HCL

Quantitative aptitude

Q1 & Q2 comparison on simple interest – compound interest, percentages

1. In the question, two quantities I and II are given. You have to solve both the
quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and Quantity-II
and choose the correct option
Quantity I: A man borrowed Rs. 6500 at certain rate of simple interest, while
he also borrowed Rs. 7000 at 6% more simple interest than the rate of interest
of borrowing of Rs. 6500. After 3 years, he paid a total interest of Rs. 8550 for
both the borrowings, then find the rate at which he borrowed Rs. 7000.
Quantity II: 20% of A is same as 25% of B. If difference between A and B is 250
then find what percent of (A + B) will be equal to 540.
A -Quantity-I > Quantity-II
B -Quantity-I < Quantity-II
C -Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
D -Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation

Solution
Quantity I:
Let the rate at which he borrowed Rs. 6500 be R%.
The rate which he borrowed Rs. 7000 is (R + 6)%
According to question,
6500 × R/100 × 3 + 7000 × (R + 6)/100 × 3 = 8550
65R + 70R + 70 × 6 = 2850
135R = 2430
R = 18%
R + 6 = 24%
Quantity I = 24%
Quantity II:
According to question,
A × 0.2 = B × 0.25
A/B = 5/4
Let, value of A and B be ‘5x’ and ‘4x’ respectively.
So, 5x – 4x = 250
So, x = 250
A + B = 9x = 9 × 250 = 2250
?% of 2250 = 540
? = 540 × 100/2250 = 24
Quantity II = 24%
So, Quantity I = Quantity II.
Hence, option d.
Q1 & Q2 comparison on profit & loss

2. In the question, two quantities I and II are given. You have to solve both the
quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and Quantity-II
and choose the correct option
Quantity I: Vishal bought two articles for Rs. 2000. He sold first one at a profit
of 32% while another one at a loss of 12%. If in the transaction, he incurred a
profit of 5.6%, then find the cost price of second article.
Quantity II: Monthly income of Moyank is Rs. 8000 and he saves 55% of his
monthly income. If his monthly savings is increased by 20% and his monthly
expense is increased by Rs. 380 then find the increase (in Rs.) in his monthly
income.
A -Quantity-I > Quantity-II
B -Quantity-I < Quantity-II
C -Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
D -Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
E -Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II
Solution
Quantity I:
Let cost price of first article be Rs. ‘x’
Cost price of second article = Rs. (2000 – x)
According to question,
1.32 × x + 0.88 × (2000 – x) = 1.056 × 2000
1.32x + 1760 – 0.88x = 2112
0.44x = 352
x = 800
Cost price of second article = 2000 – 800 = Rs. 1200
Quantity I = Rs. 1200
Quantity II:
Monthly savings of Moyank = 0.55 × 8000 = Rs. 4400
Monthly expenditure of Moyank = 8000 – 4400 = Rs. 3600
New monthly savings of Moyank = 1.2 × 4400 = Rs. 5280
New monthly expenditure of Moyank = 3600 + 380 = Rs. 3980
New monthly income of Moyank = 5280 + 3980 = Rs. 9260
Desired difference = 9260 – 8000 = Rs. 1260
Quantity II = Rs. 1260
So, Quantity II > Quantity I
Hence, option b.
Data sufficiency on probability

3. The question consists of two statements numbered “I and II” given below it.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient
to answer the question.
A bag contains red, blue and green balls in the ratio 8:7:5 respectively. Find the
total number of balls in the bag.
Statement I: Probability of drawing a red ball from the bag is 2/5.
Statement II: Probability of drawing two green balls from the bag is 1/19.
A -The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B -The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

C -The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to

answer the question.

D -The data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.
.

Solution
Statement I:
Let the bag contains 8x red, 7x blue and 5x green balls.
So the probability of drawing a red ball from the bag = 8xC1/20xC1 = 2/5
8x/20x = 2/5
2/5 = 2/5
Since, ‘x’ is eliminated, so the total number of balls can’t be determined.
So, data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II:
Let the bag contains 8x red, 7x blue and 5x green balls.
So the probability of drawing two green ball from the bag = 5xC2/20xC2 = 1/19
5x(5x – 1)/20x(20x – 1) = 1/19
95x – 19 = 80x – 4
15x = 15
x=1
So, the total number of balls in the bag = 20 × 1 = 20
So, data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option b.
Data sufficiency on Averages
4. The question consists of three statements numbered “I, II and III” given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question.
Present age of Hemant, Vedant, Sumant and Vikrant is (x + 4) years, (x – 4)
years, (x + 12) years and (x + 8) years respectively. Find the present age of
Sumant.
Statement I: Average present age of Hemant and Sumant together is (x – 21)
years less than the average age of Vedant and Vikrant after 17 years.
Statement II: Average age of Hemant and Vikrant after 12 years is 14 years
more than present average age of Vedant and Sumant together.
Statement III: Average present age of Hemant, Vedant, Sumant and Vikrant
together is 9 years more than present age of Vedant.
A -The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II and III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B -The data in both statements I and III together are necessary to answer the
question, while data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.

C -The data in both statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the
question, while data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.

D -The data in either statement II alone or in statements I and III together are
sufficient to answer the question.

Solution
Statement I:
[(x + 4) + (x + 12)]/2 = [(x – 4) + (x + 8) + 34]/2 – (x – 21)
x + 8 = x + 19 – x + 21
x + 8 = 40
x = 32
Present age of Sumant = x + 12 = 32 + 12 = 44 years
Therefore, data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II:
[(x + 4) + (x + 8) + 24]/2 = [(x – 4) + (x + 12)]/2 + 14
x + 18 = x + 4 + 14
x=x
So, we can’t determine present age of Sumant.
Therefore, data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement III:
[(x – 4) + (x + 4) + (x + 12) + (x + 8)]/4 = [(x – 4)] + 9
x+5=x+5
x=x
So, we can’t determine present age of Sumant.
Therefore, data in statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option a.
Data sufficiency on mixtures & allegations

5. The question consists of four statements: I, II, III and IV given below it. You
have to decide whether the data given in which of the following statements
alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Two mixtures A and B contain milk and water in the ratio of 5:4 and 7:5,
respectively. Find the quantity of water in the mixture B.
Statement I. If 40% of mixture A is taken out and 30 ml of milk and 24 ml of
water is added to the resultant mixture such that the ratio of milk to water
becomes 5:4. Total amount of mixture B is (100/3)% more than total amount
of mixture A.
Statement II. Total quantity of milk in mixture A and mixture B together is 480
ml, while total amount of water in mixture A and mixture B together is 360 ml.
Statement III. Amount of milk in mixture B is 120 ml more than amount of
water in mixture A. Difference between quantity of milk and water in mixture
A is 40 ml.
Statement IV. If 25% of the mixture A is taken out and is replaced with same
amount of milk then the ratio of milk to water in the resultant mixture
becomes 2:1. Amount of water in mixture B is 40 ml more than amount of
water in mixture A.
A -The data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

B -The data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

C -The data in statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

D -Either (a) or (d)

Solution
Let the amount of milk and water in mixture A 5x and 4x ml respectively.
Amount of milk and water in mixture B is 7y and 5y ml respectively.
Statement I:
According to statement,
(0.6 × 5x + 30)/(0.6 × 4x + 24) = 5/4
0.6x + 6 = 0.6x + 6
So, data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Statement II:
5x + 7y = 480
4x + 5y = 360
Solving above equation we get
x = 40 and y = 40
Quantity of water in mixture B = 40 × 5 = 200 ml
So, data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement III:
7y = 4x + 120
y = (4x + 120)/7
5x – 4x = 40
x = 40
Amount of water in mixture B = (5/7) × (4x + 120) = 5/7 × 280 = 200 ml
So, data in statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Statement IV:
Total amount of mixture A = 5x + 4x = 9x ml
According to question,
(0.75 × 5x + 0.25 × 9x)/(0.75 × 4x) = 2/1
(3.75x + 2.25x)/3x = 2
6x/3x = 2
2=2
So, data in statement IV is not sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option d.
Partnership

6. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

A, B and C started a business with initial investments of Rs. 1,200, Rs. 1,000
and Rs. 1,500, respectively. After one year, A and B made additional
investments equal to 20% and 25% of their initial investments, respectively,
whereas C withdrew 10% of his initial investment. After one more year, A, B
and C withdrew all their investments and made small investments of Rs. ‘x +
180’, Rs. ‘x + 220’ and Rs. ‘x + 320’ respectively for a year to maintain the
business.
Find the profit share of A, if total profit earned by A, B and C together at the
end of three years is Rs. 9432.
A -Rs. 3024
B -Rs. 3572
C -Rs. 3144
D -Rs. 2358

Solution
Investment of A till second year = 1200 + 1200 × 1.20 = Rs. 2,640
Investment of B till second year = 1000 + 1000 × 1.25 = Rs. 2,250
Investment of C till second year = 1500 + 1500 × 0.90 = Rs. 2,850
Respective ratio of the profits of A, B and C = (2640 + x + 180):(2250 + x +
220):(2850 + x + 320)
= (2820 + x):(2470 + x):(3170 + x)
According to question,
Profit share of A = {(x + 2820)/(x + 2820 + x + 2470 + x + 3170)} × 9432
= {(x + 2820)/(3x + 8460)} × 9432
= 1/3 × 9432 = Rs. 3144
Hence, option c.
Partnership

7. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

A, B and C started a business with initial investments of Rs. 1,200, Rs. 1,000
and Rs. 1,500, respectively. After one year, A and B made additional
investments equal to 20% and 25% of their initial investments, respectively,
whereas C withdrew 10% of his initial investment. After one more year, A, B
and C withdrew all their investments and made small investments of Rs. ‘x +
180’, Rs. ‘x + 220’ and Rs. ‘x + 320’ respectively for a year to maintain the
business.
Find the value of ‘x’, if profit share of B out of total profit of Rs. 2050 at the end
of three years is Rs. 625.
A -1200
B -1220
C -1260
D -1280

Solution
Investment of A till second year = 1200 + 1200 × 1.20 = Rs. 2,640
Investment of B till second year = 1000 + 1000 × 1.25 = Rs. 2,250
Investment of C till second year = 1500 + 1500 × 0.90 = Rs. 2,850
Respective ratio of the profits of A, B and C = (2640 + x + 180):(2250 + x +
220):(2850 + x + 320)
= (2820 + x):(2470 + x):(3170 + x)
According to question,
(x + 2470)/(x + 2820 + x + 2470 + x + 3170) = 625/2050
(x + 2470)/(3x + 8460) = 25/82
82x + 202540 = 75x + 211500
7x = 8960
x = 1280
Hence, option d.
Ratios & proportions

8. Ratio of male to female population of a town in 2016 was 24:25 and total
population in 2016 was 12250. If the male population is ___ and female
population is ____ as compared to last year then the total population of the
town becomes 17150 in 2017.
The values given in which of the following options will fill the blanks in the
same order in which is it given to make the above statement true:
A. increased by 60%, increased by 20.8%
B. increased by 102.5%, decreased by 20%
C. increased by 85%, decreased by 3.2%
A -Only A
B -Only B
C -Only A and B
D -All A, B and C
Solution
Total male population in 2016 = 24/49 × 12250 = 6000
Total female population in 2016 = 12250 – 6000 = 6250
A: When male population is increased by 60% and female population is
increased by 20.8%.
1.60 × 6000 + 1.208 × 6250 = 9600 + 7550 = 17150
So, A can be the answer.
B: When male population is increased by 102.5% and female population is
decreased by 20%.
2.025 × 6000 + 0.8 × 6250 = 12150 + 5000 = 17150
So, B can be the answer.
C: When male population is increased by 85% and female population is
decreased by 3.2%.
1.85 × 6000 + 0.968 × 6250 = 11100 + 6050 = 17150
So, C can be the answer.
Therefore, A, B and C can be the answer.
Hence, option d.
Problems on numbers

9. A student finds the average of five two digits numbers. If one of the
numbers is reversed and the average is taken again then the average is
increased by 7.2. If all five digit numbers are consecutive multiples of twelve,
then find the number which is reversed?
A -36
B -84
C -48
D -96

Solution
Let the number which is reversed be (10a + b).
If the number is reversed then the number becomes = (10b + a)
According to question,
10b + a – 10a – b = 7.2 × 5
9(b – a) = 36
b–a=4
So, the numbers can be 15, 26, 37, 48 and 59.
Since the numbers are multiple of 12.
Therefore, the number should be 48.
Hence, option c.
Discounts

10. Two shopkeepers, A and B sell the same article but at different discounts.
The profit percent earned by A is same as the discount percent given by B. The
cost price and the marked price of the article is same for both shopkeepers.
The discount given by A is 30.25% and the marked price of the article is Rs.
6400. If the cost price of the article is Rs. 3600, then find the profit earned by
B.
A -Rs. 1264
B -Rs. 1234
C -Rs. 1224
D -Rs. 1624

Solution
Selling price of article by A = 6400 × 0.6975 = Rs. 4464
Marked price of article = Rs. 6400
Profit percentage earned by A = {(4464 – 3600)/3600} × 100 = 24%
Discount percentage offered by B = 24%
Selling price of article B = 0.76 × 6400 = Rs. 4864
Profit earned by B = 4864 – 3600 = Rs. 1264
Hence, option a.
Data interpretation (tabular form on time& work)

(11-13) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given

below.
The table given below shows the number of people required for various
projects to be completed in various days.

Situations Situation 1 Situation 2

Number of Days Number of Days

Projects workers required workers required

A X + 20 30 X 45

B Y+5 Y–5 Y Y–1

C Z2 175 M2 252

[Link] 75 people were working on project A, how many days did it take to
complete the work?
A -16 days
B -20 days
C -24 days
D -26 days

Solution
According to question
30 × (X + 20) = 45X
30X + 600 = 45X
X = 40
Total work = 40 × 45 = 1800 units
Desired number of days = 1800/75 = 24 days
Hence, option c.

12. If 0.6Y people work on project B for 20 days and then 5 more people join
the project after 20 days. How many days will it take to complete the project
B?
A -30 days
B -32 days
C -35 days
D -27 days

Solution
According to question,
(Y – 5) × (Y + 5) = Y × (Y – 1)
Y2 – 25 = Y2 – Y
Y = 25
So, total amount of work = 25 × (25 – 1) = 25 × 24 = 600 units
Amount of work done by 0.6Y (15 people) in 20 days = 15 × 20 = 300 units
Amount of work left = 600 – 300 = 300 units
Desired time = 20 + 300/(15 + 5) = 20 + 15 = 35 days
Hence, option c.

13. Find the time taken by a team of 5Z × 6M members to complete the project
C.
A -10 days
B -8 days
C -6 days
D -7 days
Solution
According to question,
175 × Z2 = 252 × M2
(Z/M)2 = 252/175 = 36/25
Z/M = 6/5
5Z = 6M
Total number of workers = 5Z × 6M = 6M × 6M = 36M 2
Desired time = (252M2)/(36M2) = 7 days
Hence, option d.
Data sufficiency on problems on ages
14. Present average age of Aman and Raman is ‘(X/2)’ years. Raman is ‘Y’ years
elder than Aman. Which of the following options is correct according to the
given information?
A. Present age of Aman is (X – Y)/2.
B. Present age of Raman is (X + Y)/2.
C. Product of present age of Aman and Raman is 0.25 × (X2 – Y2)
A -Only A
B -Only B
C -Only A and B
D -All A, B and C
Solution
Let present age of Aman and Raman be ‘A’ years and ‘R’ years respectively.
According to question,
(A + R)/2 = X/2
A + R = X……………………………..(1)
And, R = A + Y
R – A = Y…………………………….(2)
Adding equation (1) and (2), we get
2R = (X + Y)
R = (X + Y)/2
Subtracting equation (2) from equation (1), we get
2A = (X – Y)
A = (X – Y)/2
And, A × R = (X + Y) × (X – Y) × (1/4) = 0.25 × (X2 – Y2)
Hence, option d.
Q1 & Q2 comparison on Quadratic equations

15. In the question, two quantities I and II are given. You have to solve both
the quantities to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and
Quantity-II and choose the correct option
Quantity I: Find the value of ‘x’ if 2x2– 29x + 104 = 0.
Quantity II: Find the value of ‘y’ if 5y2 – 36y + 36 = 0.
A -Quantity-I > Quantity-II
B -Quantity-I < Quantity-II
C -Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II
D -Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation
E -Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II

Solution
Quantity I:
2x2 – 29x + 104 = 0
2x2 – 13x – 16x + 104 = 0
x(2x – 13) – 8(2x – 13) = 0
(x – 8)(2x – 13) = 0
x = 8, 13/2
Quantity II:
5y2 – 36y + 36 = 0
5y2 – 6y – 30y + 36 = 0
y(5y – 6) – 6(5y – 6) = 0
(y – 6)(5y – 6) = 0
y = 6, 6/5

X Relation Y

8 > 6

8 > 6/5

13/2 > 6

13/2 > 6/5

So, x > y
Hence, option a.

Reasoning

Days based puzzle

(16-17) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given

below.
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have the seminars on three different cities
Bangalore, Delhi and Goa on seven days of a week starting from Monday to
Sunday. Only one person has seminar on one day. Also, each person has
different number of bus passes. The highest number of bus passes is 37 and
lowest number of bus passes is 7.
S, who does not have highest number of bus passes, has seminar in Goa in one
of the days before Wednesday. Only two persons have seminar in between the
seminars of S and U, who has 24 passes and does not have the seminar in
Bangalore. V does not have 37 passes. R has seminar after T. Q, who has
seminar on Thursday, and the one who has lowest number of passes have
seminars in same city but not in Delhi. Number of persons who have the
seminars before P, who has seminar in Bangalore is equal to the number of
persons who have seminars after the one who has highest number of passes.
Only R and the one who has 35 passes have the seminar in Delhi. Difference
between the passes of R and Q is 23 and the sum between the passes of R and
V is 56. T has seminar after V. One of the persons, who has seminar in Goa has
prime number of passes less than 23. Difference between the passes of T, who
has 2nd highest passes and S, who has 2nd lowest number of passes is 26.
16. Who has the seminar just after U?
A -R
B -The one who has seminar in Goa
C -The one who has 7 passes
D -T

Solution
S has seminar in Goa on either Tuesday or Monday. Only two persons have
seminar in between the seminars of S and U, who has 24 passes.
Case I: When S has seminar on Tuesday.

Days Person Pass City

Monday

Tuesday S Goa

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday U 24

Saturday

Sunday

Case II: When S has seminar on Monday.

Days Person Pass City

Monday S Goa

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday U 24

Friday

Saturday

Sunday

Q, who has seminar on Thursday, and the one who has lowest number of
passes have seminars in same city but not in Delhi. So, case II is invalid.
Numbers of persons who have the seminars before the P, who has seminar in
Bangalore, is equal to the number of persons who have seminars after the one
who has highest number of passes. S does not have highest number of passes.
So, again there are two possibilities either P has seminar on Sunday or
Monday.
Case I: When P has seminar on Sunday.

Days Person Pass City

Monday 37

Tuesday S Goa

Wednesday

Thursday Q Bangalore/ Goa

Friday U 24
Saturday

Sunday P Bangalore

Case I(a): When P has seminar on Monday.

Days Person Pass City

Monday P Bangalore

Tuesday S Goa

Wednesday

Thursday Q Goa/Bangalore

Friday U 24

Saturday

Sunday 37

R has seminar after T, who has seminar after V. So, case I is invalid because V
does not have 37 passes.
Different between the passes of R and Q is 23 and the sum between the passes
of R and V is 56.
So, in case I(a) R has 37 passes which means Q has 14 passes and V has 19
passes, also the one who has prime number of passes less than 23 has seminar
in Goa.
Difference between the passes of T, who has 2nd highest passes and S, who has
2nd lowest number of passes is 26.
So, if T has 36 passes and S has 8 passes than difference is 28.
If T has 35 passes and S has 8 passes than difference is 27.
If T has 35 passes and S has 9 passes than difference is 26, which is correct.
The final arrangement is:

Days Person Pass City

Monday P 7 Bangalore

Tuesday S 9 Goa

Wednesday V 19 Goa

Thursday Q 14 Bangalore

Friday U 24 Goa

Saturday T 35 Delhi

Sunday R 37 Delhi

T has seminar just after U.

Hence, option d.

17. Who among the following has less passes than Q?

A -The one who has seminar on Sunday
B -T
C -The one who has seminar in Delhi
D -The one who has seminar on Tuesday
Solution
S has seminar in Goa on either Tuesday or Monday. Only two persons have
seminar in between the seminars of S and U, who has 24 passes.
Case I: When S has seminar on Tuesday.

Days Person Pass City

Monday
Tuesday S Goa

Wednesday

Thursday

Friday U 24

Saturday

Sunday

Case II: When S has seminar on Monday.

Days Person Pass City

Monday S Goa

Tuesday

Wednesday

Thursday U 24

Friday

Saturday

Sunday

Q, who has seminar on Thursday, and the one who has lowest number of
passes have seminars in same city but not in Delhi. So, case II is invalid.
Numbers of persons who have the seminars before the P, who has seminar in
Bangalore, is equal to the number of persons who have seminars after the one
who has highest number of passes. S does not have highest number of passes.
So, again there are two possibilities either P has seminar on Sunday or
Monday.
Case I: When P has seminar on Sunday.

Days Person Pass City

Monday 37

Tuesday S Goa

Wednesday

Thursday Q Bangalore/ Goa

Friday U 24

Saturday

Sunday P Bangalore

Case I(a): When P has seminar on Monday.

Days Person Pass City

Monday P Bangalore

Tuesday S Goa

Wednesday

Thursday Q Goa/Bangalore

Friday U 24

Saturday
Sunday 37

R has seminar after T, who has seminar after V. So, case I is invalid because V
does not have 37 passes.
Different between the passes of R and Q is 23 and the sum between the passes
of R and V is 56.
So, in case I(a) R has 37 passes which means Q has 14 passes and V has 19
passes, also the one who has prime number of passes less than 23 has seminar
in Goa.
Difference between the passes of T, who has 2nd highest passes and S, who has
2nd lowest number of passes is 26.
So, if T has 36 passes and S has 8 passes than difference is 28.
If T has 35 passes and S has 8 passes than difference is 27.
If T has 35 passes and S has 9 passes than difference is 26, which is correct.
The final arrangement is:

Days Person Pass City

Monday P 7 Bangalore

Tuesday S 9 Goa

Wednesday V 19 Goa

Thursday Q 14 Bangalore

Friday U 24 Goa

Saturday T 35 Delhi

Sunday R 37 Delhi

The one who has seminar on Tuesday has a smaller number of passes than Q.
Hence, option d.
Coding-decoding

(18-19) Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given

below.
In a certain code of language,
‘incidents some educational institutions’ is coded as ‘M9H M36D L25H L4T’
‘personal data rightly powers’ is coded as ‘M9Q V4Q Z4E G1S’
‘technically government individuals spied’ is coded as ‘O9U V9H Z25H R4T’
‘enforce provisions landmark authority’ is coded as ‘I9D L16Q Z4M R16B’

[Link] code “L4T” represents which of the following word?

A -Right
B -Tubelight
C -Smackdown
D -Survivor

Solution
For the numbers – square of the sum of the total number of vowels.
For the letters- The first letter of the code is calculated as the reverse of third
letter of the word from the right end (in alphabetical series) and the second
letter of the code represents as:
a. If the word starts with a vowel then its immediate previous letter in English
alphabetical series be considered as the code of that word.
b. If the word starts with consonant then its immediate succeeding letter in
English alphabetical series be considered as the code of that word.
For example, in a word ‘Government’ as the word starts with consonant than
its succeeding alphabet i.e. H and opposite of 3rd letter of the word i.e. E-V, be
the code of the word.
The code “L4T” represents “Smackdown”
Hence, option c.
19. What is the code of “Office Meeting”?
A -R15N R21Y
B -R9N R9N
C -R12N R21N
D -N21R N21B

Solution
For the numbers – square of the sum of the total number of vowels.
For the letters- The first letter of the code is calculated as the reverse of third
letter of the word from the right end (in alphabetical series) and the second
letter of the code represents as:
a. If the word starts with a vowel then its immediate previous letter in English
alphabetical series be considered as the code of that word.
b. If the word starts with consonant then its immediate succeeding letter in
English alphabetical series be considered as the code of that word.
For example, in a word ‘Government’ as the word starts with consonant than
its succeeding alphabet i.e. H and opposite of 3rd letter of the word i.e. E-V, be
the code of the word.
The code of “Office Meeting” is “R9N R9N”.
Hence, option b.
Data sufficiency on floors based puzzle

20. The question given below can be answered using sentence given in only
one of the options. Find out the option which can be used to answer the
question.
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, U live on six storey building having six floors such that
ground floor is numbered as 1 and floor above the ground floor is numbered as
2 and so on. Each of them also likes different colors among Blue, Green,
Purple, Yellow, Red and Gold
Who lives on 3rd floor and likes which color?
A -One person lives between P and U, who likes Blue color. The one who likes
Yellow color lives on one of the floors above the floor on which the one who
likes Blue color lives. T neither lives on 1st nor 2nd floor of the building. Q lives
on floor number 4 and likes Red color.

B -Only one person lives between the floor on which T lives and the one who
likes Purple color. The one who likes purple color lives above the floor number
3. R lives on sixth floor and likes Yellow color. Q lives on 4th floor and likes Red
color.

C -The one who likes Green color lives above the one who likes Yellow color
but below the one who likes Gold color. P neither likes Gold nor Green color.
There are at most two persons live above the P’s floor. Q lives immediately
below P. The one who likes Red color live two floors below the floor on which
Q lives.

D -R lives on 5th floor and likes Green color. The one who likes Red color lives
on 2nd floor. Only one person lives between R and T who neither likes Blue
nor Purple color. The one who likes Yellow lives above the one who likes Red
but not immediately above.

Solution
From Statement I: One person lives between P and U, who likes Blue color. The
one who likes Yellow color lives on one of the floors above the floor on which
the one who likes Blue color lives. T neither lives on 1st nor 2nd floor of the
building. Q lives on floor number 4 and likes Red color
No proper information is given.
From statement II: Only one person lives between the floor on which T lives
and the one who likes Purple color. The one who likes purple color lives above
the floor number 3. R lives on sixth floor and likes Yellow color. Q lives on
4th floor and likes Red color.

Floor Person Color

6 R Yellow

5 Purple

4 Q Red
3 T

So, it is clear that T lives on 3rd floor but it is not given which color does T likes.
From statement III: The one who likes Green color lives above the one who
likes Yellow color but lives below the one who likes Gold color. P neither likes
Gold nor Green color. There are utmost two persons live above the P’s floor. Q
lives immediately below P. The one who likes Red color live two floors below
the floor on which Q lives.
No proper information is given.
From statement IV: R lives on 5th floor and likes Green color. The one who likes
Red color lives on 2nd floor. Only one person lives between R and T who neither
likes Blue nor Purple color. The one who likes Yellow lives above the one who
likes Red but not immediately above.

Floor Person Color

6 Yellow/

5 R Green

4 Yellow/

3 T Gold

2 Red

Hence, it is clear from this statement that T lives on 3rd floor and likes Gold
color.
From statement V: The one who lives on 2nd floor, likes Blue color. Only two
persons live above P. Q does not likes Red or Green. U neither lives on 1 st nor
4th floor of the building. Only one person lives between U and T, who likes
Purple color. Person who lives immediately above S likes Red color.
No proper information is given.
Hence, option d.
Data sufficiency on circular based sitting arrangement

21. The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and
give answer.
Are all the five friends, viz. P, Q, R, S and T who are sitting around a circular
table facing the center?
Statement I: P sits third to the right of S who faces the center. Q sits second to
the right of P.
Statement II: R sits 2nd to the left of T who faces the center. S sits 2nd to the
right of R.
A -Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B -Data in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the

question

C -Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

D -Data in both statement I and statement II together is sufficient to answer

the question.

Solution
From statement I: P sits third to the right of S who faces the center. Q sits
second to the right of P.
So, from this statement it is clear that all are not facing towards the center.
From statement II: R sits 2nd to the left of T who faces the center. S sits 2nd to
the right of R.

So, from this statement it is clear that all are not facing the center.
Hence, option b.
Data sufficiency on coding-decoding

22. The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and
give answer.
What is the code for ‘housing’ in a certain code language?
Statement I: In a certain code of language, ‘sufficient money for project’ is
coded as ‘ae cd pd rd’ and ‘money project is for housing’ is coded as ‘ae cd md
kd rd’
Statement II: In a certain code of language, ‘housing is for money’ is coded as
‘ae cd kd md’ and ‘money is project’ is coded as ‘ae cd kd’
A -Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B -Data in either both statement I and statement II alone sufficient to answer
the question
C -Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
D -Data in both statement I and statement II together is sufficient to answer
the question.

Solution
From statement I: Insufficient data.
So, from this statement, we get the code of ‘sufficient’ i.e. ‘ae’, the code of
‘housing’ is either ‘kd’ or ‘md’.
From statement II: Insufficient data.
By combining both the statements, we get the code of ‘housing’ is ‘md’.
Hence, option d.
Logical deduction (statements & arguments)

23. In the question below, an argument is given, followed by three statements.

From the options, choose the statements that can combine to produce the
argument.
Argument: Animals are appropriate research subjects because they are similar
to human beings in many ways.
1. The anatomic, metabolic, and cellular similarities between animals and
people make animals good models for human beings.
2. Chimpanzees share 99% of their DNA with humans, and mice are 98%
genetically similar to humans.
3. All animals, including humans, are descended from common ancestors, and
all have the same set of organs that function in essentially the same way with
the help of a bloodstream and central nervous system.
A -Only 1 and 2
B -Only 3
C -Only 1 and 3
D -All 1, 2 and 3
Solution
The given argument says that animals are good subjects for research as they
are similar to human beings in several ways. It can be inferred by putting 1, 2
and 3 together. 1 tells us about the similarities between animals and people
and how these similarities make animals good models for human beings. 2 tells
us about the genetic similarities between humans and certain animals. 3 tells
us that all animals as well as humans descended from common ancestors.
Thus, (d) is the right answer.
Logical deduction (statements & arguments)

24. In the question below, an argument is given, followed by three statements.

From the options, choose the statements that can combine to produce the
argument.
Argument: A regular exercise regime and weight reduction may lower
cholesterol levels in the bloodstream of some individuals.
1. People who do not workout regularly have a high risk of developing high
levels of cholesterol in their bloodstream.
2. An increase in the level of high-density Lipoprotein (HDL) can lower
cholesterol levels in the bloodstream as it increases the capacity of the body to
rid itself of excess cholesterol.
3. Exercising regularly and reducing weight can lead to a significant rise in the
levels of HDL in the bloodstream.
A -Only 1 and 2
B -Only 3
C -Only 1 and 3
D -Only 2 and 3

Solution
(d) is the right answer. The premise states that a regular exercise regime and
weight reduction may lower cholesterol levels in the bloodstream. This can be
inferred by putting 2 and 3 together. 2 states that an increase in HDL can lower
cholesterol levels. 3 states that regular exercise and reducing weight can lead
to a significant rise in HDL. Thus, it follows that regular exercise and weight
reduction may lower cholesterol levels in the bloodstream of some individuals.
1 is incorrect as it merely talks about the possible implications of not working
out regularly.
Coded distance & direction

(25-27) Directions: Read the following information carefully.

A&B (115) – A is 100m to the East of B
A#B (75) – A is 60m to the North of B
A%B (65) – A is 50m to the West of B
A@B (55) – A is 40m to the South of B
O%N(30), N@M(37)
M%Q(35), P@Q(42), R#S(45)
S&T(25), R%P(40)
25.R is in which direction with respect to M?
A -Northeast
B -Southwest
C -Southeast
D -Northwest

Solution
As given in the information there is common difference of 15m, between the
distance given in brackets and distance given between the two points.
Such as A&B(115) – A is 100m to the East of B
Here difference is 15m, So, taking 15 as a base difference we have to calculate
the further distances given in the brackets such as given that O%N(30) which
means O is to west of N and the distance between O and N is 30-15=15m.
Final solution:
R is to the southwest of M.
Hence, option b.

26. If W&S (40), then what is the distance between W and P?

A -21m
B -35m
C -30m
D -40m

Solution
As given in the information there is common difference of 15m, between the
distance given in brackets and distance given between the two points.
Such as A&B(115) – A is 100m to the East of B
Here difference is 15m, So, taking 15 as a base difference we have to calculate
the further distances given in the brackets such as given that O%N(30) which
means O is to west of N and the distance between O and N is 30-15=15m.
Final solution:

If it is given that W&S (40) which means W is 25m east of S so, the distance
between W and P is 30m.
Hence, option c.

27. What is direction of O with respect to T?

A -O%T
B -O#T
C -O@T
D -T#O
Solution
As given in the information there is common difference of 15m, between the
distance given in brackets and distance given between the two points.
Such as A&B(115) – A is 100m to the East of B
Here difference is 15m, So, taking 15 as a base difference we have to calculate
the further distances given in the brackets such as given that O%N(30) which
means O is to west of N and the distance between O and N is 30-15=15m.
Final solution:

O is to the north of T.
Hence, option b.
Data sufficiency on north sitting arrangement

28. The question given below consists of two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and
give answer.
How many girls are sitting in the row (assuming all are facing north)?
Statement I: Sunita sits 5th from the right end of the row. Riya sits 11th from the
left end of the row.
Statement II: Tina sits 6th from the left end. Riya sits 3rd from the left of the one
who is 7th from the right end.
A -Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
B -Data in either both statement I and statement II alone sufficient to answer
the question
C -Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
D -Data in both statement I and statement II together is sufficient to answer
the question.

Solution
From statement I: No proper information is given.
From statement II: No proper information is given.
From I and II together, it is clear that there are 20 girls sitting in the row.

S
u
T R n
i i i
n y t
a a a

Hence, option d.
Data sufficiency on months based puzzle
29. The question given below consists of three statements numbered I, II and
III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the
statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and
give answer.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H was born either 15th or 20th of the four
different months i.e. January, February, March and April(not in the same
order). Who was born on 20th February?
Statement I: There were four persons born between A and H. C was born in
one of the months, which has 31 days and also born before H. E was born just
before H.
Statement II: Three persons born between B and F and both of them were born
in 20th of the month. B was born just before A and just after G. B was born in
the month of January.
Statement III: Two persons were born between A and G. C was born on 20 th of
the month. G was not born just before E.
A -Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

B -Data in either both statement I and statement II or statement III alone is

sufficient to answer the question.

C -Data in statement I and statement II together but statement III is not

sufficient to answer the question.

D -Data in either statement I alone or statement III alone is sufficient to answer

the question.

Solution
There were four persons born between A and H. C was born in one of the
months, which has 31 days and also born before H. E was born just before H.
No exact information is given.
From statement II: Three persons born between B and F. Both of them were
born in 20th of the month. B was born just before A and just after G. B was born
in the month of January.
So, there are two possibilities so B and F either born in February or in January.
From statement III: Two persons were born between A and G. C was born on
20th of the month. G was not born just before E.
No proper information is given.
From statement I and II, we get.
Month/Date Person

January 15th G

January 20th B

February 15th A

February 20th D

March 15th C

March 20th F

April 15th E

April 20th H

So, from I and II we get that D was born on 20th February.

Hence, option c.
Input-output
30. Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions.
A number arrangement machine when given an input line of numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an
illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 44 92 31 58 35 96 19 77 63 52 85 24
Step I: 19 24 92 44 58 31 96 35 63 77 85 52
Step II: 31 35 19 24 29 44 85 69 36 77 58 25
Step III: 44 36 35 31 29 25 24 19 85 77 69 58
Step IV: % # % % # # % % # % # #
And step IV is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules followed in
the above step, find out each of the following questions the appropriate step
for the given input.
Input for the question:
33 97 29 55 37 93 17 76 67 54 78 26

If all the numbers are arranged in ascending order in step 2 then which of the
following number will be 5th from the right end?
A -67
B -79
C -55
D -39

Solution
Given input:
33 97 29 55 37 93 17 76 67 54 78 26
Step I: 17 26 97 33 55 29 93 37 67 76 78 54
Step II: 29 33 17 26 79 55 39 73 76 67 87 45
Step III: 45 39 33 29 26 17 87 79 76 73 67 55
Step IV: # % % # % % # % # % # %
In the first step the first two smallest number are written in ascending order
from the left side of the input and then remaining numbers are interchange
their places and written from the left to right direction of the input.
In the second step the next two smallest numbers are written from the left
side of the input and for the other number’s digits are interchange within the
numbers and written from the left to right.
In the third step first, all the numbers which are smaller than 50 are written in
descending order from left to right side of the input and then numbers which
are greater than 50 are written in descending order.
In last step IV: If the sum of the digits is an even number then use symbol %
and if the sum of the digits is odd number then use symbol #.
Step 2 of the given input is:
29 33 17 26 79 55 39 73 76 67 87 45
After arranging in ascending order.
17 26 29 33 39 45 55 67 73 76 79 87
So, 67 is the 5th number from the right end.
Hence, option a.

English

Reading comprehension

(31-33) Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions.
Precautionary principle is an approach in policy making that legitimizes the
adoption of preventative measures to address potential risks to the public or
environment associated with ascertain activities or policies. The concept of the
precautionary principle emerged in the 1970s–80s in German environmental
law, where it was known by the term Vorsorgeprinzip. In 1987 it was
incorporated into international law at the International Conference on the
Protection of the North Sea. Since then it has permeated most international
environmental conventions. For example, entrenched by the 1992 Rio
Declaration (Principle 15), it was written into the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change and, retroactively, into the Protocol on
Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer. It was integrated into the criteria for
the listing of endangered species by the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species in 1994, and the following year it was adopted by the
Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. The precautionary
principle also is a _____(A)_____ of European Union (EU) environmental law
and has been central in determining the EU’s position towards genetically
modified organisms. The EU has also advocated its extension to other areas,
such as food and health issues.
There has been debate, however, as to whether the precautionary principle
should be considered a principle of international environmental law or merely
an approach, a guide to policy making. (B) The precautionary principle has
been criticize for promoting a risk-averse approach to policy making and
resource management in contexts where risk is part of decision making and
the problem of scientific uncertainty is especially acute. In natural resource
management, the course of management often is decided upon despite
persisting uncertainty; in such cases, the precautionary approach risks
____(C)_____ management altogether.
31. Which of the following words will fit in the blank (A) in the passage?
A -landmark
B -benchmark
C -cornerstone
D -epithet

Solution
We need a noun here to be modified by the indefinite article A. The sentence
talks about how the principle forms a centrepiece of the EU environmental
law, and it has been central in determining in EU’s position towards Genetically
Modified Organisms. CORNERSTONE means mainstay, which will fit here,
which makes (c) the right answer.
Landmark - an important step or stage in development. Benchmark - standard
of comparison. Epithet - an adjective or phrase expressing a quality or attribute
regarded as characteristic of the person or thing mentioned. Hallmark -
indicator.

32. Which of the following phrases can replace the highlighted portion in (B)?
1. Has faced criticism for
2. Has criticized for
3. Has been criticized for
A -No Improvement
B -Only 1 and 2
C -Only 1 and 3
D -Only 2 and 3

Solution
The sentence talks about the reasons for which the precautionary principle has
been condemned. Both 1 and 3 will replace the phrase to render the requisite
meaning, which makes (c) the right answer.
2 is incorrect as the phrase is an active voice construction, while the sentence
is in passive voice. The highlighted portion is incorrect as it uses the base form
verb CRITICIZE in place of CRITICIZED.

33. Refer to the line: “Precautionary principle is an approach in policy making

that legitimizes the adoption of preventative measures to address potential
risks to the public or environment associated with ascertain activities or
policies.” Which of the following words in the line is contextually inapt?
A -approach
B -address
C -potential
D –ascertain

Solution
The sentence tells us that the principle is an approach (strategy) in policy
making that legitimizes the adoption of preventative measures to address
(tackle) potential (likely) risks associated with particular activities or policies.
ASCERTAIN means to make sure of something, which is contextually inapt here.
CERTAIN means particular and would have been more apt here. Thus, (d) is the
right answer.
Para jumbled sentences

(34-35) Directions: A set of sentences is given, which when properly

sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. P is the first sentence of the
rearranged paragraph. It is divided up into parts jumbled up in any random
order. First rearrange the parts to form a logical and coherent sentence and
then arrange the remaining sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and
answer the questions.
P. India is likely to have (A)/the world’s largest workforce (B)/which is
undoubtedly (C)/by 2027, with a billion-people aged between 15 and 64,
(D)/great news for the economy(E)
Q. When left unchecked untreated, diseases eventually escalate to demand
more pharmacotherapy, extensive treatment plans or hospitalisation, which
can be avoided if we have a robust primary healthcare in place.
R. However, simultaneous to a skilled workforce, the development of healthy
human capital is also vital.
S. Thus, attention to primary healthcare is critical as it will reduce the strain of
further complications resulting from unaddressed palliative needs.
T. Even more so because this increasing working population is buffeted by an
escalation of non-communicable diseases (NCDs) that threatens to decelerate
India’s demographic edge.
U. Therefore, for India’s large population to adequately meet its primary
healthcare needs, the health care sector requires combined efforts by private
enterprises as well as the government.
34. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
A -U
B -T
C -R
D -S

Solution
(d) is the right answer. PRTSQU is the correct sequence. P has been given to us
as the first statement. It talks about how India will have the largest workforce
by 2027. R follows P. It begins with the conjunction HOWEVER, which is used to
link contrasting statements. It shifts the focus towards healthcare. T follows R.
It states that India’s demographic edge will be threatened by non-
communicable diseases. S follows T. It talks about the need for paying
attention to primary healthcare. Q follows S. It reinforces the need for robust
primary healthcare. U ends the passage by highlighting the need for
collaboration between the private sector and government.

35. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
A -Q
B -U
C -S
D -T

Solution
(a) is the right answer. PRTSQU is the correct sequence. P has been given to us
as the first statement. It talks about how India will have the largest workforce
by 2027. R follows P. It begins with the conjunction HOWEVER, which is used to
link contrasting statements. It shifts the focus towards healthcare. T follows R.
It states that India’s demographic edge will be threatened by non-
communicable diseases. S follows T. It talks about the need for paying
attention to primary healthcare. Q follows S. It reinforces the need for robust
primary healthcare. U ends the passage by highlighting the need for
collaboration between the private sector and government.
Interchanging of sentences

36. In the question below, two sentences are given and each of them consists
of two words highlighted in bold. The words may be incorrectly placed and
need to be interchanged in order to make both the sentences contextually
correct. From the options, choose the option that represents the correct
combination of the words that need to be interchanged.
I. In order to (1)ascertain which applicant was most (2)inarticulate for the
position, the hiring manager spent a long time reviewing the resumes.
II. Sadly, a number of high school students are (3)qualified when they graduate
and cannot (4)properly word a sentence.
A -1-3, 2-4
B -2-3
C -1-2
D -2 -4

Solution
(b) is the right answer. We need to replace (2) with (3). The first sentence talks
about how the hiring manager was reviewing the profiles of the applicants to
make a decision. INARTICULATE means unable to speak in a manner that can
be understood. This quality is not something that can get you a job. QUALIFIED
means competent or knowledgeable to do something. ASCERTAIN means to
calculate or estimate something. PROPERLY means in a way that is required.
Interchanging of sentences

37. In the question below, two sentences are given and each of them consists
of two words highlighted in bold. The words may be incorrectly placed and
need to be interchanged in order to make both the sentences contextually
correct. From the options, choose the option that represents the correct
combination of the words that need to be interchanged.
I. The speaker spoke so (1)rapidly that his words were (2)inconclusive to most
in the audience.
II. The blood test was (3)incoherent for any diseases, so they (4)wanted to
redraw blood.
A -1-3, 2-4
B -2-3
C -1-2
D -2 -4

Solution
(b) is the right answer. We need to interchange INCOHERENT with
INCONCLUSIVE. The first sentence talks about the speed at which the speaker
talked. It made it difficult for the people in the audience to understand. The
second sentence talks about how the results of the blood test could not
indicate anything about the diseases. If something is INCONCLUSIVE, it has not
proved anything. If someone is INCOHERENT, they are talking in a confused
and unclear way.
Interchanging of sentences

38. In the question below, two sentences are given and each of them consists
of two words highlighted in bold. The words may be incorrectly placed and
need to be interchanged in order to make both the sentences contextually
correct. From the options, choose the option that represents the correct
combination of the words that need to be interchanged.
I. Nothing is more (1)beautiful to a mother than her children, and she will
always choose to (2)deft them over anything else.
II. The (3)protect carpenter was able to take a few old boards and turn them
into a (4)precious bookshelf.
A -1-4, 2-3
B -2-3
C -1-2
D -2-4, 1-3
Solution
(a) is the right answer. We need to replace (1) with (4) and (2) with (3). We
need a verb in its base form to fit in the infinitive construction of TO+VERB.
DEFT (skilled) is an adjective. PROTECT(to keep safe from harm or injury) is a
verb. The first sentence talks about mothers. It states that children are very
dear to mothers and they will go to any length to keep them safe. The second
sentence talks about how the carpenter was able to use some old boards and
make a bookshelf.
Cloze test

(39-45) Directions: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions as per
the individual direction.
(I)Technology is one field (A)/much people rely upon (B)/to offer a vision of a
brighter(C)/ future, but as a new decade dawns on us,(D)/ optimism is in short
supply(E). (II)The new technologies that dominated the past decade seem to
be making things worst. Social media were supposed to bring people
together. (III)______today they are better known for invading privacy,
spreading propaganda and undermining democracy. (IV)E-commerce and ride-
hailing offer ________, but they are often charged with underpaying workers,
exacerbating inequality and clogging the streets with vehicles. Parents worry
that smartphones have turned their children into screen-addicted zombies.
(V)The technologies expected to dominate the new decade also seem to
__________. (VI) Artificial intelligence can enter bias and threaten your
job. (VII)5G is _______ of the Sino-American trade war, which has made the
global economic outlook _______. Polls show that internet firms are now less
trusted than the banking industry. At the very moment banks are striving to
rebrand themselves as tech firms, internet giants have become the new banks,
morphing from talent magnets to pariahs.
The New York Times sums up the encroaching gloom. “A mood of pessimism”,
it writes, has displaced “the idea of inevitable progress born in the scientific
and industrial revolutions.” Except those words are from an article published in
1979. (VIII)Back then the anxiety was fed by growing doubts about society’s
ability to ______ the seemingly runaway forces of technology”
_____(IX)______. Yet concerns that humanity has taken a technological wrong
turn, or that particular technologies might be doing more harm than good,
have arisen before. (X) In the 1970s the despondency was prompted by
concerns about overpopulation, environmental damage and the _______ of
nuclear immolation.
39. Which of the following fragments in (I) contains an error?
A -D
B -A
C -B
D –C

Solution
(c) is the right answer. The sentence seeks to convey that often people look at
the field of technology with a positive outlook, but things have changed
recently. We need to replace MUCH with MANY. MUCH is used with
uncountable nouns, MANY is used with countable nouns. PEOPLE is a plural
countable noun.

40. Which of the highlighted words in (II) should be replaced to make the
sentence grammatically and contextually correct?
A -new
B -dominated
C -past
D -worst

Solution
(d) is the right answer. The sentence seeks to convey that the technologies that
were celebrated in the past decade are causing situations to become more
unpleasant. We need to replace WORST with WORSE. WORSE is a comparative
adjective or adverb, describing something that is more disagreeable than
something else. By comparison, WORST is a superlative adjective or an adverb
that means something is as bad as it can get.

41. Which of the following words can fill the blank in statement (IV)?
A -console
B -comfortable
C -convenience
D -combination

Solution
(c) is the right answer. We need a noun to act as the object of the verb OFFER.
The second half of the sentence talks about the downsides of ecommerce and
ride-hailing. It is connected to the first half with the conjunction BUT, which is
used to link contrasting statements. Thus, the first half should discuss the
benefits of ecommerce and ride-hailing. Thus, CONVENIENCE fits contextually.
If you describe something as a convenience, you mean that it is very useful.
CONSOLE(v.)- comfort (someone) at a time of grief or disappointment.
COMFORTABLE(adj.)- (especially of clothes or furnishings) providing physical
ease and relaxation.
COMBINATION(n)- a particular arrangement of different elements.
EFFECTIVE-(adj.)- successful in producing a desired or intended result.

42. Which of the following phrases can fill the blank in statement (V)?
A -beat around the bush
B -be in the affirmative
C -cast a dark shadow
D -be contrary to the law

Solution
(c) is the right answer. The sentence consists of the adverb ALSO. It implies
that the tone of the sentence will agree with that of the first paragraph. Thus,
the author seems to convey that the new technologies that will be developed
and used in the new decade will also have a lot of downsides. CAST A DARK
SHADOW means that the impact of the technologies that will be developed
and used in the new decade will also have some negative impacts.
(a) is incorrect. TO BEAT AROUND THE BUSH means to avoid talking about
what is important
(b) is incorrect. If you reply to a question in the affirmative, you say 'yes' or
make a gesture that means 'yes'.
(d) is incorrect. CONTRARY TO THE LAW refers to something that is illegal.
(e) is incorrect. TO HAVE A DIFFERENCE OF OPINION means to have a conflict.

43. Which of the following words can replace the highlighted word in
statement (VI) to make it grammatically and contextually correct?
A -enact
B -exemplify
C -explain
D -entrench

Solution
(d) is the right answer. We need a verb in the base form to follow the modal
verb CAN. The sentence discusses the possible downsides of Artificial
intelligence(AI). It states that it can lead to greater bias(which basically implies
unfair treatment) and also threaten our jobs. ENTRENCH can replace the
highlighted word. It means to establish (an attitude, habit, or belief) so firmly
that change is very difficult or unlikely.
ENTER- to come or go into (a place).
ENACT- to put into practice (an idea or suggestion).
EXEMPLIFY- to illustrate or clarify by giving an example.

44. Which of the following conjunctions can fill the blank in statement (III)?
A -Despite
B -However
C -Moreover
D -Since

Solution
(b) is the right answer. The sentence preceding (III) talks about what the social
media platforms were supposed to do something positive. (III) talks about how
the social media platforms have contributed negatively. Thus, the two
sentences have a contrasting relationship. HOWEVER is used to link sentences
that share a contrasting relationship.
DESPITE is used to introduce a fact which makes the other part of the sentence
surprising, which is not the case here.
SINCE and FOR is used to show a cause-effect relationship, which is not the
case here.
MOREOVER is used to provide additional information, which is not the case
here.

45. Which of the following pairs of phrase and word can fill two blanks in
statement (VII)?
A -at the centre, imminent
B -at the core, bliss
C -at the expense, jovial
D -at the heart, bleak
Solution
(d) is the right answer. The sentence seeks to convey that the 5G technology is
one of main factors that has led to the trade conflict between China and the
US. TO BE AT THE CORE/HEART/CENTRE means to be the most important part
of something. If you achieve something AT THE EXPENSE OF someone, you do
it in a way that can cause them some harm or disadvantage. AT THE HELM
means in a position of authority. The phrases in (a), (b) and (d) can fill the
blank.
BLEAK fits contextually as the tone of the paragraph is negative. If a situation is
BLEAK, it is bad, and seems unlikely to improve.
IMMINENT is used to refer to something(negative) which is likely to happen.
BLISS is a state of complete happiness. If you describe a person as JOVIAL, you
mean that they are happy and behave in a cheerful way. Someone who is
ASSIDUOUS works hard or does things very thoroughly.

General knowledge
Rivers
46. With the aim to fuse the cultures of Ganga and Brahmaputra the Ministry
of Development of North East Region conducted a four day long North East
festival at _______.
A -Prayagraj
B -Guwahati
C -Lucknow
D - Varanasi
Solution
With the aim to fuse the cultures of Ganga and Brahmaputra the Ministry of
Development of North East Region conducted a four day long North East
festival in Varanasi.
Days and themes

47. International Men’s Day (IMD) is observed annually on which date?

A -November 26
B -November 19
C -November 08
D -October 24
Solution
International Men’s Day (IMD) is observed annually on November 19 every
year to celebrate the achievements and contributions of boys of men towards
community, family, marriage, and childcare. The day also highlights the basic
humanitarian values. The 2019 theme was “Making a difference for men and
boys”.
Appointments

48. Who has been appointed as director of Technical Cooperation and Silk
Road Development in United Nations World Tourism Organisation (UNWTO)?
A -Pankaj Kumar
B -Kristalina Georgieva
C -Anshula Kant
D - Suman Billa

Solution
Suman Billa has been appointed as director of Technical Cooperation and Silk
Road Development in United Nations World Tourism Organisation
(UNWTO) (Headquarters: Madrid, Spain).
Festivals

49. ‘Elephanta festival’ is observed at which place?

A -Bengaluru
B -Mumbai
C -Delhi
D -Madurai

Solution
Elephanta festival is organized by the Maharashtra Tourism Development
Corporation (MTDC) to promote Mumbai tourism and culture. It is one of the
most prominently celebrated festivals in Mumbai. This renowned festival is
held on the Elephanta Island, adjacent to the Elephanta Cave, a World Heritage
Site. The theme for this year is ‘Swarang’.
National parks

50. Guru Ghasidas National Park is located in which Indian state?

A -Jammu and Kashmir
B -Karnataka
C -Chhattisgarh
D -Bihar

Solution
Chhattisgarh government recently announced Guru Ghasidas National Park in
Kotiya district as its fourth tiger reserve. At present there are three tiger
reserves in Chattisgarh: Achanakmar Tiger Reserve in Bilaspur, Udanti-Sitanadi
Tiger Reserve in Gariaband and Indravati Tiger Reserve in Bijapur district.

Computers (technical)

Functions
51. The value obtained in the function is given back to main by using ________
keyword.

a) return

b) static

c) new

d) volatile

Answer: a

Explanation: None.

External variables

52. Functions in C are always _________

a) Internal

b) External

c) Both Internal and External

d) External and Internal are not valid terms for functions

Answer: b

Static variables

53. What will be the output of the following C code?

#include <stdio.h>
void main()
{
static int x;
 printf("x is %d", x);
}
a) 0

b) 1

c) Junk value

d) Run time error

Answer: a
Pointers & arrays

54. What will be the output of the following C code?

#include <stdio.h>
void main()
{
char *s = "hello";
char *p = s;
printf("%p\t%p", p, s);
}
a) Different address is printed

b) Same address is printed

c) Run time error

d) Nothing

Answer: b

Pointers to pointers

55. Comment on the output of the following C code.

 #include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a = 10;
int **c -= &&a;
}
a) You cannot apply any arithmetic operand to a pointer

b) We don’t have address of an address operator

c) We have address of an address operator

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
String operations

56. Which among the given options compares atmost n characters of string ch
to string s?

a) int strncmp(ch, s, n)

b) int strcmp(ch, s)

c) int strncmp(s, ch, n)

d) int strcmp(s, ch)

Answer: a

Explanation: int strncmp(ch, s, n) is used to compare at most n characters of

string ch to string s; return <0 if ch0 of ch >s.

String operations
57. Which of the following is the right syntax to copy n characters from the
object pointed to by s2 into the object pointed to by s1?

a) void *memcpy(void *s1,const void *s2,size_t n);

b) void *memcpy(void *s2, const void *s1, size_t n);

c) void memcpy(void *s1,const void *s2, size_t n);

d) void memcpy(void *s2,const void *s1,size_t n);

Answer: a

Explanation: The memcpy() function copies n characters from the object

pointed to by s2 into the object pointed to by s1. If copying takes place
between objects that overlap, the behavior is undefined.
While loop

58. How many times i value is checked in the following C code?

#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 0;
while (i < 3)
i++;
printf("In while loop\n");
}
a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 1

Answer: c
Explanation: None.
While loop

59. What will be the output of the following C code?

#include <stdio.h>
void main()
{
int i = 0;
do
{
printf("Hello");
} while (i != 0);
}
a) Nothing

b) H is printed infinite times

c) Hello

d) Run time error

View Answer
Answer: c
For loop

60. Which of the following cannot be used as LHS of the expression in for
(exp1;exp2; exp3)?

a) variable

b) function

c) typedef

d) macros
Answer: d
If then else statement

61. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>
2. int main()
3. {
4. int x = 0;
5. if (x++)
6. printf("true\n");
7. else if (x == 1)
8. printf("false\n");
9. }
a) true

b) false

c) compile time error

d) undefined behaviour

Answer: b
If then else statement

62. Which of the following is an invalid if-else statement?

a) if (if (a == 1)){}

b) if (func1 (a)){}

c) if (a){}

d) if ((char) a){}

Answer: a
For loop

64. What will be the output of the following C code?

1. #include <stdio.h>
2. void main()
3. {
4. int k = 0;
5. for (k)
6. printf("Hello");
7. }
a) Compile time error

b) hello

c) Nothing

d) Varies
Answer: a
Switch statements

63. What will be the output of the following C code?

#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int a = 1;
switch (a)
{
case a:
printf("Case A ");
default:
printf("Default");
}
}
a)Output: Case A
b) Output: Default
 c) Output: Case A Default

d) Compile time error

Answer: d

Switch statements

65. Which datatype can accept the switch statement?

a) int

b) char

c) long

d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

Explanation: None.