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University Grants Commission (UGC) : Computer Science 2021,

Programming Languages
Q 1. Match List I with List II

List I List II

Programming Meaning
Term

A. JNDI I. Runtime support for running Java programs

B. RMI II. The API in support of naming and directory services

C. JDK III. The methods provided by the Java development kit and runtime support
for calling remote methods

D. JRE IV. The compiler and class libraries to develop Java applications

Table of Programming Term and Meaning

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

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(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(4) A III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Q 2. In software testing, beta testing is the testing performed by________.
(1) potential customers at the developer՚s location
(2) potential customers at their own locations
(3) product developers at the customer՚s location
(4) product developers at their own locations
Q 3. A company stores products in a warehouse. Storage bins in this warehouse are specified by
their aisle, location in the aisle, and self. There are 50 aisles, 85 horizontal locations in each aisle,
and 5 shelves throughout the warehouse. What is the least number of products the company can
have so that at least two products must be stored in the same bin?
(1) 21251
(2) 251
(3) 4251
(4) 426
Q 6. Given below are three statements related to interrupt handling mechanism
A. Interrupt handler routine is not stored at a fixed address in the memory.
B. CPU hardware has a dedicated wire called the interrupt request line used for handling
interrupts
C. Interrupt vector contains the memory addresses for specialized interrupt handlers.
In the context of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is TRUE only
(2) Both A and B are TRUE only
(3) Both A, C are TRUE only
(4) Both B and C are TRUE only
Q 9. Which of the statements given below are correct?
The midpoint (or Bresenham) algorithm for rasterizing lines is optimized relative to DDA
algorithm in that
A. it avoids round-off operations.
B. it is incremental.
C. it uses only integer arithmetic.
D. all straight lines can be displayed as straight (exact) .
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) A, B, and C only
(4) A, B, C, and D
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Q 10. Given a fixed-length record file that is ordered on the key field. The file needs B disk blocks
to store R number of records. Find the average access time needed to access any record of the
given file using binary search.
(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)
Q 14. Match List I with List II

List I List II

(Programming Paradigm) (Characteristic)

A. Imperative I. Declarative, clausal representation, theorem proving

B. Object-oriented II. Side-effect free, declarative, expression evaluation

C. Logic III. Imperative, abstract data type

D. Functional IV. Command-based, procedural

Programming Paradigm and Characteristic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Q 16. Consider the following 3 processes with the length of the CPU burst time given in
milliseconds:

Process Arrival time Burst time

0 8

1 4

2 9

3 Processes with the Length of the CPU Burst Time

What is the average waiting time for these processes if they are scheduled using pre-
emptive shortest job first scheduling algorithm?
Choices
(1)

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(2)
(3)
(4)
Q 17. Identify the correct order of the following five levels of Capability Maturity Model
(from lower to higher) to measure the maturity of an organisation՚s software process.
A. Defined
B. Optimizing
C. Initial
D. Managed
E. Repeatable
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) C, A, E, D, B
(2) C, B, D, E, A
(3) C, E, A, B, D
(4) C, E, A, D, B
Q 20. Which of the following is used to create a database schema?
(1) DDL
(2) DML
(3) HTML
(4) XML
Q 25. In software engineering, what kind of notation do formal methods predominantly use?
(1) Computer code
(2) Diagrammatic
(3) Mathematical
(4) Textual
Q 27. A hash function h defined as mod 7, with linear probing, is used to insert the
keys 44, 45, 79, 55, 91,18, 63 into a table indexed from 0 to 6. What will be the location of key 18?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Q 28. Which agent deals with the happy and unhappy state?
(1) Goal-based Agent
(2) Learning Agent
(3) Model-based agent
(4) Utility-based agent

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Q 29. The postfix form of the expression is.

Q 30. Consider the sentence below. There is a country that borders both India and Pakistan.
Which of the following logical expressions express the above sentence correctly when the
predicate Country (x) represents that x is a country and Borders represents that the
countries x and y share the border?
(1) [∃ c Country (c) ] [Border (c, India) Λ Border (c, Pakistan) ]
(2) ∃ c Border
(3) ∃ c Country (c) Λ Border (c, India) Λ Border (c, Pakistan)
(4) ∃ c Country (c) [Border (c, India) Λ Border (c, Pakistan) ]
Q 32. How many ways are there to assign 5 different jobs to 4 different employees if every
employee is assigned at least 1 job?
(1) 1024
(2) 20
(3) 240
(4) 625
Q 33. Match List I with List II

List I List II

Identity Name

A. I. Identity Law

B. II. Absorption Law

C. III. Idempotent Law

D. IV. Dominant Law

Table of Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A - I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) A- III, B-I, C- II, D-IV
(3) A - III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

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(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D – II

Q 34. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A: Software developers do not do exhaustive software testing in practice.
Reason R: Even for small inputs, exhaustive testing is too computationally intensive (e. g. , takes
too long) to run all the tests.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Q 36. If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has only one
interpretation, then SRS is said to be
(1) Consistent
(2) Correct
(3) Unambiguous
(4) Verifiable
Q 37. Given below are two statements
Statement I: In an undirected graph, number of odd degree vertices is even.
Statement II: In an undirected graph, sum of degrees of all vertices is even.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Q 38. Match List I with List II

List I List II

(Software Process Model) (Description)

A. Waterfall Model I. Software can be developed incrementally

B. Evolutionary Model II. Requirement Comprises are inevitable

C. Component- based Software III. Explicit recognition of risk

Engineering

D. Spiral Development IV. Inflexible partitioning of the project into

stages

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Table Software Process Model and Description

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below:
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Q 39. Given a relation scheme with functional dependencies set
. All attributes take single and atomic values only.
A. Relation R is in First Normal FORM
B. Relation R is in Second Normal FORM
C. Primary key of R is xz
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) A and C only
(2) B and C only
(3) B only
(4) C only
Q 40. Which among the following statement (s) is (are) FALSE?
A. Greedy best-first search is not optimal but is often efficient.
B. ⚹ is complete and optimal provided is admissible or consistent.
C. Recursive best-first search is efficient in terms of time complexity but poor in terms of space
complexity.
D. is an admissible heuristic for the 8- puzzle.
(1) A and D only
(2) A only
(3) C and D only
(4) C only
Q 41. Suppose a tree is used for indexing a database file. Consider the following information:
size of the search key field bytes, block size bytes, size of the record pointer 9 bytes,
size of the block pointer bytes. Let K be the order of internal node and L be the order of leaf
node of tree, then ________.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q 42. A double-ended queue (dequeue) supports adding and removing items from both the ends
of the queue. The operations supported by dequeue are Add Front (adding item to front of the
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queue) , Add Rear (adding item to the rear of the queue) , Remove Front (removing item from the
front of the queue) , and Remove Rear (removing item from the rear of the queue) . You are given
only stacks to implement this data structure. You can implement only push and pop operations.
What՚s the time complexity of performing Add Front () and Add Rear () assuming m is the size of
the stack and n is the number of elements?
(1) O (1) and O (n)
(2) O (m) and O (n)
(3) O (n) and 0 (1)
(4) O (n) and O (m)
Q 43. Given the following STUDENT-COURSE scheme: STUDENT (Roll no, Name, Course no)
COURSE (Course no, Course name, Capacity) , where Roll no is the primary key of relation
STUDENT and Course no is the primary key of relation COURSE. Attribute Course name of
COURSE takes unique values only. The number of records in COURSE and STUDENT tables are 3
and 5 respectively. Following relational algebra query is executed: STUDENT X COURSE
Match List I with List II in context to the above problem statement.

List I List II

A. Degree of table R I. 15

B. Cardinality of table R II. NIL

C. Foreign key of relation STUDENT III. 6

D. Foreign key of relation COURSE IV. Course no

The Following STUDENT-COURSE Scheme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A -I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-I, B -III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Q 44. Which of the following Graphs is (are) planar?
(A)

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(B)

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(C)

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A and B only
(2) A only
(3) B and C only
(4) B only
Q 46. Two balanced binary trees are given with m and n elements, respectively. They can be
merged into a balanced binary search tree in ________ time.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q 47. A data structure is required for storing a set of integers such that each of the following
operations can be done in time, where n is the number of elements in the set.
Deletion of the smallest element
Insertion of an element if it is not already present in the set
Which of the following data structures can be used for this purpose?
(1) A balanced binary search tree can be used but not a heap.
(2) A heap can be used but not a balanced binary search tree.
(3) Both balanced binary search tree and heap can be used
(4) Neither balanced binary search tree nor heap can be used
Q 48. Match List I with List II

List I List II

System calls Description

A. fork () I. Sends a signal from one process to another process

B. exec () II. Indicates termination of the current process

C. kill () III. Loads the specified program in the memory

D. exit () IV. Creates a child process

System Calls and Description

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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Q 50. Which of the given options provides the increasing order of asymptotic complexity of
functions and ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) B, C, A, D
(2) B, C, D, A
(3) C, B, A, D
(4) C, B, D, A
Q 52. In the following table, the left column contains the names of standard graph algorithms and
the right column contains the time complexities of the algorithms. Here, n and m are number of
vertices and edges, respectively. Match each algorithm with its time complexity.

List I List II

Standard graph algorithms Time complexities

A. Bellman-Ford algorithm I.

B. Kruskal՚s algorithm II.

C. Floyd-Warshall algorithm III.

D. Topological sorting IV.

The Following Table, the Left Column Contains

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Q 54. A system has uptime and has a meantime-between-failure of 1 day. How fast the
system does has to repair itself in order to reach this availability goal?
(1) 10 Seconds
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(2) 11 Seconds
(3) 12 Seconds
(4) 9 Seconds
Q 55. In the context of Software Configuration Management (SCM) , what kind of files should be
committed to your source control repository?
A. Code files
B. Documentation files
C. Output files
D. Automatically generated files that are required for your system to be used
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) D and A only
Q 56. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Cleanroom software process model incorporates the statistical quality certification of
code increments as they accumulate into a system.
Statement II: Cleanroom software engineering follows the classic analysis, design, code, test, and
debug cycle to software development and focusing on defect removal rather than defect
prevention.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q 57. In a file allocation system, the following allocation schemes are used:
A. Contiguous
B. Indexed
C. Linked allocation
Which of the allocation scheme (s) given above will not suffer from external fragmentation?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) A only
(3) B and C only
(4) C only
Q 62. Consider the following graph.

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Among the following sequences

I. a b e g h f
II. a b f e h g
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III. a b f h g e
IV. a f g h b e
Which is depth first traversals of the above graph?
(1) I and IV only
(2) I, II, and IV only
(3) I, III, and IV only
(4) II, III, and IV only
Q 64. Which of the DBMS component ensures that concurrent execution of multiple operations
on the database results into a consistent database state?
(1) Buffer manager
(2) File manager
(3) Logs
(4) Transaction processing system
Q 65. A transaction may be in one of the following states during its execution life cycle in
concurrent execution environment.
A. FAILED
B. TERMINATED
C. PARTIALLY COMMITTED
D. COMMITTED
E. ACTIVE
Given a transaction in active state during its execution, find its next transitioned state from the
options given below:
(1) A only
(2) C only
(3) D only
(4) Either A or C only
Q 68. What does the following function f () in ‘C’ return?
int f (unsigned int N) {unsigned int counter = 0;
while (N > 0) {counter & 1;
;} return counter == 1;}
(1) 1 if N is a power of 2, otherwise 0
(2) 1 if N is odd, otherwise 0
(3) 1 if the binary representation of N has any 1′s, otherwise 0
(4) 1 if the binary representation of N is all 1′s, otherwise 0
Q 71. For which value of n is Wheel graph Wn regular?
(1) 2
(2) 3
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(3) 4
(4) 5
Q 72. The V components in MVC are responsible for:
(1) Business logic and domain objects
(2) Security of the system
(3) Translating between user interface actions/events and operations on the domain objects
(4) User interface
Q 73. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
It is always important and useful to include an ‘alt’ attribute on ‘img’ tag in HTML because
A. users who cannot see the image due to vision impairment can have a textual description of the
image (which can be spoken aloud by a screen reader) .
B. If the image fails to load (slow connection, broken path, etc.) then alt text is displayed instead.
C. SEO (Search Engine Optimization) benefits.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only
(2) A, B, and C
(3) B and C only
(4) C only
Q 74. Consider following two statements:
Statement I: Relational database schema represents the logical design of the database.
Statement II: Current snapshot of a relation only provides the degree of the relation.
In the context to the above statements, choose the correct option from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are FALSE
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are TRUE
(3) Statement I is FALSE but Statement II is TRUE
(4) Statement I is TRUE but Statement II is FALSE
Q 76. Read the following and answer the questions: Consider a machine with main memory
and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as , Frame size and page size is same for
the given machine. The number of bits reserved for the frame offset is ________.
(1) 12
(2) 14
(3) 32
(4) 8
Q 78. Read the following and answer the questions: Consider a machine with main memory
and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as , Frame size and page size is same for
the given machine. Find number of pages required for the given virtual address space.
(1)
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(2)
(3)
(4)
Q 79. Read the following and answer the questions: Consider a machine with main memory
and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as , Frame size and page size is same for
the given machine. What is the size of page table for handling the given virtual address space,
given that each page table entry is of size 2 bytes?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q 80. Read the following and answer the questions: Consider a machine with 16 GB main memory
and 32-bits virtual address space, with page size as , Frame size and page size is same for
the given machine. If a process of size is to be executed on this machine, then what will be
the size of internal fragmentation for this process?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Zero
Q 82. A digital computer has a common bus system for 8 registers 16 bits each. How many
multiplexers are required to implement common bus? What size of multiplexers is required?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q 83. A message is encrypted using public key cryptography to send a message from sender to
receiver. Which one of the following statements is True?
(1) Receiver decrypts using his own public key
(2) Receiver decrypts using sender՚s public key
(3) Sender encrypts using his own public key
(4) Sender encrypts using receiver՚s public key
Q 84. The address of class B host is to be split into subnets with 6-bit subnet number. What is the
maximum number of the subnets and the maximum number of hosts in each subnet?
(1) 62 subnets and 1022 hosts
(2) 62 subnets and 262142 hosts
(3) 64 subnets and 1024 hosts
(4) 64 subnets and hosts 262142
Q 86. In electronic mail, which of the following protocols allows the transfer of multimedia?
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(1) IMAP
(2) MIME
(3)
(4) SMTP
Q 87. The Octal equivalent of hexadecimal is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Q 88. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Telnet, Ftp, Http are application layer protocol
Statement II: The Iridium project was planned to launch 66 low orbit satellites. In light of the
above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q 89. In Ethernet when Manchester coding is used, the bit rate is________.
(1) Half the baud rate
(2) Same as the baud rate
(3) Thrice the baud rate
(4) Twice the baud rate
Q 90.

List I List II

A. Data Link Layer I. True end-to-end layer

B. Network Layer II. Token Management

C. Transport Layer III. Produce billing information

D. Session Layer IV. Piggybacking

Table of List I and List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
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(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Q 91. Given below are two statements
Statement I: CISC computers have a large of number of addressing modes.
Statement II: In RISC machines memory access is limited to load and store instructions.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Q 92. The reverse Polish notation of the following infix expression

is ________.

(1) ABCDE⚹ ++ ⚹FGH + ⚹/

(2) ABCDE + ⚹⚹ + FGH + ⚹/
(3) ABCDE + ⚹ + ⚹FGH⚹ +/
(4) ABCDE + ⚹ + ⚹FGH + ⚹/
Q 93. Which of the following is not an example of pseudo-instruction?
(1) DEC
(2) END
(3) HLT
(4) ORG
Q 94. The characteristics of the combinational circuits are:
A. Output at any time is function of inputs at that time
B. Contains memory elements
C. Do not have feedback paths
D. Clock is used to trigger the circuits to obtain outputs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) Band D only
Q 95. Let G (x) be the generator polynomial used for CRC checking. The condition that should be
satisfied by the G (x) to catch all errors consisting of an odd number of inverted bits is:
(1) is factor of
(2) is factor of
(3) is factor of
(4) is factor of
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Q 96.

List I List II

A. Odd Function I. NAND gate

B. Universal Gate II. XOR gate

C. 2421 code III. Amplification

D. Buffer IV. Self-Complementing

NAND Gate is Simply a and Gate Fallowed by NOT Gate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
Q 97. Which of the following statement is False?
(1) Packet switching can lead to reordering unlike circuit switching.
(2) Packet switching leads to better utilization of bandwidth resources than circuit switching (3)
Packet switching results in less variation in the delay than circuit switching.
(4) Packet switching sender and receiver can use any bit rate, format or framing method unlike
circuit switching
Q 98. The cache coherence problem can be solved
A. by having multiport memory
B. allow only non-shared data to be stored in cache
C. using a snoopy cache controller
D. using memory interleaving
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C only
(2) B and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) D and C only

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