Chapter 1

Q1) Which of the following reaction can also be termed a thermal decomposition reaction?

(a) Combination reaction

(b) Decomposition reaction

(c) Displacement reaction

(d) Double displacement reaction

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q2) One of the following processes does not involve a chemical reaction, that is:

(a) Melting of candle wax when heated

(b) Burning of candle wax when heated

(c) Digestion of food in your stomach

(d) Ripening of banana

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q5) Give the ratio in which hydrogen and oxygen are present in water by volume.
(a) 1:2

(b) 1:1

(c) 2:1

(d) 1:8

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q9) The chemical formula of magnesium oxide is ______.

(a) MgO2

(b) Mg2O

(c) MgO

(d) Mg(OH)2

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q13) Which of the following reactions is used in black-and-white photography?

(a) Combination Reaction

(b) Decomposition Reaction

(c) Displacement reaction

(d) Oxidation reaction

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q11) From the following, which one is an example of a chemical reaction?

(a) Grapes get fermented

(b) Breakdown of food

(c) Formation of curd

(d) All of the above

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q16) Which of the following shows an oxidation reaction?

(a) Gain of oxygen

(b) Loss of oxygen

(c) Gain of hydrogen

(d) None of the above

Answer: Option (a)

Q14) What happens when lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide?

(a) They will not react

(b) A large amount of hydrogen will be released

(c) Yellow ppt of lead iodide and potassium nitrate will be produced

(d) Evolution of gas will occur

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q4) A student performs an experiment to form aluminium chloride from aluminium and chlorine. Which
of the following option gives the chemical equation of the reaction?

(a) Al + Cl2 --> AlCl2

(b) 2Al + Cl2 --> 2AlCl

(c) 2Al + 3Cl2 --> 2AlCl3

(d) 3Al + 3Cl2 --> 3AlCl3

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q10) Which of the following is a physical change ?

a)Melting of ice to water

b)Burning of paper

c)Rusting of iron

d)Combustion of LPG

Option (a)

Chapter-2

Q1. Which Acid is present in Tomato?

(A) Citric Acid

(B) Oxalic Acid

(C) Lactic Acid

(D) HCl

Correct Answer: Option (B)

Q2. Which of the following is a strong acid?

(A) HCl pH 1

(B) CH3COOH pH 5
(C) Lemon juice pH 2.2

(D) Pure Milk pH 6

Correct Answer: Option (A)

Q3. Na2CO3.10H2O is known as –

(A) Baking soda

(B) Baking powder

(C) Washing soda

(D) Bleaching powder

Correct Answer: Option (C)

Q4. pH value less than 7 indicates that the solution is –

(A) Acidic

(B) Basic

(C) Neutral
(D) No effect

Correct Answer: Option (A)

Q5. Which of the following is neutral salt?

(A) NH4Cl

(B) CH3COONH4

(C) CH3COONa

(D)Na2CO3

Correct Answer: Option (B)

Q6. Lactic Acid is present in –

(A) Orange

(B) Tea

(C) Curd
(D) Vinegar

Correct Answer: Option (C)

Q7. Farmers neutralise the effect of Acidity on the soil by adding –

(A) Slaked lime

(B) Gypsum

(C) Caustic soda

(D) Baking soda

Correct Answer: Option (A)

Q8. Which of the following are present in a dilute Aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?

(A) H3O + Cl–

(B) H3O + OH–

(C) Cl– + OH–

(D) Unionised HCl

Correct Answer: Option (A)

Q9. CuSO4.5H2O: In this Compound, the water molecule is called –

(A) Pure water

(B) Water of crystallisation

(C) Soda water

(D) None of these

Correct Answer: Option (B)

Q10. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallisation?

(A) Blue vitriol

(B) Baking soda

(C) Washing soda

(D) Gypsum
Correct Answer: Option (B)

Chapter-3

Q1) Which of the following oxides of iron would be obtained on the prolonged reaction of iron with
steam?

a) FeO

b) Fe2O3

c) Fe3O4

d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q2) A non-metal used to preserve food material is:

a) Carbon

b) Phosphorus

c) Sulphur

d) Nitrogen

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q3) The arrangement for Copper, Tin, Lead and Mercury, according to the reactivity series, is:

a) Tin> Lead> Copper> Mercury

b) Lead> Copper> Mercury> Tin

c) Copper> Mercury> Tin> Lead

d) Mercury> Tin> Lead> Copper

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q4) The metals that float when treated with water are:

a) Manganese and sodium

b) Sodium and calcium

c) Magnesium and sodium

d) Magnesium and calcium

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q5) Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are
responsible for the same?

(i) Good thermal conductivity

(ii) Good electrical conductivity

(iii) Ductility

(iv) High melting point

a) (i) and (ii)

b) (i) and (iii)

c) (ii) and (iii)

d) (i) and (iv)

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q6) When hydrochloric acid is added to barium hydroxide, a white-coloured compound is formed.
Which of the following option gives the complete chemical reaction?

a) HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH

b) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaCl2 + 2HOH

c) 2HCl + Ba(OH)2 → BaH2 + 2HCl + O2

d) HCl + 2Ba(OH) → 2BaCl2 + 2HOH + O2

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q7) What happens when a pellet of sodium is dropped in water?

(a) It catches fire and forms oxide

(b) It absorbs heat and forms oxide

(c) It catches fire and forms hydroxide

(d) It absorbs heat and forms hydroxide

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q8) The chemical reaction between a piece of copper and nitric acid is given by the chemical equations,

Cu + HNO3 → Cu(NO3)2 + H2

H2 + HNO3 → H2O + NO2

What can be inferred from the chemical equation?

a) Copper causes the oxidation of HNO3 to form NO2

b) Hydrogen gas gets oxidised by HNO3 to form water

c) Gas reacts with oxygen in the air to form water

d) Nitrate reacts with hydrogen to form NO2 and H2O

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q11) When calcium oxide is added to water, it completely dissolves in water without forming bubbles.
What products are formed in this reaction?

(a) Ca and H2

(b) Ca and H2O2

(c) Ca(OH)2

(d) CaH2

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q12) A student studying the chemical properties of metals finds incomplete chemical reactions in his
book, as shown below:

MgO + HNO3 →

Which option completes the reaction?

(a) MgO + HNO3 → Mg3N2 + 4H2O

(b) MgO + HNO3 → Mg + NO2 + O2

(c) MgO + HNO3 → Mg(OH)2 + 2NO2

(d) MgO + HNO3 → Mg(NO3)2 + H2O

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q13) Which of the following can undergo a chemical reaction?

a) MgSO4 + Fe

b) ZnSO4 + Fe

c) MgSO4 + Pb

d) CuSO4 + Fe
Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q14) Pick the statement which is correct about the non-metal.

a) Br is an example of a liquid non-metal.

b) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity

c) Most of the non-metal oxides are acidic

d) All of these

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Chapter-4

Q2) The following chemical reaction shows the addition of chlorine to methane in the presence of
sunlight:

CH4 + Cl4 -> X

What is likely to be the product of the reaction represented by “X”?

(a) CH4+ H2SO4

(b) CH3Cl + HCl

(c) CHCl3 + HCl

(d) CH3Cl + H2SO4

Ans op (b)

Q7) A carbon compound contains two atoms of carbon. Which name should the carbon compound
bear?

(a) Butane

(b) Ethane

(c) Methane

(d) Propane

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q13) Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a homologous series because all are:

(a) Hydrocarbons

(b) Saturated compounds

(c) Aliphatic compounds

(d) Differ from each other by a CH2 group

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q14) Which of the following belongs to a homologous series of alkynes?

(a) C6H6

(b) C2H6

(c) C2H4

(d) C3H4

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q10) A student studies that vinegar, which is a diluted form of ethanoic acid, freezes during winter.
What does this suggest about the physical properties of pure ethanoic acid?

(a) It has a low boiling point

(b) It has a low melting point

(c) It has a very high boiling point

(d) It has a very high melting point

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q11) Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?

a) C4H10

b) C4H6

c) C4H8

d) C4H4

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q17) Which of the following is the property of ionic compounds?

(a) They have high melting and boiling points

(b) They conduct electricity in solution or in a molten state

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q18) Which of the following is not a characteristic of fullerenes?

(a) Of all the fullerene, the C60 allotrope is the most stable

(b) Its shape is similar to that of a soccer ball

(c) It contains only fused six-membered carbon-carbon rings

(d) Its hardness is lower than that of a diamond

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q19) How many single bonds are present in methane?

(a) Four

(b) Five

(c) Six

(d) Three

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q20) A hydrocarbon should have a minimum of ______ carbon atoms to show isomerism.

(a) Three
 (b) Four
(c)

(c) Fived

(d) Six

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Chapter 5

[15/12, 5:06 pm] DEEPAK: Q1) Which of the following forms the basis of the modern periodic table?

a) Atomic mass

b) Atomic number

c) Number of nucleons

d) All of the above

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q2) Which of the following is the most reactive element of group 17?

a) Oxygen

b) Sodium
c) Fluorine

d) Magnesium

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q3) Which of the following is the correct order of the atomic radii of the elements oxygen, fluorine and
nitrogen?

a) O < F < s

b) N < F < O

c) O < N < F

d) F < O < N

Correct Answer: Option (d)

[15/12, 5:11 pm] DEEPAK: Q5) What happens to the electropositive character of elements on moving
from left to right in a periodic table?

a)Increase

b) Decreases

c) First increases, then decreases

d) First decreases, then increases

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q6) What is the other name for group 18th elements?

a) Noble gases

b) Alkali metals

c) Alkali earth metals

d) Halogens

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q7) Which group elements are called transition metals?

a) Group number 1 to 2

b) Group number 13 to 18

c) Group number 3 to 12
d) Group number 1 to 8

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q8) The electronic configuration of an element M is 2, 8, 4. In the modern periodic table, the element M
is placed in

a) 4th group

b) 2nd group

c) 14th group

d) 18th group

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q9) Which of the following elements has 2 shells, and both are completely filled?

a) Helium

b) Neon

c) Calcium

d) Boron
Correct Answer: Option (b)

[15/12, 5:12 pm] DEEPAK: Q15) What is the order of the metallic character down the group?

(a) It decreases as new shells are added to the element

(b) It increases as electrons move away from the nucleus

(c) It increases as new atoms are added to the same shell

(d) It decreases as the effective nuclear charge on the electron increases

Correct Answer: Option (b)

[15/12, 5:12 pm] DEEPAK: Q13) Boron is a non-metal and is placed under group 13 and period 2. How
can boron form bonds with other elements?

(a) By sharing 5 electrons

(b) By sharing 3 electrons

(c) By sharing 2 electrons

(d) By sharing 1 electron

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Chapter 6
[15/12, 5:15 pm] DEEPAK: Q1) In amoeba, food is digested in the:

(a) Food vacuole

(b) Mitochondria

(c) Pseudopodia

(d) Chloroplast

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q2) In which of the following groups of organisms are food materials broken down outside the body and
absorbed?

(a) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba

(b) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould

(c) Paramecium, amoeba, cuscuta

(d) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q3) The contraction and expansion movement of the walls of the food pipe is called:
(a) Translocation

(b) Transpiration

(c) Peristaltic movement

(d) Digestion

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q4) What are the products obtained by anaerobic respiration in plants?

(a) Lactic acid + energy

(b) Carbon dioxide + water + energy

(c) Ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy

(d) Pyruvate

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q5) When a few drops of iodine solution are added to rice water, the solution turns blue-black in colour.
This indicates that rice water contains:
(a) Fats

(b) Complex proteins

(c) Starch

(d) Simple proteins

Correct Answer: Option (c)

[15/12, 5:16 pm] DEEPAK: Q7) The respiratory pigment in human beings is:

(a) Carotene

(b) Chlorophyll

(c) Haemoglobin

(d) Mitochondria

Correct Answer: Option (c)

[15/12, 5:16 pm] DEEPAK: Q10) The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are:

i) Presence of oxygen

ii) Release of carbon dioxide

iii) Release of energy

iv) Release of lactic acid

(a) i), ii) only

(b) i), ii), iii) only

(c) ii), iii), iv) only

(d) iv) only

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q11) The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depend upon:

(a) Oxygen

(b) Temperature

(c) Water in the guard cells

(d) Concentration of CO2

Correct Answer: Option (c)

[15/12, 5:17 pm] DEEPAK: Q18) What is the percentage of oxygen in the expired air when a person is
resting?

(a) 12%

(b) 16%

(c) 20%

(d) 24%

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q10)How many traids could Dobereiner identify?

a)4

b)2

c)3

d)5

Ans (c)

Chapter-7

1. Which of the following is the control and coordination center in humans?

a) Brain and spinal cord

b) Peripheral nervous system

c) Endocrine system

d) Respiratory system

Answer: a) Brain and spinal cord

2. The human nervous system is divided into two parts:

a) Central nervous system and autonomic nervous system

b) Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system

c) Peripheral nervous system and autonomic nervous system

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Central nervous system and peripheral nervous system

3. Which of the following is NOT a type of neuron?

a) Sensory neuron
b) Motor neuron

c) Relay neuron

d) Respiratory neuron

Answer: d) Respiratory neuron

4. The chemical messengers released by endocrine glands are called:

a) Hormones

b) Neurotransmitters

c) Enzymes

d) Digestive juices

Answer: a) Hormones
5. Which of the following glands is responsible for the regulation of metabolism?

a) Thyroid gland

b) Adrenal gland

c) Pituitary gland

d) Pancreas

Answer: a) Thyroid gland

6. The hormone responsible for the regulation of blood glucose levels is:

a) Insulin

b) Glucagon

c) Adrenaline

d) Thyroxine
Answer: a) Insulin

7. The sense of smell is detected by:

a) Taste buds

b) Olfactory receptors

c) Touch receptors

d) None of the above

Answer: b) Olfactory receptors

8. The sense of touch is detected by:

a) Olfactory receptors

b) Taste buds

c) Touch receptors
d) None of the above

Answer: c) Touch receptors

9. Which of the following is responsible for the coordination of voluntary movement in humans?

a) Cerebrum

b) Cerebellum

c) Medulla oblongata

d) Hypothalamus

Answer: b) Cerebellum

10. Which of the following is responsible for the regulation of heart rate and breathing in humans?

a) Cerebrum

b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla oblongata

d) Hypothalamus

Answer: c) Medulla oblongata

11. Which of the following is NOT a reflex action?

a) Blinking of eyes

b) Coughing

c) Sneezing

d) Shivering

Answer: d) Shivering

Chapter 8

Q1) Fruits are formed from the

a) Stamen
b) Stigma

c) Ovary

d) Ovule

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q2) Reproduction is essential for living organisms in order to ……………………

a) Keep the individual organism alive

b) Fulfill their energy requirement

c) Maintain growth

d) Continue the species generation after generation

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q3) The male reproductive parts of a flower, the stamens, are collectively known as

a) Androecium

b) Filament
c) Anther

d) Gynoecium

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q5) Which of the following diseases is transmitted sexually?

a) Kala Azar

b) Jaundice

c) Cholera

d) Syphilis

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q6) IUCD is for

a) Vegetative propagation

b) Contraception

c) Increasing fertility
d) Avoiding miscarriage

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q7) Which among the following is not the function of the testes at puberty?

(i) Formation of germ cells

(ii) Secretion of testosterone

(iii) Development of placenta

(iv) Secretion of estrogen

a) (i) and(ii)

b) (ii) and(iii)

c) (iii) and(iv)

d) (i) and(iv)

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q8) Which of the following is a contraceptive?

a) Copper T

b) Condom

c) Diaphragm

d) All of these

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q11) AIDS is a deadly disease which is caused by

a) a protozoan

b) a fungus

c) a bacterium

d) a virus

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q12) Which among the following diseases is not sexually transmitted?

a) Syphilis

b) Hepatitis

c) HIV-AIDS

d) Gonorrhea

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q16) The ratio of the number of chromosomes in a human zygote and a human sperm is

a) 2:1

b) 3:1

c) 1:2

d) 1:3

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q19) Which event will likely occur in the ovaries of females after attaining puberty?

a) Fertilisation

b) Synthesis of eggs
c) Production of eggs

d) Growth and development of the embryo

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Chapter-9

Q1) Mendel conducted his famous breeding experiments by working on the following:

(a) Drosophila

(b) Escherichia Coli

(c) Pisum Sativum

(d) All of these

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q2) Which section of DNA provides information for one protein?

(a) Nucleus

(b) Chromosome
(c)Trait

(d) Gene

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q3) Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?

(a) One person has a scar, but his friend doesn’t

(b) One person is older than the other

(c) Reeta eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a vegetarian

(d) Two children have different eye colour

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q4) In peas, a pure tall (TT) is crossed with a pure short plant(tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to pure
short plants in the F2 generation is:

(a) 1:3

(b) 3:1

(c) 1:1
(d) 2:1

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q5) Humans have two different sex chromosomes, X and Y. Based on Mendel’s laws, a male offspring
will inherit which combination of chromosomes?

(a) Both the X chromosomes from one of its parents

(b) Both the Y chromosomes from one of its parents

(c) A combination of X chromosomes from either of its parents

(d) A combination of X and Y chromosomes from either of its parents

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q6) Two pea plants, one with round green seeds (RR yy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds,
produce F1 progeny that have round yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are self-pollinated, the F2
progeny will have a new combination of characters. Choose the new combinations from the following:

(i) Round, yellow

(ii) Round, green

(iii) Wrinkled, yellow

(iv) Wrinkled, green

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iv)

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) (i) and (iii)

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q7) Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life from organic compounds. The
gases they took were:

(a) methane, ethane, ammonia, water vapour

(b) methane, ethane, hydrogen, ammonia

(c) ammonia, water vapour, butane, hydrogen

(d) methane, ammonia, hydrogen, water vapour

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q8) Which of the following is a pair of analogous organs?

(a) Wings of a pigeon and a bat

(b) Forelimbs of a frog and a bird

(c) Forelimbs of a rabbit and a lizard

(d) Leaves of a pitcher plant and a Venus fly trap

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q9) Two pink-coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white-flower progeny. The
nature of the cross will be:

(a) double fertilization

(b) self-pollination

(c) cross-fertilization

(d) no fertilization

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q10) A zygote which has an X chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a:
(a) boy

(b) girl

(c) X chromosome does not determine the sex of a child

(d) either boy or girl

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Chapter-10

Q2) If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors, inclined at an angle of 72 degrees,
then the total no. of images formed is:

(a) 5

(b) 4

(c) 2

(d) infinite

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q4) The focal length of a plane mirror is

(a) 0
(b) infinite

(c) 25 cm

(d) -25 cm

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q6) A beam of light incident on a plane mirror forms a real image on reflection. The incident beam is:

(a) parallel

(b) convergent

(c) divergent

(d) not certain

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q7) An object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a concave mirror of a focal length of 20 cm.

The image produced is:

(a) virtual and inverted

(b) real and erect

(c) real, inverted and of the opposite size as that of the object

(d) real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q10) Image formed by a convex spherical mirror is:

(a) virtual

(b) real

(c) enlarged

(d) inverted

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q12) A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front pin is formed at 30cm in front of the mirror. The
focal length of this mirror is:

(a) -30 cm

(b) -20 cm
(c) -40 cm

(d) -60 cm

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q12) A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front pin is formed at 30cm in front of the mirror. The
focal length of this mirror is:

(a) -30 cm

(b) -20 cm

(c) -40 cm

(d) -60 cm

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q16) The image of an object placed in front of a convex mirror is formed at

(a) the object itself

(b) twice the distance of the object in front of the mirror

(c) half the distance of the object in front of the mirror

(d) behind the mirror

Correct Answer: Option (d)

Q17) A full length of the image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen using:

(a) a concave mirror

(b) a convex mirror

(c) a plane mirror

(d) both concave as well as plane mirrors

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Chapter-11

1. Which part of the eye controls the amount of light that enters the eye?

A) Pupil

B) Cornea

C) Retina

D) Lens
Answer: A) Pupil

2. Which of the following statements about the retina is true?

A) It is the outermost layer of the eye.

B) It is responsible for detecting color and fine details.

C) It produces tears that lubricate the eye.

D) It controls the amount of light that enters the eye.

Answer: B) It is responsible for detecting color and fine details.

3. Which of the following structures in the eye is responsible for focusing light onto the retina?

A) Pupil

B) Cornea

C) Lens
D) Iris

Answer: C) Lens

4. Which of the following conditions is caused by the inability of the eye to focus light properly onto the
retina?

A) Cataract

B) Myopia

C) Astigmatism

D) Glaucoma

Answer: B) Myopia

5. Which of the following parts of the eye is responsible for producing tears?

A) Retina

B) Cornea
C) Sclera

D) Lacrimal gland

Answer: D) Lacrimal gland

6. Which of the following statements about the iris is true?

A) It is responsible for producing tears.

B) It controls the amount of light that enters the eye.

C) It is the outermost layer of the eye.

D) It is responsible for detecting color and fine details.

Answer: B) It controls the amount of light that enters the eye.

7. Which of the following statements about the cornea is true?

A) It is responsible for detecting color and fine details.

B) It is the outermost layer of the eye.

C) It produces tears that lubricate the eye.

D) It controls the amount of light that enters the eye.

Answer: B) It is the outermost layer of the eye.

8. Which of the following conditions is caused by the clouding of the lens in the eye?

A) Myopia

B) Astigmatism

C) Glaucoma

D) Cataract

Answer: D) Cataract
9. Which of the following statements about the blind spot in the eye is true?

A) It is located in the center of the retina.

B) It is the area where the optic nerve exits the eye.

C) It is responsible for detecting color and fine details.

D) It controls the amount of light that enters the eye.

Answer: B) It is the area where the optic nerve exits the eye.

10. Which of the following structures in the eye is responsible for converting light into electrical signals
that are sent to the brain?

A) Cornea

B) Lens

C) Retina

D) Pupil
Answer: C) Retina

11. Which of the following conditions is caused by an increase in pressure within the eye?

A) Myopia

B) Astigmatism

C) Glaucoma

D) Cataract

Answer: C) Glaucoma

Chapter-12

1. Which of the following materials is a good conductor of electricity?

a) Wood

b) Glass

c) Copper
d) Plastic

Answer: c) Copper

2. What is the unit of electric current?

a) Ampere

b) Volt

c) Ohm

d) Joule

Answer: a) Ampere

3. Which device is used to measure the potential difference between two points in an electric circuit?

a) Ammeter

b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer

d) Rheostat

Answer: b) Voltmeter

4. Which of the following is a source of direct current?

a) Solar cell

b) Alternator

c) Generator

d) Transformer

Answer: a) Solar cell

5. Which law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential
difference across its ends?
a) Ohm’s law

b) Kirchhoff’s law

c) Faraday’s law

d) Coulomb’s law

Answer: a) Ohm’s law

6. Which of the following materials is used to make the filament of an electric bulb?

a) Copper

b) Aluminium

c) Tungsten

d) Iron

Answer: c) Tungsten
7. What is the unit of electric power?

a) Watt

b) Joule

c) Ampere

d) Volt

Answer: a) Watt

8. Which of the following is a type of electric circuit?

a) Open circuit

b) Closed circuit

c) Series circuit

d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above

9. Which of the following is the resistance of a superconductor?

a) Zero

b) Infinite

c) 1 ohm

d) 10 ohm

Answer: a) Zero

10. Which of the following devices converts electrical energy into mechanical energy?

a) Generator

b) Motor

c) Transformer
d) Inductor

Answer: b) Motor

11. What is the SI unit of electric resistance?

a) Ampere

b) Ohm

c) Watt

d) Joule

Answer: b) Ohm

12. Which type of circuit has only one path for the current to flow?

a) Parallel circuit
b) Series circuit

c) Combination circuit

d) Open circuit

Answer: b) Series circuit

13. Which of the following is a safety device used in electric circuits to prevent damage due to excess
current?

a) Fuse

b) Diode

c) Capacitor

d) Transistor

Answer: a) Fuse

14. Which of the following is used to step up or step down the voltage in an electric circuit?
a) Transformer

b) Inductor

c) Capacitor

d) Resistor

Answer: a) Transformer

15. Which of the following materials is a good insulator of electricity?

a) Copper

b) Aluminium

c) Glass

d) Silver

Answer: c) Glass
 Chapter-13

Q1) The most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet is:

a) Steel

b) Iron

c) Soft iron

d) Aluminium

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q2) Which of the following is not attracted by a magnet?

(a) Steel

(b) Cobalt

(c) Brass

(d) Nickel

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q3) When a straight conductor is carrying current:

a) There are circular magnetic field lines around it

b) There are magnetic field lines parallel to the conductor

c) There are no magnetic field lines

d) None of the above

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q5) Two magnetic field lines:

a) Intersect at the neutral point

b) Never intersect each other

c) Intersect near north-pole or south pole

d) Intersect at the midpoint of the magnet

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q7) The front face of a circular loop of a wire is the North Pole, the direction of current in this face of the
loop will be:

a) Clockwise
b) Anticlockwise

c) Towards North

d) Towards South

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Q9) The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid carrying current:

a) Is zero

b) Decrease as we move towards its end

c) Is the same at all points

d) Increase as we move towards its end

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q12) The strength of the magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is:

a) More at the ends than at the centre

b) Minimum in the middle

c) Same at all points

d) Found to increase from one end to the another

Correct Answer: Option (c)

Q14) The force on a current-carrying conductor when placed perpendicular in a uniform magnetic field.

a) F=BIL

b) F=B/IL

c) F=L/BI

d) F=I/BL

Correct Answer: Option (a)

Q17) A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside a
solenoid:

a) Decrease

b) Will increase

c) Will become zero

d) Will remain unaffected

Correct Answer: Option (b)

Chapter-14

1. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?

A) Wind power

B) Solar power

C) Coal

D) Tidal power

Answer: C) Coal

2. Nuclear energy is obtained from the:

A) Sun

B) Fossil fuels

C) Wind
D) Nucleus of an atom

Answer: D) Nucleus of an atom

3. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

A) Oil

B) Coal

C) Natural gas

D) Biomass

Answer: D) Biomass

4. Solar energy is harnessed using:

A) Solar cells

B) Turbines
C) Dams

D) Geothermal wells

Answer: A) Solar cells

5. Hydroelectric power plants generate electricity using the energy of:

A) Fossil fuels

B) Tides

C) Wind

D) Falling water

Answer: D) Falling water

6. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using fossil fuels?

A) They are expensive

B) They are difficult to transport

C) They emit pollutants when burned

D) They are not available in large quantities

Answer: C) They emit pollutants when burned

7. Geothermal energy is obtained from:

A) The sun

B) The Earth's core

C) Biomass

D) Nuclear reactions

Answer: B) The Earth's core

8. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy that is commonly used in rural areas of India?

A) Coal

B) Oil

C) Biogas

D) Natural gas

Answer: C) Biogas

9. The process of generating electricity from nuclear energy is known as:

A) Nuclear fusion

B) Nuclear fission

C) Geothermal energy

D) Solar energy
Answer: B) Nuclear fission

10. Which of the following is an advantage of using wind power?

A) It is always available

B) It is cheap to produce

C) It does not emit pollutants

D) It requires a large amount of land

Answer: C) It does not emit pollutants

11. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using solar power?

A) It is expensive to produce

B) It is not reliable in all weather conditions

C) It emits pollutants
D) It requires a large amount of land

Answer: B) It is not reliable in all weather conditions

12. Which of the following is a form of biomass energy?

A) Coal

B) Oil

C) Natural gas

D) Wood

Answer: D) Wood

13. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy that is used to power vehicles?

A) Coal
B) Oil

C) Propane

D) Ethanol

Answer: D) Ethanol

14. Tidal power plants generate electricity using the energy of:

A) Wind

B) Waves

C) Tides

D) Falling water

Answer: C) Tides

15. Fuel cells generate electricity using the energy of:

A) Fossil fuels

B) Solar power

C) Nuclear energy

D) Chemical reactions

Answer: D) Chemical reactions

Chapter-15

1. Which of the following is not a component of the ecosystem?

A) Abiotic factors

B) Biotic factors

C) Human beings

D) None of the above

Answer: D) None of the above

2. Which of the following is a non-biodegradable waste?

A) Paper

B) Wood

C) Plastic

D) Food waste

Answer: C) Plastic

3. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

A) Carbon dioxide

B) Methane

C) Oxygen

D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: C) Oxygen

4. The process of breaking down organic matter by microorganisms is called:

A) Photosynthesis

B) Respiration

C) Fermentation

D) Decomposition

Answer: D) Decomposition

5. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form by plants is called:

A) Nitrogen fixation

B) Denitrification

C) Nitrification
D) Ammonification

Answer: A) Nitrogen fixation’

6. Which of the following is a major cause of air pollution?

A) Burning of fossil fuels

B) Excessive use of pesticides

C) Disposal of plastics

D) Deforestation

Answer: A) Burning of fossil fuels

7. Which of the following is an example of a natural ecosystem?

A) A farm
B) A park

C) A city

D) A shopping mall

Answer: B) A park

8. The process of removal of topsoil by water or wind is called:

A) Deforestation

B) Soil erosion

C) Desertification

D) Water pollution

Answer: B) Soil erosion

9. The process of conversion of ammonia to nitrate is called:

A) Nitrogen fixation

B) Nitrification

C) Denitrification

D) Ammonification

Answer: B) Nitrification

10. Which of the following is not a method of sustainable use of resources?

A) Recycling

B) Reusing

C) Reducing

D) Mining

Answer: D) Mining
11. The process of addition of nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus to water bodies is called:

A) Soil erosion

B) Water pollution

C) Air pollution

D) Noise pollution

Answer: B) Water pollution

12. Which of the following is an example of a biodegradable waste?

A) Plastic

B) Glass

C) Food waste

D) Styrofoam
Answer: C) Food waste

13. The study of interactions between living and non-living components of the environment is called:

A) Ecology

B) Geology

C) Meteorology

D) Anthropology

Answer: A) Ecology

14. Which of the following is an example of renewable resource?

A) Coal

B) Oil
C) Solar energy

D) Natural gas

Answer: C) Solar energy

15. The process of conversion of nitrates to nitrogen is called:

A) Nitrogen fixation

B) Nitrification

C) Denitrification

D) Ammonification

Answer: C) Denitrification

Chapter -16

1. What is the process of utilising natural resources without depleting them?

A) Sustainable management
B) Overexploitation

C) Mining

D) Extraction

Answer: A) Sustainable management

2. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

A) Solar energy

B) Wind energy

C) Fossil fuels

D) Hydropower

Answer: C) Fossil fuels

3. Which of the following is not a renewable resource?

A) Water

B) Forests

C) Soil

D) Coal

Answer: D) Coal

4. What is the process of planting new trees in place of the ones that have been cut down called?

A) Afforestation

B) Deforestation

C) Reforestation

D) Overexploitation

Answer: C) Reforestation
5. What is the process of using waste material to create new products called?

A) Recycling

B) Reusing

C) Reducing

D) Composting

Answer: A) Recycling

6. Which of the following is an example of non-biodegradable waste?

A) Food waste

B) Plastic

C) Paper

D) Wood
Answer: B) Plastic

7. Which of the following is not a method of soil conservation?

A) Contour ploughing

B) Terrace farming

C) Crop rotation

D) Deforestation

Answer: D) Deforestation

8. Which of the following is an example of sustainable use of water resources?

A) Overuse of groundwater

B) Building dams on rivers

C) Rainwater harvesting

D) Dumping industrial waste in rivers

Answer: C) Rainwater harvesting

9. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

A) Solar energy

B) Wind energy

C) Nuclear energy

D) Hydropower

Answer: C) Nuclear energy

10. What is the process of converting waste material into compost called?

A) Recycling
B) Reusing

C) Reducing

D) Composting

Answer: D) Composting

11. Which of the following is a method of wildlife conservation?

A) Deforestation

B) Overhunting

C) National parks

D) Poaching

Answer: C) National parks

12. Which of the following is not a method of sustainable use of forests?

A) Afforestation

B) Selective cutting

C) Clear-cutting

D) Reforestation

Answer: C) Clear-cutting

13. What is the process of utilising resources for economic growth while protecting the environment
called?

A) Sustainable development

B) Overexploitation

C) Resource depletion

D) Deforestation
Answer: A) Sustainable development

14. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

A) Coal

B) Oil

C) Solar energy

D) Natural gas

Answer: C) Solar energy

15. Which of the following is an example of the overexploitation of natural resources?

A) Reforestation

B) Sustainable fishing

C) Overfishing
D) Wildlife conservation

Answer: C) Overfishing

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