which the presence of one
hydrogen, phosphorus and sulfur used in species has a negative effect on another,
ecosystems by living organisms in that but the first species is unaffected. For
ecosystem. example, a herd of elephants walking
across a landscape may crush fragile
Q127. Answer: (b) plants.
Option (b) is correct: Ecological relationships
describe the interactions between and among Q128. Answer: (b)
organisms within their environment. These Statement 1 is correct: ‘The transfer of food
interactions may have positive, negative or energy from producers (plants) through a
neutral effects on either species’ ability to series of organisms that consume and are
survive and reproduce, or “fitness.” consumed is termed as a food chain.’ A food
• Predation: Predation includes any chain shows the movement of energy through
interaction between two species in a system by indicating the path of food from
which one species benefits by obtaining a producer to a final consumer.
resources from and to the detriment of A harsh arctic landscape has a much shorter
the other. food chain than a temperate or tropical one.
• Competition: Competition exists when Statement 2 is not correct: Only ten percent
multiple organisms vie for the same, of energy stored in organic matter at each
limiting resource. Because the use of a trophic level is actually converted to organic
limited resource by one species decreases matter at the next trophic level. This keeps
availability to the other, competition trophic structures in check and limits the
lowers the fitness of both. Competition abundance of predatory organisms at the top
can be interspecific, between different of the trophic structure.
species, or intraspecific, between Statement 3 is not correct: Within an
individuals of the same species. ecosystem, there are two major food chains:
• Mutualism: Mutualism describes an the grazing food chain and the detritus food
interaction that benefits both species. chain. The distinction between these two
A well-known example exists in the food chains is the source of energy for primary
mutualistic relationship between alga consumers. In the grazing food chain, the
and fungus that form lichens. The source of energy is living plant biomass (or
photosynthesizing algae supply the net primary production). In the detrital food
fungus with nutrients, and gain protection chain, the source of energy is dead organic
in return. The relationship also allows matter or detritus.
lichen to colonise habitats inhospitable
to either organism alone. Q129. Answer: (a)
• Commensalism: An interaction where one The processes occurring in nutrient cycles:
species benefits and the other remains Statement 1 is not correct: Nitrogen fixation:
unaffected is known as commensalism. Natural processes of nitrogen fixation
As an example, cattle egrets and are of two types – Biological nitrogen
brown-headed cowbirds forage in close fixation and non biological nitrogen fixation
association with cattle and horses, feeding (including nitrogen fixation by lightning and
on insects flushed by the movement of photochemical reactions). Approximately
the livestock. The birds benefit from this 90% of nitrogen fixation is biological nitrogen
relationship, but the livestock generally fixation, in which prokaryotic organisms fix

144 Environment: Explanations

molecular nitrogen into ammonia. influence of the two bordering communities
Ammonification: Most of the nitrogen in the on each other is known as the edge effect.
soil exists in organic forms. When organic An ecotonal area often has a higher density
nitrogen is converted into ammonium ions by of organisms of one species and a greater
bacteria and fungi, it is called ammonification number of species than are found in either
or mineralization. Mineralization is a general flanking community.
term used for a process in which an Examples of ecotones include marshlands
organically bound nutrient is released in an (between dry and wet ecosystems),
inorganic form. mangrove forests (between terrestrial and
Statement 2 is correct: Nitrification: The marine ecosystems), grasslands (between
oxidation of ammonium ions to nitrite desert and forest), and estuaries (between
and subsequent oxidation of nitrite to saltwater and freshwater).
nitrate is called nitrification. It is carried Additional Information:
out exclusively by bacteria. There are two Ecotones and edges are unique because
distinct steps of nitrification that are of the conditions they host. Their ability to
carried out by distinct types of bacteria. support so many different organisms makes
The first step in nitrification is the oxidation them highly sensitive areas of biodiversity.
of ammonium ions to nitrite. This step is These zones are harsh and sensitive; even
carried out by nitrifying bacteria (known as small changes in their characteristics can
ammonia-oxidizers) of genera Nitrosomonas, be potentially disastrous for the organisms
Nitrosospira and Nitrosococcus. The second living there.
step in nitrification is the oxidation of
nitrite to nitrate. This step is carried out Q131. Answer: (a)
by nitrifying bacteria (known as nitrite- Option (a) is correct:
oxidizers) of genera Nitrospira, Nitrobacter • Amensalism- One species is harmed, and
and Nitrococcus. the other is unaffected
Denitrification: The process of conversion • Commensalism- One species benefits,
of NO3 – into N2 by anaerobic denitrifying and the the other is unaffected
bacteria is called denitrification. These
bacteria use nitrate rather than oxygen as an
electron acceptor during respiration.
Statement 3 is not correct: Decomposition
on land is also slower when conditions are
either too dry for decomposers to thrive or
too wet to supply them with enough oxygen.

Q130. Answer: (a)

Option (a) is correct: Ecotone, a transitional
area of vegetation between two different
plant communities, such as forest and
grassland. It has some of the characteristics
of each bordering biological community Q132. Answer: (c)
and often contains species not found in Aerosols are minute particles suspended in
the overlapping communities. An ecotone the atmosphere. When these particles are
may exist along a broad belt or in a small sufficiently large, we notice their presence
pocket, such as a forest clearing, where as they scatter and absorb sunlight. Their
two local communities blend together. The scattering of sunlight can reduce visibility

Environment: Explanations 145

 (haze) and redden sunrises and sunsets. manufactured by Harvest to solve the
Statement 1 is correct: They affect the problem of stubble burning and pollution in
atmospheric chemical composition. India. It can turn crop residue into organic
Statement 2 is not correct: They can greatly manure in just 15-20 days.
reduce visibility.
Statement 3 is correct: Impacts on air quality Q136. Answer: (d)
and human health (e.g. aerosols can cause Option (d) is correct: Fly ash is produced
damage to heart and lungs). from the combustion of coal in electric
Statement 4 is correct: They serve as nuclei utility or industrial boilers. Fly ash is typically
for cloud droplets or ice crystals in ice clouds. finer than portland cement and lime. Fly
Statement 5 is correct: The atmospheric ash consists of silt-sized particles which
aerosols play a key role in the regional/global are generally spherical, typically ranging in
climate system by scattering and absorbing size between 10 and 100 microns. It consists
incoming solar radiation and modifying the primarily of oxides of silicon, aluminium iron,
cloud formations and impacting atmospheric and calcium. Magnesium, potassium, sodium,
warming and glacier retreat. titanium, and sulphur are also present to a
lesser degree.
Q133. Answer: (c) Application of fly ash:
Statement 1 is correct: London type smog: • As a substitute material for portland
Burning coal leads to emissions of Carbon cement, sand.
Dioxide, Sulphur Dioxide and dust. When • Fly-ash pellets can replace normal
these pollutants mix with fog, droplets of aggregate in the concrete mixture.
highly corrosive Sulphuric Acid are produced • Embankments and other structural fills.
in the air. It occurs at very cold temperatures. • Stabilisation of soft soils.
Statement 2 is correct: Los Angeles type • Road sub base construction.
or Photochemical Smog: This type of smog
forms on sunny days and is the result of Q137. Answer: (a)
emissions from traffic. Nitrogenous oxides Statement 1 is correct: The Stockholm
from car exhausts and hydrocarbons react Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
in the presence of sunlight to produce a was adopted on 22 May 2001 and entered
noxious mixture of aerosols and gases. into force on 17 May 2004. POPs are chemical
Q134. Answer: (c) substances that persist in the environment
Option (c) is correct: Exposure to prolonged for a long period, bio-accumulate in living
or excessive noise has been shown to cause organisms, adversely affect human health/
a range of health problems ranging from environment, and have the property of long-
stress, poor concentration, productivity range environmental transport. Exposure to
losses in the workplace, and communication POPs can lead to cancer, damage to central
difficulties and fatigue from lack of sleep, and peripheral nervous systems, diseases of
to more serious issues such as effects on the immune system, reproductive disorders,
the nervous system, high blood pressure, and child development.
cardiovascular disease, cognitive impairment, Statement 2 is not correct: The Stockholm
tinnitus and hearing loss. Convention is a legally binding international
Noise pollution has no effect on lungs. instrument, designed to lead to a gradual
decrease in the presence of persistent
Q135. Answer: (a) organic pollutants in the environment.
Option (a) is correct: Pusa Bio Decomposer Article 16 of the Convention requires that
is an innovative solution developed by the effectiveness of the measures adopted
scientists at ICAR - IARI Pusa, Delhi and by the Convention is evaluated in regular

146 Environment: Explanations

intervals. Q139. Answer: (c)
Statement 3 is not correct: India ratified Many conventions, protocols and programmes
the Stockholm Convention in 2006. The are initiated by many world organisations for
Ministry of Environment had notified the the conservation of the environment.
‘Regulation of POP Rules’ in 2018, under the Pair 1 is correctly matched: Ramsar
Environment(Protection) Act, 1986. Convention: The Convention on Wetlands,
called the Ramsar Convention, is an
Q138. Answer: (c) intergovernmental treaty that provides
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The Basel the framework for national action and
Convention on the Control of Transboundary international cooperation for the conservation
Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their and wise use of wetlands and their
Disposal was adopted on 22 March 1989 and it resources.
came into force in 1992 and, to date, has been Pair 2 is correctly matched: Bonn Convention:
signed by 187 countries, by the Conference The Convention on the Conservation of
of Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland, Migratory Species of Wild Animals aims
in response to a public outcry following the to “conserve terrestrial, marine and avian
discovery, in the 1980s, in Africa and other migratory species throughout their range.”
parts of the developing world of deposits Pair 3 is correctly matched: Vienna
of toxic wastes imported from abroad and Convention: The convention was adopted on
their Disposal is a multilateral treaty aimed 22nd March 1985 by the conference of The
at suppressing environmentally and socially Vienna Convention for the Protection of the
detrimental hazardous waste trading patterns. Ozone Layer is a Multilateral Environmental
The provisions of the Convention centre Agreement.
around the following principal aims: Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Cartagena
• the reduction of hazardous waste Protocol: The main objective of the Protocol
generation and the promotion of is to ensure a safe transfer. Handling and
environmentally sound management of use of living modified organisms (LMOs)
hazardous wastes, wherever the place of resulting from modern biotechnology may
disposal; have an adverse effect on conservation and
• the restriction of transboundary sustainable use.
movements of hazardous wastes except Pair 5 is not correctly matched: Basel
where it is perceived to be in accordance Convention: It is an international treaty that
with the principles of environmentally was designed to reduce the movements
sound management; and of hazardous waste between nations,
• a regulatory system applying to cases and specifically to prevent the transfer of
where transboundary movements are hazardous waste from developed to less
permissible. developed countries (LDCs). It does not
Statement 3 is not correct: India became a address the movement of radioactive waste.
party to the Basel Convention in 1992.
Statement 4 is correct: The Basel Q140. Answer: (b)
Convention obliges its Parties to ensure that Statement 1 is not correct: The United
such wastes are managed and disposed Nations Environment Assembly was created
of in an environmentally sound manner. in June 2012 when world leaders called for
The Convention covers toxic, poisonous, the UN Environment to be strengthened
explosive, corrosive, flammable, ecotoxic and upgraded during the United Nations
and infectious wastes. Conference on Sustainable Development,
also referred to as RIO+20. The assembly is
the governing body of the UN Environment

Environment: Explanations 147

 Programme (UN Environment) and the of the fiftieth instrument of ratification.
successor of its Governing Council, which It provides a transparent legal framework
was composed of 58 member states. for the effective implementation of one of
Statement 2 is correct: The United Nations the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and
Environment Assembly is the world’s equitable sharing of benefits arising out of
highest-level decision-making body on the utilisation of genetic resources.
the environment. It addresses the critical Statement 2 is correct: Its objective is the
environmental challenges facing the world fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising
today. from the utilisation of genetic resources,
thereby contributing to the conservation and
Q141. Answer: (b) sustainable use of biodiversity.
Option (b) is correct: Three Sisters Convention
or Three Rio Conventions are derived directly Q143. Answer: (c)
from the 1992 Earth Summit. Statement 1 is correct: It is a partnership
UN Convention on Biological Diversity between governments, civil society and the
(CBD): The objectives of the CBD are the private sector, working towards a prosperous
conservation of biological diversity, the Western Indian Ocean Region with healthy
sustainable use of its components, and the rivers, coasts and oceans.
fair and equitable sharing of the benefits Statement 2 is correct: It entered into force
arising from commercial and other utilisation in 1996 and is part of UNEP’s Regional Seas
of genetic resources. Programme.
United Nations Convention to Combat Statement 3 is correct: The Convention
Desertification (UNCCD): The UNCCD aims offers a regional legal framework and forum
to combat desertification and mitigate the for inter-governmental discussions that
effects of drought in countries experiencing lead to better understanding of regional
serious drought and/or desertification. environmental problems and the strategies
United Nations Framework Convention on needed to address them.
Climate Change (UNFCCC): The UNFCCC sets Statement 4 is correct: To address emerging
an overall framework for intergovernmental issues in the region, the Conference of Parties
efforts to tackle the challenge posed by (COPs) have established expert groups and
climate change. Its objectives are to stabilise task forces, such as the Mangrove Network,
greenhouse-gas concentrations in the the Coral Reef Task Force, Marine Turtle Task
atmosphere at a level that would prevent Force, the Forum for Academic and Research
dangerous anthropogenic interference with Institutes (FARI), and the Legal and Technical
the climate system. Working Group.
The United Nations Environment Program Statement 5 is not correct: The Union Cabinet
(UNEP) does not come under the Three of India on 4 November 2010 approved the
Sisters Convention. UNEP was established proposal to accede to the Nairobi International
in 1972 while the remaining three came Convention on the Removal of Wrecks, 2007.
into existence in 1992 under the Earth The Union Cabinet decided this to address
Summit. the problems arising from the increasing
number of shipwrecks. A shipwreck causes
Q142. Answer: (c) environmental hazards and poses threat to
Statement 1 is correct: It was adopted navigation safety of India.
on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan as a
supplementary agreement to the Convention Q144. Answer: (a)
on Biological Diversity. It entered into force Statement 1 and 2 are not correct: The
on 12 October 2014, 90 days after the deposit Convention on Wetlands/Ramsar Convention

148 Environment: Explanations

is the intergovernmental treaty that provides to take steps necessary to ensure that its
the framework for the conservation and wise ecological character is maintained.
use of wetlands and their resources.
The Convention was adopted in the Iranian Q146. Answer: (a)
city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into Option (a) is correct: Mishmi takin (Budorcas
force in 1975. Since then, almost 90% of taxicolor taxicolor) is a species of goat-antelope
UN member states, from all the world’s found in the hills of Arunachal Pradesh and
geographic regions, have acceded to become Sikkim at an altitude of 2000-3000 metres.
“Contracting Parties”. Its presence has also been reported in Sikkim.
Under the Ramsar Convention, a conference Apart from India, it is also found in Bhutan,
of the concerned parties is held after every Myanmar and China. Its scientific name is
three years. The Body Conference of Parties Budorcas taxicolor. In the Red List of IUCN, it
governing the Biodiversity Conference meets is placed in the ‘vulnerable’ category and also
every two years. listed under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife
Statement 3 is correct: The United Nations (Protection) Act, 1972. A special feature of this
Convention to Combat Desertification species is that it contains a mixture of organs
(UNCCD), adopted in 1994, is the sole legally of different animals.
binding international agreement linking
environment and development to sustainable Q147. Answer: (c)
land management. The Convention addresses Option (c) is correct: The dancing deer also
specifically the arid, semi-arid, and dry sub- known as the Sangai deer is found abundantly
humid areas, known as the drylands, where in the state of Manipur.
some of the most vulnerable ecosystems The Sangai, endemic to Manipur, is found
and peoples can be found. Parties to the only at the Keibul Lamjao National Park
Convention meet in Conferences of the (KLNP), the world’s only floating national
Parties (COPs) every two years, as well as park. It lives on Phumdis floating island on
in technical meetings throughout the year, the Loktak Lake.
to advance the aims and ambitions of the
Convention and achieve progress in its Q148. Answer: (a)
implementation. Option (a) is correct: The IUCN status of
the Kondana rat is critically endangered.
Q145. Answer: (b) The Kondana soft-furred rat (Millardia
Option (b) is not correct: Ramsar convention, London), also known as the Kondana rat
1971 is an intergovernmental international or large metal, is an endangered species
treaty, signed in Ramsar (Iran) to preserve of rodent in the family Muridae. It is a
ecological character of selected wetlands nocturnal burrowing rat that is endemic to
across the globe. the Sinhgad plateau near Pune, Maharashtra,
India is a party to the Convention. India.
It aims to develop a global network of The pygmy hog is the smallest member of
wetlands for conservation of biological the pig family. With estimates of 200 to 300
diversity and for sustaining human life. individuals surviving in the wild and a highly
The wetlands declared as Ramsar sites are restricted range, the species is currently
protected under strict guidelines of the listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ under the
convention. IUCN Red List of Threatened Species, making
Ramsar Sites are included in List of Wetlands the pygmy hog one of the most threatened
of International Importance. mammals in the world.
The inclusion of a wetland in the List Sumatran rhinos are the smallest of the
embodies the government’s commitment living rhinoceroses and the only Asian rhino

Environment: Explanations 149

 with two horns. They are covered with long crocodile (Crocodylus Palustris), and
hair and are more closely related to the saltwater crocodile (Crocodylus Porosus),
extinct woolly rhinos than any of the other in the river systems of Odisha were on the
rhino species alive today. It is listed as verge of extinction by the seventies. The
Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List crocodile population started to decline
of Threatened Species.. because of the increasing human activity in
The Olive Ridley turtles are the smallest the rivers and their other traditional habitats,
and most abundant of all sea turtles found and the consequent reduction in the extent
in the world, inhabiting warm waters of the of habitable stretches.
Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans. They are
best known for their unique mass nesting Q151. Answer: (d)
called Arribada, where thousands of females Statement 1 is correct: Lichens act as
come together on the same beach to lay indicators for atmospheric pollution. Also,
eggs. Olive ridley turtles are Vulnerable as called as indicator organisms or bioindicators.
per IUCN. Bioindicators are living organisms that
respond in an especially clear way to a
Q149. Answer: (a) change in the environment.
Statement 1 is not correct: The Olive Ridley Lichens are useful bioindicators for air
turtles are the smallest and most abundant pollution, especially sulphur dioxide pollution
of all sea turtles found in the world, inhabiting since they derive their water and essential
warm waters of the Pacific, Atlantic and nutrients mainly from the atmosphere rather
Indian oceans. They are best known for their than from the soil.
unique mass nesting called Arribada, where Statement 2 is correct: Lichens can also be
thousands of females come together on the used to measure toxic elemental pollutants
same beach to lay eggs. and radioactive metals because they bind
Statement 2 is not correct: The species is these substances in their fungal threads
listed as vulnerable in the IUCN Red List, where they concentrate them over time.
Appendix 1 in CITES, and in Schedule 1 in Statement 3 is correct: Lichens are plant
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. forms that combine algae and fungi in a
Statement 3 is correct: Olive-ridley’s face single symbiotic organism. They are abundant
serious threats across their migratory in boreal and arctic habitats.
route, habitat, and nesting beaches, due
to human activities such as unfriendly Q152. Answer: (a)
turtle fishing practices, development, and Option (a) is correct: Invasive species, also
exploitation of nesting beaches for ports, called introduced species, alien species,
and tourist centres. The most severe threat or exotic species, any non-native species
they face is the accidental killing of adult that significantly modifies or disrupts the
turtles through entanglement in trawl nets ecosystems it colonises.
and gill nets due to uncontrolled fishing The most common characteristics of invasive
during their mating season around nesting species are high reproduction and growth,
beaches. high dispersal ability, ability to survive on
various food types and in a wide range of
Q150. Answer: (c) environmental conditions and the ability
Option (c) is correct: Odisha is the only state to adapt physiologically to new conditions,
in India to have all the three varieties of called phenotypic plasticity.
crocodile. Example: Water hyacinth forms dense mats,
All the three species of crocodiles, namely, reducing sunlight for submerged plants
gharial (Gavialis Gangeticus), mugger and aquatic organisms, crowding out native

150 Environment: Explanations

aquatic plants, and clogging waterways and In peatlands, year-round water-logged
intake pipes. conditions slow plant decomposition to such
an extent that dead plants accumulate to
Q153. Answer: (b) form peat. This stores the carbon the plants
Statement 1 is correct: A gene sanctuary absorb from the atmosphere within peat soils,
is an area where plants are conserved. providing a net-cooling effect and helping
It includes both biosphere reserves as to mitigate the climate [Link]
well as national parks. India has set up and overexploitation of peatland landscapes
its first gene sanctuary in the Garo Hills release huge quantities of greenhouse gases.
of Meghalaya for wild relatives of citrus. This results mainly from a lack of awareness
Efforts are also being made to set up gene of the benefits of peatlands and includes
sanctuaries for banana, sugarcane, rice and actions such as: drainage, conversion for
mango. agriculture, burning, and mining for fuel. In
Statement 2 is correct: Conservation of some regions, up to 80% of peatlands have
germplasm under natural conditions is been damaged.
referred to as in situ conservation. This is
achieved by protecting the area from human Q155. Answer: (a)
interference; such an area is often called Option (a) is correct: Plant species with a
Natural Park or gene sanctuary. wide range of genetic distribution evolve
Statement 3 is correct: NBPGR, New Delhi, into a local population known as Ecotype.
established gene sanctuaries in Meghalaya An ecotype is a population (or subspecies or
for citrus, north Eastern regions for musa, race) that is adapted to local environmental
citrus, oryza and saccharum. In this method [Link] evolutionary ecology, an
of conservation, the wild species and the ecotype,sometimes called ecospecies,
complete natural or semi natural ecosystems describes a genetically distinct geographical
are preserved together. variety, population, or race within a species,
Statement 4 is not correct: The disadvantage which is genotypically adapted to specific
is that each protected area will cover only environmental conditions. It is a variant in
a very small portion of total diversity of a which the phenotypic differences are too
crop species, hence several areas will have few or too subtle to warrant being classified
to be conserved for a single species. The as a subspecies. These different variants can
management of such areas also poses several occur in the same geographic region where
problems. This is also a costly method of distinct habitats such as meadow, forest,
germplasm conservation. swamp, and sand dunes provide ecological
niches.
Q154. Answer: (d)
Option (d) is correct: They are a heterogeneous Q156. Answer: (b)
mixture of plant material (mosses, humus etc) Statement 1 is correct: Similipal was formally
that have accumulated in a water-saturated designated a tiger reserve in 1956 and brought
area and are only partially decomposed due under Project Tiger in the year 1973. It derives
to absence of oxygen. its name from the ‘Simul’ (silk cotton) tree.
Peatland covers 3% of global land surface Statement 2 is not correct: It is situated in
and is the largest natural terrestrial carbon the northern part of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj
store. district. Similipal and the adjoining areas
They are found in permafrost regions towards were declared a biosphere reserve by the
the poles and at high altitudes, in coastal Government of India in 1994.
areas, beneath tropical rainforest and in Statement 3 is correct: It was declared a
boreal (taiga) forests. biosphere reserve by the Government of India

Environment: Explanations 151

 in June 1994. It has been part of the UNESCO chlorofluorocarbons were replaced by
World Network of Biosphere Reserve since hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs). The Kigali
2009. agreement is an amendment to the Montreal
protocol. Around 197 countries, including
Q157. Answer: (d) India, China and the USA, agreed at Kigali to
Option (d) is correct: Dehing Patkai Wildlife reduce the use of HFCs by roughly 85% of
Sanctuary is referred to as ‘the Amazon of their baselines by 2045. Hydrofluorocarbons
the East’. are organic compounds containing hydrogen,
Dehing is the name of the river that flows Carbon, and fluorine. They are commonly
through this forest and Patkai is the hill at used as substitutes for Ozone depleting
the foot of which the sanctuary lies. substances like Chlorofluorocarbons
It is famous for Assam Valley Tropical Wet (CFCs) and are used in refrigerators and
Evergreen Forests bordering Arunachal air-conditioners. Though HFCs are not as
Pradesh. harmful as CFCs for ozone layer depletion,
Assam’s Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary, the they have a thousand times more potential
only sanctuary in India which is home to as to cause global warming than commonly
many as seven different species of wild cats known greenhouse gases like carbon Dioxide,
and a host of endangered flora and fauna. methane [Link] were
banned under the Kigali Agreement because
Q158. Answer: (b) It was responsible for global warming and
Option (b) is correct: The Nagarjunsagar- not for ozone depletion.
Srisailam Tiger Reserve, which is spread over
Nalgonda and Mahabubnagar is the largest Q160. Answer: (c)
tiger reserve in the country. The tiger reserve Option (c) is correct: Keoladeo National Park
is spread over 5 districts in Andhra Pradesh is a very important site. Migratory waterfowl
and Telangana. The area consists mostly of visit this world heritage site during winter for
the Nallamala Hills. breeding. The wetland helps protect Bharatpur
Bor Tiger Reserve (Maharashtra) is the which was earlier a waterfowl hunting
smallest tiger reserve in India. The 138 sq ground from [Link] National Park
km Tiger reserve includes the Bor Wildlife or Keoladeo Ghana National Park formerly
Sanctuary, the New Bor Wildlife Sanctuary, known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary
and the drainage basin of the Bor Dam. It in Bharatpur, Rajasthan, India is a famous
was declared as a tiger reserve in July 2014. avifauna sanctuary that hosts thousands of
It is located near Hingani in Wardha District birds, especially during the winter season.
in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Over 350 species of birds are known to be
resident. It is also a major tourist centre with
Q159. Answer: (b) scores of ornithologists arriving here in the
Statement 1 is not correct and Statement hibernal season. It was declared a protected
2 is correct: The Montreal Protocol is an sanctuary in 1971. It is also a World Heritage
international treaty to protect the environment [Link] Ghana National Park is a man-
against harmful substances. It is considered made and man-managed wetland and one
to be one of the most successful experiments of the national parks of India. The reserve
on any environmental issue in the world. This protects Bharatpur from frequent floods,
was conceived after identifying a large hole provides grazing grounds for village cattle,
in the earth’s ozone layer over Antarctica. The and earlier was primarily used as a waterfowl
main aim of the Montreal Protocol is to end the hunting ground. The park was established as
use of chlorofluorocarbons. Subsequently, a national park on 10 March 1982. Previously
the private duck shooting preserve of the

152 Environment: Explanations

Maharaja of Bharatpur since the 1850s, the • There is no need to pass any Legislation
area was designated as a bird sanctuary on (Act) by the State Assembly to declare a
13 March 1976 and a Ramsar site under the Wildlife Sanctuary. Fixation and alteration
Wetland Convention in October 1981. of boundaries can be done by the State
Legislature via a Resolution.
Q161. Answer: (c) B) National Parks:
Statement 1 is correct: Kaziranga-Karbi • An area, whether within a sanctuary or not,
Anglong Landscape is situated within the Indo- can be notified by the State Government
Burma Biodiversity hotspot. It lies to the south to be constituted as a National Park by
of the river Brahmaputra Region in Assam. reason of its ecological, faunal, floral,
Statement 2 is correct: This landscape has a geomorphological, or zoological association
population of about 2,500 elephants—about or importance, needed for the purpose of
half of Assam’s elephant population and more protecting & propagating or developing
than 70% of Assam’s tigers. It is also rich in wildlife therein or its environment.
rhinos, forming 90% of the population in the • No human activity is permitted inside
Country. This makes the area critical for the the national park except for the ones
protection and conservation of wildlife and permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of
their habitats. the state under the conditions given in
the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Q162. Answer: (a) Declaration of the National Parks:
Protected Areas of India: • The State Government has the right itself
• Protected areas are those in which human to declare an area as a National Park or a
occupation or at least the exploitation of Wildlife Sanctuary, by reason of its floral,
resources is limited. faunal, ecological, geomorphological or
• The definition that has been widely zoological association or importance,
accepted across regional and global required to be constituted as a National
frameworks has been provided by the Park with the intention of protecting,
IUCN in its categorization guidelines for propagating, and developing the wildlife
protected areas. in the specific area.
• Protected Area Network includes: • There is no alteration of the boundaries
A) Wildlife Sanctuaries: of a National Park shall be made except
• Any area other than the area comprised of on the Bill passed by the Legislature
any reserve forest or the territorial waters (Assembly) of the State.
can be notified by the State Government
to constitute a sanctuary if such area Q163. Answer: (b)
is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral, For the development of biofuels, a National
geomorphological, natural or zoological Policy on Biofuels was announced in 2009.
significance for the purpose of protecting, Under this policy, oil marketing companies
propagating or developing wildlife or its need to sell petrol with 10% of Ethanol
environment. Blending.
Some restricted human activities are allowed Statement 1 is not correct: Price
inside the Sanctuary area details of which Determination is done based on ethanol
are given in Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. availability.
(Statement 3 is not correct ) Statement 2 is correct: This is an eco-friendly
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is way to convert ethanol from bio-feed stock.
not correct: Declaration of Sanctuary: The Government has allowed the procurement
• A Wildlife Sanctuary is defined by the of ethanol produced from other non-food
State Government via a Notification. feedstocks besides molasses, like cellulosic

Environment: Explanations 153

 and lignocellulosic materials, including the molecule contains oxygen, it allows the engine
petrochemical route. Oil PSUs have entered to completely combust the fuel, resulting
into Memorandum of Understanding with in fewer emissions and thereby reducing
State Governments and Technology Providers the occurrence of environmental pollution.
for 2G ethanol bio-refineries. Oil Public Since ethanol is produced from plants that
Sector Undertakings (PSUs) have planned to harness the power of the sun, ethanol is also
set up second generation (2G) ethanol bio- considered as a renewable fuel.
refineries to augment ethanol supplies for Ethanol can be combined with petrol in any
Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme concentration up to pure ethanol (E100).
at Panipat in Haryana, Bathinda in Punjab, Anhydrous ethanol, that is, ethanol without
Bargarh in Odisha, Numaligarh in Assam and water, can be blended with petrol in varying
Davangere in Karnataka. quantities to reduce the consumption of
According to BIS specifications, biodiesel petroleum fuels, as well as to reduce air
is permitted for sale to all consumers by pollution.
blending it with high-speed diesel. Ethanol as a fuel:
• With a 113 octane rating, ethanol is the
Q164. Answer: (a) highest performance fuel on the market
BS norms introduced in 2000 by the and keeps today’s high-compression
government based on European emission engines running smoothly.
standards are the emission control standards • Because the ethanol molecule contains
to keep a check and control release of air oxygen, it allows the engine to completely
pollutants from equipment using internal combust the fuel, resulting in fewer
combustion engines including vehicles. emissions.
Statement 1 is correct: The newly introduced • Since ethanol is produced from plants
BS-VI fuel is estimated to reduce the amount that harness the power of the sun, ethanol
of sulphur released by 80% as BS-IV fuels is also considered a renewable fuel.
contain 50 PPM (parts per million) sulphur, • Ethanol-blended fuel keeps the fuel
while BS-VI grade fuel will have 10 PPM system clean for optimal performance
sulphur. Along with sulphur content, it will because it does not leave gummy
bring down the emission of NOx (nitrogen deposits.
oxides) from Diesel cars by nearly 70% and • Ethanol helps prevent wintertime
petrol engines by 25%. problems by acting as a gas-line
Statement 2is not correct: Particulate Matter antifreeze.
emissions are included in both the norms. About project E-100:
Statement 3 is not correct: Currently, there • It aims to set up a network for the
are no standards under BS norms for CO2 production and distribution of ethanol
emission. across the nation.
• India is targeting to have 20 per cent
Q165. Answer: (b) ethanol-blended fuel by 2025 in a push
Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 towards a robust biofuel policy.
is correct: Ethanol, anhydrous ethyl alcohol • The focus on ethanol is having a better
having a chemical formula of C2H5OH, can be impact on the environment as well as on
produced from sugarcane, maize, wheat, etc, the lives of farmers as it helps them earn
which are having high starch content. In India, more profits.
ethanol is mainly produced from sugarcane
molasses by the fermentation process.
Ethanol can be mixed with the gasoline
to form different blends. As the ethanol

154 Environment: Explanations

Q166. Answer: (c) of the organisation is the head (DGM –
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: The World Director-General of Meteorology) of the
Bank Board of Executive Directors approved a IMD. The WMO has applauded India’s IMD’s
$39.5 million project to help South Asia build remarkable accuracy in the forecasts and
resilience to climate threats and disasters updates on Cyclone Amphan, which led to a
by sharing regional data and knowledge, significant saving of lives in India.
developing regional standards and guidelines
for infrastructure, and promoting climate- Q168. Answer: (c)
resilient policies and investments. It will Option (c) is not correct: The United Nations
help in developing regional standards and Framework Convention on Climate Change
guidelines for infrastructure and promoting (UNFCCC) established an international
climate-resilient policies and investments. environmental treaty to combat “dangerous
Statement 3 is not correct: The project human interference with the climate
will help in developing a public platform to system”, in part by stabilising greenhouse
inform climate planning and investments gas concentrations in the atmosphere. It
and fund technology to support resilience was signed by 154 states at the United
in South Asia. It will fund a public domain Nations Conference on Environment and
platform known as Regional Resilience Data Development (UNCED), informally known
and Analytics Service, with information as the Earth Summit, held in Rio de Janeiro
about weather hazards, climate variability, from 3 to 14 June 1992. The United Nations
and sector-specific data to help the policy Framework Convention on Climate Change
makers assess climate risks. It will also is a framework for international cooperation
assess climate impacts in districts across to combat climate change by limiting
Bangladesh, Nepal, and Pakistan to support average global temperature increases and
agriculture, livestock, water, and transport. the resulting climate change and coping
with impacts that were, by then, inevitable.
Q167. Answer: (c) It established a Secretariat headquartered
Option (c) is not correct: The World in Bonn and entered into force on 21 March
Meteorological Organisation (WMO) is an 1994 (not in 2000). The treaty called for
intergovernmental organisation with a ongoing scientific research and regular
membership of 193 Member States and meetings, negotiations, and future policy
Territories. It originated from the International agreements designed to allow ecosystems
Meteorological Organisation (IMO), the roots to adapt naturally to climate change, ensure
of which were planted at the 1873 Vienna that food production is not threatened and
International Meteorological Congress. enable economic development to proceed
Established by the ratification of the WMO in a sustainable manner. Today, it has near-
Convention on 23 March 1950, WMO became universal membership. The 197 countries
the specialised agency of the United Nations that have ratified the Convention are called
for meteorology (weather and climate), Parties to the Convention.
operational hydrology and related geophysical
sciences a year later. The Secretariat, Q169. Answer: (b)
headquartered in Geneva, is headed by the Statement 1 is not correct: The fund was
Secretary-General. Its supreme body is formally established during the 2010
the World Meteorological Congress. It is a United Nations Climate Change Conference
member of the United Nations development in Cancun as a fund within the UNFCCC
group. India has been a member of the WMO framework. Its governing instrument was
since 1949. India’s permanent representative adopted at the 2011 United Nations Climate

Environment: Explanations 155

 Change Conference (COP 17) in Durban, South (OECD).
Africa. Statement 3 is correct: Industrialised nations
Statement 2 is correct: The GCF Board is agree under the Convention to support
charged with the governance and oversight of climate-change activities in developing
the Fund’s management. It was established countries by providing financial support to
by 194 sovereign governments in the UN these countries. A system of grants and loans
Framework Convention on Climate Change has been set up through the Convention
(UNFCCC). The Board is independent and and is managed by the Global Environment
guided by the Conference of the Parties (COP) Facility. Industrialised countries also agree
to the Convention. to share technology with less-advanced
Statement 3 is not correct: In 2010, the nations.
Conference of the Parties to the UN
Framework Convention on Climate Change Q171. Answer: (a)
(UNFCCC) invited the World Bank to serve as Option (a) is correct: GEF is a unique
interim trustee of the Green Climate Fund. partnership of 18 agencies — including United
On 12 April 2019, the World Bank and the Nations agencies, multilateral development
Fund entered into an Amended and Restated banks, national entities and international
Agreement for the Administration of the NGOs — working with 183 countries to address
Green Climate Fund Trust Fund to provide the world’s most challenging environmental
Trustee services for an additional period of issues. The GEF has a large network of civil
4 years. society organisations, works closely with the
private sector around the world, and receives
Q170. Answer: (d) continuous inputs from an independent
Statement 1 is correct: The Convention evaluation office and a world-class scientific
sets an ultimate objective of stabilising panel.
greenhouse gas concentrations “at a level It is a financial mechanism for 5 major
that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic international environmental conventions:
(human-induced) interference with the the United Nations Framework Convention
climate system.” It states that “such a level on Climate Change (UNFCCC), the United
should be achieved within a time-frame Nations Convention on Biological Diversity
sufficient to allow ecosystems to adapt (UNCBD), the Stockholm Convention on
naturally to climate change, to ensure that Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), the
food production is not threatened, and to United Nations Convention to Combat
enable economic development to proceed in Desertification (UNCCD), and the Minamata
a sustainable manner. Convention on Mercury.
Statement 2 is correct: The Convention
places the heaviest burden for fighting Q172. Answer: (d)
climate change on industrialised nations Option (d) is correct: Biological Oxygen
since they are the source of most past and Demand (BOD) is the amount of dissolved
current greenhouse gas emissions. These oxygen needed by bacteria to in decompose
countries are asked to do the most to cut the organic wastes present in water. It is
what comes out of smokestacks and tailpipes expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre
and to provide most of the money for of water. Water pollution by organic wastes
efforts elsewhere. For the most part, these is measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen
developed nations, called “Annex I” countries Demand (BOD).
because they are listed in the first annexe The higher value of BOD indicates a low
to the treaty, belong to the Organisation for Dissolved oxygen content of water. Since
Economic Cooperation and Development BOD is limited to biodegradable materials, it

156 Environment: Explanations

is not a reliable method of measuring water human exposure, and significant public
pollution. health problems in many parts of the world.
It affects multiple body systems and is
Q173. Answer: (a) particularly harmful to young children. Human
Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is exposure is usually assessed through the
not correct: Global Carbon Project (GCP) was measurement of lead in blood. Lead in bone
established in 2001 and initiated with the is released into the blood during pregnancy
objective to develop a complete picture of and becomes a source of exposure to the
the Global Carbon Cycle (including both its developing foetus.
biophysical and human dimensions together The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) Drinking
with the interactions and feedbacks between Water Specifications prescribed lead content
them). This will be in water not to exceed 50 parts per billion.
• Patterns and variability in the Global The World Health Organization limit for lead
Carbon Cycle in drinking water is 5 ppb.
• Process and interaction by Anthropogenic Causes:
and non- Anthropogenic activities that • A leading contributor to lead exposure is
determine the dynamics of the carbon the informal and sub-standard recycling
cycle. of lead-acid batteries.
• Carbon Management: What will be the • As per the report, water, cosmetics, paints
dynamics of the carbon-climate-human and ceramic wares is also another source
system in the future, and what points of of lead poisoning.
intervention and windows of opportunity Consequences:
exist for human societies to manage this • Small exposure to lead causes symptoms
System? like headaches, nausea, irritability,
tiredness, and stomach aches. Hence, it
Q174. Answer: (d) has a tendency to go undiagnosed. Most
Option (d) is correct: Global Environment children with lead poisoning do not show
Facility (GEF) was established in 1992 on the any outward symptoms unless blood lead
eve of the Rio Summit as an independently levels are extremely high. Consequently,
operating financial organisation to provide many cases go undiagnosed.
grants for projects related to Climate Change, • Large exposure affects the development
Biodiversity, Land Degradation, International of the brain, especially in children and
Waters, the Ozone layer and Persistent lowers IQ.
Organic Pollutant (POPs). Global Environment • Lead exposure also makes the body
Facility(GEF) serves as a financial mechanism susceptible to anaemia as it prevents the
for formation of haemoglobin. Lead replaces
• UNFCCC minerals, notably iron and calcium, in the
• CBD(Convention on Biological Diversity body and prevents haemoglobin. It also
• UNCCD increases the risk of early death.
• Minamata Convention on Mercury
• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Q176. Answer: (a)
Organic Pollutant (POPs) Option (a) is correct: An aquatic ecosystem
is an ecosystem located in water bodies.
Q175. Answer: (d) The two main types of aquatic ecosystems
Option (d) is correct: Lead is a naturally are freshwater ecosystems and marine
occurring toxic metal found in the Earth’s ecosystems.
crust. Its widespread use has resulted in Freshwater is defined as having a low salt
extensive environmental contamination,

Environment: Explanations 157

 concentration - usually less than 1%. Plants plants, or microbial or plant enzymes to
and animals in freshwater regions are detoxify contaminants in the soil and other
adjusted to the low salt content and cannot environments. Bioremediation techniques
survive in areas of high salt concentration have made it possible to decontaminate
(i.e., oceans). Freshwater ecosystems can be soil and groundwater and have helped us
divided into two categories: clean up our oceans after oil spills and other
• Standing water or lentic ecosystems like environmental disasters.
a lake, pond, marshes, or swamp. These Types of Bioremediation techniques:
are also known as pond ecosystems. • Microbial bioremediation uses
• A lake is any relatively large body of microorganisms to break down
slowly moving or standing water that contaminants by using them as a food
occupies an inland basin of appreciable source.
size. Definitions that precisely distinguish • Phytoremediation uses plants to bind,
lakes, ponds, swamps, even rivers, and extract, and clean up pollutants such
other bodies of nonoceanic water are less as pesticides, petroleum hydrocarbons,
well established. It may be said, however, metals, and chlorinated solvents.
that rivers and streams are relatively fast- • Mycoremediation uses fungi’s digestive
moving (lotic ecosystems); marshes and enzymes to break down contaminants
swamps contain relatively large quantities such as pesticides, hydrocarbons,
of grasses, trees, or shrubs; and ponds are and heavy metals. Mycoremediation
relatively small in comparison with lakes. is an effective and inexpensive way of
Geologically defined, lakes are temporary controlling soil and water pollution.
bodies of water. It is cost-effective and can remove
• A marsh is a wetland that is dominated pollutants present in low concentrations.
by herbaceous rather than woody plant It has the edge over current chemical and
species. Marshes can often be found at physical methods of removing pollutants.
the edges of lakes and streams, where Similarly, it is more effective than
they form a transition between the bacterial remediation processes due to
aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems. They available higher fungal biomass compared
are often dominated by grasses, rushes, to bacteria, high surface-to-cell ratio, a
or reeds. network of hyphae, tolerance to varying
• A swamp is a wetland ecosystem pH and temperature, aggressive growth,
characterized by mineral soils with poor and presence of metal-binding proteins
drainage and by plant life dominated by and polysaccharides of fungi.
trees. Swamps are found throughout the
world, most often in low-lying regions Q178. Answer: (c)
(with poor drainage) next to rivers, which Option (c) is correct: Colour coding of bio
supply the swamp with water. Some medical waste represents the very basic
swamps develop from marshes that principle that waste doesn’t all go to the
slowly fill in, allowing trees and woody same place. Different kinds of waste also
shrubs to grow. mean different of ways handling them.
• Examples of running water or lotic • YELLOW - Pathological waste, soiled
ecosystems are - rivers, springs, and (infectious) waste, medical, chemical
streams. waste, Clinical lab waste and
pharmaceutical waste (discarded/expired
Q177. Answer: (c) medicines and drugs)
Option (c) is correct: Bioremediation is a • RED- Contaminated waste (recyclable). This
process that uses mainly microorganisms, includes waste generated from disposable

158 Environment: Explanations

 medical equipment, like bottles, tubing, • The distinctive properties of algae such
intravenous tubes, syringes (WITHOUT the as:
needles), catheters, or gloves. 1. CO2 absorbance for growth helps
• WHITE (or translucent)- Sharps waste. in the reduction of the greenhouse
This also includes metals, as well as effect.
almost anything with a “sharp” edge that 2. They do not require a large area for
may cause punctures and/or cuts on development compared to other
unsuitable containers (hence the name food crops.
“sharps” waste). Needles, blades, scalpels 3. They can adjust to brine water.
etc,. fall under this category. 4. Their lipid content is found to be high.
• BLUE- Medical glassware waste. • The lipids in algae can be converted to
biodiesel by the generalized method
Q179. Answer: (c) used for the conversion of vegetable oil
Option (c) is correct: A primary pollutant into biodiesel. Algae biofuels may be the
is an air pollutant emitted directly from a future of alternative, renewable energy
source. Some primary pollutants are: resources.
• Carbon monoxide • There are two different types of algae
• Sulphur dioxide that can be produced to make biofuels:
• Nitrogen oxides macroalgae and microalgae.
• Hydrocarbons • Macroalgae are large, multi-cellular
• Particulate matter organisms that are measured in inches
A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted and grow in ponds. Microalgae are micro,
as such but forms when other pollutants unicellular organisms that are measured
(primary pollutants) react in the atmosphere. in micrometres and grow in suspension
Some secondary pollutants are: within a body of water.
• Ground-level ozone • The list of fuels that can be derived
• PAN (peroxyacetyl nitrate) from algae includes Biodiesel, Butanol,
• Photochemical smog Gasoline, Methane, Ethanol, Vegetable
• Aerosols and mists (H2SO4) Oil, and Jet Fuel.
• Acid rain (formed when sulfur dioxide or
nitrogen oxides react with water) Q181. Answer: (d)
Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESAs): ESAs are
Q180. Answer: (d) defined as those areas that are ecologically
Option (d) is correct: Algae – 3rd generation and economically important but vulnerable
biofuels (G3) even to mild disturbances and hence demand
• The fuel which is obtained from a chemical careful management. Therefore, ‘ecologically
method from biomass rather than a slow and economically important areas are those
geological process is known as Biofuel. areas that are biologically and ecologically
• The bright or dark green patches found in ‘rich’, ‘valuable’, and ‘unique’ and are largely
wet regions are algae, the non-flowering irreplaceable if destroyed.
plants like species containing chlorophyll Statement 1 is not correct: Section 3 of the
yet distinct from floras ranging from micro Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (EPA)
to macro sizes. The processing of these gives power to the Central Government,
microorganisms diversifies the scope i.e. the Union Ministry of Environment and
in the nutritional industry, bioplastics, Forests, to take all measures that it feels are
pharmaceuticals, special chemicals necessary for protecting and improving the
manufacture, organic fertilizer and the quality of the environment and to prevent
flourishing biofuel industry. and control environmental pollution. To

Environment: Explanations 159

 meet this objective, the Central Government Nationa

may restrict areas in which any industries,

Solarl
National Mission
National
Mission for

operations or processes, or class of industries,

Mission for
Starategic
Enhanced
Knowledge
Energy
on Climate
operations or processes shall not be carried Change
Efficiency

out or shall be carried out subject to certain

safeguards. Thus, the government came up National National
Mission for
Sustainable NAPCC Mission for
Sustainable
with the concept of Eco-Sensitive Zones. Agriculture Habitat

Statement 2 is not correct: The purpose of

declaring Eco-sensitive Zones around National National
National
Mission for
Parks and Sanctuaries is to create some kind a Green
India National
Water
Mission

of “Shock Absorber” for the Protected Areas. Mission for

Sustaining the
Himalayan
They would also act as a transition zone from Ecosystem

areas of high protection to areas involving

lesser protection. It does not imply the Q183. Answer: (b)
prohibition of all kinds of human activities. Statement 1 is not correct: TRAFFIC is a non-
governmental organization working globally
Q182. Answer: (a) on the trade of wild animals and plants in the
Statement 1 is correct: The Central context of both biodiversity and sustainable
Government launched National Clean Air development.
Programme (NCAP) as a long-term, time- Statement 2 is correct: The mission of
bound, national level strategy to tackle the TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild
air pollution problem across the country in plants and animals is not a threat to the
a comprehensive manner with targets to conservation of nature.
achieve a 20% to 30% reduction in Particulate The conservation projects of TRAFFIC mainly
Matter concentrations by 2024 keeping focus on:
2017 as the base year for the comparison • Enhancing the benefits from sustainable
of concentration. Since a collaborative and and legal trade in wildlife resources by
participatory approach involving relevant increasing incentives for businesses,
Central Ministries, State Governments, communities, and consumers to engage
Local bodies and other Stakeholders with a in responsible trade practices.
focus on all sources of pollution form crux • Reducing wildlife crime and illegal trade
of the Programme, extensive consultation that is driving the poaching crisis.
with all the relevant stakeholders forms the
foundation for formulation of NCAP. Q184. Answer: (d)
Statement 2 is not correct: The programme Statement 1 is correct: Bioremediation is a
may be further extended to a longer time process for treating contaminated water,
horizon after a mid-term review of the soil, and subsurface material by stimulating
outcomes. Dovetailing of the existing policies microorganisms’ growth and degrading the
and programmes, including the National target pollutants.
Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) and Statement 2 is correct: Bioremediation is a
other initiatives of Government of India in slow process and cannot completely treat
reference to climate change, will be done heavy metals contamination.
while the execution of NCAP. So, It is not a Statement 3 is correct: Genetic engineering
part of the National Action Plan for Climate can be used to create organisms for
Change (NAPCC). bioremediation; for example, degradative
genes can be inserted into the organism
to encode proteins required to degrade
pollutants.

160 Environment: Explanations

Q185. Answer: (b) Q188. Answer: (c)
Statement 1 is not correct: Climate and Clean Option (c) is correct: Montreal Protocol on
Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer
Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of (a protocol to the Vienna Convention for
the United Nations Environment Programme the Protection of the Ozone Layer) is an
(UNEP) and a group of countries. It was international treaty designed to protect the
launched by the United Nations Environment ozone layer by phasing out the production of
Programme (UNEP) and six countries— numerous substances that are responsible
Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, for ozone depletion.
and the United States—on 16 February 2012. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal
Statement 2 is correct: The CCAC Protocol is an international agreement to
focuses on methane, black carbon, and gradually reduce the consumption and
hydrofluorocarbons. production of hydrofluorocarbons. It is a
legally binding agreement designed to create
Q186. Answer: (d) rights and obligations in international law.
Statement 1 is correct: Birdlife International
is the world’s largest nature conservation Q189. Answer: (c)
partnership which makes every effort to Option (c) is correct: Green India Mission was
conserve birds, their habitats, and global launched in February 2014 with the objective
biodiversity while working along with people to safeguard the biological resources of our
in the direction of sustainability. nation and associated livelihoods against the
Statement 2 is correct: Birdlife International peril of adverse climate change and to recognise
has over 120 partner organizations that aim the vital impact of forestry on ecological
to find, monitor, and protect birds across the sustainability, biodiversity conservation and
world and various other wildlife. food-, water- and livelihood-security.
Statement 3 is correct: An Important Bird and It aims at protecting, restoring, and
Biodiversity Area (IBA) is an area identified enhancing India’s diminishing forest cover
using an internationally agreed set of criteria as and responding to climate change through
being globally important for the conservation adaptation and mitigation measures. It
of bird populations. IBA was developed, and envisages a holistic view of greening that
sites were identified by Birdlife. There are over extends beyond tree planting. GIM focuses
13,000 IBAs worldwide. These sites are small on multiple ecosystem services such as
enough to be entirely conserved and differ biodiversity, water, biomass, preserving
in their character, habitat, or ornithological mangroves, wetlands, critical habitats etc.,
importance from the surrounding habitat. along with carbon sequestration.

Q187. Answer: (d) Q190. Answer: (d)

Option (d) is correct: Mangroves are largely Statement 1 is not correct: The Sustainable
found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Development Goals (SDGs) were born at the
and the Sundarbans of West Bengal. United Nations Conference on Sustainable
The group of Andaman Islands carries Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012. The
Evergreen and Deciduous Forests as these objective was to produce a set of universal goals
areas receive ample rainfall. Tropical evergreen that meet the urgent environmental, political,
forests are also present on the slope of the and economic challenges facing our world.
Western Ghats, hills of the north-eastern Statement 2 is not correct: The Sustainable
region, and Andaman and the Nicobar Islands. Development Goals (SDGs) are a collection

Environment: Explanations 161

 of 17 global goals set by the United Nations. Q194. Answer: (c)
These goals have to be achieved by 2030. Statement 1 is correct: The Dam Safety Act
of 2021 proposes to help all states and UTs
Q191. Answer: (d) adopt uniform dam safety procedures and
Option (d) is correct: Madhav Gadgil set up an institutional mechanism to ensure
Committee was an environmental research the safe functioning of specific dams in the
committee appointed by the Ministry country.
of Environment and Forests to give Statement 2 is correct: It provides for
recommendations regarding the protection adequate surveillance, inspection, operation,
of western ghats. The commission submitted and maintenance of all the large dams in
the report to the Government on 31 August the country to prevent dam failure related
2011. disasters.
The Kasturirangan committee report has
sought to balance the two concerns of Q195. Answer: (d)
development and environmental protection Statement 1 is correct: Development-
by watering down the environmental induced displacement and resettlement
regulatory regime proposed by the Madhav (DIDR) occur when people are forced to leave
Gadgil Committee report. their homes in a development-driven form
of forced migration. Development-induced
Q192. Answer: (d) displacement is a social problem affecting
Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural multiple levels of human organization,
photovoltaic is an evolving practice in from tribal and village communities
sustainable development that combines food to well-developed urban areas. It is
and energy production. The land is used for characterized by the permanent relocation
both agriculture and solar power generation of all households within a geographic area
simultaneously. due to the construction of infrastructure
Statement 2 is correct: Cochin International projects.
Airport Ltd (CIAL) has developed countries’ Statement 2 is correct: The poorest and
first large-scale Agri-voltaic farming. most marginalized people are generally hit
Statement 3 is correct: PV-module is the hardest by displacement, most often
installed in the Agri voltaic system (AVS) without adequate compensation. Many
inclination angle equal to the latitude of displaced families have been displaced three
the place of installation. Agri-PV overcomes or four times. “In India, 50 million people
the present either-or situation by achieving have been displaced in the last 50 years in
power generation and agricultural yield. the name of ‘national’ interest “.
Statement 3 is correct: According to a
Q193. Answer: (c) detailed study of 54 Large Dams done by
Option (c) is correct: The National Parks can the Indian Institute of Public Administration,
be arranged based on the states they are the average number of people displaced by a
located in: Large Dam is 44,182.
• Bandipur National Park - Karnataka The tribals, who comprise 8.08% of India’s
• Silent Valley National Park - Kerala population, are estimated to be more than
• Rajaji National Park - Uttarakhand 40% of the displaced people. Dalits constitute
• Bandhavgarh National Park - Madhya 20% of displaced persons.
Pradesh
Q196. Answer: (c)
Option (c) is correct: The biosphere reserves
can be arranged based on the states they are

162 Environment: Explanations

located in, beginning with the Cold Desert • It is commonly known as soot.
in Himachal Pradesh, Khangchendzonga in • Black carbon warms the earth by
Sikkim, Kachchh in Gujarat, Seshachalam in absorbing heat in the atmosphere and by
Andhra Pradesh, and Agasthyamalai at the reducing albedo.
junction of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. • It is the strongest absorber of sunlight
and heats the air directly.
Q197. Answer: (a)
Option (a) is correct: The Climate Change Q200. Answer: (c)
Performance Index (CCPI) is a scoring system Option (c) is correct: The Ramsar Sites can
designed by the German environmental and be arranged based upon the states they are
development organisation Germanwatch e.V. located in:
to enhance transparency in international Deepor Beel - Assam
climate politics. Based on standardised Chilika - Odisha
criteria, the index evaluates and compares Renuka - Himachal Pradesh
the climate protection performance of 63 Thol -Gujarat
countries and the European Union (EU) (status
CCPI 2022), which are together responsible Q201. Answer (a)
for more than 90% of global greenhouse Option (a) is correct: National Board
gas (GHG) emissions. The Climate Change for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory Board
Performance Index was first published in constituted in September 2003 under Section
2005, and an updated version is presented at 5 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The
the UN Climate Change Conference annually. NBWL is chaired by the Prime Minister.
India has been placed in the 10th spot in the Section 26A of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
global Climate Change Performance Index 1972 defines the declaration of the sanctuary.
(CCPI) 2022 released by Germanwatch on the It says that the State Government may
sidelines of the COP26. declare its intention to constitute an area
which consists of adequate ecological, flora,
Q198. Answer: (c) fauna and natural or zoological significance
Statement 1 is correct: The Polavaram for the protection of wildlife.
irrigation project, set to be operationalised by Section 9 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
April 2022, will displace the highest number 1972 prohibits the hunting of wild animals.
of people in India’s history of such projects: It says, no person shall hunt any wild animal
106,006 families across 222 villages (total specified in Schedule I, II, III and IV.
of 373 habitations) in Andhra Pradesh, upon
completion. Q202. Answer: (d)
Statement 2 is correct: The Polavaram Project Option (d) is correct: Some of important
is an under construction multi-purpose findings of the ‘Atlas of mortality and
irrigation project on the Godavari River in economic losses from weather, climate, and
the West Godavari District and East Godavari water extremes 1970-2019’
District in Andhra Pradesh. The project has • There were more than 11,000 disasters
been accorded National project status by the attributed to weather, climate and water-
Union Government of India. related hazards, accounting for two
million deaths and $3.64 trillion in losses.
Q199. Answer: (d) • More than 91% of all deaths occurred in
Option (d) is correct: developing countries.
• It is a solid particle or aerosol that • The number of disasters had risen by a
contributes to the warming of the factor of five. But the number of deaths
atmosphere. decreased.

Environment: Explanations 163

 Q203. Answer: (c) Q204. Answer: (c)
Option (c) is correct: The Khangchendzonga Option (c) is correct: The national parks can
National Park is a biosphere reserve located be arranged based on the states they are
in Sikkim within the Eastern Himalayas located in:
global biodiversity hotspot and features a • Nagarahole – Karnataka
range of sub-tropical to alpine ecosystems. • Silent Valley – Kerala
The Park’s natural vegetation includes • Corbett – Uttarakhand
temperate broadleaf and mixed coniferous • Bandhavgarh- Madhya Pradesh
forests comprising various floral species
such as birch, conifer, maple, oaks, ferns, Q205. Answer: (a)
and willow. Option (a) is correct: The biosphere reserves
Simlipal National Park and Tiger Reserve, can be arranged based on the states they are
located in Odisha, largely has tropical located in, beginning with the Dihang Dibang
deciduous vegetation. in Arunachal, Nokrek in Meghalaya, Simlipal in
Mudumalai National Park and Tiger Reserve Orissa, Cold Desert in Himachal Pradesh and
located in is a tropical moist forest of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
Tamil Nadu. Tropical dry forests and scrub
forests are also found in Mudumalai National
Park.

164 Environment: Explanations