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Foundation Studies Program

Biology
Genetics Revision
Multiple Choice Questions
There is one correct answer per question

1. Which of the following are genetically identical?

A. Two cells resulting from meiosis I
B. Two cells resulting from meiosis II
C. Four cells resulting from meiosis I followed by meiosis II
D. Two cells resulting from mitosis

2. Chromosomes are composed of chromatin which consists of

A. DNA and structural polysaccharides
B. DNA and phospholipids
C. DNA and protein
D. DNA and RNA

3. The zygote contains the ……………………. number of chromosomes.

A. haploid
B. diploid
C. polyploid
D. Both A and B are true.

Use the following information to answer questions 4-6:

In peas, the allele for round seeds (R) is dominant to that for wrinkled seeds(r); the allele
for yellow seeds (Y) is dominant to that for green seeds (y). These genes are found on
nonhomologous chromosomes. Plants from a true breeding line with round, green seeds
are crossed with plants from a true breeding line with wrinkled, yellow seeds. These plants
constitute the P generation.
4. The genotypes of the P generation are:
A. RRrr and Yyyy
B. Both RrYy
C. RRYY and rryy
D. RRyy and rrYY
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5. What are the expected genotypes of the F1 offspring produced by the described cross?
A. RRrr and YYyy
B. RrYy
C. RRYY and rryy
D. RRyy and rrYY

6. What combinations of alleles occur in the gametes produced by the F1 individuals?

A. RR and YY
B. Rr and Yy
C. RR, rr, YY and yy
D. RY, Ry, rY and ry

7. In gametes produced by meiosis in mammals the

A. chromosomes in a gamete are identical to those in the parent cell.
B. number of chromosomes in each gamete is half the number in the parent
cell.
C. amount of DNA in each gamete is the same as the parent cell.
D. number of alleles in each gamete is the same as the parent cell.

8. In a human cell (diploid number of 46) at prophase I, there are ___________

chromatids.
A. 92
B. 46
C. 23
D. 2

9. An individual with which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes would not
survive?
A. XXY
B. XO
C. OY
D. XYY
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10. Consider organisms such as humans where females are XX and males are XY.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Females inherit both of their X chromosomes from their mother.
B. Females inherit one of their X chromosomes from their father.
C. Males inherit their Y chromosome from their mother.
D. Males inherit their X chromosome from their father.

11. Which of the following best describes semi conservative replication?

A. The translation of a DNA strand into a complementary strand of RNA.
B. A DNA molecule consists of one parental (old) strand and one new strand.
C. The number of DNA molecules is doubled with every second replication.
D. The replication of DNA never takes place with 100% accuracy.

12. The nucleotide found in messenger RNA but not in DNA is

A. thymine.
B. uracil.
C. guanine.
D. cytosine.

13. DNA polymerase

A. is necessary for production of mRNA.
B. adds nucleotides to the 5’ end of the growing DNA strand.
C. adds nucleotides to the 3’ end of the growing DNA strand.
D. Both A and C are correct.

14. A plasmid
A. can be used to carry new DNA into a prokaryotic cell.
B. is a type of bacteriophage.
C. is a retrovirus.
D. Both A and B are correct.
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15. Human DNA and a particular plasmid both have sites that can be cut by the restriction
enzymes Hind III and EcoRI. To make recombinant DNA, one should
A. use EcoRI to cut both the plasmid and human DNA.
B. use Hind III to cut both the plasmid and human DNA.
C. cut the plasmid with Hind III and the human DNA with EcoR1.
D. either B or C would work.

The following information relates to questions 16 and 17.

A tRNA is supplying the amino acid as coded by the mRNA.

Cysteine

tRNA molecule

A C G

Y Y Y C C A U U U
mRNA

16. The structure labeled X is a(n)

A. codon.
B. amino acid.
C. ribosome.
D. anticodon.

17. The sequence YYY on the mRNA is complimentary with the tRNA molecule. What
base sequence does YYY represent?
A. TGC
B. UGC
C. CGA
D. CGT
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18. Which of the following base pairs is incorrect?

A. A – T
B. C – A
C. G – C
D. T – A

19. The direction for synthesis of DNA is

A. 5’ ® 3’
B. 3’ ® 5’
C. 5’ ® 5’
D. 3’ ® 3’

20. Translation is the process by which:

A. information is copied from DNA to mRNA.
B. mRNA is decoded to proteins.
C. information is copied to a new DNA strand.
D. information is copied from mRNA to DNA.

21. What evolutionary advantage is provided by meiosis?

A. genetic diversity
B. sexual dimorphism
C. diploidy
D. polyploidy

22. Prokaryotic organisms reproduce by which of the following processes?

A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. binary fission
D. Prokaryotes can reproduce by all of the methods above.
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23. ______________ are alternatives of a gene that controls the same feature, such as
eye colour, and occupy corresponding positions on homologous chromosomes.
A. Alleles
B. Loci
C. Homozygotes
D. Coupled traits

24. Barr bodies in mammalian female cells are

A. inactivated oocytes.
B. polar bodies.
C. degenerate nuclei.
D. an inactivated X chromosome.

25. In one mutant form of E. coli, the regulatory protein for the lactose operon is not
produced. It is reasonable to suggest
A. there is a mutation in the DNA at the regulatory protein gene.
B. the enzymes for the breakdown of lactose will not be produced.
C. there is a mutation in the promoter region of the lactose operon.
D. the regulatory protein is bound to the operon.

26. A diploid individual has a maximum of _______ different alleles for a particular
locus.
A. three
B. two
C. four
D. more than four

27. When two pink flowered plants are crossed they produce offspring with red, pink and
white flowers in a ratio of 1:2:1. This is an example of:
A. variegation.
B. codominance.
C. incomplete dominance.
D. a polygenic trait.
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28. Which of the following allows mRNA to be formed from a DNA template?
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA helicase
C. RNA primer
D. RNA polymerase

29. One of the codons specifying the amino acid, Leucine is 5’-CUA-3’. Its corresponding
anticodon is:
A. 5’-CUA-3’
B. 3’-AUC-5’
C. 3’-GAU-5’
D. 5’-GAU-3’

Use the following information to answer Q 30 and 31.

The pedigree (below) shows the inheritance of woolly hair, in which an individual’s hair is
very tightly kinked, very brittle and breaks before it can grow very long.

Female
I
I 1 2 Male

Woolly hair female

II

II 1 2 3 4 5 6 Woolly hair male

III 1 2 3 4 5

30. It is reasonable to conclude from the pedigree that the trait shown is
A. X-linked recessive.
B. X-linked dominant.
C. autosomal recessive.
D. autosomal dominant.
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31. The chance that a sixth child of II-1 and II-2 has woolly hair is:
A. 1
B. ¼
C. ¾
D. 0

32. Frameshift mutations result from

A. the substitution of one base for another one.
B. the insertion or deletion of one or more base pairs.
C. the substitution of more than one base pair.
D. the substitution of a stop codon for an amino acid specifying codon.

33. Huntington disease is the result of an autosomal dominant mutation. If a

heterozygous male marries a normal female, the probability that an offspring will
have Huntington is
A. 0
B. ¼
C. ½
D. ¾

34. The genetic disorder cystic fibrosis is due an autosomal recessive mutation. If a male
heterozygous for cystic fibrosis marries a female who is heterozygous for cystic
fibrosis, the probability that an offspring will have cystic fibrosis is
A. 0
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. 3/4
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35. “Sticky ends” are

A. the single stranded ends of a DNA segment that can pair with
complementary single stranded ends cut with the same restriction enzyme.
B. a problem in recombinant DNA technology as they can lead to the formation of
loops of single stranded DNA.
C. double stranded ends of a DNA segment.
D. the site of the origin of replication in prokaryotic cells.

36. The main function of the acrosomal vesicle is to

A. activate the egg.
B. prevent fertilization between different species.
C. allow the sperm to penetrate the outer coatings of the egg.
D. allow the fusion of egg and sperm pronuclei.

37. A plasmid indicating recognition sites for three different restriction enzymes.

Hind III

Eco R1
Eco R1 EcoR1

Hind III

Hind III
Sal I

If this plasmid is incubated with Sal I how many DNA fragments would be obtained?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Six
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38. In parthenogenesis
A. a single individual produces both sperm and eggs.
B. meiosis occurs without cytokinesis.
C. a new individual forms as an outgrowth from the body wall.
D. an unfertilized egg undergoes mitosis without cytokinesis.

39. From a single cell, oogenesis in a mammal will produce

A. four ova.
B. four spermatozoa.
C. an ovum and three polar bodies.
D. a primary oocyte.
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Short Answer Questions

Question 1
A plant cell has a diploid number of 34. Meristematic cells in the apical meristem are
dividing by mitosis.
a. At prophase of mitosis how many pair of homologous chromosomes are present in
one of these cells?
17
(1 mark)
b. What are homologous chromosomes?
Homologous chromosomes are similar in appearance (length, centromere position,
banding patterns) and carry the same genes however the information carried by the
genes may be different.
(2 marks)
c. At metaphase of mitosis how many chromatids are present in a meristematic cell?
68
(1 mark)
d. What is the name of the structure at which the chromatids are held together?
centromere
(1 mark)
e. This plant can reproduce sexually and produces gametes by meiosis. How many
chromosomes are present in a male gamete?
17
(1 mark)
f. Meiosis results in new combinations of genes in the cells produced. Describe two
ways in which genetic information is shuffled during meiosis.
1. Random assortment of chromosomes occurs at metaphase I or anaphase I. The
homologous chromosome pairs separate and can move to either of the poles of the cell.
2. Crossing over and recombination occurs at prophase I. Homologous chromosome
pairs synapse at prophase I, and crossing over and recombination occurs between
neighbouring chromatids.
(2 marks)
g. The checkpoints during the cell cycle ensure that cell division only proceeds if all is
well in the cell. What type of check occurs at each of the following?
(i) G1 checkpoint
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DNA is checked for mistakes and repairs made.

(ii) G2 checkpoint
This check ensures that the DNA has been replicated properly.
(iii) M checkpoint
During metaphase this check ensures that all chromosomes have lined up on the
equator.
(3 marks)
(Q1 Total 10 marks)

Question 2
a. Draw a simple diagram of a nucleotide, and label the three major components.

Your diagram should show phosphate group, five carbon sugar and nitrogenous base.
(2 marks)

b. A segment of the DNA sequence for the a -globulin chain of haemoglobin is given in
Table 1. In the space provided, give the mRNA sequence that this DNA codes for.

Table 1: A segment of the DNA coding for b -globulin

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

DNA T A A A G A G G T

mRNA A U U U C U C C A

(1 mark)

c. How do you know that the sequence provided is DNA and not mRNA?
The nucleotide thymine is present in the DNA sequence. This nucleotide will be absent
from mRNA.
(1 mark)
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d. Using Table 2 (below) provide the amino acid sequence for which the DNA sequence
in Table 1 codes.
Isoleucine-Serine- Proline
(1 mark)
e. What is translation?
Translation is the process in which the mRNA is decoded to produce the protein.
(1 mark)
f. At which structures in the cell does translation occur?
Ribosomes
(1 mark)
g. tRNA plays a vital role in the process of translation. Briefly describe the role of tRNA
in this process.
Each tRNA molecule carries an anticodon (binds to the mRNA codon) and a specific
amino acid. The tRNA provides the amino acid for which the codon on the mRNA
codes.
(2 marks)
h. In one known mutation of the DNA sequence, nucleotide 5 is replaced by a cytosine.
What effect will this change have on the amino acid sequence?
The second amino acid is changed from a serine to a cysteine as a result of this
mutation.
Isoloeucine-Cysteine-Proline
(1 mark)
i. What is the type of mutation referred to in h. ?
point mutation
(1 mark)
(Q2 Total 10 marks
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Table 2: Genetic code. The genetic code is shown as it appears in mRNA.

UUU Phenylalanine UCU Serine UAU Tyrosine UGU Cysteine
UUC Phenylalanine UCC Serine UAC Tyrosine UGC Cysteine
UUA Leucine UCA Serine UAA Stop UGA Stop
UUG Leucine UCG Serine UAG Stop UGG Tryptophan

CUU Leucine CCU Proline CAU Histidine CGU Arginine

CUC Leucine CCC Proline CAC Histidine CGC Arginine
CUA Leucine CCA Proline CAA Glycine CGA Arginine
CUG Leucine CCG Proline CAG Glycine CGG Arginine

AUU Isoleucine ACU Threonine AAU Asparagine AGU Serine

AUC Isoleucine ACC Threonine AAC Asparagine AGC Serine
AUA Isoleucine ACA Threonine AAA Lysine AGA Arginine
AUG Methionine ACG Threonine AAG Lysine AGG Arginine

GUU Valine GCU Alanine GAU Aspartic Acid GGU Glycine

GUC Valine GCC Alanine GAC Aspartic Acid GGC Glycine
GUA Valine GCA Alanine GAA Glutamic Acid GGA Glycine
GUG Valine GCG Alanine GAG Glutamic Acid GGG Glycine
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Question 3
Figure 2: Pedigree diagram showing the inheritance history of an X-linked disorder.

I 1 2

II

1 2 3 4 5

III

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12

IV

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

The pedigree (Figure 2) shows the inheritance history of a trait that is known to be due to
an X- linked allele. Use Figure 2 to answer parts a, b, c and d.
a. Is this disorder dominant or recessive? Explain
This disorder is recessive. In generation II there are no affected individuals.
(1 mark)
b. Give one specific piece of evidence from the pedigree to support your answer to a.
Unaffected parents produce affected offspring. This can only occur for a recessive
disorder. This is seen for individuals II1x II2 and for II4x II5. In a dominant trait at least
one parent must be affected for affected offspring to be produced.
(2 marks)
c. Define alleles for the gene for this trait.
XN – X chromosome with normal allele, Xn – X chromosome with allele for disorder.

d. What is the genotype of female III-12? Explain your answer.

Individual III-12 is heterozygous. An affected daughter is produced, and this is not
possible unless the female III-12 is heterozygous. Also there is an affected son. It is an
X-linked trait and he must get his X chromosome from his mother.
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(2 marks)
e. If individuals III-11 and III-12 were to have another child what is the chance they
would have an affected child?
50%
(1 mark)

f. Table 3 shows a section of the mRNA sequence arising from the abnormal allele
discussed above. In the space provided (Table 3) give the DNA sequence that codes for
this mRNA.
Table 3: mRNA sequence arising from the abnormal allele.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

DNA A G A T C T C A T

mRNA U C U A G A G U A

(1 mark)

g. Using the genetic code table (Table 2) provide the amino acid sequence for which this
DNA sequence codes.
Serine – arginine- valine
(1 mark)
h. What is the process of making an mRNA strand from a DNA template called?
transcription
(1 mark)
i. Where does this process (referred to in h.) occur in an eukaryotic cell?
nucleus
(1 mark)
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Question 4
a. In addition to the main circular DNA, many bacteria carry plasmids. What is the role
of plasmids in bacteria?
Plasmids carry genetic information that may useful to the bacteria but is not vital.
(1 mark)
b. Plasmids are useful vectors in genetic engineering. They may be used to carry new
DNA sequences into the cell for expression. What two characteristics should be
engineered into a plasmid to make it a useful vector?
1. Origin of replication. This allows the plasmid to be replicated within the specific
bacterium that takes it up.
2. Marker gene. The marker gene allows you to determine which bacteria have taken up
the plasmid.
3. Recognition site – site at which a restriction enzyme can cut to allow a new gene to be
added.
(2 marks)
c. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a useful technique in genetic engineering.
What is PCR used for?
PCR allows many copies of a strand of DNA to be produced.
(1 mark)
d. Give an example of a medicine that is produced by genetic engineering.
There is a list of these on page 48 Semester 2 notes.
(i) Factor VIII
(ii) Insulin
e. For the medicine mentioned in d., why is it advantageous to produce it by genetic
engineering?
(i) Factor VIII was originally isolated from blood. Factor VIII preparations were
sometimes contaminated with blood borne viruses (e.g., HIV, Hepatitis B, C).
Factor VIII produced by genetic engineering does not carry the risk of
contamination by such viruses.
(ii) Insulin was originally extracted mainly from pig pancreas. Pig insulin is
slightly different to human insulin. Insulin generated by genetic engineering is
human insulin. As a result its activity is better and there is not the same level
of immune response.
(1 mark)
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f. What is gene therapy?

Gene therapy is the addition of genetic material (DNA) into a cell to treat a disorder.
g. What is the purpose of gene therapy?
Usually to provide a ‘normal’ working copy of a gene.
h. Gene therapy is described as in vivo or ex vivo. Describe the difference in these
two ways of using gene therapy.
For in vivo gene therapy the gene is delivered directly to the cells of the body.
For ex vivo gene therapy cells are removed from the body , genetic material is added
and then the cells are returned to the body.

Question 5
a. In tomato plants, purple stem (P) is dominant to green stem (p), and red fruit (R) is
dominant to yellow fruit (r). If tomato plants heterozygous for both traits are crossed,
give the expected phenotypic ratios in the offspring.
Remember a dihybrid cross between individuals that are heterozygous for both traits will
always produce a 9:3:3:1 ratio of phenotypes.
For the correct answer you MUST include the phenotypes as well.
9 purple stem, red fruit : 3 green stem, red fruit: 3 purple stem, yellow fruit : 1 green
stem, yellow fruit
(2 marks)
b. If 640 seeds, from the cross in part a, are collected and planted, how many are
expected to grow into plants with red fruit?
12/16 x 640 = 480
(1 mark)
c. If one of the parents from part a, is crossed with a green stem plant heterozygous for
red fruit, what proportion of the offspring would you expect to have purple stem and
yellow fruit?
1/8 will have purple stem and yellow fruit.
(2 marks)
d. In the tomato plants referred to in parts a, b and c, somatic cells have a chromosome
number of 10.
(i) How many pair of homologous chromosomes are present in a somatic cell?
5
(1 mark)
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(ii) How many chromosomes are in a haploid gamete cell produced by this plant?
5
(1 mark)
(iii) A student investigates cells from this plant that are undergoing meiosis. The student
is trying to identify cells at metaphase I and metaphase II of meiosis. What differences
would the student expect at each of these phases?
At metaphase I, pairs of homologous chromosomes are lined up on the equator of the
cell.
At metaphase II, single chromosomes ( made up of two chromatids) are lined up on the
equator of the cell.
(2 marks)
(iv) For cell division to occur, the cells DNA must be duplicated. When during the cell
cycle does this duplication occur?
S phase of interphase.
(1 mark)

Question 6
a. Name and briefly describe one type of asexual reproduction.
(i) regeneration – if animal is cut into sections a news individual may form from each of
the sections.
(ii) Budding – a new individual forms as an out growth from the body wall of the parent.
(iii) Parthenogenesis – an unfertilised egg develops into an adult animal.
(2
marks)
b. Provide an example of an organism that reproduces by the method described in a.
(i) Starfish or flatworm
(ii) Hydra
(iii) Bee, wasp or ant
(1 mark)
c. What is a hermaphrodite?
A hermaphrodite is a single animal that can produce both male and female gametes.
(1 mark)
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d. Do hermaphrodites reproduce sexually or asexually? Explain

Reproduction in a hermaphrodite is sexual. This is because reproduction involves the
fusion of egg and sperm to form the zygote.
(2 marks)
e. Some bees, wasps and ants can reproduce by parthenogenesis. Describe this
process.
1. The egg nucleus divides by mitosis, no cytokinesis occurs.
2. The two egg nuclei fuse to form a diploid nucleus.
3. The egg then develops as if it has been fertilised. A new individual will form.
(3 marks)
f. For the process you have described in e., will the offspring be diploid or haploid?
The egg is haploid. When the nucleus divides by mitosis two haploid nuclei form. The
haploid nuclei fuse and the diploid species number is restored.
(1 mark)