6 EVOLUTION

06. In Miller’s experiment, he used a mixture of CH4,

ORIGIN OF LIFE NH3, H2 and water vapour in a closed flask to
mimic early earth conditions. What was the
01. Why does it is said that looking at stars on a clear temperature at which this flask was kept?
night sky means looking back in time? [AIIMS 2013, NCERT page no.111]
[NCERT page no.110] A) 800°C C) 200°C
A) What we are seeing at that time is actually B) 1200°C D) 400°C
has started is journey millions of years back
B) What we are seeing at that time is actually 07. Which of the following is not true about Big Bang
has started its journey trillions of days back Theory?
C) What we are seeing at that time is actually [NCERT page no.111]
has started is journey thousands of days A) A singular huge explosion
back B) Universe expanded and temperature came
D) What we are seeing at that time is actually down
has started its journey thousands of C) Hydrogen and helium formed along with
kilometres away this explosion
D) The gases condensed under gravitation and
02. Which of the following statements are not true? formed the galaxies of the present day
[NCERT page no.110] universe
A) The origin of life is considered a unique
event in the history of universe 08. Which of the following is true regarding early
B) Earth is just a speck earth?
C) Universe is almost 20 million years old [NCERT page no.111]
D) Galaxies contains stars and clouds of gas A) Earth was supposed to have been formed
and dust about 4.5 billion years back
B) The atmosphere of early earth was full of
03. Mark the incorrect statement with respect to water vapour
evolution: C) The surface of Earth was covered by water
[NCERT page no.110] vapour, methane and carbon dioxide, the
A) When we see objects in our immediate three compounds formed from molten mass
surroundings we see them instantly and D) The UV rays from the sun broke up water
hence in the present time into hydrogen and oxygen and lighter
B) When we look at stars on a clear night sky, oxygen escaped
we are looking back in time
C) Stellar distances are measured in kilometres 09. Oparin of and Haldane of proposed
D) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the that the first form of life could have come from
universe pre-existing .
[NCERT page no.111]
04. The concept of chemical evolution is based on: A) Russia, England, non-living inorganic
[NCERT page no.111] molecules
A) Crystallization of chemical B) England, Russia, living organic matter
B) Interaction of water, air and clay under C) Russia, England, non-living organic
intense heat molecules
C) Effect of solar radiation on chemicals D) England, Russia, life
D) The possible origin of life by the
combination of chemicals under suitable 10. Which of the following statements is true?
environmental conditions [NCERT page no.111]
A) A British scientist created the conditions
05. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time proposed by Oparin and Haldane in a closed
of origin of life? flask with temperature of 800 degrees
[NCERT page no.111] Celsius in electric discharge along with
A) NH3 C) O2 gases methane, hydrogen, ammonia and
B) H2 D) CH4 water vapour and observed formation of
amino acid.
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B) Some similar experimental setups were also d) Presence of free H2 molecules
prepared by other scientists and formation e) Presence of molecules like CH4, NH3, H2O
of sugar, nitrogenous bases, pigments and vapours
fats was recorded. A) a, d and e C) d and e
C) The processes of chemical evolution were B) a and d D) a only
occurring elsewhere in space was concluded
by the analysis of content of gaseous cloud. 16. After about how many years of the formation of
D) The first self-replicating metabolic capsule the Earth, life appeared on this planet?
of life arose 3 billion years back. [NEET 2020, NCERT page no.111]
A) 500 billion years
11. Theory of spontaneous generation of life was B) 50 million years
conclusively disproved by: C) 500 million years
[NCERT page no.111] D) 50 billion years
A) Francesco Redi
B) Oparin and Haldane 17. In present times the origin of life is not possible
C) Louis Pasteur from inorganic compounds due to:
D) Eldredge and Gould [AIPMT 1998, NCERT page no.111]
A) Non-availability of raw material
12. For the stability of the organic compounds, B) High concentration of O2 in the atmosphere
Oparin opined that probably: C) Decrease in temperature
[NCERT page no.111] D) Excess of pollution
A) UV radiation never reached the surface of
the primeval Earth 18. According to Oparin, which one of the following
B) the primitive Earth was in a molten state was not present in the primitive atmosphere of
C) the primitive Earth atmosphere was the Earth?
reducing rather than oxidizing [AIPMT 2004, NCERT page no.111]
D) plenty of energy sources were available for A) Oxygen C) Water vapour
chemical reactions to occur B) Hydrogen D) Methane

13. The theory of spontaneous generation says that: 19. Which one of the following was obtained by S.
[NCERT page no.111] Miller in his experiments on the origin of life
A) Life originated from the decaying and before 1953:
roping matter like straw, mud etc [AIPMT 1999, NCERT page no.111]
B) Life came on the earth from outer space A) Simple sugars C) Nucleotide
C) Life comes from pre-existing life only B) Amino acid D) Peptides
D) Life started with the replication of self
replicating metabolic capsules 20. Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for
some astronomers, means:
14. Theory of spontaneous generation was rejected [NEET 2022, NCERT page no.111]
because: A) Creation of life from dead and decaying
[NCERT page no.111] matter
A) It explains origin of first life from non-living B) Creation of life from chemicals
or inanimate matter and lack experimental C) Origin of sperm in human testes
evidence D) Transfer of spores as a unit of life from other
B) It was based on the Biogenesis concept planets of Earth
C) It did not explain about the origin of first life
on Earth 21. The first form of life were not:
D) It proposed origin of life from outer space [NCERT page no.112]
A) Single cells
15. Which of the following options is not correct B) In water environment only
regarding the early atmosphere? C) Originated till about 200 million years ago
[NCERT page no.111] D) Both A and B
a) Oxygen was totally absent
b) Atmosphere was reducing 22. In the apparatus of Urey and Miller experiment
c) Temperature was high the gases [G] contained in the flask are:

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[NCERT page no.112] 24. According to theory of special creation which one
is wrong?
[NCERT page no.112]
A) All living organisms were created as such
B) Diversity was same since the creation
C) Diversity will increase as the changes in
environment come
D) The earth about 4000 years ago

25. Which of the following statement is true?

[NCERT page no.112]
A) Prokaryotes evolved before eukaryotes
B) Eukaryotes evolved before prokaryotes
C) prokaryotes and eukaryotes evolved at
A) Methane, Carbon dioxide, Ammonia, and approximately the same time
Water vapour D) It is unclear whether prokaryotes or
B) Methane, Hydrogen cyanide, Ammonia, and eukaryotes evolved first
Water vapour
C) Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen, and Water
EVIDENCES OF EVOLUTION
vapour
D) Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Hydrogen, and
26. Most fossils are found in:
Ammonia
[NCERT page no.113]
A) Granite C) Lava flows
23. The diagram shown below represents Miller’s
B) Sedimentary rocks D) Black soil
experiment with certain labelled parts. Find out
from the options the correct set of labellings:
27. The early-stage human embryo distinctly
[NCERT page no.112]
possesses:
[AIIMS 2003, NCERT page no.113]
A) Gills C) External ear(pinna)
B) Gill slits D) Eyebrows

28. Which of the following conclusions is of

palaeontological evidences for evolution?
[NCERT page no.113]
A) A study of fossils in different sedimentary
layers indicates the geological period, in
which they existed
B) The new life forms have arisen at same time
in the history of Earth
A) A - CH4, NH3, H2O, vapour, CO2
C) Fossils are remains of hard parts of rocks
B - Vacuum pump showing the presence of carbon in life forms
C - Alanine, glycine, aspartic acid
D) Both B and C
B) C - Alanine, glycine, glutamic acid
D - Vacuum pump 29. The embryological support for evolution was
F - Electrodes disproved by whose keen observations?
C) A - CH4, NH3, H2 , H2O [NCERT page no.113]
B - Condenser A) Karl Ernst Von Baer
E - Vacuum pump B) Ernst Heckel
D) A - CH4, NH3, H2O, vapour, H2 C) Charles Darwin
B - Alanine, Glycine, aspartic acid D) Alfred Wallace
D - Boiling water
30. Arrange the following in the order of their
existence during the history of life forms: a)
Stegosaurus, b) Brachiosaurus, c) Triceratops,
EVOLUTION OF LIFE FORMS
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d) Tyrannosaurus, e)Pteranodon, f)Crocodilian, C) Overproduction, consistency of population
g)Archaeopteryx. size, variations, natural selection
[NCERT page no.113] D) Variations, natural selection,
A) b)-a)-g)-f)-e)-d)-c) overproduction, constancy of population
B) e)-b)-g)-a)-f)-c)-d) size
C) g)-a)-f)-b)-e)-d)-c)
D) c)-a)-f)-g)-d)-e)-b) 37. The homologous organs are those that shows
similarity in:
31. Tyrannosaurus was not present with which of the [NCERT page no.114]
following dinosaurs? A) Size C) Function
[NCERT page no.113] B) Origin D) Appearance
A) Triceratops C) Pteranodon
B) Archaeopteryx D) Brachiosaurus 38. Which one of the following describes correctly
the homologous structures?
32. Which of the following is from the same lineage [NCERT page no.114]
as that of Triceratops? A) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage
[NCERT page no.113] and disappearing later in the adult
A) Stegosaurus C) Brachiosaurus B) Organs with anatomical similarities, but
B) Tyrannosaurus D) Pteranodon performing different functions
C) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities but
33. The best description of natural selection is: performing same functions
[NCERT page no.113] D) Organs that have no function now but had
A) The survival of the fittest an important function in ancestors
B) The struggle for existence
C) The reproductive success of the members of 39. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs
a population best adapted to the of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats
environment used in flying are an example of:
D) A change in the proportion of variations [AIPMT 2014, NCERT page no.114]
within a population A) Analogous organs
B) Adaptive radiation
34. Natural selection is the survival of fittest, which C) Homologous organs
of the following most preciously described the D) Convergent evolution
survival of fittest?
[NCERT page no.113] 40. An important evidence in favour of organic
A) The physical strength of organism evolution is the occurrence of:
B) How many fertile offspring is produced by [AIPMT 2006, NCERT page no.114]
an organism A) Homologous and vestigial organs
C) Capability to tolerate environmental B) Analogous and vestigial organs
extremities C) Homologous organ only
D) How long they survive D) Analogous organ only

35. Embryological support for evolution was 41. Which of the following is an example of
proposed by: homologous organs?
[PYQ, NCERT page no.113] [NCERT page no.114]
A) Ernst Heckel C) Charles Darwin A) Wings of butterfly and of birds
B) Karl Ernst Von Baer D) Alfred Wallace B) Eye of the octopus and of mammals
C) Sweet potato and potato
36. Which one of the following sequences was D) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of
proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic Cucurbita
evolution?
[AIPMT 2003, NCERT page no.113] 42. Structures given in the figure below represent the
A) Overproduction, variations, constancy of example of:
population size, natural selection [NCERT page no.114]
B) Variations, constancy of population size,
overproduction, natural selection

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A) Common ancestry C) Analogy
B) Diverse ancestry D) Convergence

47. Distantly related organisms with similar traits

have experienced:
[NCERT page no.115]
A) Coevolution
B) Convergent evolution
A) Adaptive convergence C) Divergent evolution
B) Convergent evolution D) Parallel evolution
C) Analogy
D) Divergent evolution 48. Which of the following is not a result of
convergent evolution?
43. When two species of different geneology come to [NCERT page no.115]
resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the A) Potato and Sweet potato
phenomenon is termed: B) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
[NCERT page no.115] C) Eye of Octopus and a Mammal
A) Divergent evolution D) Thorn and tendril of Bougainvillea
B) Micro evolution
C) Co-evolution 49. The eye of the octopus and the eye of the cat
D) Convergent evolution show different patterns of structure, yet they
perform a similar function. This is an example of:
44. Which one of the following options gives one [NCERT page no.115]
correct example each of convergent evolution and A) Homologous organs that have evolved due
divergent evolution? to divergent evolution
[NCERT page no.115] B) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
Convergent Divergent convergent evolution
evolution evolution C) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
A) Eyes of Octopus Bones of forelimbs divergent evolution
and mammals of vertebrates D) Homologous organs that have evolved due
to convergent evolution
B) Thorns of Wings of
Bougainvillea and butterflies and 50. The process by which organisms with different
tendrils of birds evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic
Cucurbita
adaptations in response to a common
C) Bones of forelimbs Wings of butterfly environmental challenge is called:
of vertebrates and birds [AIPMT 2013, NCERT page no.115]
D) Thorns of Eyes of Octopus A) Convergent evolution
Bougainvillea and and mammals B) Non-random evolution
tendrils of C) Adaptive radiation
Cucurbita D) Natural selection

45. Evolutionary convergence is the development of: 51. Among the following sets of examples for
[NCERT page no.115] divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
A) Common set of characters in the group of [NCERT page no.115]
different ancestry A) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
B) Dissimilar characters in closely related B) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
groups C) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
C) Common set of characters in closely related D) Eyes of octopus, bat and man
groups
D) Random mating 52. Which of the following is not an example of
analogous structure?
46. Biochemical similarities performing a given [NCERT page no.115]
function among diverse organisms give clues for: A) Eye of Octopus and mammal
[NCERT page no.115] B) Flippers of penguins and dolphin

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C) Sweet potato and potato [NCERT page no.116]
D) Mouth parts of cockroach and mosquito A) Production of ‘Dolly’, the shape by Cloning
B) Development of organs from ‘stem’ cells for
53. Which of the following will not show convergent organ transplantation
evolution? C) Development of transgenic animals
[NCERT page no.115] D) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
A) Eye of Octopus and mammal
B) Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins 59. In the case of peppered moth men the black-
C) Sweet potato and potato coloured form became dominant over the light-
D) Hearts of frog and rabbit coloured form in England during the industrial
revolution. This is an example of:
54. Similarities in organisms with different [AIPMT 2009, NCERT page no.116]
genotypes indicate: A) Natural selection, whereby the darker forms
[AIPMT 2001, NCERT page no.115] were selected
A) Microevolution B) Appearance of the darker coloured
B) Macroevolution individuals due to very poor sunlight
C) Convergent evolution C) Protective mimicry
D) Divergent evolution D) Inheritance of darker colour character
acquired due to the darker environment
55. Which of the following statements is not true?
[NEET 2022, NCERT page no.115] 60. Mark the correct statement with respect to
A) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair industrial melanism:
of homologous organs [NCERT page no.116]
B) Analogous structures are a result of A) Lichens can be used as an industrial
convergent evolution pollution indicator
C) Sweet potato and potato is an example of B) Low count of melanic moths are found in
analogy rural areas where industrialisation did not
D) Homology indicates common ancestry occur
C) Neither grey nor the dark variety of moths
56. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the has been completely wiped out
trees indicates that the: D) All of these
[NEET 2014, NCERT page no.116]
A) Trees are very healthy 61. The excess use of herbicides and pesticides etc.
B) Trees are heavily infested has resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a
C) Location is highly polluted much lesser time. Hence, resistant organisms/
D) Location is not polluted cells are appearing in a time span of months or
years and not centuries. This statement is:
57. Which of the following conclusions is from [NCERT page no.116]
industrial melanism? A) In a favour of evolution by anthropogenic
[NCERT page no.116] action
A) Camouflage causes the white moths to get B) Against the natural selection theory
caught by predators more even in rural C) In favour of sexual selection theory
areas during industrialisation. D) In favour of genetic drift
B) During industrialisation, white variant of
moths got wiped out completely in urban 62. The selecting agent in industrial melanism was:
areas. [NCERT page no.116]
C) During industrialisation, lichen will increase A) Humans C) Birds
in number. B) Toxins from smoke D) Tree bark
D) In a mixed population, those that can better
adapt, survive and increase in population 63. If there were no melanic forms in the pre-
size. industrialization era what would be the end
result of industrialization?
58. Which one of the following phenomena supports [NCERT page no.116]
Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic A) Peppered moths would have increased in
evolution: number

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B) Peppered moths would have become black D) Power of adaptation in an individual to a
due to the deposition of soot variety of environments
C) Extinction of peppered moths
D) No change in the population of peppered 68. The finches of Galapagos Islands provide an
moths evidence in favour of:
[AIPMT 2007, NCERT page no.117]
64. Evolution is a: A) Special creation
[NCERT page no.116] B) Evolution due to mutation
A) Stochastic process C) Retrogressive evolution
B) Discontinuous process D) Biogeographical evolution
C) Reversible process
D) All of these 69. The presence of the monotremes and marsupials
in the Australian continent can be explained by:
65. In England before industrialization set in, it was [NCERT page no.117]
observed that there were more white winged A) Convergent evolution
moths on trees than dark winged or melanised B) Adaptive radiation
moths. After industrialization, there was more C) Punctuated equilibrium
dark winged moths in the same area. The D) Gene flow
explanation put forth for this observation is:
[NCERT page no.116] 70. Adaptive radiation can be observed in all cases,
a) White winged moths changed into malaised except:
form in polluted environment due to [NCERT page no.117]
deposition of soot A) Marsupial radiation
b) The tree trunks became dark due to B) Variety of beaks in Darwin’s finches
industrial smoke and soot. Under this C) Placental diversification in North American
condition the white winged moth did not D) Wing structure of butterfly, bat and birth
survive due to predator
c) Dark wind or melanised moth survived as 71. The evolutionary process giving rise to new
they could hide in the background species adapted to new habitats and ways of life
d) Black winged moths are recessive mutants is called adaptive radiation. For example:
of the same gene [NCERT page no.117]
How many of the above statements are correct? A) Darwin’s finches in Galapagos Islands
A) One C) Three B) Australian marsupials that radiated to form
B) Two D) Four new species
C) Wolf and Tasmanian wolf
66. Industrial melanism is an example of: D) Both A and B
[AIPMT 2003, NCERT page no.116]
A) Drug resistance 72. Biologists discover about 1000 species in an
B) Darkening of the skin due to smoke from island which is descended from a single ancestor
industries species. What is the reason behind the such large
C) Protective resemblance with the speciation?
surroundings [NCERT page no.117]
D) Defensive adaptation of skin against A) Mutation
ultraviolet radiation B) Adaptive radiation
C) Convergent evolution
ADAPTIVE RADIATION D) Reproductive isolation

67. Adaptive radiation refers to: 73. A population of species invades in new area.
[NCERT page no.117] Which of the following condition will lead to
A) Adaptations due to geographical isolation adaptive radiation?
B) Evolution of different species from a [NEET 2019, NCERT page no.117]
common ancestor A) Area with a large number of habitats having
C) Migration of members of a species to very low food supply
different geographical areas B) Area with a single type of vacant habitat
C) Area with many types of vacant habitats

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D) Area with many habitats occupied by a large b) Convergent II Bones of
number of species evolution forelimbs in
man and whale
74. In Galapagos Island, Darwin found different c) Divergent III Wings of
varieties of finches originated from a common evolution butterfly and
ancestor. The original variety of the finches was: bird
[NCERT page no.117] d) Evolution by IV Darwin finches
A) Insectivorous C) Seed-eating Anthropogenic
B) Vegetarian D) Cactus eating Action
Choose the correct answer from the options given
75. Adaptive radiation does not follow which of the below:
following statements? a b c d
[NCERT page no.117] A) II I IV III
A) Blackbird on Galapagos Islands observed by B) I IV III II
Darwin is an amazing example of adaptive C) IV III II I
radiation D) III II I IV
B) All the varieties of finches evolved on the
same island from original seed feeding 79. Which of the following is placental mammal?
finches to insectivorous and vegetarian [NCERT page no.118]
finches A) Bandicoot C) Wombat
C) Australian marsupials, which are similar to B) Numbat D) Bobcat
each other evolved from an ancestral stock
but all within the Australian island
continent BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION
D) More than one adaptive radiation appeared
to have occurred in an isolated geographical 80. Which of the following statement is not true if we
area representing different habitats, known consider postulates of Darwinian Theory of
as convergent evolution evolution?
[NCERT page no.118]
76. On Galapagos Island, Darwin observed variation A) Evolution by natural selection would have
in beaks of birds (Darwin’s finches) and he started when cellular forms of life with
concluded: similarities in metabolic capabilities
[AIPMT 1998, NCERT page no.117] originated on Earth
A) Inter species variation B) The rate of appearance of new forms is
B) Intraspecies variation linked to the life cycle or the life span
C) Natural selection according to food C) Fitness is based on characteristics which are
D) Inheritance of acquired characters inherited
D) Adaptive ability is inherited
77. Which evidence of evolution related to Darwin’s
finches: 81. Consider the following statements:
[AIPMT 2000, NCERT page no.117] [NCERT page no.118]
A) Evidence from biographical distribution I. Nature selects for fitness
B) Evidence from comparative anatomy II. Fitness is based on characteristics that are
C) Evidence from embryology inherited
D) Evidence from palaeontological III. Fitness is the end result of the ability to
adapt and get selected by nature
78. Match list 1 with list 2: Which of the above statements are true?
[NCERT page no.117] A) I and II only C) II and III only
List 1 List 2 B) I and III only D) I, II and III

a) Adaptive I Selection of 82. Select the correct statement from the following:
radiation resistant [AIPMT 2007, NCERT page no.118]
varieties due to A) Darwin variations are small and
excessive use of directionless
herbicides and B) Fitness is the end result of the ability to
pesticides adapt and gets selected by nature
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C) All mammals except whales have seven C) According to natural selection theory of
cervical vertebrae fitness is based on characteristics which are
D) Mutations are random and directional inherited
D) Natural selection produces new genetic
83. Select the incorrect match with respect to variability in a population
placental mammals and Australian marsupials:
[NCERT page no.118] 89. In replica-plate experiment, some bacteria able to
A) Lemur : Spotted cuscus grow in penicillin containing medium due to:
B) Bobcat : Tasmanian tiger [NCERT page no.118]
C) Anteater : Numbat A) Natural selection
D) Koala : Flying squirrel B) Reproductive isolation
C) Genetic drift
84. The sugar glider and flying squirrel belong to two D) Crossing over
different groups of mammals, but they have both
evolved bushy tails and flaps of skin that help 90. The ‘use and disuse’ Principle or “Theory of
them exploit their forest environments more Inheritance of Acquired Characters” of evolution
efficiently. This pattern of evolution is an example was proposed by:
of: [NCERT page no.118]
[NCERT page no.118] A) Hugo de Vries C) Lamarck
A) Character Displacement B) Weismann D) Darwin
B) Adaptive radiation
C) Convergent evolution 91. An example of process of evolution of different
D) Divergent evolution species in a given geographical area starting from
a common point and radiating to other areas of
85. In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals geography can be:
have evolved to share many similar [NCERT page no.118]
characteristics. This type of evolution may be A) Origin of Numbat, Phascolarctos, Flying
referred to as: phalanger, Tasmanian wolf, Spotted cuscus
[NEET 2019, NCERT page no.118] from a primitive metatherian
A) Adaptive radiation B) Origin of Eohippus, Mesohippus, Parahippus
B) Divergent evolution and Pliohippus
C) Cyclical evolution C) Origin of Homo erectus, Homo neander
D) Convergent evolution thalensis, Homo sapiens fossils, Homo
sapiens sapiens
86. The rate of appearance of new forms is linked D) Origin of Biston betularia from Biston
with: carbonaria
[NCERT page no.118]
A) Mutation C) Use and disuse 92. Examples of phenomenon named adaptive
B) Life span D) Genetic drift radiation is not seen in/amongst:
[NCERT page no.118]
87. Evolution by ‘a’ in a true sense would A) Marsupials in Australia
have started when cellular forms of life with B) Finches on Galapagos islands
differences in metabolic capability originated on C) Dark and light moths with respect to
earth. Here ‘a’ is: industrial melanism
[NCERT page no.118] D) Structure of limbs for locomotion in
A) Mutation C) Genetic drift mammals
B) Natural selection D) Special creation
93. Choose the incorrect match:
88. Mark the incorrect statement? [NCERT page no.118]
[NCERT page no.118] A) Flippers of Convergent
A) Force of natural selection started with Penguins and evolution
cellular form of life dolphins
B) According to natural selection rate of B) Marsupials of Adaptive radiation
appearance of new forms is linked to life Australia
cycle or the lifespan C) Darwin’s finches Natural selection

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D) Lemur and spotted Divergent 100. Theory of ‘Saltations’ was given by:
cuscus evolution [AIIMS 2011, NCERT page no.119]
A) G Mendel C) J B S Haldane
94. The two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of B) Hugo de Vries D) H J Miler
evolution are:
[NCERT page no.118] 101. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by
A) Branching descent and natural selection Hugo de Vries, are:
B) Saltation and Founder effect [NEET 2019, NCERT page no.119]
C) Chance mutation and anthropogenic action A) Small and directionless
D) Adaptive radiation and genetic mutation B) Random and directional
C) Random and directionless
95. Diversification in plant life appeared: D) Small and directional
[AIPMT 2004, NCERT page no.118]
A) Due to abrupt mutations 102. Single step large mutation leading to speciation
B) Suddenly on Earth is also called:
C) By seed dispersal [NCERT page no.119]
D) Due to long period of evolutionary changes A) Founder’s effect
B) Saltation
96. Select the correct match regarding adaptive C) Branching descent
radiation of Australian marsupials corresponding D) Natural selection
to placental mammals:
[NEET 2022, NCERT page no.118] 103. The correct statement about the nature of
A) Numbat - Flying Squirrel evolution and natural selection is:
B) Tasmanian Wolf - Bobcat [NCERT page no.119]
C) Marsupial mouse – Mole A) Evolution is a process while natural
D) Spotted Cuscus – Lemur selection is the end result of a process
which is unknown
97. Select the correct group/set of Australian B) Natural selection is a process while
marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation: evolution is the end result of a process
[NEET 2023, NCERT page no.118] which is unknown
A) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf C) Both evolution and natural selection are the
B) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole end results of a process which is unknown
C) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger D) It is still unclear whether evolution and
D) Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat natural selection are processed or end
results of unknown processes
98. Theory of natural selection dwells on:
[NCERT page no.119] 104. Sudden heritable changes are called:
A) Role of environment in evolution [NCERT page no.119]
B) Natural selection acting on favourable A) Linkages C) Re-combinations
variations B) Mutations D) Natural selection
C) Changes in gene complex resulting in
heritable variations 105. The idea of mutations was brought forth by:
D) None of the above [AIPMT 2012, NCERT page no.119]
A) Gregor Mendel, who worked on pisum
99. Darwin believed that certain parts of the body get sativum
larger and more complex through the generations B) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele
because they: frequencies in a population
[NCERT page no.119] C) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide
A) Are used more extensively than other parts variety of organisms during sea voyages
B) Contribute to greater productive success D) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening
C) Are pre-determined to do so primrose
D) Are most similar to God’s perfection
106. Given below are four statements (a-d) each with
MECHANISM OF EVOLUTION one or two banks. Select the option which
correctly fills up the blanks in two statements:

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[NCERT page no.119] D) When the frequency of particular genes or
Statements: alleles remain constant in a population
a) Wings of butterflies and birds look alike through generations
and are the results of (i) ,
evolution 110. Genetic drift is change of:
b) Miller showed that CH4, H2, [NCERT page no.121]
NH3, and (i), when exposed to A) Gene frequency in same generation
electric discharge in a flask resulted in B) Appearance of recessive genes
the formation of (ii). C) Gene frequency from one generation to next
c) Vermiform appendix is a (i) organ D) None of the above
and an (ii) evidence pf evolution.
d) According to Darwin evolution took 111. Which of the following would lead to deviation
place due to (i) and (ii) of from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
the fittest. [NCERT page no.121]
Options: A) Random mating
A) (a) - (i) convergent, (b) - (ii) oxygen, (ii) B) Lack of mutations
nucleosides C) No gene flow or gene migration
B) (b) - (i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids, D) Natural selection
(c) - (i) rudimentary (ii) anatomical
C) (c) - (i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical, (d) - (i) 112. Directional selection favours:
mutations, (ii) multiplication [NCERT page no.121]
D) (d) - (i) small variations, (ii) survival, (a) A) Both extremes of trait
- (i) convergent B) Intermediate form of a trait
C) Environmental differences
107. In a random mating population in equilibrium, D) One extreme form over the other extreme
which of the following brings about a change in form and over intermediate forms of the
gene frequency in a non-directional manner? trait
[AIPMT 2003, NCERT page no.119]
A) Mutations C) Selection 113. In Hardy Weinberg equation the frequency of
B) Random drift D) Migration heterozygous individual is represented by:
[NEET 2016, NCERT page no.121]
108. Select the correct statement regarding the A) P2 C) pq
mutation theory of evolution: B) 2pq D) q2
[NEET 2022, NCERT page no.119]
A) This theory was proposed by Alfred Wallace 114. If more individuals acquire peripheral character
B) Variations are small directional changes value at both the ends of the distribution curve,
C) Single step large mutation is a cause of in such case natural selection has resulted in:
speciation [NCERT page no.121]
D) Large differences due to mutations arise A) Stabilization
gradually in a population B) Directional
C) Disruption
D) Maybe B or C depending upon publishing
HARDY-WEINBERG PRINCIPLE parameters
109. What is genetics equilibrium? 115. The mechanism of non-cellular aggregates of
[NCERT page no.120] giant macromolecules to cell with membranous
A) When all the alleles of a gene are present in was envelope is:
a population in equal frequencies [NCERT page no.121]
B) When the number of heterozygotes in a A) Natural selection C) Mutation
population are equal to the number of B) Not unknown D) Recombination
either of the homozygote
C) When the number of heterozygotes in a 116. operates to eliminate intermediate
population are equal to the number of phenotypes.
either of the homozygote [NCERT page no.121]
A) Directional selection

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B) Disruptive selection C) Natural selection is present
C) Stabilizing selection D) There is no source of new copies of alleles
D) Random chance from outside the population

117. Change of frequencies of alleles in a population 123. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, the
or any deviation from Hardy Weinberg frequency of homozygous recessive (aa)
equilibrium is interpreted as: individuals in a population is denoted by:
[NCERT page no.121] [NCERT page no.121]
A) Organic evolution A) p2 C) q2
B) Genetic drift B) 2pq D) p+q
C) Saltation
D) Punctuated equilibrium 124. Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to check:
[NCERT page no.121]
118. Variation in gene frequencies within populations A) Size of population
can occur by chance rather than by natural B) Whether evolution is occurring in a
selection. This is referred to as: population or not
[AIPMT 2013, NCERT page no.121] C) Average lifespan of a population
A) Genetic drift C) Genetic load D) Maximum life expectancy of a population
B) Random mating D) Genetic flow
125. If frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.4 then, find out the
119. In a species the weight of a new-borns ranges frequency of ‘B’ allele and heterozygous
from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the new borns with an genotype in a random mating population at
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive equilibria:
whereas 99% of the infants born with weights [NCERT page no.121]
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 kg to 5 kg die. Which type A) 0.6 and 0.24 C) 0.6 and 0.48
of selection process is taking place? B) 0.6 and 0.96 D) 0.6 and 0.50
[NEET 2019, NCERT page no.121]
A) Cyclical selection 126. Industrial melanism cannot be explained by:
B) Directional selection [NCERT page no.121]
C) Stabilizing selection a) Natural selection theory
D) Disruptive selection b) Mechanism of directional selection
c) Mechanism of genetic drift
120. Natural selection is based defined as occurring d) Mechanism of founders effect
when the environment causes: e) Mechanism of progressive selection
[NCERT page no.121] A) a, c, d and e C) c and d only
A) Differential success in reproduction B) a and d only D) d and e only
B) Differential mortality
C) Assortative meeting 127. In a population, homozygous and heterozygous
D) A reduced gene pool individuals are in a certain proportion. This
proportion can’t be changed by:
121. Which one of the following populations would [NCERT page no.121]
most quickly lead to two groups with few shared A) Natural selection
traits: B) Mutation
[NCERT page no.121] C) Recombination
A) A population with disruptive selection D) Use and disuse of organs
B) A population with directional selection
C) A population with stabilizing selection 128. Which of the following factor will not affect
D) A population with no selection Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?
[NCERT page no.121]
122. Which of the following would cause the Hardy A) Natural selection
Weinberg principle to be inaccurate? B) Genetic drift
[NCERT page no.121] C) Genetic recombination
A) The size of the population is very large D) Random mating
B) Individuals met with one another at
random 129. ‘Founders effect’ is related to:

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[NCERT page no.121] [NCERT page no.121]
A) Gene recombination and natural selection A) Gene flow and genetic drift
B) Genetic drift and origin of new species B) Genetic recombination and natural
C) Isolation and natural selection selection
D) Hybridization and origin of new species C) Mutation
D) Isolation
130. What will be the frequency of homozygote
dominant in a population of triploid organisms: 135. Industrial melanism is a phenomenon that is
[NCERT page no.121] best demonstrated as:
A) p×p×p C) p [NCERT page no.121]
B) AA D) P A) Directional selection
B) Pollution generated mutation
131. “Those who are better fit in an environment, C) Protective mimicry
leaves more progeny than others”. The D) Defensive adaptation against UV radiation
evolutionary mechanism that operates for such a
change is: 136. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium can be disrupted by
[NCERT page no.121] presence of all except:
A) Natural selection [NCERT page no.121]
B) Genetic drift A) Genetic drift C) Non-random mating
C) Reproductive isolation B) Random mating D) Mutations
D) Polyploidy
137. A type of natural selection in which more
132. The following statements concerned with individuals acquire peripheral character value at
genetic drift are incorrect except one. Select the both ends of distribution curve is:
exception: [NCERT page no.121]
[NCERT page no.121] A) Directional selection
A) Genetic drift maintains Hardy Weinberg B) Disruptive selection
equilibrium C) Balancing selection
B) Gene frequency in a small population D) Stabilising selection
change due to natural selections only
C) It is a change in gene frequency that occurs 138. Match column one and column two and choose
by chance in a small population the correct option:
D) If gene migration happens multiple times, it [NCERT page no.121]
is called genetic drift Column 1 Column 2

133. Evolution of DDT resistant mosquito is best a) Natural I P2 + 2pq + q2 = 1

explained by which category of natural selection
selection? b) Thomas II Migrations change
[NCERT page no.121] Malthus allele frequency
c) Gene flow III Essay on
population
d) Hardy- IV Reproductive
Weinberg fitness
law

a b c d
A) IV III II I
B) I II III IV
C) II III IV I
A) “A” C) “C” D) III II IV I
B) “B” D) “D”
139. Which of the following is not true for a species:
134. There are five factors known to affect Hardy- [NCERT page no.121]
Weinberg equilibrium, which of the following A) Members of a species can be interbreed
cannot be included in the five factors? B) Variations occur among members of species

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C) Each species is reproductively isolated from [NCERT page no.122]
every other species A) Monocots evolved later than dicots
D) Gene flow does not occur between the B) Mammals evolved from extinct reptiles
populations of a species called thecodonts
C) Dryopithecus was more man-like while
140. The factor that leads to founder effect in a Ramapithecus was more ape-like
population is: D) Homo erectus had a cranial capacity of
[NEET 2021, NCERT page no.121] about 800 cc and probably ate meat
A) Mutation C) Natural selection
B) Genetic drift D) Genetic recombination 148. Which of the following could evolve by the time
of 500 mya?
141. Natural selection where more individuals [NCERT page no.122]
acquire specific character value other than the A) Jawless fishes C) Sea weeds
mean character value, leads to: B) Invertebrates D) Lobefins
[NEET 2022, NCERT page no.121]
A) Random change 149. Bryophytes evolved from:
B) Stabilising change [NCERT page no.122]
C) Directional change A) Psilophyton
D) Disruptive change B) Rhynia type plants
C) Tracheophyte ancestors
142. Genetic Drift occurs due to: D) Chlorophyte ancestors
[NEET 2022, NCERT page no.121]
A) Natural selection 150. Zosterophyllum evolved from:
B) Sudden population migration [NCERT page no.122]
C) Continuous gene migration A) Psilophyton
D) Mutation B) Rhynia type plants
C) Tracheophyte ancestors
BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION D) Chlorophyte ancestors

143. Correct order is [1991]: 151. Flowering plants angiosperm appeared in which
[NCERT page no.122] of the following period?
A) Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic [NCERT page no.122]
B) Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → Proterozoic A) Permian C) Jurassic
C) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic B) Triassic D) Cretaceous
D) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Proterozoic
152. Fish with stout and strong fins could move on
144. The flourishing period of progymnosperm is: land and go back to water. This was happened
[NCERT page no.122] about:
A) Devonian C) Cretaceous [NCERT page no.122]
B) Silurian D) Permian A) 300 million years ago
B) 320 million years ago
145. The flourishing period of seed ferns is: C) 2000 million years ago
[NCERT page no.122] D) 350 million years ago
A) Jurassic C) Carboniferous
B) Devonian D) Triassic 153. Match list one with list two:
[NEET 2023, NCERT page no.122]
146. Gnetales evolved from: List one List two
[NCERT page no.122] a) Pteropsida I Psilotum
A) Psilophyton
B) Rhynia type plants b) Lycopsida II Equisetum
C) Tracheophyte ancestors
D) Chlorophyte ancestor c) Psilopsida III Adiantum

147. Identify the correct statement amongst the d) Sphenopsida IV Selaginella

following:
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Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: “A” “B” “C” “D”
a b c d
A) II III I IV A) Dinosau Thecod Theraps Pelycos
B) III I IV II rs onts ids aurs
C) II III IV I B) Dinosau Theraps Thecod Pelycos
rs ids onts aurs
D) III IV I II
C) Pelycos Theraps Thecod Dinosau
aurs ids onts rs
154. The occurrence of endemic species in South
America and Australia is due to: D) Theraps Dinosau Pelycos Thecod
[NCERT page no.124] ids rs aurs onts
A) Extinction of this species from other
regions 159. During course of evolution, the land reptiles
B) Continental separation which went back into water to evolve into fish
C) No terrestrial route to these places like reptiles, about 200 mya would refer to:
D) Retrogressive evolution [NCERT page no.124]
A) Ichthyosaurs C) Pelycosaur
155. The now extinct reptile group that evolved into B) Tyrannosaurus D) Therapsid
mammals was:
[NCERT page no.124] 160. Which of the following is distinctly related
A) Therapsids C) Thecodants among each other?
B) Dinosaurs D) Sauropsids [NCERT page no.124]
A) Crocodiles C) Tuataras
156. Sauropsids gave rise to: B) Snakes D) Turtles
[NCERT page no.124]
A) Turtles C) Gnetales 161. Mark the correct character of the following
B) Mammals D) Ginkgo’s figure:
[NCERT page no.124]
157. Which of the following is not true?
[NCERT page no.124]
A) Small sized reptiles of dinosaurs of that era
still exist today
B) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet in
height and had huge some dagger like teeth
C) Dinosaur extinct, a possible reason may be
most of them has evolved into birds
D) Giant ferns fell to form coal deposits very
fast

158. Given below is the representative evolutionary A) Tetrapedal and having bony plates on back
history of party braids through geological B) Tetrapedal and having collar on neck
periods. A, B, C, and D respectively, are: C) Bipedal and have huge fearsome dagger-
[NCERT page no.124] like teeth
D) Bipedal and have three horns on head

162. How many years ago dinosaurs suddenly

disappeared from the earth?
[NCERT page no.124]
A) About 200 million years ago
B) About 65 million years ago
C) About 65 billion years ago
D) About 350 million years ago

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163. Identify the correct statement: 169. The chronological order of human evolution
[NCERT page no.124] from early to the recent is:
A) Dryopithecus was more man like than [NCERT page no.124]
Ramapithecus A) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo
B) Homo Habilis probably did not eat meat habilis → Homo erectus
C) Homo Erectus had a cranial capacity of B) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo
around 800 cc habilis → Homo erectus
D) Agriculture came around 18000 years ago C) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis →
Australopithecus → Homo erectus
164. Which of the following feature is not of D) Australopithecus → Homo habilis →
Ramapithecus? Ramapithecus → Homo erectus
[NCERT page no.124]
A) Hairy, walked like gorillas and chimpanzees 170. Match column 1 with column 2:
B) Existed 15 mya [NCERT page no.124]
C) Ramapithecus was more man like Column 1 Column 2
D) After its extinction Dryopithecus came into
a) Homo erectus I 650-800 cc
picture
b) Homo sapiens II 1650 cc
165. The man like primates walked in eastern Africa c) Cro-Magnon III 1400 cc
around 3-5 mya. This belief was supported by: man
[NCERT page no.124] d) Homo habilis IV 900 cc
A) Hominid features of bones discovered in
Ethiopia and Tanzania Choose the correct options:
B) Hominid features of bones discovered in a b c d
whole Africa A) I II III IV
C) Hominid features of bones discovered in B) II III IV I
Peru C) IV III II I
D) Hominid features of bone discovered in D) III IV I II
Australia
171. Which of the following primate existed about 15
166. Which of the following does not hold true for mya and had a hairy body and walked like
Australopithecus? gorillas and chimpanzees?
[NCERT page no.124] [NCERT page no.124]
A) Existed 2 mya A) Ramapithecus C) Pithecanthropus
B) Probably lived in East African grasslands B) Australopithecus D) Sinanthropus
C) They hunted with stone weapons
D) Ate meat 172. Choose the incorrect match:
[NCERT page no.124]
167. Consider the following statements: A) First noncellular form of life – 3bya
[NCERT page no.124] B) First cellular forms of life – 2bya
I. The first organisms that invaded land were C) Fish like reptiles – 200 mya
the plants D) Ramapithecus -1.2 mya
II. Lobefins evolved into the first amphibians
III. Ramapithecus was more ape-like and 173. Which of the following is incorrect with respect
Dryopithecus was more man-like to different hominids, their cranial capacities and
Which of the above statements are true? characteristics?
A) I and II only C) II and III only [NCERT page no.124]
B) I and III only D) I, II and III Hominid Cranial Characteristics
capacity
168. The first human-like being or hominid was: A) Homo habilis 650 – Herbivorous,
[NCERT page no.124] 800 cc tool-maker
A) Dryopithecus B) Homo erectus 900 cc Discovered
B) Australopithecus fire, ate meat
C) Homo habilis C) Neanderthal 1400 cc Used hides
D) Homo erectus man as clothing

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and had 179. What was the most significant trend in the
burial evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from
customs his ancestors?
D) Australopithec 700 cc Bipedal, used [AIPMT 2011, NCERT page no.125]
us africans stone tools A) Shortening of jaws
B) Binocular vision
174. According to fossils that have been discovered C) Increasing brain capacity
till now, the origin and evolution of men started D) Upright posture
from which country?
[NCERT page no.124] 180. Agriculture and human settlement started about:
A) France C) Africa [NCERT page no.125]
B) Java D) China A) 75000 years ago
B) 18000 years ago
175. The extinct human who lives 100,000 to 40,000 C) 10000 years ago
years ago in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa with D) 1.5 mya
short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating
foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky 181. Proper burial of dead bodies for the first time
bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture started in which prehistoric men’s period?
was: [NCERT page no.125]
[NCERT page no.125] A) Peking man C) Neanderthal man
A) Homo habilis B) Java man D) Cro-magnon man
B) Neanderthal human
C) Cro-magnon humans 182. Who made huts, used skin of animals and barks
D) Ramapithecus of trees as clothes and started burial ceremony
for the first time?
176. Among the human ancestors the brain size was [NCERT page no.125]
more than 1000 cc in: A) Homo habilis C) Neanderthal man
[NEET 2007, NCERT page no.125] B) Java man D) Cro-magnon man
A) Homo neanderthalensis
B) Homo erectus 183. Which of the following statements is correct
C) Ramapithecus about the origin and evolution of men?
D) Homo habilis [NEET 2019, NCERT page no.125]
A) Agriculture came around 50,000 years back
177. The correct sequence of stages in the evolution B) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
of modern man (Homo sapiens), is: primates existing 15 million years ago,
[AIIMS 2016,NCERT page no.125] walked like man
A) Homo erectus, Australopithecus, neanderthal C) Homo habilis probably ate meat
man, cro-magnon man, modern man D) Neanderthal men lived in Asia between
B) Australopithecus, Homo erectus, neanderthal 100000 and 40000 years back
man, cro-magnon man, modern man
C) Neanderthal man, Australopithecus, cro- 184. In the following figures, there are three skulls.
magnon man, Homo erectus, modern man Which statement is correct about this skulls?
D) Australopithecus, neanderthal man, cro- [NCERT page no.125]
magnon, Homo erectus, modern man

178. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

[NCERT page no.125]
A) Ramapithecus – More man like ape like
B) Homo habilis – First human like being, the
hominid A) A – Skull of a baby chimpanzee
C) Homo erectus – Probably did not eat meat B – Skull of a man
D) Neanderthal – Buries their dead C – Skull of adult human
B) A – Skull of an adult chimpanzee
B – Skull of a baby chimpanzee
C – Skull of adult human

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C) A – Skull of an adult chimpanzee
B – Skull of adult human
C – Skull of a baby chimpanzee
D) A – Skull of a baby chimpanzee
B – Skull of adult human
C – Skull of an adult chimpanzee

185. The primate which arose during Ice Age between

75,000 to 10,000 years ago is:
[NCERT page no.125]
A) Dryopithecus
B) Ramapithecus
C) Modern Homo sapiens
D) Neanderthal man

186. Which among the following had the largest

cranial capacity?
[NCERT page no.125]
A) Java man C) Neanderthal man
B) Taung child D) Peking man

187. Identify the fossils of a man who showed the

following characteristics:
[NEET 2023, NCERT page no.125]
a) Brain capacity of 1400 cc
b) Used hides to protect their body
c) Buried their dead bodies
In the light of above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
[NEET 2023, NCERT page no.125]
A) Homo erectus C) Homo habilis
B) Neanderthal man D) Australopithecus

188. In human evolution, the development of the

brain and language is an example of:
[NCERT page no.126]
A) Convergent evolution
B) Divergent evolution
C) Parallel evolution
D) Adaptive radiation

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 ANSWER KEY
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C C D C A C A C B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A C C A A D C B A B D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A C C C C A B B A A A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A D A C B A C B B C A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A D D D A A A B D B A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A D D D C A D D D A D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A A C C A B C B D B D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A D B C C C C A C D A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A D B D C D B B D A C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A A C D A D D C B B B
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A C B D B D D B C D C
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A D D B C B B A A C A
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A A C C B C C D D B A
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A A C B D A B B A D B
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A C B C A C A A B D C
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A D D D B A A D B A B
Q 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A C B B D A D A C B C

Q 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A A D D C B A B C C C
Q 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188
A C C D C C C B C

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