Duration : 03:00 Hours 1

Date : 28/12/23
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LOCUS ACADEMY
Chemistry for IIT- JEE, NEET, & Foundation Courses

NTS-2024 (4.0)

Total Marks Physics

Syllabus & Details
Chemistry Biology
12
 Wave Optics  Aldehydes, Ketones &  Human Health & Diseases
 Electromagnetic Carboxylic acids  Organisms & Populations
720 Waves  Biomolecules

Student Name : (in Capitals) Enrollment Number :

Physics “Sec” A
All 35 questions of this section is of +4 for correct –1
for incorrect and zero for not attempt
01. Two identical light sources S1 and S2 emit light of same 06. In Young’s double slit experiment, instead of taking slits
wavelength λ. These light rays will exhibit interference, of equal widths, one slit is made twice as wide as the
if – other. Then, in the interference pattern.
(A) Their phase differences remain constant (A) The intensities of both the maxima and the minima
(B) Their phases are distributed randomly increase
(C) Their light intensities remain constant (B) The intensity of maxima increases and the minima
(D) Their light intensities change randomly has zero intensity
02. Two coherent sources of intensities, l1 and l2 produce an (C) The intensity of maxima decreases and that of the
interference pattern. The maximum intensity in the minima increases
interference pattern will be. (D) The intensity of maxima decreases and the minima
(A) l1 + l2 (B) 𝑙12 + 𝑙22 has zero intensity
07. In Young’s double slit experiment, green light
(C) (l1 + l2) 2
(D) (√𝑙1 + √𝑙2 )2
(λ = 5461Å) is used and 60 fringes were seen in the field
03. If the amplitude ratio of two sources producing view. Now, sodium light is used (λ = 5890Å), then
interference is 3 : 5, then the ratio of intensities at maxima number of fringes observed are –
and minima is.
(A) 40
(A) 25 : 16 (B) 5 : 3
(B) 60
(C) 16 : 1 (D) 25 : 9
(C) 50
04. Which of the following is not an essential condition for
interference? (D) 55
(A) The two interfering waves must propagate in almost 08. A slit of width d is illuminated by white light. For red
the same direction light (λ = 6500Å), the first minima is obtained at θ = 30o.
(B) The waves must have the same period and Then, the value of d will be.
wavelength (A) 3250Å
(C) The amplitudes of the two waves must be equal (B) 6.5 × 10–4 mm
(D) The two interfering beams of light must originate (C) 1.24 microns
from the same source
(D) 2.6 × 10–4 cm
05. In Young’s double slit experiment, when two light waves
form third minimum intensity, they have. 09. The X-ray cannot be diffracted by means of an ordinary
grating due to.
(A) Phase difference of 3π
5π (A) Large wavelength
(B) Phase difference of
2 (B) High speed
(C) Path difference of 3λ
(C) Short wavelength
5λ
(D) Path difference of (D) All of the above
2

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10. A polariser is used to – 17. Figure shows a standard two slit arrangement with slits S1,
(A) Reduce intensity of light S2, P1, P2 are the two minima points on either side of P
(figure).
(B) Produce polarised light
(C) Increase intensity of light
(D) Produce unpolarised light
11. The transverse nature of light is shown by –
(A) Interference of light
(B) Refraction of light
(C) Polarisation of light At P2 on the screen, there is a hole and behind P2 is a
second 2-slit arrangement with slits S3, S4 and a second
(D) Dispersion of light screen behind them.
12. The angle of incidence at which reflected light (A) There would be no interference pattern on the
is totally polarised for reflection from air to glass second screen but it would be lighted
(refractive index n) is.
(B) The second screen would be totally dark
(A) Sin–1(n)
1
(C) There would be a single bright point on the second
(B) sin–1( ) screen
𝑛
1 (D) There would be a regular two slit pattern on the
(C) tan–1( )
𝑛 second screen
(D) tan–1(n) 18. In the young’s double slit experiment, the intensities at
13. When unpolarised light beam is incident from air onto two points P1 and P2 on the screen are respectively I1 and
glass (n = 1.5) at the polarising angle. I2. If P1 is located at the centre of a bright fringe and P2 is
located at a distance equal to a quarter of fringe width
(A) Reflected beam is polarised 100 percent 𝐼
from P1, then 1 is.
(B) Reflected and refracted beams are partially polarised 𝐼2

(C) The reason for (a) is that almost all the light is (A) 2 (B) 3
reflected (C) 4 (D) None of these
(D) All of the above 19. Two ideal slits S1 and S2 are at a distance d apart and
14. Consider the sunlight incident on a slit of width 10 Å. The
4 illuminated by light of wavelength λ passing through an
image seen through the slit shall. ideal source slit S placed on the line through S2 as shown.
The distance between the planes of slits and the source slit
(A) Be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the centre is D.
(B) A bright slit white at the centre diffusing to zero
intensities at the edges
(C) A bright slit white at the centre diffusing to regions
of different colours
(D) Only be a diffused slit white in colour
15. Two waves of same frequency and same amplitude from
two monochromatic sources are allowed to superpose at a A screen is held at a distance D from the plane of the slits.
certain point. If in one case, the phase difference is 0 and The minimum value of d for which there is darkness at O
in other case it is π/2, then the ratio of the intensities in is.
the two cases will be.
3𝜆𝐷
(A) 1 : 1 (A) √ (B) √𝜆𝐷
2

(B) 2 : 1 𝜆𝐷
(C) √ (D) √3𝜆𝐷
2
(C) 4 : 1
20. Assertion: Two coherent sources transmit waves of equal
(D) None of the above
intensity I0. Resultant intensity at a point where
𝜆
16. Two wavelengths of light of wavelength λ1 = 4500Å and path difference is is also I0.
3
λ2 = 6000Å are sent through a young’s double slit
apparatus simultaneously, then. Reason: In interference resultant intensity at any point is
the average intensity of two individual
(A) No interference pattern will be formed intensities.
(B) The third order bright fringe of λ1 will coincide with (A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is
the fourth order bright fringe λ2 the correct explanation of assertion
(C) The third order bright fringe of λ2 will coincide with (B) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is
the fourth order bright fringe λ1 not the correct explanation of assertion

(D) The fringes of wavelength λ1 will be wider than the (C) If assertion is false but reason is true
fringes of wavelength λ2 (D) If both assertion and reason are false
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21. Match the following two columns. 28. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of
Column-I Column-II a single-slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference
between the Huygen’s wavelet from the edge of the slit
a. The phenomenon of p. Coherent
and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is :
redistribution of light sources
energy an account of (A) 𝜋/2 radian (B) 𝜋/4
superimposition (C) 𝜋/8 radian (D) 𝜋 radian
b. Emit continuous light q. Interference of 29. One requires 11 eV of energy to dissociate a carbon
waves of same wavelength light monoxide molecule into carbon and oxygen atoms. The
having constant phase minimum frequency of the appropriate electromagnetic
difference radiation to achieve the dissociation lies in.
c. The phenomenon of r. Polarization of
bending of light around light (A) Visible region (B) Infrared region
corners (C) Ultraviolet region (D) Microwave region
d. The phenomenon of s. Diffraction of 30. Light with an energy flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-
restricting the vibration of light reflecting surface at normal incidence. If the surface has
ordinary light an area of 30 cm2, then the total momentum delivered (for
(A) a → q, b → p, c → s, d → r complete absorption) during 30 min is.
(B) a → r, b → p, c → s, d → q (A) 36 × 10–5 kg-m/s (B) 36 × 10–4 kg-m/s
(C) a → r, b → s, c → p, d → q (C) 108 × 104 kg-m/s (D) 1.08 × 107 kg-m/s
(D) a → s, b → q, c → r, d → p 31. Match Column-I (electromagnetic wave type) with
Column-II (its application) and select the correct option
22. The law which states that the variations of electric field
from the choices given below the Columns.
causes magnetic filed is.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Faraday’s law (B) Biot-Savart law
(a) Infrared waves (p) To treat muscular strain
(C) Modified ampere’s law (D) Lenz’s law
23. According a Ampere-Maxwell’s circuital law. (b) Radio waves (q) For broadcasting
𝑞 (c) X-rays (r) To detect of fracture of bones
(A) ∮ E.d S =
𝜀0
(d) Ultraviolet (s) Absorbed by the ozone layer of
𝑑ϕE
(B) ∮ E.d I = – the atmosphere
𝑑𝑡
(C) ∮ B.d S = 0 (A) a → p, b → q, c → r, d → s

(D) ∮ B.d I = μ0(Ic + ε0

𝑑ϕE
) (B) a → r, b → p, c → s, d → q
𝑑𝑡
(C) a → r, b → s, c → p, d → q
24. Which of the following relation is correct?
(D) a → s, b → q, c → r, d → p
(A) √𝜀0 𝐸0 = √μ0 𝐵0 (B) √μ0 𝜀0 = B0/E0
32. The energy density associated with electric field ⃗E and
(C) E0 = √μ0 𝜀0 𝐵0 (D) √μ0 𝐸0 = √ε0 𝐵0 magnetic field ⃗B of an electromagnetic wave in free space
25. Which of the following electromagnetic waves are used in is given by (ϵ0 – permittivity of free space, μ0 –
weather forecasting? permeability of free space)
(A) Infrared waves (B) Radio waves E2 B2
(A) UE = , UB =
2∈0 2μ0
(C) Microwaves (D) Visible rays
E2 μ0 B2
26. An EM wave radiates outwards from a dipole antenna, (B) UE = , UB =
2∈0 2
with E0 as the amplitude of its electric field vector. The
electric field E0 which transports significant energy from ϵ0 E2 μ0 B2
(C) UE = , UB =
the source falls off as – 2 2

1 ϵ0 E2 B2
(A) (D) UE = , UB =
𝑟3 2 2μ0
1
(B) 33. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given as
𝑟2
1 ⃗ = 20 sin ω (t − x) j NC–1.
E
(C) c
𝑟
(D) Remains constant Where ω and c are angular frequency and velocity of
27. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field vectors of electromagnetic wave respectively. The energy contained
the electromagnetic wave, then the direction of in a volume of 5 × 10–4 m3 will be.
propagation of electromagnetic wave is along. (Given ε0 = 8.85 × 10–12C2/Nm2)
(A) E (A) 28.5 × 10–13 J
(B) B (B) 17.7 × 10–13 J
(C) B × E (C) 8.85 × 10–13 J
(D) E × B (D) 88.5 × 10–13 J
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34. The energy of an electromagnetic wave contained in a 40. n identical waves each of intensity I0 interfere with each
small volume oscillates with. other. The ratio of maximum intensities if the interference
(A) Zero frequency is (i) coherent and (ii) incoherent is:
1
(B) Half the frequency of the wave (A) n2 (B)
𝑛
(C) Double the frequency of the wave 1
(C) (D) n
𝑛2
(D) The frequency of the wave
41. In Young’s double slit experiment, one of the slit is wider
35. Given below are two statements: than other, so that amplitude of the light from one slit is
Statement-I : A time varying electric field is a source of double of that other slit. If I m be the maximum intensity,
changing magnetic field and vice-versa. the resultant intensity I when they interfere at phase
Thus a disturbance in electric or difference ϕ is given by:
magnetic field creates EM waves. 𝐼𝑚 𝐼𝑚 ϕ
(A) (4 + 5 cos ϕ) (B) (1 + 2cos 2 )
9 3 2
Statement-II : In a material medium. The EM wave
1 𝐼𝑚 ϕ 𝐼𝑚 ϕ
travels with speed v = . (C) (1 + 4cos 2 ) (D) (1 + 8cos 2 )
√μ0 ε0 5 2 9 2

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct 42. Consider the diffraction pattern obtained from the sunlight
answer from the options given below: incident on a pinhole of diameter 0.1 μm. If the diameter
of the pinhole is slightly increased, it will affect the
(A) Both statement-I and statement-II are true diffraction pattern such that.
(B) Both statement-I and statement-II are false (A) Its size decreases, and intensity decreases
(C) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false (B) Its size increases, and intensity increases
(D) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true (C) Its size increases, but intensity decreases
“Section” B Attempt Any 10 out of 15 (D) Its size decreases, but intensity increases
36. Match List-I with List-II: 43. In an experiment of single slit diffraction pattern, first
dϕ
(a) Gauss’s law in (i) ∮ ⃗[Link] = – B maximum for red light coincides with first maximum of
electrostatics dt some other wavelength. If wavelength of red light is
⃗ =0
⃗ .dA 6600Å, then wavelength of first maximum will be:
(b) Faraday’s law (ii) ∮ B
Gauss’s law in (iii) ∮ ⃗[Link] = μ0iC + μ0 ϵ0 dϕE (A) 3300 Å (B) 4400 Å
(c)
magnetism dt (C) 5500 Å (D) 6600 Å
q
(d) Ampere-Maxwell (iv) ∮ ⃗[Link] = 44. In an interference experiment the ratio of amplitudes of
ϵ0 𝑎 1
law coherent waves is 1 = . The ratio of maximum and
𝑎2 3
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: minimum intensities of fringes will be :
(A) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii (A) 2 (B) 18
(B) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv (C) 4 (D) 9
(C) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii 45. In Young's double slits experiment, the position of 5th
bright fringe from the central maximum is 5 cm . The
(D) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
distance between slits and screen is 1 m and wavelength
37. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 1 × 1014 hertz is of used monochromatic light is 600 nm. The separation
propagating along z-axis. The amplitude of electric field between the slits is:
is 4 V/m. If ε0 = 8.8 × 10–12 C2/N-m2, then average energy (A) 60 µm (B) 48 µm
density of electric field will be:
(C) 12 µm (D) 36 µm
(A) 35.2 × 10–10 J/m3 (B) 35.2 × 10–11 J/m3
46. In Young's double slit experiment, the fringe width is
(C) 35.2 × 10–12 J/m3 (D) 35.2 × 10–13 J/m3 12 mm. If the entire arrangement is placed in water of
4
38. The coherent light sources having intensity in the ratio 2x refractive index , then the fringe width becomes (in mm) :
3
produce an interference pattern.
1max − 1min
(A) 16
The ratio will be. (B) 9
1max + 1min

√2𝑥 √2𝑥 (C) 48

(A) (B)
2𝑥 + 1 𝑥+1 (D) 12
2√2𝑥 2√2𝑥
(C) (D) 47. In a Young's double slit experiment two slits are separated
𝑥+1 2𝑥 + 1
by 2 mm and the screen is placed one meter away. When
39. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen a light of wavelength 500 nm is used, the fringe
in a Young’s double slit experiment where phase separation will be:
difference between two wave of same amplitude
π π (A) 0.25 mm
are and , respectively are.
3 2
(B) 0.75 mm
(A) 1 : 3 (B) 3 : 1
(C) 0.50 mm
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 3 (D) 1 mm
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48. The figure shows a Young's double slit experimental setup. 55. n-Hexane is obtained in :
It is observed that when a thin transparent sheet of
thickness t and refractive index ¼ is put in front of one of
the slits, the central maximum gets shifted by a distance (A) (B)
equal to n fringe widths. If the wavelength of light used is
λ, t will be :
2𝑛𝐷𝜆
(A)
𝑎(𝜇−1)
𝑛𝐷𝜆 (C) (D)
(B)
𝑎(𝜇−1)
𝐷𝜆
(C) 56. Select correct statement(s) among the followings :
𝑎(𝜇−1)

(D) None (i) Glucose does not give schiff’s test

49. A mixture of light, consisting of wavelength 590 nm and (ii) Glucose does not form the hydrogensulphite
an unknown wavelength, illuminates Young's double slit addition product with NaHSO3
and gives rise to two overlapping interference patterns on. (iii) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with
the screen. The central maximum of both lights coincide. hydroxylamine.
Further, if is observed that the third bright fringe of
(A) i and iii (B) ii and iii
known light coincides with the 4th bright fringe of the
unknown light. From this data, the wavelength of the (C) i, ii and iii (D) i and ii
unknown light is : 57. Which of the following statement is wrong about sucrose
(A) 885.0 nm (B) 442.5 nm (A) It is also named as invert sugar
(C) 776.8 nm (D) 393.4 nm (B) The glycosidic linkage is present between C1 of
50. In a double-slit experiment, green light (5303Å) falls on a ∝-Glucose and C1 of β-fructose
double slit having a separation of 19.44 µm and a width (C) It is a non-reducing sugar
of 4.05 µm. The number of bright fringes between the
(D) On hydrolysis, it produces glucose and fructose.
first and the second diffraction minima is :
58. Number of chiral carbon present in aldohexose and
(A) 10 (B) 05
ketotetrose are respectively (in open chain form)
(C) 04 (D) 09
(A) 4, 2 (B) 5, 1
Chemistry “Sec” A
(C) 5, 2 (D) 4, 1
51. Cheilosis and Xerophthalmia are the diseases due to
59. L−Glucose is –
deficiency of :
CHO CHO CHO CHO
(A) Vitamin B2 and Vitamin A respectively H OH H OH
HO H HO H
(B) Vitamin A and Vitamin B 2 respectively HO H HO H H OH HO H
(C) Vitamin B6 and Vitamin B2 respectively (A) H OH (B) HO H (C) HO H (D) H OH
H OH HO H HO H HO H
(D) Vitamin B2 and Vitamin B6 respectively. CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
52. C-2 epimer of D-Glucose is -
60. Which reaction indicates that glucose contains five –OH
O O O O

H OH HO H HO H H OH groups –
H OH HO H H OH HO H (A) aldohexose + HI, ∆ →
HO H H OH HO H HO H
(B) aldohexose + NH2OH →
H OH H OH H OH H OH
(C) aldohexose + Br2/H2O →
(D) aldohexose + acetic anhydride →
OH OH OH OH

(A) (B) (C) (D)

61. C1 – C4 glycosidic linkage is present in –
53. Incorrect about polysaccharide is :
(A) Sucrose (B) Maltose
(A) Amylose is water soluble component which
constitutes about 15-20% of starch. (C) Lactose (D) ‘B’ and ‘C’
(B) Amylopectin is insoluble in water and constitutes 62. Number of chiral carbon present in sucrose is –
about 80-85% of starch. (A) 8 (B) 9
(C) Amylose and amylopectin both contains C1-C4 (C) 10 (D) 7
glycosidic linkage.
63. Incorrect about lactose is –
(D) Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide and it is
the least abundant organic substance in plant (A) It is also known as milk sugar
kingdom. (B) It is composed of β−D−galactose and β−D−glucose
54. Which pair is an example of basic amino acids : (C) It contains C1 of β−D−galactose and C4 of
(A) Arg, Lys (B) Glu, Asp β−D−glucose glycosidic linkage
(C) Leu, Glu (D) Asp, Ala. (D) It cannot reduce Tollen’s regent.
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64. Correct statement(s) about polysaccharide is/are – 70. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
(i) Glycogen is also found in yeast and fungi Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
(ii) Glycogen is also known as animal starch Assertion (A) : Sucrose is a disaccharide and a non–
reducing sugar.
(iii) Glycine is only 𝛼-amino acid which is achiral
(iv) Deficiency of vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) increases Reason (R) : Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage
blood clotting time. between C1 of 𝛽–glucose and C2 of 𝛽–
fructose.
(A) i, ii and iii (B) i and iv
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
(C) ii and iii (D) all
given below:
65. Incorrect statement about protein is –
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true
(A) Fibrous proteins are generally insoluble in water explanation of (A)
(B) Insulin and albumin are example of globular proteins (B) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(C) Keratin and myosin are fibrous proteins
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) In primary structure of proteins, main forces are
hydrogen bonds and disulphide linkages. (D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the true
explanation of (A)
66. Number of amino acids present in insulin is –
71. The term anomers of glucose refers to
(A) 101 (B) 51
(A) enantiomers of glucose
(C) 151 (D) 41
(B) isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at
67. Correct structure of 𝛼−D−(−)−fructofuranose is –
carbon one (C-1)
HO OH HO OH
O O (C) isomers of glucose that differ configurations at
(A) H OH (B) OH OH carbons one and four (C-1 and C-4)
H OH HO OH
OH H H H
(D) a mixture of D−glucose and (L)−glucose
HO OH HO 72. Deficiency of vitamin K causes:
O O OH
OH H H OH (A) Cheilosis
(C) OH
(D)
H H OH (B) Increase in blood clotting time
H OH OH H
(C) Increase in fragility of RBC’s
68. Incorrect statement(s) is –
(D) Decrease in blood clotting time
(i) Number of -COOH group in one molecule of
Saccharic acid is ‘1’ 73. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(ii) 𝛼 & 𝛽 form of fructose are anomers (A) Gluconic acid can form cyclic (acetal/hemiacetal)
(iii) D-Galactose and D-Glucose are C-4 epimers structure
(iv) Lactose and Glucose both are monosaccharides (B) Gluconic acid is a dicarboxylic acid
(A) ii and iii (C) Gluconic acid is a partial oxidation product of glucose
(B) i and iv (D) Gluconic acid is obtained by oxidation of glucose
(C) only i with HNO3
(D) ii, iii and iv 74. Animal starch is the other name of :
69. L–isomer of a compound ‘A’ (C4H8O4) gives a positive (A) amylose
test with [Ag(NH3)2]+. Treatment of ‘A’ with acetic (B) maltose
anhydride yield triacetate derivative. Compound ‘A’
produces an optically active compound (B) and an (C) glycogen
optically inactive compound (C) on treatment with (D) amylopectin
bromine water and HNO3 respectively, compound (A) is:
75. Which acid of each pair shown here would you expect to
CHO CHO be stronger :
HO H H OH (I) HCOOH, CH3COOH

(A) (B) (II) CH3COOH, PhCOOH

HO H HO H (III) CH3CO2H, CH2FCO2H
CH2OH CH2OH (IV) CH2FCO2H, CH2ClCO2H
CHO CHO
I II III IV
H OH (A) HCOOH, Ph–COOH, CH2FCO2H, CH2ClCO2H
HO H
(B) CH3COOH, Ph–COOH, CH2FCO2H, CH2ClCO2H
(C) (D)
H OH H OH (C) HCOOH, CH3–COOH, CH3–COOH, CH2FCO2H
CH2OH CH2OH (D) HCOOH, Ph–COOH, CH2FCO2H, CH2FCO2H

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76. Reagent and product in Gatterman Koch reaction are 81. IUPAC name of the following compound is :
respectively :
(A) CO, HCl/Anhydrous AlCl3, C6H11-CHO
(B) HCHO, HCl/Hydrous CuCl, C6H11-CHO
(A) 3-formyl-pentone-1,5-dial
(C) CO, HCl/Anhydrous CuCl, C6H5-CHO
(B) pentane-1,3,5-tricarbaldehyde
(D) CO, HCl/Hydrous AlCl3, C6H5-CHO
(C) propane-1,2,3- tricarbaldehyde
77. Acetone is obtained in – (D) formyl methyl-butane-1,4-dial
𝐻3 𝑂+
(A) Propanenitrile + CH3-Mg-Br → 82. Given below are three statements :
(B) Propan-2-ol + Fehling solution → S1 - Aromatic aldehydes are obtained in Etard Reaction.
S2 - Acetyl salicylic acid is known as ASPIRIN.
(C) Propan-2-ol + K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 →
S3 - :CCl2 is an electrophile.
(D) Propan-1-ol + CrO3/H2SO4 →
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
78. Assertion : Aldehydes & ketones both are polar appropriate answer from the options given below :
molecules but boiling point of aldehydes are
(A) Statement I and II are correct.
more than ketones.
(B) Statement I and III are correct.
Reason : There is Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
between Aldehyde (R-CHO) molecules. (C) Statement II and III are incorrect.
(A) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is (D) All are correct.
correct explanation of the Assertion 83. Aldehyde is not obtained in –
(B) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not (A) CH3-CH2-CH2OH + [Ag(NH3)2]+ →
a correct explanation of the Assertion
(C) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (B) CH3-CH2-C≡N + SnCl2-HCl/steam →

(D) Both Assertion & Reason are false. (C) CH3-CH2-CH2OH + PCC →
O (D) CH3-CH2-C≡N + DIBAl-H/H2O →
MgBr
79. [Ag(NH3)2]+ NaOH - CaO
P Q
Δ (i) ether
84. + CH3-CN p ;
(ii) H3O+
CHO 𝐇𝟑 𝐎+
(P) + NaOH / I2 → (Q)
(P) and (Q) are respectively –
(P) and (Q) are respectively :
(A) Ph-COCH3, Ph-COOH
(A) (B) (B) Ph-CH2-CO-CH3 , Ph-CH2-COOH
(C) Ph-CH2-CHO, Ph-CH2-COOH
(D) Ph-COCH3, Ph-CH2OH
?
85. p-fluorotoluene → p-fluorobenzaldehyde
Which of the following reagent cannot be used for above
(C) (D) conversion –
(A) CrO3 in the presence of acetic anhydride , H2O
(B) PCC (C5H5NH+CrO3Cl–)
(C) CrO2Cl2-CS2, H3O+
80. Sequence of reagents required for following conversion – (D) All reagents can be used which are given in
A, B and C option
“Section”B
86. Order of solubility of following carbonyl compounds
towards aq. NaHSO3 is :
(A) dil/HCl , [Link]/Δ
(I) CH3–CHO (II) CH3–CO–CH3
(B) BH3, H2O2-HO– , PCC (III) CH3–CH2–CHO (IV) CF3–CHO
(C) CrO3, PCC (A) IV > I > III > II (B) II > III > I > IV
(D) Hg(OAc)2-H2O, NaBH4, Cu/△ (C) II > I > III > IV (D) IV > I > II > III
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87. Given below are four statements : 92. The incorrect method to synthesize benzaldehyde is :
S1 : Aldol condensation of acetone gives mesityl oxide. O

S2 : Cannizzaro reaction of methanal gives CH3OH &

Cl, H2, Pd-BaSO4
HCOOH. (A)
S3 : CH3COCl gives acetone with Cd(CH3)2.
O
S4 : IUPAC name of product obtained from aldol
reaction of ethanal is 3-hydroxy-propanal. OC 2H 5, DIBAL-H
(B) followed by H2O
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) S1 and S4 are incorrect CH3
, CrO2Cl2,
(B) only S4 is incorrect (C)
followed by H3O+ in CS2
(C) S2 and S3 are incorrect
(D) All are correct. CN
, CH3MgBr,
88. Correct match is : (D)
followed by H3O+
4-methoxy Benzoic acid 4-nitrobenzoic
benzoic acid acid
(A) pKa = 3.41 pKa =4.46 pKa =4.19 93.
(B) pKa =3.41 pKa =4.19 pKa =4.46
(C) pKa =4.19 pKa =4.46 pKa =3.41 The correct sequence of reagents for the above conversion
will be ―
(D) pKa =4.46 pKa =4.19 pKa =3.41
(A) [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH − , PCC, H3O+
89. In cross aldol condensation reaction of CH3CHO &
CH3–CO–CH3 which one is not a possible product – (B) PCC, CuO, H3O+
COOMe (C) CrO3–H2SO4 , H + /CH3OH, CH3MgBr
CHO
(A) (B) (D) [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH − , POCl3 , Heat
94. Match the following reagents with their chemical formula –
CHO O Column (I) Column (II)
(C) (D) (i) Tollen’s Reagent (P) CrO3–H2SO4
(ii) Fehling’s Reagent (Q) dil. KMnO4
90. Consider the following statements – (iii) Jone’s Reagent (R) [Ag(NH3)2]+
(i) Fehling solution A is aqueous copper sulphate. (iv) Bayer’s Reagent (S) Cu+2/HO–
(ii) Fehling solution B contains Rochelle salt. (i) (ii) (iii) (IV)
(iii) Aromatic aldehydes do not responds to Fehling’s (A) R S P Q
test.
(B) R S Q P
(iv) On heating an aldehyde with Fehling’s reagent, a
(C) S R P Q
reddish brown precipitate of CuO is obtained.
(D) S R Q P
Select the correct code –
95. Acetaldehyde + 2,4–D.N.P → product is ?
(A) T T T T (B) T T T F
(C) T T F F (D) F F F T
(A)
91. Match the reagents (List-I) with the product (List-II)
obtained from phenol.
List-I List-II
P (i) NaOH, (ii) CO2 (iii) H+ I Benzoquinone
(B)
Q (i) Aq. NaOH +CHCl3 II Benzene
(ii) H+
R Zn dust, Δ III Salicylaldehyde
S Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4 IV Salicylic acid
(C)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) III IV I II (B) II I IV III
(D)
(C) IV III II I (D) IV II I III
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96. An organic compound A (C6H6O) gives dark green 99. Select the correct statement.
colouration with ferric chloride. On treatment with (i) Wolf-kishner reduction is used to reduce carbonyl
CHCl3 and KOH, followed by acidification gives compound containing acid sensitive group.
compound B. Compound B can also be obtained from
(ii) LiAlH4 and NaBH4 reduce aldehyde to alcohol.
compound C on reaction with pyridinium chlorochromate
(PCC). Identify A, B and C. (iii) LiAlH4 and NaBH4 are (H) releasing group.
(iv) All the acid derivatives can be reduced by NaBH4
except oyl halides.
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
(A)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv) (D) (ii), (iv)
100. Among the following, the number of compounds which
will give positive iodoform reaction is __.
(1) 1-Phenylbutan-2-one (2) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
(B) (3) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol (4) 1-Phenylethanol
(5) 3,3-dimethylbutan-2-one (6) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 1
(C) Zoology “Sec” A
101. Mark the incorrect statement :-
(A) Smoking also paves the way to hard drugs.
(D) (B) Tobacco has been used by human beings for more
than 400 years
(C) Tobacco is smoked chewed or used as a snuff.
97. The increasing order of the following compounds towards
HCN addition is : (D) Nicotine stimulates thyroid gland to release
adrenaline and nor adrenaline
102. Mark viral diseases :-
(a) Hay fever (b) Chicken pox
(c) Diphtheria (d) Rabies
(e) Common cold (F) Tetanus
(A) b, d, e (B) a, d, e
(C) a, b, c (D) a, e, f
(A) (i) < (iii) < (iv) < (ii)
103. Select the incorrect statement for the given figure :-
(B) (iii) < (iv) < (i) < (ii)
(C) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
(D) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i)
98. The major products obtained from the reactions in List-II
are the reactants for the named reactions mentioned in
List-I. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
option.
List – I List - II
(A) The disease is caused by filarial worm.
P Etard reaction 1 (B) It is a slowly developing chronic inflammation of
the blood vessels.
Q Gattermann reaction 2
(C) The genital organs are often affected.
R Gattermann-Koch 3 (D) Female mosquito acts as vector
reaction 104. Select the incorrect statement regarding innate immunity :
S Rosenmund reduction 4 (A) It contains cytokine barrier which protects non
infected cells from further infection.
(B) It is non specific type of defense that is gained after
(A) P  2 ; Q  3 ; R  4 ; S  1 the birth.
(B) P  2 ; Q  3 ; R  1 ; S  4 (C) Certain type of leucocytes (WBC) like PMNL also
form innate immunity.
(C) P  1 ; Q  3 ; R  4 ; S  2
(D) Skin is the barrier of innate immunity which
(D) P  1 ; Q  4 ; R  3 ; S  2 prevents pathogen to enter in the body.
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105. Select the incorrect statement against Malaria. 111. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while
(A) Sexual stage of plasmodium develops in human. polio drops that are administered into the body contain
(B) Fertilization of plasmodium takes place in gut of (A) Gamma globulin
mosquito. (B) Attenuated pathogens
(C) Plasmodium parasite reproduces sexually in liver (C) Activated pathogens
cell.
(D) Harvested antibodies
(D) Plasmodium is transmitted through female anopheles
vector. 112. Choose the incorrect statement about vaccination.
106. Read the following four statements a-d. (A) In passive immunization, performed antibodies are
injected in the body
(a) Disease causing organisms are called pathogens.
(b) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the (B) Vaccines can be produced using recombinant DNA
environment of the host. technology

(c) Typhoid fever could be confirmed by widal test. (C) Vaccines generate memory B-cells and T-cells
(d) Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which (D) Vaccines given in case of snakebite contains
causes penumonia in human beings. performed antigens
How many of the above statements are correct ? 113. The exaggerated response of the immune system to
certain antigens in the environment is called.
(A) One (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Two (A) Immunisation

107. Statement-I : Nicotine stimulates adrenal gland to (B) Allergy

release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline (C) Vaccination
into blood.
(D) None of these
Statement-II : Smoking reduces blood pressure and
decreases heart rate. 114. Statement I : Autoimmune disorder is a condition
where body defense mechanism
(A) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
(B) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
Statement II : Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where
(C) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
body does not attack self cells.
(D) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
(A) Both statement I and statement II are correct
108. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II (B) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(p) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(q) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton (D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(r) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti 115. A patient consumed contaminated food few days before,
(s) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica now he is suffering from sustained high fever, stomach
pain, weakness, headache and loss of appetite. What can
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
be the probable disease?
p q r s
(A) Typhoid
(A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(B) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (B) Pneumonia
(C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (C) Diphtheria
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (D) Tuberculosis
109. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during 116. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human
the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart body is.
immunity to the new born infants because it contains
(A) Trophozoites
(A) Immunoglobulin A (B) Natural killer cells
(B) Sporozoites
(C) Monocytes (D) Macrophages
110. Assertion : The malarial parasite requires two hosts to (C) Female gametocytes
complete its lifecycle. (D) Male gametocytes
Reason : These two hosts are human and mosquito. 117. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
correct explanation of assertion
(A) Elephantiasis
(B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion (B) Ascariasis
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false (C) Ringworm disease
(D) Both assertion and reason are false (D) Amoebiasis
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118. Common cold differs from pneumonia in that. 125. Statement-I: Smoking inerease the CO2 content in blood.
(A) Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the Statement-II: Smoking reduces the concentration of
common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease heambound O2 in blood.
(B) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated (A) Both statements are correct
bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no (B) Both statements are incorrect
effective vaccine
(C) Only statement I is correct
(C) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common
cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus (D) Only statement II is correct
influenzae 126. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial
(D) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the parasite?
common cold affects nose and respiratory passage (A) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
but not the lungs. (B) Red blood corpuscles of human suffering from
119. Assertion: The immune response in which antibodies are malaria
formed is called humoral immune response. (C) Spleen of infected humans
Reason: Antibodies are found in blood. (D) Salivary glands of freshy moulted female Anopheles
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the mosquito
correct explanation of assertion 127. Which one of the following statements is correct with
(B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not respect to AIDS?
the correct explanation of assertion (A) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false together with an infected person.
(D) Both assertion and reason are false (B) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection.
120. The principle of immunisation is based on which property (C) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent per cent
of immune system? with proper care and nutrition
(A) Discriminate between self and non-self (D) The causative HIV retrovirus enters helper
T-lymphocytes thus reducing their numbers.
(B) Memory
128. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show
(C) Production of antibodies symptoms of AIDS?
(D) All of these (A) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected
121. The ‘good humor’ hypothesis of health was disproves by person
the – (B) When the infected retro virus enters host cells
(A) Discovery of blood circulation (C) When HIV damages large number of helper T-
(B) Discovery of compound microscope lymphocytes
(C) Demostration of normal body temperature in persons (D) When the viral DNA is produced by reverse
with blackbile transcriptase
(D) Both (A) and (C) 129. Assertion : Bone marrow is a secondary lymphoid organ.
122. Choose the incorrect statement about health. Reason : In secondary lymphoid organs maturation of
lymphocytes occure.
(A) Health can simply be defined as absence of disease
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
(B) Healthy people are more efficient at work correct explanation of assertion
(C) Health increases productivity (B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
(D) Health reduces infant and maternal mortality the correct explanation of assertion
123. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity. (C) Assertion is true but reason is false
(A) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) antibodies (D) Both assertion and reason are false
are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active 130. Statement-I : T-lymphocytes mediate CMI.
immunity”. Statement-II : CMI is responsible for the graft rejection.
(B) When ready-made antibodies are directly given, it is (A) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
called “Passive immunity”.
(B) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(C) Active immunity is quick and gives full response.
(C) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(D) Fetus receives some antibodies from mother, it is an (D) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
example for passive immunity
131. Which one of the following statements is correct?
124. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish
self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to (A) Benign tumours show the property of metastasis
genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells then it leads (B) Heroin accelerates body functions.
to – (C) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis
(A) Autoimmune disease (B) Active immunity (D) Patients who have undergone surgery are given
(C) Allergic response (D) Graft rejection cannabinoids to relieve pain
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132. Statement-I : Drugs like barbiturates amphetamines 138. Read the following statements carefully and choose the
bezodiazepines are normally used to help option that correctly identifies the true statements.
patients cope with mental illness like (i) Many infectious diseases can be prevented and
depression and insomnia. controlled by maintaining personal and public
Statement-II : Morphine is a very effective sedative and hygiene
pain killer. (ii) Proper disposal of waste and excreta is particularly
(A) Both statements are correct essential for the air-borne diseases
(B) Both statements are incorrect (iii) Malaria can be prevented by eliminating its vector
(C) Only statement I is correct and their breeding places
(D) Only statement II is correct (iv) Chikunguniya is a vector-borne disease
133. Which one of the following is incorrect about pathogens ? (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(A) Most of they are parasites (C) (iv), (ii) and (i) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) Result in morphological and functional damage 139. Choose the incorrect statement from the following.
(C) Have to adapt to life within the environment of host (A) Primary immune response is of low intensity
(B) The primary and secondary immune responses are
(D) They are of four types – bacteria, fungi, viruses
carried out with the help of B-lymphocytes and T-
and protozoans
lymphocytes
134. Statement-I: Spleen is a large bean shaped organ.
(C) B-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help
Statement-II: Spleen mainly contains lymphocytes and T-cells to produce them
phagocytes. (D) Antibodies are found in blood, therefore it is called
(A) Both statements are correct humoral immune response
(B) Both statements are incorrect 140. Assertion : The patients of cancer are given 𝛼-interferon.
(C) Only statement I is correct Reason : 𝛼-interferon is a biological response modifier.
(D) Only statement II is correct (A) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
135. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct correct explanation of assertion
option from the codes given below. (B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion
Column-I Column-II
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false
(a) Health (i) AIDS
(D) Both assertion and reason are false
(b) Genetic disorders (ii) Physical, mental and
social well-being 141. The pathogens can affect our body by –
(c) Infectious disease (iii) Cancer (A) Interfering with normal vital activities
(d) Non-infectious disease (iv) Inherited from parents (B) Resulting in morphological damage
from birth (C) Resulting in functional damage
Select the correct option. (D) All of these
a b c d 142. The pathogen of typhoid fever enters in the body through.
(A) ii iv iii i (A) Contaminated food
(B) ii iv i iii (B) Contaminated water
(C) iii ii iv i (C) Inhaling of air droplets released by diseased person
(D) i iii ii iv (D) Both (A) and (B)
143. The group of symptoms that is indicative of pneumonia.
Zology “Sec” B Attempt Any 10 out of 15 (A) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
136. Among the following which does not cause ringworm (B) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough,
disease in humans? headache
(A) Microsporum (C) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, constipation,
headache
(B) Macrosporum
(D) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite,
(C) Epidermophyton constipation
(D) Trichophyton 144. Statement-I : Erythroxylum Coca, native to South Africa.
137. The ability of the host to fight against disease causing Statement-II : Cocaine interferes with the transport of
organism is known as – neuro-transmitter dopamine.
(A) Pathogenicity (A) Both statements are correct
(B) Immunity (B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Immunisation (C) Only statement I is correct
(D) None of these (D) Only statement II is correct
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145. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous 153. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct
cells, whereas the remaining three are? option.
(A) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients. Column-I Column-II
(B) They do not remain confined in the area of formation. (a) Commensalism (i) Sea anemone attached to
(C) They divide in an uncontrolled manner. the body of hermit crab
(D) They show contact inhibition. (b) Parasitism (ii) Lice on human
146. Drug called ’Heroin’ is synthesised by – (c) Mutualism (iii) Epiphytes growing on
mango
(A) Nitration of morphine
(d) Ectoparasite (iv) Orchid and bees
(B) Methylation of morphine
relationship
(C) Acetylation of morphine
a b c d
(D) Glycosylation of morphine
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
147. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug
(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
"smack"?
(C) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(A) Flowers (B) Latex
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) Roots (D) Leaves
154. Which of the given pair contributes to decrease in
148. Choose the correct statements about diseases.
population density?
(i) Disease adversely affects the functioning of one or
(A) Natality and immigration
more organs
(ii) A disease is characterized by the appearance of (B) Natality and emigration
various signs and symptoms (C) Mortality and emigration
(iii) AIDS is a fatal non-infectious disease (D) Immigration and emigration
(iv) Cancer is an infectious disease 155. In which of the following plant-pollinator relationships
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) ‘sexual deceit’ is employed by the plant for its
(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv) pollination?
149. Disease which are easily transmitted from one person to (A) Fig and fig wasp
another are called. (B) Yucca and pronuba moth
(A) Non-infectious diseases (C) Ophrys and bee
(B) Genetic diseases
(D) Foxglove and humming bird
(C) Infectious diseases
156. Statement-I : In nature, animals plants and microbes
(D) None of these can all live in isolation.
150. Assertion : Transmission of HIV infection generally Statement-II : For any species, the minimal requirement
occurs by sexual contact with infected is one more species on which it can feed.
person.
(A) Both statements are correct
Reason : HIV is not transmitted by the transfusion of
contaminated blood and blood products. (B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Only statement I is correct
(A) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion (D) Only statement II is correct
(B) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not 157. In triangular age pyramid,
the correct explanation of assertion (A) Numbers of pre-reproductive individuals >
(C) Assertion is true but reason is false Numbers of reproductive individuals
(D) Both assertion and reason are false (B) Numbers of pre-reproductive individuals =
Numbers of reproductive individuals
Botany “Sec” A
(C) Numbers of pre-reproductive individuals <
151. Select the correct statement w.r.t. geometric growth of a
population. Numbers of reproductive individuals
(A) There is unlimited resource (D) Numbers of pre-reproductive individuals <
(B) Resources are limiting the growth Numbers of post reproductive individuals
(C) The sum of environmental factors limits the 158. Which of the following factors will contribute to
population size population growth if a new habitat is just being
(D) Represented by a sigmoid curve colonised?
152. If ‘+’ sing is assigned to beneficial interaction, then the (A) Natality and mortality
population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘+’ refers to. (B) Immigration and emigration
(A) Amensalism (B) Proto-coperation (C) Natality and immigration
(C) Competition (D) Commensalism (D) Mortality and emigration
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159. If a population have higher number of reproductive 165. What are labelled phases A, B and C in given sigmoidal
individuals than the pre reproductive individuals, then we Growth curve ?
can predict that population is:
(A) Expanding population
(B) Stable population
(C) Declining population
(D) Zero growth population
160. Which one of the following is incorrectly match biome
with mean annual temperature –
A B C
(A) Arctic and alpine tundra → -10oC–0oC.
(A) Stationary Log Lag
(B) Desert → 5Co–22oC.
(B) Lag Stationary Log
(C) Tropical forest → 5oC-10oC.
(D) None of the above. (C) Log Lag Stationary
161. Statement I : Precipitation includes both rain and (D) Lag Log Stationary
snow. 166. While explaining interspecific interaction of population,
Statement II : Regional and local variations within (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (–) sign is
each biome lead to the formation of a assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral
wide variety of habitats. interaction. Which of the following interactions can be
assigned (+) for one species and (–) for another species
(A) Both are correct (B) Both are incorrect
involved in the interaction ?
(C) Only I is correct (D) Only II is correct
(A) Predation
162. Statement I : Kangaroo rats do not need to drink
(B) Amensalism
water.
(C) Commensalism
Statement II : Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful
to its predator because of a special (D) Competition
chemical present in its body. 167. Which one of the following is incorrectly match biome
(A) Both are correct (B) Both are incorrect with mean annual precipitation –
(C) Only I is correct (D) Only II is correct (A) Tropical forest → 150-400 cm.
163. The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation (B) Coniferous forest → 50-250 cm.
of response of organisms to abiotic factors. (C) Temperature forest → 75-225 cm.
What do (i), (ii) and (iii) represent respectively ?
(D) Desert → 150-200 cm
(II)
168. How many of the following statements is/are
Internal level →

not correct ?
(I) (a) Pacific salmon fish reproduces many times of
(III)
their lifetime.
(b) Mammals reproduces only one time of their life
time.
External level →
(c) Oysters produces small number of large-sized
I II III offspring.
(A) Conformer Regulator Partial regulator
(d) Birds produces large number of small-size
(B) Regulator Partial Conformer offspring.
Regulator regulator
(A) One
(C) Partial Regulator Conformer
(B) Four
Regulator regulator
(C) Two
(D) Regulator Conformer Partial regulator
164. Statement I : Nearly 20 percent of all insects (D) Three
are known to be phytophagous. 169. If in a pond there are 20 lotus plants of last year and
Statement II : Thorns are the most common through reproduction 8 new plants are added. Then the
morphological means of defence. birth rate is –
(A) Both are correct (A) 0.8 offspring per lotus per year
(B) Both are incorrect (B) 0.2 offspring per lotus per year
(C) Only I is correct (C) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year
(D) Only II is correct (D) 0.6 offspring per lotus per year
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170. Habitats which have temperature more than 1000C is 179. Each organism has an invariably defined range of
(A) Thermal springs. conditions that it can tolerate, diversity in that resources it
utilizes and a distinct functional role in the ecological
(B) Coniferous forests system called.
(C) Deep sea hydrothermal vents (A) Biome (B) Niche
(D) Both (A) and (C) (C) Ecosystem (D) Community
171. Percolation and water holding capacity of soil depends 180. Which of the following is not an ectoparasite ?
upon.
(A) Lice on humans
(A) Soil composition (B) Grain size of soil
(B) Copepods on marine fishes
(C) Aggregation (D) All of these
(C) Mistletoe on other plants
172. Parasite evolve special adaptation in their life styles for
successful parasitism. (D) Female Anopheles on humans.
(A) Loss of unnecessary sense organs 181. To get pollinated by a bee, the Mediterranean Orchid,
Ophrys, employs :
(B) Presence of adhesive organ to cling onto host
(A) Sexual deceit
(C) Loss of digestive system and have strong (B) Pseudo-copulation
reproductive capacity
(C) Reward in the form of Nectar
(D) All of these (D) Place for laying eggs
173. Statement-I: The problem of predation is particularly 182. The most ecologically relevant environmental factor is –
severe for the plants.
(A) Temperature
Statement-II: Plants cannot run away from their
predator unlike animals. (B) Water

(A) Both statements are correct (C) Light

(B) Both statements are incorrect (D) Soil
(C) Only statement I is correct 183. Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in sea
(D) Only statement II is correct water and vice versa because of :
174. What parameters are used for tiger census in our (A) Buoyancy related problems
country’s national parks and sanctuaries? (B) Lack of impermeable skins
(A) Pug marks (B) Faecal pellets (C) Thermolabile enzymes
(C) Camera traps (D) All of the above (D) Osmotic considerations.
175. Which of the following biome is situated in minimum 184. Under unfavorable conditions, many zooplankton species
annual precipitation and minimum annual temperature in lakes and ponds are known to enter a stage of
zone. suspended development called as :
(A) Tropical forests (B) Coniferous forests (A) Dormancy
(C) Arctic and alpine tudra (D) Desert (B) Hibernation
176. Which of the following biome is situated in minimum (C) Aestivation
annual precipitation and high annual temperature zone.
(D) Diapause
(A) Tropical forests
185. A species whose distribution is restricted to a small
(B) Coniferous forests geographical area because of the presence of a
(C) Arctic and alpine tundra competitively superior species is found to expand its
(D) Desert distributional range dramatically when the competing
species is experimentally removed. This is called –
177. The rotation of earth around sun and its tilted axis results
in – (A) Competitive Exclusion

(A) Seasonal variations (B) Competitive Release

(B) Annual variations in the intensity of temperature (C) Competitive Supremacy

(C) Annual variations in the duration of temperature (D) Competitive Inclusion

(D) All of these Botany “Sec” B Attempt Any 10 out of 15
178. Which of the following is not a biotic component of a 186. In absence of external souce of water Kangaroo rat is able
habitat. to meet all its water requirement through.
(A) Pathogen (A) Water stored in specialised cells in specialised pouch
(B) Water (B) Fat oxidation which produces water as byproduct
(C) Predators (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Parasites (D) None of these
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187. Adaptations of desert plants are. 194. In which of the following inter specific interaction both
a. Thick Cuticle overleaf surfaces species lose.
b. Stomata in deep pits (A) Commensalism
c. CAM pathway in which stomata remains closed (B) Mutualism
d. Leaves reduced to spines (C) Competition
Options : (D) Predation
(A) All of these 195. In the exponential growth relation dN/dt = rn, r stands for.
(B) Only a and b (A) Extrinsic rate of natural increase
(C) Only b, c and d (B) Extrinsic rate of natural decrease
(D) a, b and d (C) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
188. Individual that live in define geographical area share or
(D) Intrinsic rate of natural decrease
compete for similar resouces potentially interbreed forms.
196. Select the correct sequence w.r.t. levels of ecological
(A) Ecosystem
organisation.
(B) Population
(A) Organisms → Ecosystem → Community →
(C) Community Biosphere
(D) Biome (B) Organisms → Population → community →
189. Some Parasitic bird lays its egg in the nest of its host and Biome
lets the host incubate [Link] type of parasitism is (C) Population → Landscape → Community →
called. Organisms
(A) Ectoparasitism
(D) Community → Biome → Population → Biosphere
(B) Endo parasitism
197. Choose the suitable equation for logistic kind of
(C) Brood parasitism population growth form:
(D) Intercellualar parasitism dN
(A) =N
190. Which of the following is an example of endoparasitism? dt
dN
(A) Ticks on dog (B) = rN
dt
(B) Cuckoo laying egg in crows nest dN K−N
(C) = rN ( )
dt K
(C) Human liver fluke
dN
(D) None of these (D) = K(r – N)
dt
191. Statement-I : The female mosquito is considered as a 198. According to Allen’s rule, the mammals from colder
parasite. climates have:
Statement-II : The life cycles of endoparasites are more (A) Shorter ears and longer limbs
complex.
(B) Longer ears and shorter limbs
(A) Both statements are correct
(C) Longer ears and longer limbs
(B) Both statements are incorrect
(C) Only statement I is correct (D) Shorter ears and shorter limbs
(D) Only statement II is correct 199. Which of the following is a trait shown by ‘r’ strategist
population?
192. If two species compete for the same resource they could
avoid competition by choosing different times of feeding (A) Reproduce only once in life time
or different foraging pattern; this is. (B) Produce large number of small sized offsprings
(A) Competitive release
(C) Produce few number of large sized offsprings
(B) Interfering competition
(D) Parental care of offsprings by all
(C) Resource partitioning
200. Which of the following characterstic not defines biomes?
(D) Amensalism
(A) Characterstic climate
193. Which plant spread rapidly into millions of hectares of
rangeland in Australia in 1920 and was a cause of great (B) Altitudes and latitudes
havoc. (C) Characterstic flora and fauna
(A) Pea (D) Age pyramid
(B) Prickly pear cactus
(C) Opuntia
(D) All of these

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