14-07-2024

1771CMD303021240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet

(1) are from north-pole to south-pole of the magnet

(2) do not exist
(3) depend upon the area of cross-section of the bar magnet
(4) are from south-pole to north-pole of the magnet

2) When the current flowing in a circular coil is doubled and the number of turns of the coil in it is
halved, the magnetic field at its centre will become :-

(1) Same
(2) Four times
(3) Half
(4) Double

3) An infinite long conductor has a circular bend as shown here. If I is the current in the wire and r
is the radius of the bend, then the magnetic field at the centre O of the bend is

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Three long, straight and parallel wires carrying currents are arranged as shown in the figure. The
wire C which carries a current of 5.0 amp is so placed that it experiences no force. The distance of
wire C from wire D is then

(1) 9 cm
(2) 7 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 5 cm

5)

In the above figure deviation of charge Q from Its initial path will be :-

(1) 45°
(2) 90°
(3) 0°
(4) 180°

6) A proton and a deuteron with the same initial kinetic energy enter in a magnetic field in a
direction perpendicular to the direction of the field. The ratio of the radii of the circular trajectories
described by them is :-

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 :
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

7) A square loop of side 'ℓ' is kept in a uniform magnetic field B such that its plane makes an angle α
with . The loop carries a current I. The torque experienced by the loop in this position is :–

(1) BIℓ2
(2) BIℓ2sin α
(3) BIℓ2cos α
(4) zero

8) A proton (or charged particle) moving with velocity v is acted upon by electric field E and
magnetic field B. The proton will move undeflected if :-
(1) is perpendicular to
(2) is parallel to and perpendicular to
(3) , and are mutually perpendicular
(4) and both are parallel to

9) A proton moving with a velocity 3 × 105 m/s enters in a magnetic field of 0.3 tesla at an angle of
30° with the field, the radius of helix of its path will be : (e/m for proton = 108 C/kg)

(1) 2 cm
(2) 0.5 cm
(3) 0.02 cm
(4) 1.25 cm

10) An element ΔI = Δx is placed at the origin and carries a current I = 10 A.

If Δx = 1.0 cm magnetic field at point P is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) A horizontal over head power line is at a height of 4m from the ground and carries a current
of 100 A from east to west. The magnetic field directly below it on the ground is :-

(1) 2.5 × 10–7 T, Southward

(2) 5 × 10–6 T, Northward
(3) 5 × 10–6 T, Southward
(4) 2.5 × 10–7 T, Northward

12) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves

(1) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field

(2) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(3) perpendicular to the field
(4) in none of the above directions

13) The variation of magnetic susceptibility ( ) with temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
represented by
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

Curie temperatures is the temperature above which

(1) ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material

(2) paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
(3) paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material
(4) ferromangnetic material becomes diamagnetic material.

15) A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform horizontal magnetic field and is
in equilibrium state. The energy required to rotate it by 60° is W. Now the torque required to keep
the magnet in this new position is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its
cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis
of the cable is represented by :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet are correctly shown in :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) A neutron, a proton, an electron and an α-particle enter a region of uniform magnetic field with
equal velocities. The magnetic field is perpendicular and directed into the paper. The track of the
particles are labeled in give figure. The electron follows the track

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

19) A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. It is suspended in mid-
air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field ?

(1) 0.65 T
(2) 1.25 T
(3) 2.25 T
(4) 3.65 T

20) What value of α for which magnetic field at centre of ring is zero.

(1) 30°
(2) 90°
(3) 180°
(4) All above

21) The magnetic field at any point P in the open space inside the toroid is
(1) μ0ni
(2) 1/2 μ0ni
(3) zero
(4) 1/4 μ0ni

22) The ratio of magnetic dipole moment of an electron of charge 'e' and mass 'm' in Bohr's orbit
in hydrogen atom to its angular momentum is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The magnetic field at a point X on the axis of a small bar magnet is equal to the field at a point Y
on the equator of the same magnet. The ratio of the distances of point X and Y from the centre of the
magnet is :-

(1) 2–3
(2) 2–1/3
(3) 23
(4) 21/3

24) The time period of a freely suspended bar magnet does not depends on :-

(1) The length of the magnet

(2) The pole strength of the magnet
(3) The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
(4) The length of the suspension fibre

25) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Gauss's law for magnetism states that the net magnetic flux through any closed
surface is zero.
Reason (R): The magnetic monopoles do not exist. North and South poles occur in pairs, allowing
vanishing net magnetic flux through the surface.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

26) A helium nucleus is moving in a circular path of radius 0.8m. If it takes 2 sec to complete one
revolution. Magnetic field produced at the centre of the circle :-

–19
(1) μ0× 10 T

(2)

(3) 2× 10–19 T

(4)

27) A magnet of magnetic moment 50 A–m2 placed along x–axis. Where magnetic field is = (0.5 +
3.0 ) tesla. The torque acting on magnet is :–

(1) 175 N–m

(2) 150 N–m
(3) 75 N–m
(4) 25 N–m

28) A test charge 1·6 × 10–19 Cb is moving with velocity m/sec is a magnetic field
2
Wb/m . The magnetic force on the test charge :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

29) A wire loop is formed by joining two sections of radii r1 and r2 subtending an angle θ at O. The
 0

magnetic field at O is B :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) A bar magnet of length ' ' and magnetic dipole moment 'M' is bent in the form of an arc as
shown in figure. The new magnetic dipole moment will be :-

(1)

(2) M

(3)

(4)

31) Soft iron is used to manufacture electromagnets because their

(1) Magnetic permeability is high and retentivity and coercive force are small
(2) Retentivity is high
(3) Coercive force is high
(4) Area of the hysteresis curve is large
32) A coil having N turns carry a currents I as shown in the figure. The magnetic field intensity at

point P is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

33) Match the column-I & II.

direction of
wires magnetic field
at center

P. A.

Q. B.

R. C.

D.
(1) P-A, Q-B, R-C
(2) P-B, Q-C, R-D
(3) P-B, Q-A, R-C
(4) P-A, Q-C, R-D

34) An infinitely long hollow conducting cylinder with radius R carries a uniform current along its
surface.
Choose the correct representation of magnetic field (B) as a function of radial distance (r) from the
axis of cylinder.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) When a certain length of wire is turend into one circular loop, the magnetic induction at the
centre of coil due to some current flowing is B0. If the same wire is turned into three loops to make a
circular coil, the magnetic induction at the center of this coil for the same current will be :-

(1) B0
(2) 9B0
(3) 3B0
(4) 27B0

SECTION-B

1) A ring of radius r is uniformly charged with a charge q. If the ring is rotated with an angular
velocity ω, then the magnetic induction at the centre is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A conductor AB of length ℓ carrying a current i is placed perpendicular to a long straight wire MN

carrying a current I, as shown. The force on AB will act.

(1) along M to N
(2) along N to M
(3) to the right
(4) to the left

3) Calculate for the given loop ABCDA, where Bt represents component of the magnetic

field tangential to the loop element :

(1) –μ0i
(2) 2μ0i
(3) –2μ0i
(4) μ0i

4)

Vector form of Biot-Savart's law is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations, I, II, III
& IV. Arrange them in the decreasing order of potential energy :-
(1) I > III > II > IV
(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) I > IV > II > III
(4) III > IV > I > II

6) A charged particle is released from rest in a region of uniform magnetic field. The path of the
particle will be

(1) Straight line

(2) Circle
(3) Helix
(4) It will not experience any force

7) Relative permittivity and permeability of a material respectively. Which of the following

values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) Two identical thin bar magnets each of length ℓ and pole strength m are placed at right angle to
each other with north pole of one touching south pole of the other. Magnetic moment of the system
is :

(1) ml
(2) 2ml
(3)

(4)

9) If an electron and a proton having same momenta enter perpendicularly to a magnetic field, then :

(1) curved path of electron and proton will be same (ignorning the sense of revolution)
(2) they will move undeflected
(3) curved path of electron is more curved than that of proton
(4) path of proton is more curved
10) A square loop carrying a steady current I, is placed near an infinitely long straight wire as shown

in figure. The magnitude of the torque acting on the current loop is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

11) In an experiment electrons are accelerated, from rest, by applying a voltage of 500 V. Calculate
the radius of the path if a magnetic field 100 mT is applied.
[Charge of the electron = 1.6 × 10–19 C
Mass of the electron = 9.1 × 10–31 kg]

(1) 7.5 × 10–4 m

(2) 7.5 × 10–3 m
(3) 7.5 m
(4) 7.5 × 10–2 m

12) Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the same materials and same length from a square in
the three different ways P, Q and R as shown in figure with current connections as shown. The
magnetic field at the centre of the square is zero in cases :-

(1) P only
(2) P and Q only
(3) P and R only
(4) P, Q and R all

13) A conducting loop carrying a current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing into the
plane of the paper as shown. The loop will have a tendency to :-
(1) Contract
(2) Expand
(3) Move towards +ve x-axis
(4) Move towards –ve x-axis

14) Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out
of the plane of the paper, as shown. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX' is given
by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The B-H curves (a) and (b) shown in the figure are associated with

(1) a diamagnetic and a paramagnetic substance respectively

(2) a paramagnetic and a ferromagnetic substance respectively
(3) soft iron and steel respectively
(4) steel and soft iron respectively.

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is pyridine :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which one is homocyclic compound :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

3) The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in IUPAC
nomenclature is :-

(1) –CHO, –COOR, –CONH2, –COX

(2) –CONH2, –COX, –COOR, –CHO
(3) –COOR, –COX, –CONH2, –CHO
(4) –COOR, –CONH2, –COX, –CHO

4)

Which functional group can be present in compound having molecular formula [C4H10O]:-

(1) Aldehyde
(2) Ketone
(3) Acid
(4) Alcohol

5)

IUPAC name of the following compound is:-

(1) 2-(1-carboxy ethyl)-4-methyl pentanoic acid

(2) 3, 5-Dicarboxy-2-methyl hexanoic acid
(3) 2, 4, 5-Hexane tri carboxylic acid
(4) 2, 3, 5-Hexane tri carboxylic acid

6) Which of the following is saturated compound :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

7) How many type of functional groups are present in following compound ?

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :-

(1) 2-Bromo-4-methylpent-2-ene
(2) 2-Bromo-3-methylpent-4-ene
(3) 4-Bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
(4) 3-Methyl-4-bromopent-2-ene

9) Number of C-atom in second member of homologous series of alkyne.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

10) Incorrect statement regarding homologous is :-

(1) They have identical molecular formula

(2) They have identical functional group
(3) They have identical chemical properties
(4) They have identical general formula

11)

How many multiple bonds are present in parent carbon chain of following compound ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

12) IUPAC name of the compound is :-

(1) 1,1,5-Trimethyl-1, 6-hexadiene

(2) 2,6-Dimethyl-2, 6-heptadiene
(3) 2,6-Dimethylhepta-1,5-diene
(4) None of these
13)

The IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 2-Bromo-2-chloro-2-fluoroethanal
(2) 1-Bromo-1-chloro-2-fluoroethanal
(3) 2-Fluoro-2-chloro-2-bromoethanal
(4) 1-Fluoro-1-chloro-1-bromoethanal

14)

Correct IUPAC name of

(1) 2-keto-3-methyl butanoyl chloride

(2) 1-chloro-3-methyl butane-1, 2-dione
(3) 1-chloroformyl-3-methyl butan-2-one
(4) 2-oxo-3-methyl pentanoyl chloride

15) How many primary amines are possible by the formula C4H11N :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) How many aldehydes are possible with C4H8O :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) How many cyclic isomers of C4H8 are possible?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
18) CH3–CH2–NH–CHO & are :-

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Functional group isomers
(4) Metamers

19) Which can show metamerism :-

(1) CH3–COOCH3

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3
(4) All shows metamerism

20) In following
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OCH3 I

II
CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 III
The II is metamer of :-

(1) I only
(2) III only
(3) Both I and III
(4) None of these

21) and CH3–CH2–C≡CH are :-

(1) Ring chain isomer

(2) Chain isomer
(3) Functional isomer
(4) Metamerism

22) & CH3–CH=CH–CH2–Cl are

(1) Chain isomers

(2) Ring chain isomers
(3) Not isomers
(4) Position isomers
23) In which of the following compound/ion 'N' is chiral ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Configuration of compound is :-

(1) E
(2) R
(3) S
(4) Z

25) CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 (I)

(II)

(III)
Which among these are stereo–isomers?

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) All of these

26) Which of the following has E-configuration ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Total stereoisomers possible for Cyclopentane-1, 2-diol :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

28) Which of the following compound has ‘S’ configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Which is a meso-compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

30) Which can show geometrical isomerism :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following conformations of n–butane is the least stable -

(1) Gauche
(2) Anti
(3) Partial Eclipsed
(4) Fully eclipsed

32) Which of following shows conformation ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Which of the following is most stable conformer of 2-fluoro ethanol ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Optical rotation of a racemic mixture is always:-

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) Can not be predicted

35) Which of the following structure is meso–2,3–butanediol ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B
1) No. of 2° carbon are present in given compound:-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 2

2) In the hydrocarbon :

The state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence :-

(1) sp, sp2, sp3

(2) sp3, sp2, sp
(3) sp2, sp, sp3
(4) sp, sp3, sp2

3)

Correct naming of

(1) 2, 2-Dimethyl propane

(2) Neopentane
(3) Tetramethyl methane
(4) All

4) Which one is not an alcohol. :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

5) Unsaturated hydrocarbon is :

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–COOH
(4) CH3–CH2–CHO

6) The IUPAC name of CH3CH2C(Br)=CHCl is :-

(1) 4-Chloro-3-bromobut-3-ene
(2) 2-Bromo-1-chlorobut-1-ene
(3) 2-Bromo-1-chlorobut-3-ene
(4) 1-Bromo-2-Chloro-1-ethylethene

7) CH3–CH2–CH2–C≡N;
(A) (B)
Relation between (A) and (B) is :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Functional isomer
(4) Metamers

8)
(A) and (B) are :-

(1) Chain Isomers

(2) Position Isomers
(3) Functional Isomers
(4) Metamers

9) Which of the following must be "identical" in isomers ?

(1) Structural formula
(2) Functional group
(3) Molecular formula
(4) Principle carbon chain

10) Given compound shows which type of isomerism :

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Position isomerism
(3) Functional group isomerism
(4) Metamerism

11) D.U. in C4H6 & C5H12O will be ?

(1) 2, 0
(2) 0, 2
(3) 2, 2
(4) 1, 0

12)

(A) (B)

What is relation between A and B :-

(1) Position isomers
(2) Chain isomers
(3) Identical
(4) Metamers

13) Number of structural isomer of C4H8 (only open structure) :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

14) Correct absolute configuration of following molecule is :

(1) R
(2) S
(3) E
(4) None

15) Which of the following oxime does not show geometrical isomerism?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (1) and (2) both

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) The protein encoded by cry I Ab controls

(1) Tobacco budworm

(2) Corn borer
(3) Boll worm
(4) Army worm

2) Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
deficiency ?

(1) Gene therapy

(2) Chemotherapy
(3) Immunotherapy
(4) Radiation therapy

3) Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing

(1) transgenic mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
(2) transgenic models for studying new treatments for certain cardiac diseases
(3) Transgenic cow-Rosie which produces high fat milk for making ghee
(4) animals like bulls for farm work as they have super power

4) A transgenic food crop, which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing
countries is:
(1) Flavr savr tomatoes
(2) Starlink maize
(3) Bt soybean
(4) Golden rice

5) Bacillus thuringiensis has been used to kill certain insects such as

(a) Tobacco budworm
(b) Army worm
(c) Beetles
(d) Flies
(e) Mosquitoes

(1) b, c and d
(2) a, b, and e
(3) a, c, d and e
(4) a, b, c, d and e

6)

Match column-I with column-II, and choose the correct combination from the option given below :

Column-I Column-II

(a) DNA Ligase (i) Agrobacterium

(b) Ti-plasmid (ii) Joining the DNA fragments

(c) Taq polymerase (iii) Selectable marker

(d) ampR gene (iv) Thermostable DNA polymerase

(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii

7) Which of the following is the recognition sequence of ECoRI ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria but do not kill the bacteria themselves because :-
(1) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
(2) Toxin is immature
(3) Toxin is in inactive form
(4) Bacteria enclose toxin in a special sac

9) Genetically modified organisms are used for :-

(1) Reducing reliance on chemical pesticides

(2) Developing pest-resistant crops
(3) Increasing efficiency of mineral usage by plant that prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soli
(4) All of the above

10) Several nematodes parasites like Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and
cause a great reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this infestation which was
based on the process of :-

(1) DNA interference (DNAi.)

(2) Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay (ELISA)
(3) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
(4) RNA interference (RNAi).

11) What happens when DNA fragment is inserted in to plasmid pBR322 using enzyme Pvu I or Pst
I?
(a) Inactivation of ampR gene
(b) Inactivation of tetR gene
(c) Unable to grow in presence of ampicillin
(d) Unable to grow in presence of tetracycline
(e) Unable to replicate

(1) b & d are correct

(2) a and c are correct
(3) a, c & e are correct
(4) b, d & e are correct

12) The figure below shows three steps A, B, C of P.C.R. select the correct option.
 A = Denaturation
(1) B = Annealing
C = Extension
A = Annealing
(2) B = Extension
C = Denaturation
A = Extension
(3) B = Annealing
C = Denaturation
(4) All of these

13) Credit for construction of first recombinant DNA may be given to

(1) Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace

(2) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
(3) Meselson and Stahl
(4) Esther and Joshua Lederberg

14) Restriction endonuclease (ECoRI) enzyme cut the strand of DNA :-

(1) From the centre of palindrome site

(2) A little away from the centre of palindrome site
(3) From the non palindrome site
(4) Only ends of DNA

15) Downstream process includes :-

I. Separation of the product from the reactor.
II. Purification of the product.
III. Formation of the product with suitable preservatives.
IV. Quality control testing and clinical trials in case of drugs.
Which of the statements given above are correct :-

(1) I, II and III

(2) I, II and IV
(3) II, III and IV
(4) I, II, III and IV

16) About 27 documented varieties of Basmati are grown in .......... Which among the following
countries has one of the richest diversities of rice in the world?

(1) China
(2) India
(3) United state
(4) Britain

17) Assertion : Origin of replication (ori) is responsible for controlling the copy number of the
linked DNA.
Reason : Any piece of DNA when linked to origin of replication can be made to replicate within the
host cells.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

18) Assertion : A plasmid can be used as vector to deliver an alien piece of DNA into the host
organism.
Reason : Plasmids are autonomously replicating circular extra chromosomal DNA.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion & reason are false.

19) Assertion :- In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacteria cells must first be
made 'competent' to take up DNA.
Reason :- DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

20) Assertion : In the year 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of
bacteriophage in Escherichia coli were isolated.
Reason : One of these added methyl groups to DNA while the other cut DNA. The latter was called
restriction endonuclease.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram of [Link] cloning vector pBR322.
(1) A-Eco Rl, B-Bam-Hl, C -Ori, D-ampR
(2) A-ampR, B-Ori, C-Bam Hl, D-Eco Rl
(3) A-Ori, B-Bam Hl, C-Eco Rl, D-ampR
(4) A-Bam Hl, B-Eco Rl, C-ampR, D-Ori

22) The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of a process . Select the options giving correct

identification :-

(1) (C) Joining of vector DNA and foreign DNA with the help of DNA ligase
(2) (A) Cutting of DNA with the help of Hind II
(3) (B) Joining of two vector DNA with the help of endonuclease
(4) (A) Separation of DNA by southern blotting

23) Given below are some commonly used bioreactors. Identify them & choose the correct option :-

A B

(1) Sparged stirred tank type Simple stirred tank type

(2) Simple static tank type Sparged stirred tank type

(3) Simple stirred tank type Sparged static tank type

(4) Simple stirred tank type Sparged stirred tank type

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) In following figure of gel electrophoresis which lane is showing undigested set of DNA sample ?

(1) lane - 1
(2) lane - 2
(3) lane - 3
(4) lane - 4

25) This segment of DNA has restriction sites I & II which create restriction fragments a, b and c,
which of the following gel produced by electrophoresis would represent the separation and correct
position of these fragments ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The following figure shows :-

(1) Elution
(2) Spooling
(3) Biolistics
(4) Downstream processing

27) In agarose gel electrophoresis :

(1) DNA migrates towards negative electrode

(2) Larger molecules migrate faster than smaller molecules
(3) Ethidium bromide can be used to visualize the DNA fragments
(4) Blue coloured bands of DNA can be visualized when gel is exposed to UV light

28)

Two bacteria which are most useful genetic engineering are

(1) Rhizobium and Azotobacter

(2) Escherichia and Agrobacterium
(3) Rhizobium and Diplococcus
(4) Nitrosomonas and Bacillus

29)

Bacterial plasmid contains

(1) RNA
(2) RNA + protein
(3) DNA
(4) Photosynthetic structures

30)

Match column-I with column-II, and choose the correct combination from the option given below:

Column-I Column-II

Molecular
(a) (i) Hind II
scissors

First restriction Restriction

(b) (ii)
endonuclease enzyme

Palindromic
(c) nucleotide (iii) Primers
sequence

Small chemically
synthesised
(d) (iv)
oligonucleotides
used in PCR
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

31)

A product of transgenic organism which helps in solving the problem of emphysema is :

(1) Alpha - lactablumin

(2) Albumin
(3) Alpha-1-antitrypsin
(4) Adenosine deaminase

32) How many copies of gene of interest(DNA) is synthesized after 10 cycles of PCR?

(1) 1024
(2) 1 billion
(3) 124
(4) 10

33) There are three basic steps in genetically modifying organism. Arrange these steps in correct
sequence :-
a. Introduction of the identified DNA into the host.
b. Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
c. Identification of DNA with desirable genes.

(1) a → b → c
(2) b → c → a
(3) c → b → a
(4) c → a → b

34) The restriction endonuclease enzyme binds to the DNA & cut -

(1) any one strand of the double helix

(2) each of the two strands at specific points in their base - sugar bonds.
(3) each of the two strands at specific points in their base - phosphate bonds.
(4) each of the two strands at specific points in their sugar - phosphate, back bones.

35) Type of gene mutation which involves replacement of purine with pyrimidine or vice versa (OR)
The substitution of one type of base with another type of base is

(1) Transduction
(2) Transversion
(3) Translocation
(4) Transcription

SECTION-B

1) Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to change in amino acids from ________:

(1) Valine to Glutamate

(2) Glutamate to Valine
(3) Glutamine to Valine
(4) Valine to Glutamine

2) Under which of the following conditions will there be no change in the reading frame of the
following mRNA?
5'–AUGGACUCGUUUUAG–3'

(1) Insertion of G at 4th position

(2) Deletion of G at 9th position
(3) Deletion of GAC from 4th, 5th and 6th positions
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct

3) Statement A : Human genome project was called a mega project

Statement B : The human genome project was a 13-year project started by government of India.

(1) Only B is incorrect

(2) Only A is incorrect
(3) Both are correct
(4) Both are incorrect

4) The total number of estimated genes in human genome are _________ .

(1) 3000
(2) 30000
(3) 3 billion
(4) 4 billion

5) The technique of DNA finger printing was initially developed by

(1) Francois Jacob

(2) Rosalind Franklin
(3) T.H. Morgan
(4) Alec Jeffreys

6) Due to high degree of polymorphism, size of VNTR varies from.

(1) 0.1 - 2 Kb
(2) 0.1 - 2000 Kb
(3) 0.1 - 20 Kb
(4) 0.1 - 200 Kb

7) Gene mutation is produced by

(1) change in its position on chromosome

(2) change in size of gene
(3) change in sequence of nitrogenous bases
(4) change in number of genes on chromosome

8) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct answer :-
 Column-I Column-II

a. 2n – 1 – 1 (i) Trisomy

b. 2n + 1 (ii) Monosomy

c. 2n + 1 + 1 (iii) Nullisomy

d. 2n – 2 (iv) Double Trisomy

(v) Double monosomy

(1) a-(v), b-(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) a-(v), b-(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a-(ii), b-(i), c(iv), d(v)

9) Basis of DNA fingerprinting is :-

(1) high degree of polymorphism in non coding sequences

(2) low degree of polymorphism in non coding sequences
(3) intermediate degree of polymorphism in coding sequences
(4) sequences showing no polymorphism

10) Arrange the following in correct order of sequence for DNA finger-printing-
(a) Blotting
(b) Hybridization
(c) Gel Electrophorosis
(d) Autoradiography

(1) c, a, d, b
(2) a, c, d, b
(3) b, c, a, d
(4) c, a, b, d

11) Assertion (A) :- DNA finger printing is the basis of paternity testing, in case of disputes.
Reason (R) :- Polymorphisms are inheritable from parents to children.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

12) Which suspect would you charge with the crime?

(1) Both suspect 1 & 2
(2) Only suspect 1
(3) Only suspect 2
(4) Neither suspect 1 nor suspect 2

13) In human :-
I. Non-coding DNA is abundant.
II. Less than 2% of genome codes for protein.
III. The function of more than 50% genes are unknown
IV. Total number of genes is 30000.
Correct option are :-

(1) I, II, III and IV

(2) I and III
(3) I, II and IV
(4) I, II and III

14) Automated–DNA sequencing is based on method developed by :-

(1) Erwin Chargaff

(2) Maurice Wilkins
(3) Francis Crick
(4) Frederick Sanger

15) Which of the following is not associated with HGP?

(1) Bio-informatics
(2) Cloning vector BAC & YAC
(3) Automated DNA sequencers
(4) VNTR

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Read the statements (a–d). How many statements are true for passive immunity ?
(a) Anti-tetanus serum administered after an injury
 (b) An injection of anti-venom after snake bite
(c) A newborn vaccinated against hepatitis-B
(d) Lifetime immunity attained by suffering from chickenpox once

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

2) The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant
antibodies to protect infant, These antibodies are mainly :-

(1) IgM
(2) IgG
(3) IgD
(4) IgA

3) In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity?

(1) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes - physical barrier

(2) Mucous covering of urogenital tract and HCl of stomach- Physiological barrier
(3) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and Natural killer cells- Cellular barrier
(4) Anti-serum and anti-venom injection - Active immunity

4)

Which one of the following is not example of live vaccine ?

(1) Oral polio vaccine (OPV.)

(2) Measles, Mumps, Rubella vaccine (MMR)
(3) Bacillus calmette Guerin vaccine (BCG)
(4) Tetanus toxoid vaccine.(TT)

5) Choose the option which describes the physical barrier of innate immunity.

(1) Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears from eyes prevent microbial growth
Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, gastrointestinal and urinogenital tracts
(2)
help in trapping microbes entering our body
(3) Chemical like interferons protects cells from viral infection
(4) Rejection of an allograft

6) Surface antibody is :

(1) IgG
(2) IgA
(3) IgE
(4) IgD

7) Match the following column (A) with (B) ?

Column (A) Column (B)

(i) BCG vaccine (a) Toxoid

Recombinant
(ii) Pertussis vaccine (b)
vaccine

(iii) Tetanus vaccine (c) Live vaccine

(iv) Hepatitis-B vaccine (d) Killed vaccine

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

8)

Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine :

(a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus

(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin

(c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria

(d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) PMNL are included in which barrier ?

(1) Physical
(2) Physiological
(3) Cellular
(4) Cytokine
10) _____is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced :-

(1) Lymph node

(2) Thymus
(3) Bone marrow
(4) Spleen

11) Identify correct about allergy

(I) IgE antibodies are produced
(II) Anaphylatic shock is an allergic condition.
(III) Allergy treatment is done by administration of antihistamines.
(IV) AIDS is an allergic disorder.

(1) Only two statements are correct

(2) Only IV statements is correct
(3) Only three statements are correct
(4) All Four statements are correct

12) Which of the following set is/are not a hallucinogen ?

(1) LSD, Datura, Marijuana

(2) Hashish, Ganja, Datura
(3) Atropa belladona, Hashish, Bhang
(4) Cocaine, LSD, Heroin

13) Which chemical is responsible for the chills & high fever in malaria?

(1) Heparin
(2) Haemozoin
(3) Histamine
(4) Hirudin

14)

Good Humor hypothesis is given by :-

(1) Aristotle
(2) Hippocrates
(3) William harvey
(4) Louis pasteur

15) What is true for allergy except

(1) The exaggerated response of the immune system

(2) Allergy is due to release of histamine and serotonin
(3) Antibodies produced to these are of IgE type
(4) Neutrophil releases histamine and serotonin

16)

How many statement(s) are correct about acquired immunity ?

(A) Acquired immunity is a specific immunity.
(B) On second exposure of same antigen, this immunity shows anamnestic response.
(C) B & T Lymphocytes are responsible for acquired immunity

(D) It can differentiate between self and non self tissues.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

17) Which of the following specimen is tested the most for the detection of typhoid?

(1) Urine
(2) Blood
(3) Faeces
(4) Sputum

18) Which of the following is not a component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocytes
(3) Natural killer cells
(4) Antibodies

19) Identify the molecular structure shown below as well as related type of drug and select the right

option for the two together :-

Molecular Structure Drug

(1) Morphine Charas

(2) Cannabinoid Crack

(3) Morphine Heroin

(4) Cocaine Ganja

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Select the correct match w.r.t. type of antibody and its function listed.

(1) IgA - Provides passive immunity to fetus

(2) IgG - Provides active immunity to fetus
(3) IgE - Can cross placenta to provide immunity
(4) IgG - Number rises dramatically on subsequent exposure to antigen in secondary response

21) The four diagrams (A, B, C) given below represent three different types of plants. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct drug and function ?

Plant Drug Function

(1) A-Opium Morphine Stimulant
(2) B-Cannabis L.S.D. Hallucinogen
(3) C-Datura Marijuana Hallucinogen
(4) A-Papaver Heroin Depressant
Somniferum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22)

Identify the diagram shown below :-

(1) Cannabis Sativa

(2) Datura
(3) Opium poppy
(4) None of these

23) Diagram showing inflammation of lower limb due to :-

(1) Filariasis
(2) Elephantiasis
(3) Ascariasis
(4) 1 and 2 both

24) Assertion: Filarial worm cause a slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs.
Reason: Filarial worm is transmitted by female mosquito vector.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

25) Assertion: Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence that is present at the time of birth.
Reason: This is accomplished by providing types of barriers to the entry of foreign agents into our
body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

26) Assertion (A) : AIDS is not a congenital disease.

Reason (R) : HIV is not spread by mere touch or physical contact.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) How many of the below are incorrect about given diagram :-
 (a) Mediator of CMI
(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help B-cell produce them
(c) H2L2 molecule
(d) Glycoprotein molecule

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

28) Pick up the odd one in each series and find out correct options:
(A) Tonsils, Spleen, Thymus, Peyer's patches
(B) Skin, Saliva, Tears, Acid in the stomach
(C) Plague, filariasis, Pneumonia, Diptheria
(D) AIDS, Thyphoid, Malaria, Cancer

A B C D

(1) Tonsils Skin Plague AIDS

(2) Thymus Tears Pneumonia Thyphoid

(3) Thymus Skin Filariasis Cancer

(4) Spleen Saliva Filariasis Cancer

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

29) Which of the following statements are correct about Typhoid ?

(a) Confirmed by widal test
(b) Mary mallon was carrier
(c) Droplet infection
(d) Sustained fever 39-40ºF
(e) Salmonella typhi is pathogenic bacteria

(1) a, b, e only
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) a, c, d

30) Choose the wrong statement regarding AIDS :-

(1) AIDS is an immunodeficiency disease

(2) It is caused by retrovirus
(3) HIV selectively infects and kill cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
(4) Viral RNA genome is converted in to DNA copy by reverse transcriptase

31) Which of following is the correct sequence of steps of phagocytosis ?

(a) Adhesion (b) Vasodilation
(c) Phagocytosis
(d) Diapedesis
(e) Chemotaxis

(1) a → c → b → d → e
(2) b → a → d → e → c
(3) b → a → e → d → c
(4) b → d → e → a → c

32) Mark the correctly matched option

(X) (Y) (Z)

(1) Alkaline phosphatase Integrase Protease

(2) Reverse transcriptase Protease Integrase

(3) Reverse transcriptase Integrase Protease

(4) DNA Polymerase Integrase Protease

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
33)

Study the given flow chart and identify A, B, C, D, E :

A B C D E

Clinical
(1) Interferons Vaccine Colostrum Antiserum
infection

(2) Interferons Infection Vaccine Colostrum Antiserum

(3) Interferons Infection Colostrum Vaccine Antiserum

(4) Interferons Vaccine Infection Sera Colostrum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34)
Identify (A), (B) and (C) respectively :-

(1) Protooncogene, tumour suppressor gene, oncogene

(2) Protooncogene, oncogene, tumour suppressor gene
(3) Tumour suppressor gene, oncogene, protooncogene
(4) Oncogene, tumour suppressor gene, protooncogene

35) Identifty W, X, Y and Z in the flow chart showing fate of B-cells in humoral immunity:-
Option:-

W X Y Z

Memory cells
(1) Clones of B-ells Memory cells Plasma cells
degenerates soon

Memory cells
Antibody ynthesis
(2) Plasma cells Memory cells stored in lymph
by memory cells
nodes

Memory cells
(3) T-cells Memory cells Antibody ynthesis
stored in spleen

Memory cells
(4) Clones of B-cells Plasma cells Antibody synthesis stored in spleen
and lymph nodes
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION-B

1) Tissue matching is not required in which of the following ?

(1) Homograft
(2) Autograft
(3) Allograft
(4) Both (1) and (3)

2) If thymus removed at the time of birth,this leads to deficiency of?

(1) T-cells
(2) B-cells
(3) Both T & B cells
(4) NK cell

3) LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamide) extracted from ?

(1) Erythroxylem coca

(2) Papaver somniferum
(3) Hemp plant
(4) Claviceps purpura

4) Antibodies are complex _____ :-

(1) Lipoprotein
(2) Prostaglandin
(3) Steroids
(4) Glycoprotein

5) Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?

(1) They divide in an uncontrolled manner

(2) They show contact inhibition
(3) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients
(4) They do not remain confined in the area of formation

6) Which of the following immune response is responsible for graft rejection ?

(1) Physical barriers of innate immunity

(2) Cellular barriers of innate immunity
(3) Humoral immune response
(4) Cell mediated immune response

7)

Which of the following is not inflammatory sign :-

(1) Pain
(2) Swelling
(3) Antibody formation
(4) Heat

8) H.I.V that causes AIDS, starts destroying :-

(1) B-lymphocytes
(2) T-killer lymphocyte
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) Helper-T-lymphocytes

9) Read the following four statements (A to D):

(A) Health does not simply mean 'absence of disease'.
(B) IgM is pentamer in its structure.
(C) For Amoebiasis, drinking water and food contaminated by fecal matter are main source of
infection.
(D) Subsequent exposure to same pathogen elicits a more slow secondary or anamnestic immune
response.
How many of above statements is/are wrong?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

10) All of the following are features of active immunity except –

(1) Slow to develop

(2) Exposure of antigens is required
(3) It can be developed by injecting readymade antibodies
(4) Vaccination induces development of active immunity.

11) Monocytes are liberated at the site of infection from blood vessel. It is called :-

(1) Vassodilation
(2) Diapedesis
(3) Amoeboid movement
(4) Both (2) and (3)

12) Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below
identify the infectious diseases.
(i) Trichomoniasis
(ii) Cancer
(iii) Common cold
(iv) Allergy

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

13) Treatment of cancer is :-

(1) Surgery
(2) Radiation
(3) Chemotherapy
(4) All

14) Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to :

(1) Cell-mediated immune response
(2) Passive immune response
(3) Innate immune response
(4) Humoral immune response

15) Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. benign tumor?

(1) It usually spreads to other parts of body

(2) It causes huge damage to the tissues concerned
(3) Normally remain confined to its original location
(4) It is characterised by metastasis
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 2 1 2 2 3 4 2 1 3 1 2 1 4 3 4 4 1 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 4 4 4 2 1 2 4 2 3 1 1 3 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 1 4 1 2 2 2 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 3 4 4 1 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 4 4 3 2 2 1 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 1 4 4 2 3 3 4 4 2 1 2 2 4 2 1 1 1 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 4 1 2 2 3 2 3 1 3 1 4 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 1 2 4 3 3 1 1 4 4 3 1 4 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 4 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 2 4 2 1 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 2 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 4 4 2 4 3 4 4 3 4 1 4 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

6)

Momentum (mv) =
where, E = Kinetic energy

∴ = ……(i)

For circular motion of a particle, Bev =

or R = ……(ii)
From eqns. (i) and (ii), we get

∴ or

7)

θ = (90 –α)
τ = NIABsinθ = 1× I × ℓ2 Bsin(90–α)
τ = BIℓ2cosα.

8)

and will not change its direction

9)

10)

The magnitude of magnetic field.

i.e.,
dl = Δx = 10–2 m, I = 10 A, r = 0.5 m = y,

θ=90°, sinθ = 1

As, dl × r =

So, the direction of the field is in the +z-direction.

12) A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves from stronger to the weaker part of the
field.

13)

For a diamagnetic substance is small, negative and independent of temperature.

18)

By right-hand rule for cross product, the electron follows the track D

19)

We find that there is an upward force F, of magnitude IℓB. For mid-air suspension, this must be
balanced by the force due to gravity.
mg = I IB

23)

Baxis = Beq.

24)
 Time period of bar magnet T = 2π

Where I = , Moment of Inertia of bar magnet

M=m*l, magnetic moment of bar magnet
BH = Bcosθ, Horizontal component of earth field.
So T does not depends on length of suspension fibre

25)

∴ Magnetic monopoles do not exist.

26)

B= =
= µ0 × 10–19 T (where q = +2e)

27)

= (0) –(0) + (150) N–m = 150 N–m

28) Magnetic force on moving charge :-

Here :-
⇒
⇒
∵ Fm = qvBsinθ
∴ Fm = 0

30) Magnetic moment M = M

In arc

New magnetic moment

33)

use right hand thumb rule.

34)
1) r < R, Bp = 0

2) r > R, Bp =

37)

is along i.

39) The vector form of Biot-Savart rule is :-

42)

For a diamagnetic material, the value of is less than one. For any material, the value of is
always greater than 1.

43)

⇒ Mnet =
=

46)
 48) Loop will have a tendency to expand.

CHEMISTRY

53) Decreasing order of functional group (priority)

57) –COOH, –OH, , –OCH3(ether)

(tertiary amine)

58)

72) & CH3–CH=CH–CH2–Cl

Both compounds having same molecular formula but one is open chain and another one is a
cyclic. So these are ring chain isomers.

78)

'S' configuration

83)
 92) NCERT XI Pg. # 348

BOTANY

101)

NCERT Pg.#209

102)

103)

104)

105) NCERT XII, Pg. No. 208

106)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 197,202,200

107)

108)

109)

110)

111)

NCERT XII Pg. # 199

112)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 202

113)

Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (Fact/Data)

In 1972 they constructed 1st recombinant DNA.
 114)

NCERT Pg. # 196, 197

115)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 204, 205

116)

NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XII Page No. 214

117)

NCERT XII Pg # 199

118)

NCERT XII Pg # 194

119)

NCERT XII Pg # 200(E), 220(H)

120)

NCERT Page No. # 195 / 214

121)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 199

122)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 196

123)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 204

124)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 190, Fig - 11.3

125)

NCERT XIIth Pg # 198

126)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 201

127) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 198

 128) NCERT XII, Pg. No. 195,196

129) NCERT XII, Pg. No. 194

130) NCERT XII, Pg. No. 202,197,195

131) NCERT XII, Pg. No. 213

132)

NCERT Reference:
Zoology-XII Page No. -202

133)

NCERT XII Page No. # 199

134)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 196

135)

Allen module question 150, [Link]. 149

136)

NCERT XII Pg. Eng-113

NCERT XII Pg. Hindi-124

137)

NCERT XII Pg. Eng-113

NCERT XII Pg. Hindi-124

138)

NCERT Pg. No. 102

139)

NCERT XII Pg. # [E] 120, [H]131

140)

NCERT_11_PG_122_2021-22

141) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 122

 142)

NCERT XII Pg # 87,113

143) Module

144)

NCERT–XII, Pg. # 121

145)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 122

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 121

147)

NCERT XII Pg.# 123

148)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 120

149)

NCERT Pg. # 103

150)

NCERT Pg. # 79

ZOOLOGY

152)

NCERT Pg No. # 151, 163

159) NCERT [Link]. 150

160)

NCERT XII Pg. # 153, Para-8.2.7

161)

NCERT-XII Pg # 153; Para-8.2.5

162)
NCERT Pg.# 159

163)

NCERT XII Pg. # 148

165)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 153

166)

NCERT-12th Pg No. # 151

171) NCERT XII Page # 158, 159

172)

NCERT-XII Pg # 159; Para-8.5

174)

NCERT XII Page No. # (E)149, (H) 160

175)

NCERT Pg. # 150

176)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 154, 155 (E) ; 168, 170 (H)

179) NCERT XII Pg. # 146,147

184)

193)

NCERT XII, Pg.# 155

197)

NCERT Pg. # 130