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THE LATEST BOOK ON TCS PATTERN

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SSC GENERAL AWARENESS

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Curated and Created by SSC TOPPERS Curated and Created by SSC TOPPERS 1st Edition
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UPDATED TILL SEPTEMBER 2022 JANUARY TO SEPTEMBER 2022

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THE BEST COMPILATION OF ALL TCS QUESTIONS
PYQ
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Published by
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SSC_cover.indd 1 13/11/22 3:01 PM

THE LATEST BOOK ON TCS PATTERN
Exams Covered
• CGL Tier 1 (2018 - 2021)
• CPO (2018 - 2020) 4000+ Curated and Created by SSC TOPPERS
• CHSL (2018-2021) Questions
1st Edition
English & Answers

SSC GENERAL AWARENESS

GENERAL AWARENESS
Content Writers THE LATEST BOOK ON TCS PATTERN THE LATEST BOOK ON TCS PATTERN

Curated and Created by SSC TOPPERS Curated and Created by SSC TOPPERS 1st Edition
• HIMANSHU SINGH, AIR 46
Income Tax Inspector
ENGLISH
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GST Inspector ENGLISH ENGLISH

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Assistant Audit Officer 9000+
Questions
9500+
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& Answers & Answers

RSEB JEN RANK 16 SPECIAL COMPILATION BY TEAM 1EQ SPECIALLY CURATED BY TEAM 1EQ

• AMIT RANJAN
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GENERAL AWARENESS
• SRISHTI SAHU
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Proof Reading & Translation 120+ 2500+

Questions
TOPICS

• SAHADEV SINGH RATHORE

& Answers

• PANKAJ YADAV
• SURESH VISHNOI STATIC GK CURRENT AFFAIRS
PART 1 (CHANGES EVERY YEAR) & PART 2 (FACTS) MONTHLY - TOPICWISE - MCQ WITH DETAILED EXPLANATIONS
CHAPTER-WISE COVERAGE OF ALL PYQS ASKED BY TCS
• KUNAL SHANU (SSC CGL, CHSL, CPO 2018 - 2021)
UPDATED TILL SEPTEMBER 2022 JANUARY TO SEPTEMBER 2022

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ANCIENT HISTORY - Pre-Historic Period - Paleolithic Period

Chapter A-1: ANCIENT HISTORY

A1.1. Pre Historic Period .................................................. 1 • Thomas Coryat was an English writer and traveller.
1.1. Paleolithic Period ..................................................... 1 • Marco Polo was an Italian explorer and merchant.
1.2. Mesolithic Period ..................................................... 1 2. 'Piklihal' and 'Utnur' are important ______ sites.
1.3. Neolithic Period ....................................................... 1 (a) Neolithic (b) Megalithic
(c) Monolithic (d) Paleolithic
1.4. Chalcolithic Period .................................................. 1 • Sol: (a); Neolithic
A1.2. Indus Valley Civilisation ........................................ 2 • Piklihal site found in Raichur district of Karnataka whereas
A1.3. Vedic Period ............................................................ 3 Utnur in Telangana.
A1.4. Later Vedic Period .................................................. 6 CHSL 2018

4.1. Mahajanapadas ........................................................ 6 3. Burzahom, the neolithic site, is located in ________.

A1.5. Jainism and Buddhism .......................................... 6 (a) Karnataka (b) Goa
(c) Mizoram (d) Jammu and Kashmir
A1.6. Dynasties of Ancient India ................................... 9
• Sol: (d); Jammu and Kashmir, India
6.1. Haryanka Dynasty ................................................... 9
• Archaeological excavations have revealed four phases of
6.2. Shishunaga Dynasty ................................................ 9 cultural significance between 3000 BCE and 1000 BCE.
6.3. Nanda Dynasty ...................................................... 10 CGL 2021
6.4. Maurya Dynasty .................................................... 10 4. A celt is ______ from the Neolithic period.
6.5. Chandragupta Maurya ......................................... 10 (a) an urn (b) a house
6.6. Bindusara ................................................................ 10 (c) a tomb (d) a tool
• Sol: (d); a tool
6.7. Asoka ....................................................................... 10
Chronologi Name of Prehistorical Time period
6.8. Misc.......................................................................... 11 cal period
6.9. The Indo-Greeks .................................................... 12 sequence
6.10. The Shakas .......................................................... 12 I Paleolithic (Old Stone 2.5 million BC to 8,000
6.11. The Kushanas ..................................................... 12 Age) BC*
6.12. The Sunga Dynasty ........................................... 12 II Mesolithic (Middle Stone 9,000 BC to 4000 BC*
Age)
6.13. Gupta Period ...................................................... 12
III Neolithic (New Stone 7000 BC to 1000 BC*
6.14. Chandragupta 1 ................................................. 13 Age)
6.15. Samudragupta ................................................... 13 IV Chalcolithic 2100 BC to 700 BC*
6.16. Chandragupta 2 ................................................. 13 • Two pieces of celt (stone tools) in the shape of an axe head,
6.17. Pushyabhuti Dynasty........................................ 14 presumably of a prehistoric origin, were discovered a
couple of days ago in Zep village from an excavation site at
6.18. The Cholas .......................................................... 15 Vangchhia in Mizoram’s Champhai district.
6.19. Rashtrakutas....................................................... 16 • Archaeologists said the two celt pieces are of remarkable
6.20. Misc ..................................................................... 16 importance as the tools may date back to the Neolithic
A1.7. Important Foreign Envoys and their literature 18 period.
A1.8. Art, Literature and Architecture ......................... 18 1.4. Chalcolithic Period
CGL 2021
A1.1. Pre-Historic Period
5. The Bhaja Caves are located in ______.
a. Bihar b. Uttar Pradesh
1.1. Paleolithic Period c. Rajasthan d. Maharashtra
• Sol: (d); Maharashtra
1.2. Mesolithic Period • Bhaja Caves is a group of 22 rock-cut caves dating back to
the 2nd century BC located in the city of Pune,
1.3. Neolithic Period Maharashtra.
CHSL 2019 • Ajanta Ellora Caves, Maharashtra
1. Which explorer discovered a sea route to India in 1498? • Bagh Caves, Madhya Pradesh
(a) Megasthenes (b) Vasco da Gama • Bhimbetka Caves, Madhya Pradesh
(c) Marco Polo (d) Thomas Coryat • Udayagiri Caves, Odisha
• Sol: (b); Vasco da Gama
• Elephanta Caves, Maharashtra
• He was the first European to reach India in May 1498, by
• Badami Caves, Karnataka
sailing around Africa.
CGL 2018
• Vasco da Gama was a Portuguese navigator.
6. Jorwe culture' was a Chalcolithic archaeological site
• Megasthenes was an ancient Greek diplomat and historian.
located in the present-day Indian state of .

1
MEDIEVAL HISTORY - Foundation of the Delhi Sultanate - Ilbari Dynasty

Chapter A-2: MEDIEVAL HISTORY – INDIA

A2.1. Foundation Of The Delhi Sultanate ...................... 22 3. The first Invasion of Muhammad Ghori was in ______
1.1. ILBARI DYNASTY ...................................................... 22 when he attacked Multan.
(a) 1287 AD (b) 1475 AD
1.2. KHALJI DYNASTY ..................................................... 24 (c) 1089 AD (d) 1175 AD
1.3. TUGHLAQ DYNASTY ................................................ 25 • Sol. (d); The first Invasion of Muhammad Ghori was in
1.4. SAYYIDS DYNASTY ................................................... 26 1175 AD when he attacked Multan.
1.5. LODI DYNASTY ........................................................ 26 • He was the founder of Muslim rule in India. He ruled
A2.2. The Vijayanagara Kingdom .................................... 26 from 1173 to 1206.
A2.3. The Bahmani Kingdom ........................................... 27 • Qutb-ud-din Aybak was his successor and the first Muslim
Sultan of Delhi.
A2.4. Mughal Empire ......................................................... 27
• He is known to have started the Slave Dynasty and was the
4.1. BABUR............................................................................. 27
first of the Five sultanates which ruled Delhi before the
4.2. HUMAYUN ..................................................................... 28 Mughals.
4.3. AKBAR ............................................................................ 29 • It was the second Battle of Tarain which opened the Delhi
4.4. JAHANGIR ....................................................................... 31 area to Muhammad Ghori. In 1192 AD, he invaded again
4.5. SHAHJAHAN ................................................................... 31 after the 1191 AD invasion with more soldiers and
weapons. He defeated Prithvi Raj Chauhan and captured
4.6. AURANGZEB ................................................................... 33
Delhi.
4.7. MISC ............................................................................... 33
• The Battle of Chandawar was fought between Muhammad
A2.5. Sur Dynasty ............................................................... 33 Ghori and Jaichand of Kannauj of the Gahadavala dynasty
A2.6. Later Mughals ............................................................ 33 in 1194.
A2.7. Marathas ..................................................................... 34 CPO 2019

A2.8. Peshwas ...................................................................... 35 4. Who among the following Delhi Sultans described Swan
A2.9. Sikh Gurus ................................................................. 35 as a descendant of the ancient hero Afrasiab, to mark his
birth as great?
A2.10. Important Battles In History .............................. 36
(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Iltutmish
A2.11. Art, Literature, And Architecture ...................... 36 (c) Qutb-ud-din-Aibak (d) Balban
A2.12. Misc ......................................................................... 38 • Sol. (d); Balban traced his descent to the ancient
warrior Afrasiyab in order to fabricate a noble birth for
A2.1. Foundation of the Delhi Sultanate himself.
• Balban belonged to Slave Dynasty.
1.1. Ilbari Dynasty • He introduced the practice of paibos and sajda.
CPO 2018
• He established the military department Diwan-i-Arz
1. The________ dynasty which ruled North India from 1206 to
CHSL 2020
1290 was established by Qutbuddin Aibak.
(a) Slave (b) Khilji 5. Who among the following sultans of the Delhi Sultanate
(c) Lodi (d) Taghlaq appointed Ghiyasuddin Balban as his/her Prime Minister?
• Sol. (a); Slave Dynasty or Ghulam Dynasty was founded (a) Raziyya (b) Muizuddin Bahram
by Qutub-ud-Din Aibak which ruled north India from 1206 (c) Nasiruddin Mahmud (d) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
to 1290. • Sol: (c); Nasiruddin Mahmud Appointed Ghiyasuddin
Balban as His Prime Minister.
• He was the slave of Muhammad Ghori and became the
first Muslim sultan of the Delhi Sultanate. • Nasiruddin Mahmud also known as Darveshi King was
son of Iltutmish.
• This dynasty is known as Slave dynasty as three of the
rulers i.e. Qutub-ud-Din Aibak, Iltutmish and Balban were • Balban was a patron of Persian Literature and showed
slaves prior to coming in power. favour to Amit Khusro .
2. The Second Battle of Tarain was fought in the year______. • Balban started Navroz Festival and adopted policy of
(a) 1345 AD (b) 1294 AD Blood and Iron.
(c) 1192 AD (d) 1079 AD CHSL 2018
• Sol. (c); The Second Battle of Tarain was fought in the year 6. _____________ attacked the southern coast of Kathiawar
1192. along the Arabian Sea, where he sacked the city of
• In the Second Battle of Tarain, Mohammad Ghori defeated Somnath and its renowned Hindu temple in 1026.
Prithviraj Chauhan and that victory lead to the (a) Firoz Shah Tugalaq (b) Mahmud of Ghazni
establishment of Delhi Sultanate. (c) Ahmed Shah Tugalaq (d) Muhammad Ghori
• He laid the foundation for Muslim Rule in India and is also • Sol: (b); Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni attacked India 17 times
known as the 'founder of Muslim Rule' in the country. in order to plunder the wealth of the country. It was the
first Turkish invasion of the country. He raided the
• He was defeated in the First Battle of Tarain in the year Somnath Temple on the coast of Kathiawar in the year
1191 by Prithviraj Chauhan.

22
MEDIEVAL HISTORY - The Advent of the Europeans - Portuguese

Chapter A-3: MODERN HISTORY – INDIA

A3.1. The Advent of the Europeans ............................. 43 8.35. Mountbatten Plan .............................................. 67
1.1. Portuguese .............................................................. 43 8.36. Partition and Independence ............................. 67
1.2. Dutch ....................................................................... 44 8.37. Misc ..................................................................... 68
1.3. English ..................................................................... 44 A3.9. Socio-Religious Movements in the 19th and
1.4. Danes ....................................................................... 44 20th Century ............................................................................ 77
1.5. French ...................................................................... 44
A3.2. British East India Company ................................ 44 A3.1. The Advent of the Europeans
A3.3. Governor Generals of Bengal ............................. 47
A3.4. Governor Generals of India ................................ 47 1.1. Portuguese
A3.5. Viceroys of India ................................................... 48 CPO 2019
A3.6. The Revolt of 1857 ................................................ 51 1. Which explorer discovered a sea route to India in 1498?
A3.7. Facts and Events related to Mahatma Gandhi . 52 (a) Megasthenes (b) Vasco da Gama
(c) Marco Polo (d) Thomas Coryat
A3.8. Chief National Activities..................................... 55 • Sol: (b); Vasco da Gama
8.1. The Indian National Congress ............................. 55
• Vasco da Gama discovered a sea route to India in 1498.
8.2. Partition of Bengal ................................................. 57
• He was the first European to reach India in May 1498, by
8.3. Swadeshi Movement ............................................. 58 sailing around Africa.
8.4. Muslim League ...................................................... 58 • Vasco da Gama was a Portuguese navigator.
8.5. Demand for Swaraj ................................................ 58 • Megasthenes was an ancient Greek diplomat and historian.
8.6. Surat Session ........................................................... 58 ‘Indica’ was written by him.
8.7. Morley Minto Reforms .......................................... 58 • Thomas Coryat was an English writer and traveler.
8.8. Ghadar party .......................................................... 59 • Marco Polo was an Italian explorer and merchant.
8.9. Home Rule Movement .......................................... 59 CPO 2020

8.10. Lucknow Pact..................................................... 59 2. Who among the following was the first Portuguese viceroy
of India?
8.11. August Declaration ........................................... 59
(a) Alfonso de Albuquerque (b) Duarte de Menezes
8.12. Rowlatt Act......................................................... 59 (c) Francisco de Almeida (d) Lopo Soares de Albergaria
8.13. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ............................... 60 • Sol: (c); Francisco de Almeida
8.14. Khilafat Movement ........................................... 60 • In 1505 CE, Francisco de Almeida was sent to India as the
8.15. Non-Cooperation Movement .......................... 60 first governor of Portuguese possessions in India.
8.16. Chauri Chaura Incident .................................... 61 • He established Portuguese hegemony in the Indian Ocean
in 1509.
8.17. Swaraj Party ....................................................... 61
• He is credited for implementing ‘Blue Water Policy”. It
8.18. Simon Commission ........................................... 61
was also known as Cartaz system.
8.19. The Nehru Report.............................................. 61 CGL 2018
8.20. Lahore Session ................................................... 61 3. In which year did Vasco De Gama land in Calicut
8.21. Dandi March ...................................................... 62 (Kozikode)?
8.22. Civil Disobedience Movement ........................ 62 (a) 1442 (b) 1458
(c) 1472 (d) 1498
8.23. First Round Table Conference ......................... 62
• Sol: (d); 1498
8.24. Gandhi Irwin Pact ............................................. 62
• Long after the decline of the Roman Empire's sea-borne
8.25. Second Round Table Conference .................... 64 trade with India, the Portuguese were the next Europeans
8.26. The Communal Award ..................................... 64 to sail there for the purpose of trade, first arriving by ship
8.27. Poona Pact .......................................................... 64 in May 1498.

8.28. Third Round Table Conference ....................... 64 • Vasco da Gama was the first Portugese to come to India.
CGL 2019
8.29. Demand for Pakistan ........................................ 65
4. In which year did the Portuguese capture Goa?
8.30. The Cripps Mission ........................................... 65 (a) 1510 AD (b) 1475 AD
8.31. The Revolt of 1942 and the Quit India (c) 1540 AD (d) 1610 AD
Movement ............................................................................ 65 • Solution: (a); 1510 AD
8.32. Indian National Army ...................................... 66 • Portuguese captured Goa in 1510 AD.
8.33. Formation of Constituent Assembly ............... 67 • Afonso de Albuquerque - Portuguese admiral at that time
8.34. Jinnah's Direction Action Resolution .............. 67 captured Goa.

43
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY - Earth and Universe - Universe

Chapter B: GEOGRAPHY
B-1. PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY ............................................... 80 B-2.6.5. Landforms and Relief ......................................... 127
B-1.1. EARTH AND UNIVERSE ................................................. 80 B-2.6.6. Animal husbandry .............................................. 128
B-1.1.1. Universe ................................................................. 80 B-2.7. NATURAL VEGETATION AND FAUNA ......................... 129
B-1.1.2. The Solar System ................................................... 82 B-2.7.1. Classification of natural vegetation .................. 129
B-1.1.3. Origin and interior of the earth ........................... 85 B-2.7.2. Rainfall distribution in India ............................. 129
B-1.1.4. Latitude and Longitude ....................................... 86 B-2.7.3. Biosphere reserves, national parks, etc. ............ 129
B-1.1.5. Types and characteristics of rocks ...................... 87 B-2.8. ECONOMIC INFRASTRUCTURE ................................... 132
B-1.1.6. Volcanoes, and earthquakes ................................ 88 B-2.8.1. Transportation (highways, inland waterways,
B-1.2. CLIMATE AND WEATHER............................................. 88 etc.) ............................................................................... 132
B-1.2.1. Atmosphere – structure and composition ......... 88 B-2.8.2. Power and energy sector .................................... 133
B-1.2.2. Pressure belts of the Earth ................................... 90 B-2.8.3. Conventional and non-conventional sources of
B-1.2.3. Wind systems ........................................................ 90 energy ............................................................................... 134
B-1.2.4. Clouds and types of rainfall ................................ 90 B-2.8.4. Energy conservation ........................................... 134
B-1.2.5. Cyclones ................................................................. 91 B-2.9. POPULATION AND TRIBES ......................................... 134
B-1.3. OCEANOGRAPHY ......................................................... 91 B-2.9.1. Demographics ...................................................... 134
B-1.3.1. Oceans on the Earth .............................................. 91 B-2.9.2. Recent census ....................................................... 134
B-1.3.2. Ocean currents....................................................... 93 B-3. WORLD GEOGRAPHY................................................... 135
B-1.3.3. El Nino and La Nina ............................................. 93 B-3.1. CONTINENTS OF THE WORLD .................................... 135
B-1.3.4. Waves and tides .................................................... 93 B-3.1.1. Asia........................................................................ 135
B-1.4. ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY ................................... 94 B-3.1.2. 1.2 Africa............................................................... 136
B-1.4.1. Soil .......................................................................... 94 B-3.1.3. North America ..................................................... 136
B-1.4.2. Forests and Grasslands ........................................ 94 B-3.1.4. Latin America ...................................................... 136
B-1.4.3. Ecosystem and Vegetation ................................... 95 B-3.1.5. Europe................................................................... 136
B-1.4.4. Environmental conservation ............................... 96 B-3.1.6. Australia ............................................................... 136
B-2. INDIAN GEOGRAPHY .................................................... 97 B-3.1.7. Antarctica ............................................................. 136
B-2.1. POLITICAL GEOGRAPHY .............................................. 97 B-3.2. IMPORTANT RIVERS OF THE WORLD......................... 136
B-2.1.1. Location, latitude, longitude, time zone, etc. .... 97 B-3.3. IMPORTANT LAKES OF THE WORLD .......................... 138
B-2.1.2. Neighbours ............................................................ 99 B-3.4. IMPORTANT DESERTS OF THE WORLD ...................... 139
B-2.1.3. Important straits.................................................. 101 B-3.5. IMPORTANT MOUNTAINS OF THE WORLD ............... 139
B-2.1.4. States and their position ..................................... 101 B-3.6. MISCELLANEOUS ........................................................ 140
B-2.1.5. States with international boundaries ................ 103
B-2.2. PHYSIOGRAPHY ......................................................... 104 B-1. PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
B-2.2.1. The Himalayas .................................................... 104 B-1.1. Earth and Universe
B-2.2.2. The Great North Indian Plains .......................... 108
B-1.1.1. Universe
B-2.2.3. Peninsular Plateau .............................................. 108
CGL 2020
B-2.2.4. Indian Desert ....................................................... 110
B-2.2.5. Coastal plains and islands ................................. 110 1. Which of the following was not a part of Gondwanaland?
(a) India (b) North America
B-2.3. DRAINAGE SYSTEM .................................................... 112
(c) South America (d) Australia
B-2.3.1. Himalayan rivers ................................................ 112
• Sol. (b); Gondwana, also called Gondwanaland, ancient
B-2.3.2. Peninsular rivers ................................................. 114
supercontinent that incorporated present-day South
B-2.3.3. River basins.......................................................... 117 America, Africa, Arabia, Madagascar, India, Australia,
B-2.3.4. Hydropower projects, major dams ................... 119 and Antarctica.
B-2.3.5. West-flowing and east-flowing rivers .............. 121 • It was fully assembled by Late Precambrian time, some
B-2.4. CLIMATE .................................................................... 122 600 million years ago, and the first stage of its breakup
B-2.4.1. Monsoons ............................................................. 122 began in the Early Jurassic Period, about 180 million years
B-2.4.2. Seasons ................................................................. 123 ago.
B-2.4.3. Cyclones ............................................................... 123 CGL 2019
B-2.5. MINERALS AND INDUSTRIES ..................................... 123 2. Objects that shine in the night sky are known as:
B-2.6. SOIL AND AGRICULTURE ........................................... 125 (a) constellations (b) celestial bodies
B-2.6.1. Types of agricultural practices .......................... 125 (c) asteroids (d) meteoroids
B-2.6.2. Green revolution ................................................. 125 • Sol. (b); The sun, the moon, and all those objects shining in
B-2.6.3. Soils and crops..................................................... 125 the night sky are called celestial bodies. Some celestial
bodies are very big and hot. They are made up of gases.
B-2.6.4. Irrigation .............................................................. 127

80
POLITY - Constitution Development - Evolution of Constitution

Chapter C: POLITY
C-1. Constitution Development ............................................. 144 • The States Reorganisation Act, 1956:
C-1.1. EVOLUTION OF CONSTITUTION .................................. 144 • An Act to provide for the reorganisation of the States of
C-1.2. CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY AND ITS IMPORTANT India and matters connected there with. The States
COMMITTEES .................................................................................. 146 Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major reform of the
C-1.3. DIFFERENT SOURCES OF THE CONSTITUTION ............ 148 boundaries of India's states and territories, organising
C-2. Preamble, Parts, Schedules Of The Constitution ....... 148 them along linguistic lines.
C-3. Union And Its Territories And Citizenship................. 150 • The State reorganization commission consisted of H N
C-4. Fundamental Rights And Duties ................................... 153 Kunzru, Fazal Ali and K M Panikkar.
C-5. Directive Principle Of State Policy ............................... 157 • Andhra State was the first state of Independent India.
C-6. Union Executive ................................................................ 158 Andhra Pradesh was formed on 1st November 1956
C-6.1. PRESIDENT .................................................................. 158 3. When was the Tenth Session of the Constituent Assembly
C-6.2. VICE PRESIDENT ......................................................... 160 held?
C-6.3. PRIME MINISTER & CABINET MINISTERS .................... 161 (a) 6-17 October 1949 (b) 4 November 1948 - 8 January 1949
C-7. Union Parliament ............................................................. 163 (c) 16 May - 16 June 1949 (d) 14-31 July 1947
• Sol: (a); 6-17 October 1949
C-7.1. LOK SABHA ................................................................. 163
C-7.2. RAJYA SABHA ............................................................. 167 What was the total The assembly had met for 11 sessions
number of
C-8. State Executive And Legislature .................................... 169
sessions
C-8.1. GOVERNOR ................................................................. 169
constituent
C-8.2. CHIEF MINISTER ......................................................... 171 assembly had?
C-8.3. STATE LEGISLATURE ................................................... 171 When was the The draft was published in January
C-9. Judiciary ............................................................................. 171 draft of the Indian 1948 and the country’s people were
C-9.1. SUPREME COURT ........................................................ 172 Constitution asked for their feedback and inputs
C-9.2. HIGH COURT .............................................................. 173 published? within 8 months
C-10. Local Self-Government ................................................... 174 What is the date of The last session was held during 14 –
the last session? 26 November 1949. The constitution
C-10.1. PANCHAYATS ............................................................. 174
was passed and adopted by the
C-10.2. MUNICIPALITIES ......................................................... 175 assembly on 26 November 1949
C-11. Important Articles Of The Constitution ....................... 175 CGL 2020
C-12. Emergency Provisions And Important Amendments Of 4. Which of the following Acts introduced federal features
The Constitution ............................................................................. 179 and provincial autonomy in the legislature and also made
C-13. Election ............................................................................... 184 provisions for the distribution of legislative powers
C-14. National Symbols ............................................................. 186 between the Centre and the provinces?
C-15. Miscellaneous ................................................................... 186 (a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(b) The Government of India Act, 1858
(c) The Government of India Act, 1919
C-1. Constitution Development
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1909
• Sol: (a); The Government of India Act, 1935
C-1.1. Evolution of Constitution
CGL 2021 • It provided for the establishment of an All-India federation
1. On which day was the National Emblem of India adopted? consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
(a) 15th August 1952 (b) 15th August 1947 • It divided the powers between the centre and units in
(c) 26th January 1959 (d) 26th January 1950 terms of three lists- Federal list, provincial list and the
• Sol: (d); 26th January 1950 concurrent list. Residuary powers were given to the
Viceroy. However, this federation never fructified since
• The Government of India adopted the Lion Capital as the
princely states did not join it.
National Emblem on 26 January 1950.
• It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced
• The Indian National Emblem was adopted from the Lion ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place
Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. It consists of four lions,
standing back-to-back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze • The act introduced responsible government in provinces;
carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a that is, the governor was required to act with the advice of
galloping horse, a bull, and a lion separated by intervening ministers responsible to the provincial legislature
wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. • It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the centre.
2. In which of the following years was an Act to provide for However, this provision did not come into effect at all
the reorganisation of the states of India and for matters • Bicameralism was introduced in six provinces- Bengal,
connected there with enacted? Bombay Madras, Bihar, Assam, and the United Provinces
(a) 1962 (b) 1959 • Separate electorates were further extended to depressed
(c) 1956 (d) 1947 classes, women and labour
• Sol: (c); 1956

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POLITY - Constitution Development - Evolution of Constitution
CGL 2019 CHSL 2019
CGL 2018
9. On which day is Constitution Day celebrated every year in
5. There was a group of seven Members of Parliament from India?
the United Kingdom, constituted to suggest constitutional (a) 30 November (b) 15 October
reforms for British India. (c) 26 November (d) 2 October
(a) Fraser Commission (b) Hunter Commission • Sol: (c); Constitution Day, also known as 'Samvidhan
(c) Sargent Commission (d) Simon Commission Divas', is celebrated in our country on 26th November
• Sol: (d); The Simon Commission (1927) was a group of every year to commemorate the adoption of the
seven Members of Parliament from the United Kingdom, Constitution of India.
constituted to suggest constitutional reforms for British
• On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of
India.
India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into
• Sir John Simon was its chairman. effect on 26th January 1950.
• A protest it was led by nationalist Lala Lajpat Rai in 10. In which year did Motilal Nehru (Chairman) and eight
Lahore, during which he died because of his injuries in other Congress leaders draft a constitution for India?
1928. (a) 1930 (b) 1928
• The Sargent commission was a 1944 memorandum (c) 1925 (d) 1950
prepared by the British-run Government of India. It • Sol: (b); In 1928, Motilal Nehru (Chairman) and eight other
outlined the future development of literacy and education Congress leaders draft a constitution for India.
in India. • It was known as Nehru Report.
• The McGovern–Fraser Commission was created by the • It remains memorable as the first significant Indian effort
Democratic National Committee (DNC) in response to the to draft a constitutional framework for India.
Democratic National Convention 1968.
11. Who among the following drafted Article 370 of the
• Hunter Commission,1882, was the first education Constitution of India?
commission in the history of modern India. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Raghu bar Das
CHSL 2021 (c) Gopala swami Ayyangar (d) Bhim Rao Ambedkar
6. Who among the following described the Indian • Sol: (c); Gopala swami Ayyangar was the chief drafter of
Constitution as ‘quasi federal’? Article 370, which granted local autonomy to the state of
(a) MV Pylee (b) Gunnar Myrdal Jammu and Kashmir.
(c) AV Dicey (d) KC Wheare • He was an Indian civil servant and statesman who served
• Sol: (d); Explanation: According to KC Wheare, in practice, as the Prime Minister of the princely state of Jammu and
the Constitution of India is quasi-federal in nature and not Kashmir.
strictly federal.
• He was a member of the drafting committee of the
7. Which of the following is NOT a federal feature of the Constitution of India.
Indian Constitution?
12. In which year did the first Elected Parliament with two
(a) Dual Government (b) Division of Powers
houses come into being in India?
(c) All India Services (d) Written Constitution
(a) 1953 (b) 1952
• Sol: (c); Explanation: features of federalism are: (1) Clear
(c) 1955 (d) 1954
division of powers between the Centre and the states, (2)
• Sol: (b); The first general elections under the new
Independent Judiciary, (3) Bicameral Legislature, (4) Dual
Constitution were held during the year 1951-52 and the
government polity,
first elected Parliament came into existence in April 1952.
CHSL 2020
• The First Session of this Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May
8. A ______ helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all
1952.
persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of the way
in which they want the country to be governed. • Total Lok Sabha seats at that time were 489.
(a) draft (b) preamble CHSL 2018
(c) constitution (d) document CPO 2020

• Sol: (c); Constitution specifies the type of government for a 13. Who among the following was one of the speakers after
country and how it should function. It lays down limits on Jawaharlal Nehru to address the Parliament on the
the powers of the government. It lays down the rights and midnight of 15 August 1947?
duties of the citizens. (a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
• It helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all (c) C Rajagopalachari (d) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
persons in a country can agree upon as the basis of how • Sol: (d); There were three speakers at the Centre Hall of
they want the country to be governed. Parliament on the midnight of 15 August 1947.

• The preamble contains ideals that the Constitution seeks to • Jawaharlal Nehru, Chaudhary Khaliquzaman and Dr.
achieve. It gives direction and purpose to the Constitution. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
It also enshrines the grand objectives and socio-economic • S Radhakrishnan speaks after the Jawaharlal Nehra at that
goals which are to be achieved through constitutional night.
processes. 14. Which of the following statements is NOT true about C
Rajagopalachari?
(a) He was a senior leader of the Congress

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POLITY - Constitution Development - Constituent Assembly and its important committees

(b) He was the founder of the Swatantra Party • Dr. Sacchidananda Sinha was the first temporary chair
(c) He was the first Indian to become the Governor General man of the Constituent Assembly. Later, Dr. Rajendra
of India Prasad was elected as the President and its Vice President
(d) He was the first recipient of the Padma Shree Award was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee.
• Sol: (d); C Rajagopalachari was India's first and last Indian 17. How many female members were part of the Constituent
Governor General. Assembly that framed the Constitution of India?
• He was a senior leader of the Indian National Congress. (a) 10 (b) 14
(c) 12 (d) 15
• He founded Swatantra Party in 1959.
• Sol: (d); 15
• He was one of the first recipients of the Bharat Ratna along
with Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and C. V. Raman in 1954. • Out of 389 members of the Constituent Assembly, only 15
were women.
CPO 2019
15. The abolition of Dyarchy in the provinces was • The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the
recommended by the ______. Constitution of India, and served as its first Parliament as
an independent nation. It was set up as a result of
(a) Government of India Act of 1947
negotiations between the leaders of the Indian
(b) Government of India Act of 1858 independence movement and members of the British
(c) Government of India Act of 1919 Cabinet Mission.
(d) Government of India Act of 1935
• The idea for a Constituent Assembly was proposed in 1934
• Sol: (d); The abolition of Dyarchy in the provinces was by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of the Communist movement in
recommended by the Government of India Act of 1935. India and an advocate of radical democracy.
• British Parliament adopted it in August 1935. • The elections for the formation of the Assembly were held
• This was the longest act enacted so far by the British as directed by the Cabinet Mission plan of 1946
Parliament and was later split into two parts. Government 18. Who was the chairman of the House Committee of the
of India Act of 1935 and the State of Burma Act of 1935. Constituent Assembly of India?
• It extracted content from four primary sources viz. Report (a) KM Munsi
of the Simon Commission, discussions at the Third Round (b) JB Kripalani
Table Conference, the reports of the Joint select committees (c) B Pattabhi Sitaramayya
and the White Paper of 1933. (d) AV Thakkar
• The Indian Government Act of 1919 was passed to increase • Sol: (c); B Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Indians' involvement in the Indian government. Major Committees of the Indian Constituent Assembly with
• The government of India Act of 1858 provided for the Chairman–
winding up of the Former East India Company. • Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: J.B Kripalani
• It is called the Blueprint of the Indian Constitution. • House Committee: B Pattabhi Sitaramayya
C-1.2. Constituent Assembly and its important committees • Order of Business Committee: K.M. Munshi
CGL 2021 • Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee:
16. With reference to the Constituent Assembly, which of the A.V. Thakkar
following statements is correct? 19. The Constituent Assembly was recognised by Section ______
(a) The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Flag in of the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
July 1949. (a) 10(1) (b) 8(1)
(b) The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Song in (c) 6(2) (d) 12(2)
January 1948. • Sol: (b); 8(1)
(c) The Constituent Assembly ratified India’s membership of
• The first formal demand for the Constituent Assembly was
the Commonwealth in May 1947.
made at the Swaraj Party Conference on 3rd May 1934
(d) The Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem which rejected the White Paper proposals (which were
in January 1950. incorporated in the Government of India Act, 1935).
• Sol: (d); The Constituent Assembly adopted the National
Anthem in January 1950. • The plan formulated by the Cabinet Mission (comprising
of Frederick Pethick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State and
• On July 22, 1947, the Constituent Assembly adopted it as two cabinet ministers, Sir Stanfford Cripps and A.V.
Free Indian National Flag. Alexander) famously known as the Cabinet Mission Plan,
• The National Anthem of India Jana-gana-mana, composed 1946 created the Constituent Assembly of India.
originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted • The Assembly was recognized by Section 8 of the Indian
in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the Independence Act, 1947.
National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950.
• Most of the members elected to Constituent Assembly
• The Constituent Assembly ratified India's membership of were male Hindus. However, there were 15 women
the Commonwealth in May 1949. representatives to the Assembly, and all major religious
• In 1934, M N Roy was the first to propose the idea of a communities were represented by at least two members
constituent assembly. from each community.
• Constituent Assembly 1st meeting on - December 9,1946

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POLITY - Constitution Development - Constituent Assembly and its important committees

20. GV Mavlankar was the Chairman of the ______ of the - Minorities Sub-Committee – Harendra Coomar Mookerjee,
Constituent Assembly of India. - North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded &
(a) Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee – Gopinath
and Tribal and Excluded Areas Bordoloi
(b) Committee on the Functions
- Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Apart from those
(c) Order of Business Committee in Assam) Sub-Committee – A V Thakkar
(d) Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag
• Rules of Procedure Committee – Rajendra Prasad
• Sol: (b); Committee on the Functions
• States Committee (Committee for negotiating with states) –
• Committee on Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas -
Jawaharlal Nehru
Vallabhbhai Patel
• Steering Committee – Rajendra Prasad
• Order of Business Committee - K.M. Munshi
• National Flag and HOC Committee – Rajendra Prasad
• Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag - Rajendra
Prasad • Committee for the function of the Constitution Assembly –
G V Mavlankar
21. Who among the following became a part of the Constituent
Assembly from Madras Constituency in 1946? • House Committee – B Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(a) Hansa Jivraj Mehta (b) Kamla Chaudhry • Language Committee – Moturi Satyanarayana
(c) Ammu Swaminathan (d) Begum Aizaz Rasul • Order of Business Committee – K M Munshi
• Sol: (c); Ammu Swaminathan
CHSL 2019
• Ammu Swaminathan was an upper-caste Hindu family in 24. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the
Anakkara of Palghat district, Keral Constitution of India?
• She formed the Women’s India Association in 1917 in (a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Madras, along with Annie Besant, Margaret Cousins, (c) Mohammad Saadullah (d) K.M. Munshi
Malathi Patwardhan, Dadabhoy and Ambujammal. • Sol: - (a); B. R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the drafting
• She became a part of the Constituent Assembly from the committee of the Constitution of India.
Madras Constituency in 1946 • He is also called architect of the constitution.
22. The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly was • Drafting committee was constituted on 29 th August 1946
consisted of ______ members. and had seven members.
(a) 9 (b) 8
25. When was the first Constituent Assembly election held in
(c) 7 (d) 14 India?
• Sol: (c); 7 (a) 1947 (b) 1946
• The Drafting Committee had seven members: Alladi (c) 1949 (d) 1948
Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami; B.R. Ambedkar, • Sol: - (b); The first Constituent Assemble election held in
K.M Munshi, Mohammad Saadulla, B.L. Mitter and D.P. India in 1946.
Khaitan. At its first meeting on 30th August 1947, the
• Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as
Drafting Committee elected B.R Ambedkar as its
the Assembly's first Chairman(temporary).
Chairman.
• Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the President of the
• Towards the end of October 1947, the Drafting Committee
Constituent Assembly and H.C Mukherjee was elected the
began to scrutinise the Draft Constitution prepared by the
Vice President. B N Rau was made the Constitutional
B.N Rau, the Constitutional Advisor.
Advisor.
CGL 2020
CPO 2020
23. The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was
26. In 1946, who among the following was made the interim
389, of which ______ were representatives of princely
president of the Indian Constituent Assembly?
states.
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Sachchidananda Sinha
(a) 93 (b) 84
(c) S Subramaniya Iyer (d) Sachindranath Sanyal
(c) 102 (d) 109
• Sol: - (b); Dr Sachichidananda Sinha, the oldest member,
• SOL: : (a); 93
was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent
• The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was Assembly.
389, of which 93 were representatives of princely states.
• The Consistent Assembly met for the first time on 9
Major Committees December 1946.
• Drafting Committee – B. R. Ambedkar • The Constituent Assembly officially framed the
• Union Power Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru Constitution of India.
• Union Constitution Committee – Jawaharlal Nehru • On the second meeting on December 11, 1946, Dr Rajendra
• Provincial Constitution Committee – Vallabhbhai Patel Prasad was elected as President of the assembly.

• Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities

and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Vallabhbhai Patel. This
committee had the following subcommittees:
- Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J. B. Kripalani

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POLITY - Preamble, Parts, Schedules of The Constitution - Different Sources of the Constitution

C-1.3. Different Sources of the Constitution • Javan: Critically Endangered

CGL 2021
• Sumatran Rhino: Critically Endangered It has gone extinct
27. The idea of having a provision for a Bicameral Parliament in Malaysia.
in the Constitution of India was borrowed from the ______
• Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India.
Constitution.
(a) British (b) Canadian • Also known as Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino
(c) Irish (d) French species.
• Sol: British • Protection Status: Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I.
UK- 31. Which of the following words does NOT precede the word
• Parliamentary government ‘Republic’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(a) Sovereign (b) Democratic
• Rule of Law
(c) Federal (d) Socialist
• Legislative procedure • Sol: (c); Federal
• Single Citizenship • 'Federal' is NOT mentioned in the Preamble of the
• Cabinet system Constitution of India. The Preamble of the Constitution of
India provides for the liberty of thought, expression, belief,
• Prerogative writs
faith and worship.
• Parliamentary privileges
• The Preamble is the mirror of the Constitution. It briefly
• Bicameralism gives a glimpse of the entire Constitution.
CHSL 2021
• The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent
28. The idea of a single citizenship in the Constitution of India Assembly on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26
was borrowed from: January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day in India.
(a) United Kingdom (b) Austria
• According to the Preamble, the Constitution gets its power
(c) France (d) Germany
from the people of India. In other words, people of India
• Sol: (a); The Constitution of India gives single citizenship
are source of power of the Constitution.
to the country's people. All the people, irrespective of the
states or territories in which they reside, are the country's • The Preamble declares India as a sovereign, socialist,
citizens. This is unlike the USA, where a citizen is a citizen secular, and democratic republic.
of USA and the state in which he/she lives. This Concept • According to the Preamble, the purpose of the Constitution
of Single Citizenship was borrowed from the British is to promote brotherhood in order to ensure justice,
Constitution. freedom, equality for all citizens and unity and integrity of
CHSL 2019 the nation.
29. The concept of fundamental duties in the Constitution of 32. How many Schedules did the Constitution of India
India was taken from: contain as of April 2021?
(a) USSR (b) USA (a) 16 (b) 12
(c) Germany (d) Australia (c) 14 (d) 10
• Sol: (a); The concept of Fundamental duties was taken • Sol: (b); 12
from the USSR. • It had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules at the time of
• The Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IVA of the its commencement.
Constitution of India. • Now the Constitution of India has 448 articles in 25 parts
• There were 10 fundamental duties originally, but now and 12 schedules and to add to these all 105 amendments
there are 11 fundamental duties. CGL 2020
33. Through which amendment was the Tenth Schedule added
C-2. Preamble, Parts, Schedules of The Constitution to the Constitution of India?
CGL 2021 (a) 42nd (b) 53rd
30. The greater one-horned rhino is listed under the Schedule (c) 43rd (d) 52nd
______ of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. • Sol: (d); 52nd
(a) II (b) III • 52nd amendment comprises provision against political
(c) IV (d) I defections.
• Sol: (d); I • It deals with anti-defection law
• There are five species of rhino – white and black rhinos in • The Tenth Schedule - popularly known as the Anti-
Africa, and the greater one-horned, Javan and Sumatran Defection Act - was included in the Constitution via
rhino species in Asia. the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
• Black Rhino: Critically endangered. Smaller of the two • It sets the provisions for disqualification of elected
African species. members on the grounds of defection to another political
• White Rhino: Near Threatened. Researchers have created party.
an embryo of the northern white rhino by using In Vitro CGL 2019
Fertilization (IVF) process. 34. Part VIII of the Constitution of India deals with .
• One-Horned Rhino: Vulnerable (a) States (b) Municipalities

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POLITY - Preamble, Parts, Schedules of The Constitution - Different Sources of the Constitution

(c) Union Territories (d) Panchayats • IN Original Constitution There Are Only 08 Schedules,
• Solution: (c); Union Territories Later Four More Added And Hence No. are 12 .
• PART VIII: the union territories CHSL 2019

• 239 Administration of Union territories. 239A Creation of 40. Who described the preamble of Indian Constitution as the
local Legislatures or Council of Ministers or both for 'Political horoscope of the Indian Constitution'?
certain Union territories. 239AA Special provisions with (a) Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi (b) NA Palkhiwala
respect to Delhi. 239AB Provision in case of failure of (c) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar (d) Thakurdas Bhargav
constitutional machinery. • Sol: (a); K. M. Munshi called the preamble of the
35. Which of the following schedules of the Constitution of Constitution as the “Political Horoscope” as it defined the
India has been INCORRECTLY matched with its content? establishment of governance in the country.
(a) First Schedule – The states and the union territories • He was one of the members of the Drafting Committees of
(b) Second Schedule – Languages the Indian Constitutions.
(c) Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in the council of • He founded Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan, an educational trust,
states in 1938.
(d) Third Schedule – Forms of oath or affirmations 41. Which of the following words was inserted in the Preamble
• Solution: (b); Second Schedule – Languages by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976?
CHSL 2021 (a) Equality (b) Socialist
36. Which Part of the Indian Constitution provides for the (c) Liberty (d) Justice
Union Public Service Commission? • Sol: (b); The word “Socialist” was inserted in the Preamble
(a) Part X (b) Part VIII by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
(c) Part XIV (d) Part XVI • This Amendment was enacted by the INC headed by
• Sol: (c); UPSC is a Constitutional Body under Article 315- Indira Gandhi then,
323 Part XIV Chapter II of the Constitution of India to
• Due to the large number of amendments this act has
discharge their duties, functions and obligations assigned
brought to the Indian Constitution, It is also known as
under Article 320.
“Mini-Constitution”.
37. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with the State
42. As per the eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India,
Legislature?
how many languages are referred to as scheduled
(a) Part VII (b) Part VI languages?
(c) Part IV (d) Part V (a) 22 (b) 14
• Sol: (b); Part 1 - Union and its territories (c) 18 (d) 20
• Part 2 - Citizenship • Sol: (a); There are 22 Official Languages according to 8 th
• Part 3 - Fundamental Rights Schedule of Indian Constitution.
• Part 4 - Directive principles of the state Policy • Part XVII of the Indian constitution deals with the official
languages in Articles 343 to 351.
• part 5 - Union Government
• There are a total of 12 Schedules in the Indian Constitution.
• Part 6- State Government.
43. Which of the following states is included in the sixth
• Part 7 - it had contained the division of states ( A, B, C). schedule of the Constitution of India?
Later it was repealed through 7th CAA, 1956.
(a) Mizoram (b) Nagaland
38. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution divides the (c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Manipur
power between the Centre and the state in terms of the • Sol: (a); Mizoran is included in the sixth schedule of the
union, state and concurrent list?
Constitution of India.
(a) Fifth Schedule (b) Ninth Schedule
• The Sixth Schedule applies to the North-eastern states of
(c) Third Schedule (d) Seventh Schedule
Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura.
• Sol: (d); The Seventh Schedule (Article 246) to the
Constitution of India defines and specifies allocation of • This special provision is provided under Article 244(2) and
powers and functions between Union & States. It contains Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
Union List, State List and Concurrent List CHSL 2018
CHSL 2020 44. Which of the following words was inserted in the Preamble
39. According to which of the following Schedules to the by the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India?
Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the states (a) Economic (b) Integrity
and union territories in Rajya Sabha? (c) Belief (d) Political
(a) Sixth (b) Second • Sol: (b); Socialist, Secular and Integrity words were added
(c) Seventh (d) Fourth to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
• Sol: (d); The fourth Schedule contains provisions as to the 45. Which of the following schedules of the Constitution of
allocation of seats in the Council of States. This Schedule India contains the format of oaths to be taken by different
contains the number of seats represented in the Council of constitutional functionaries?
states(Rajya Sabha) from each State and Union Territory. It (a) 4th Schedule (b) 5th Schedule
deals with Articles 4(1) and 80(2). (c) 3rd Schedule (d) 2nd Schedule
• The Eighth Schedule to the constitution of India lists the
official languages of India

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POLITY - Union and its territories and citizenship - Different Sources of the Constitution

• Sol: (c); In the Indian Constitution, presently there are 12 • Sol. (a); As per the Constitution of India, the subject of
Schedules. The third Schedule consists of Forms of Oaths 'livestock and animal husbandry' is included in the State
or Affirmations for: The Union ministers. List.
CPO 2020 • There are 3 lists in the Indian Constitution, covered under
46. Which of the following subjects is covered in the Eleventh the 7th schedule, these are the state, concurrent, and union
Schedule of the Constitution of India? list.
(a) Major forest produce (b) Health and sanitation • The State list comprises of subjects under which laws could
(c) Large scale industries (d) Police and public order be made by the state legislature.
• Sol: (b); The 11th Schedule of Indian Constitution was
• The Union list covers subjects such as defence, railways,
added in 1992 by the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act.
etc., under which the laws could be made by the
• It contains the provisions that specify the powers, Parliament.
authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
• The Concurrent list covers subjects which give powers to
• This schedule contains 29 subjects. both the state and central government.
• Health and sanitation are covered under this schedule. CPO 2018
CPO 2019 50. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the
47. Which of the following is NOT an item mentioned in the disqualification of elected members on the ground of
Concurrent List of the Constitution of India? defection?
(a) Bankruptcy and insolvency (b) Criminal law (a)Ninth (b)Eleventh
(c) Criminal procedure (d) Banking (c)Twelfth (d)Tenth
• Sol. (d); Banking comes under Union List. • Sol: (d); The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
deals with the disqualification of elected members on the
• Other subjects in the Union list include defence, foreign
ground of defection.
affairs, railways.
• Anti-defection law was added to Indian Constitution
• The Concurrent List includes subjects that give powers to
through the 52nd Amendment in 1985 and placed it in the
both the Union and state governments to make laws on
Tenth Schedule.
subjects included in the list.
There are a total of 12 Schedules in the Indian Constitution.
• The concurrent list includes subjects like Education,
population control and family planning, protection of • First Schedule: List of States & Union Territories
wildlife and animals, forests., criminal law, prevention of • Second Schedule: Salary of President, Governors, Chief
cruelty to animals. Judges, Judges of High Court and Supreme Court,
• The legislative functions of union and states are discussed Comptroller and Auditor General.
mainly in Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI of the constitution. • Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths and affirmations
48. Which of the following schedules was added to the • Fourth Schedule: Allocate seats for each state of India in
Constitution by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, Rajya Sabha
1951?
• Fifth Schedule: Administration and control of scheduled
(a) Tenth (b) Seventh areas and tribes.
(c) Eighth (d) Ninth • Sixth Schedule: Provisions for the administration of Tribal
• Sol. (d); The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution Area in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram &
by the First Amendment Act, 1951. Arunachal Pradesh
• Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains • Seventh Schedule: Gives allocation of powers and
to protect the state laws pertaining to land reforms from functions between Union & States. It contains 3 lists Union
being challenged in the Judiciary. List, States, Concurrent List
• However, Judicial review was made a part of the Basic • Eighth Schedule: List of 22 languages of India recognized
Structure of the Constitution after the Keshavananda by Constitution
Bharti Case. • Ninth Schedule: Contains acts & orders related to land
• Further, the Coehlo case made a judgement where subjects tenure, land tax, railways, and industries.
from the ninth schedule couldn't be kept immune from • Tenth Schedule: Contains provisions of disqualification of
judicial review. grounds of defection.
• The eighth schedule contains provisions related • Eleventh Schedule: Contains provisions of Panchayati Raj.
to Scheduled Languages.
• Twelfth Schedule: Contains provisions of Municipal
• The tenth Schedule contains provisions related to Anti Corporation.
defection Law.
• The seventh schedule contains the allocation of C-3. Union and its territories and citizenship
powers between the Union and States. CGL 2021
49. As per the Constitution of India, the subject of 'livestock 51. In which of the following years was the Citizenship Act
and animal husbandry' is included in the passed for the first time in India?
(a) State List (b) Concurrent List (a) 1947 (b) 1959
(c) Union List (d) Residuary List (c) 1955 (d) 1962

150
POLITY - Union and its territories and citizenship - Different Sources of the Constitution

• Sol: (c); 1955 whereby provisions of the Constitution which were

• Indian nationality law details the conditions by which a applicable to other states were not applicable to Jammu
person holds Indian nationality. The two primary pieces of and Kashmir (J&K).
legislation governing these requirements are the • According to the Order, provisions of the Indian
Constitution of India and the Citizenship Act, 1955. Constitution are now applicable in the State.
• All persons born in India between 26 January 1950 and 1 • This Order comes into force “at once” and shall “supersede
July 1987 automatically received citizenship by birth the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir)
regardless of the nationalities of their parents. Order, 1954.”
• Between 1 July 1987 and 3 December 2004, citizenship by • A separate Bill - the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation
birth was granted if at least one parent was a citizen. Bill 2019 - was introduced to bifurcate the State into two
• Foreigners may become Indian citizens by naturalisation separate union territories of Jammu and Kashmir (with
after residing in the country for at least 12 years and legislature), and Ladakh (without legislature).
renouncing any previous nationalities. • Jammu and Kashmir Reservation (Second Amendment)
• Members of certain religious minority communities from Bill, 2019 was also introduced to extend the reservation for
neighbouring countries qualify for a reduced residence Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) in educational
requirement of six years. institutions and government jobs in Jammu and Kashmir.
CGL 2018
CGL 2020
52. Which of the following Amendment Acts of the 55. In India, which of the following articles of the Constitution
Constitution of India conferred statehood to Goa and of India provides for the formation of a new state?
formed a new union territory comprising of Daman and (a) Article 1 (b) Article 3
Diu? (c) Article 2 (d) Article 9
(a) 45th Amendment Act (b) 56th Amendment Act • Sol. Article 1(1) states that India, that is Bharat, shall be a
(c) 67th Amendment Act (d) 23rd Amendment Act Union of States.
• Sol: (b); 56th Amendment Act • Article 1(2) states that the States and the territories will be
56th Amendment Act specified in the First Schedule.
• It confers Statehood on Goa and forms a new Union • Article 1(3) states that the territory of India will comprise
Territory of Daman and Diu. Goa thus became the 25th the following:
State of the Indian Republic. - The territories of the States.
45th Amendment Act - The Union territories mentioned in the First Schedule.
• The Act extends reservation of seats for the Scheduled - Such other territories as may be acquired.
Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in Parliament and the • It deals with admission or establishment of new States.
State Assemblies and the representation of Anglo-Indians Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish,
by the nomination for a further period of 10 years. new States based on terms and conditions.
23rd Amendment Act CHSL 2019
• The Constitution (Twenty-third Amendment) Act, 1969, 56. In which year did Telangana become the 29th state of
repealed the Scheduled Tribes reservation in Nagaland, India?
both in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly, (a) 2002 (b) 2011
and provided that the Governor could not propose more (c) 2014 (d) 2004
than one Anglo-Indian to any State Legislative Assembly. • Sol: (c); Telangana was formed as the 29th state of India on
53. In which of the following years was the Bombay June 2, 2014.
Reorganization Act passed? • Sri Krishna Committee was set up by the centre to
(a) 1960 (b) 1980 investigate the need of a separate state of Telangana from
(c) 1975 (d) 1956 Andhra Pradesh.
• Sol: (a); 1960
• Hyderabad is the capital of Telangana.
• The Bombay Reorganization Act passed in 1960.
57. Which Article of the Constitution deals with formation of
• The state of Bombay was included in Part A , a former New States?
governorate province of British India . (a) Article 3 (b) Article 5
CGL 2019 (c) Article 4 (d) Article 2
54. The recently revoked 'Article 370' is associated with which • Sol: (a); Article 3 of the Constitution deals with formation
of these states of India? of New States.
(a) Assam (b) Sikkim • It empowers the parliament to form a new State by
(c) Nagaland (d) Kashmir separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or
• Solution: (d); Kashmir more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to
• On 5th of August 2019, the President of India promulgated a part of any State.
the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) • Part I of Indian Constitution is entitling the Union and its
Order, 2019. Territory, and it includes articles from 1-4.
• The order effectively abrogates the special status accorded
to Jammu and Kashmir under the provision of Article 370 -

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POLITY - Union and its territories and citizenship - Different Sources of the Constitution
CHSL 2018 • Anyone who is applying for OCI card should hold a valid
58. Which one of the following Union Territories has been Passport of another country.
granted with partial statehood ship? • Benefits for OCI cardholders include lifelong Visa to visit
(a) Puducherry (b) Daman and Diu India multiple times, but special permission needed for
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Lakshadweep research work in India.
• Sol: (a); Among the options, only Puducherry has partial
• However, Individuals having parents/grandparents
statehood in India.
with Pakistani citizenship OR Bangladeshi
CPO 2020 citizenship cannot apply for OCI.
59. Which of the following states was formed in the year 2000? 63. As per the Constitution of India, the National Capital
(a) Odisha (b) Uttarakhand Territory of Delhi shall have a Council of Ministers
(c) Goa (d) Sikkim consisting of not more than ______ of the total number of
• Sol: (b); Uttarakhand was formed on the 9th of November members in the Legislative Assembly
2000 as the 27th State of India when it was carved out of (a) 0.2 (b) 0.05
northern Uttar Pradesh. (c) 0.1 (d) 0.15
• It has two capitals: - Dehradun(winter) and Gairsain • Sol: (c); The National Capital Territory of Delhi shall have
(summer). Council of Ministers consisting of not more than 10% or
60. Which of the following states came into being as the 23rd, 0.1, of the total number of members in the Legislative
24th and 25th states of the Indian Union in 1987? Assembly, including the Chief Minister.
(a) Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh • 69th constitutional amendment Act made the Union
(b) Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan territory of Delhi into a National capital region and
(c) Manipur, Tripura, Meghalaya provided for a state legislative assembly and a Lieutenant
(d) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa Governor.
• Sol: (d); Mizoram became the 23rd state of the Indian Union • As per the 91st constitutional amendment act, the strength
in February 1987. of the council of ministers should not exceed 15% to that of
• Arunachal Pradesh the 24th state of India on 30 May 1987. Lok Sabha.

• Goa was admitted as 25th state of Indian Union on 30 May • Article 81 caps the number of Lok Sabha seats at 550 of
1987. which 20 members are to be elected from Union
Territories.
CPO 2019
CPO 2018
61. Which of the following parts of the Constitution of India
deals with citizenship? 64. Nagaland became a part of the Union of India in the year
1963 by the _______ Amendment to the Constitution of
(a) Part VIII (b) Part VI
India.
(c) Part XII (d) Part II
(a) 13th (b) 14th
• Sol. (d); Part II of the Constitution of India deals with
(c) 16 th (d) 17th
Citizenship.
• Sol. (a); The 13th Amendment Act,1963 led to the
• Articles 5-11 of Part II apportions with Citizenship. formation of the state of Nagaland as a part of the union of
62. In the context of Overseas Citizens of India (OCI), which of India.
the following statements is NOT correct? • It amended article 170 and it was also given special
(a) An OCI is allowed to undertake all activities except protection under Article 371A.
research work for which special permission is required.
65. The state of Jharkhand was formed by division of Bihar in
(b) An OCI is granted multiple entry visa for a period of ten the year______.
years only.
(a) 2003 (b) 2000
(c) Any foreign national who was eligible to become a citizen
(c) 2002 (d) 2001
of India on 26.01.1950 is eligible for it.
• Sol. (b); "Jharkhand was formed from the division of Bihar
(d) A foreign national those who or either of whose parents in 2000.
or grandparents or great grandparents is or had been a Boundaries:
citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh, is not eligible for it
• West Bengal in the east.
• Sol (b); The Government of India has granted multiple
entry visas for an indefinite period to Overseas Citizens of • Uttar Pradesh and Chhattisgarh in the west
India (OCI). • Bihar in the north and
• The government of India launched the ‘Overseas • Odisha in the south.
Citizenship of India (OCI) Scheme’ by amending the
• It is the 15th largest state in India in terms of area.
Citizenship Act, 1955 in 2005.
• Area 79,714 sq. km
• The Government of India discontinued the Person of
Indian Origin (PIO) card and merged it with the OCI card. • 18,423 sq km is forest land.
• They do not have the Right to Vote. • The state has 5 Divisions and 24 Districts.
• An OCI is an immigration status given to a foreign citizen • Major Rivers: Damodar, Maurakshi, Barakar, Koyel,
of Indian origin to live and work in India indefinitely. Sankh, Subarnarekha, Kharkai, and Ajay.
• The total length of roads 4,311 km.

152
POLITY - Fundamental Rights and Duties - Different Sources of the Constitution

• Capital: Ranchi. • Article 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs. Subject to

• CM: Hemant Soren public order, morality and health, every religious
denomination or any section thereof shall have the right to
• Governor: Ramesh Bias establish and maintain institutions for religious and
charitable purposes.
C-4. Fundamental Rights and Duties • Article 25 - Freedom of conscience and free profession,
CGL 2021
practice, and propagation of religion. The mentioned
66. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education freedoms are subject to public order, health, and morality.
Act 2009 is an Act of Parliament which came into force in:
• Article 23 - Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
(a) 2011 (b) 2009
forced labour. (1) Traffic in human beings and begar and
(c) 2012 (d) 2010 other similar forms of forced labour are prohibited, and
• Sol: (d); 2010. The 86th amendment to the constitution of any contravention of this provision shall be an offence
India in 2002, provided Right to Education as a punishable in accordance with law.
fundamental right in part-III of the Constitution
69. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
• The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education India deal with the right to equality?
Act is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 (a) 23 to 24 (b) 19 to 22
August 2009, which describes the modalities of the
(c) 14 to 18 (d) 25 to 28
importance of free and compulsory education for children
• Sol: (c); 14 to 18. Right to Equality
between the age of 6 to 14 years in India under Article 21A
of the Indian Constitution. Article Brief description
Article 14 The State shall not deny to any person
• India became one of 135 countries to make education a
equality before the law or the equal
fundamental right of every child when the act came into
protection of the laws within the territory of
force on 1 April 2010. The title of the RTE Act incorporates
India, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
the words ‘free and compulsory’.
or place of birth
• first official document on the Right to Education was Rama Article 15 The State shall not discriminate against any
murti Committee Report in 1990. citizen on grounds only of religion, race,
• In 1993, the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in the caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Unnikrishnan JP vs State of Andhra Pradesh & Others held Article 16 There shall be equality of opportunity for all
that Education is a Fundamental right flowing from Article citizens in matters relating to employment or
21. appointment to any office under the State.
• Tapas Majumdar Committee (1999) was set up, which Article 17 Abolition of untouchability
encompassed insertion of Article 21A. Article 18 Abolition of all titles except military and
academic
67. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education CGL 2020
Act or Right to Education (RTE) Act is an Act of the
Parliament of India enacted in the year ______. 70. Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides Right to
______.
(a) 2012 (b) 2007
(A) Work (B) Equality
(c) 2009 (d) 2005
(C) Privacy (D) Education
• Sol: (c); 2009. The Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act • Sol: (d); Provides free and compulsory education of all
(RTE), is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a
August 2009, which describes the modalities of the Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by
importance of free and compulsory education for children law, determine.
between 6 and 14 in India under Article 21a of the Indian • Added by 86th Amendment 2002.
Constitution. 71. In which year were the Fundamental Duties of citizens
• India became one of 135 countries to make education a added to the Constitution of India by the 42nd
fundamental right of every child when the Act came into Amendment?
force on 1 April 2010. (a) 1964 (b) 1976
• The Act makes education a fundamental right of every (c) 1950 (d) 1982
child between the ages of 6 and 14 and specifies minimum • SOL: (b); 1976
norms in elementary schools. It requires all private schools • Fundamental duties
to reserve 25% of seats to children. • 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental
68. Which Article of the Constitution of India prohibits Duties to the Indian Constitution.
anyone from employing children below the age of fourteen
• 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental
in factories, mines, etc?
Duty to the list.
(a) 26 (b) 23
• Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended
(c) 25 (d) 24
Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt
• Sol: (d); Article 24 - No child below the age of fourteen
during the internal emergency of 1975-77.
years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or
engaged in any other hazardous employment. • The Fundamental Duties are dealt with Article 51A under
Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution

153
POLITY - Fundamental Rights and Duties - Different Sources of the Constitution
CGL 2019 • Sol: (c); Fundamental Duties are recommended by Sardar
72. The Supreme Court has declared access to the internet a Swaran Singh committee through 42nd Amendment 1976,
fundamental right under Article______ of the Indian introduced in Article 51 A in the constitution.
Constitution 76. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme
(a) 19 (b) 14 Court of India for the protection of Fundamental Rights?
(c) 21 (d) 17 (a) Five (b) Four
• Solution: (a); 19 (c) Seven (d) Six
• The Supreme Court refrained from the view on declaring • Sol: (a); under Article 32 The Supreme Court of India is the
the right to access the Internet as a fundamental right but defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. For that,
still went on to make the Internet as an integral part of the it has original and wide powers. It issues five kinds of
freedom of expression guaranteed under Article 19 (1) of writs for enforcing the fundamental rights of the citizens.
the Constitution. 77. _________ of the Constitution of India provides protection
• SC noted that the Internet as a medium is a major means of against arrest and detention in certain cases.
information diffusion and that freedom to receive (a) Article 25 (b) Article 22
information is vital to expression. (c) Article 23 (d) Article 20
• It has also pointed out that in a globalised world, • Sol: (b); Article 22 of the Constitution of India provides
restricting the Internet was to restrict the freedom to trade protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
and commerce, protected by Article 19(1)(g). Protection under article 22 comes into play after the arrest
73. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of 78. Part III of the Constitution of India deals with:
India guarantees the Right to Freedom of Religion? (a) Fundamental Duties (b) Fundamental Rights
(a) Articles 19-22 (b) Articles 23-24 (c) Citizenship (d) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Articles 14-18 (d) Articles 25-28 • Sol: (b); Part III of the Indian Constitution talks about
• Solution: (d); Articles 25-28 Fundamental Rights. The fundamental rights were
included in the constitution because they were considered
• The Constitution of India guarantees the right to freedom
essential for the development of the personality of every
of religion to not only individuals but also religious groups
individual and to preserve human dignity.
in India. This is enshrined in Articles 25 to 28.
79. Who termed Article 32 as the ‘heart and soul of the
• Article 25 (Freedom of conscience and free profession,
Constitution of India’?
practice, and propagation of religion)
(a) MV Pylee (b) BR Ambedkar
• Article 26 (Freedom to manage religious affairs) (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Sachchidananda Sinha
• Article 27 (Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion • Sol: (b); Article 32 in the Indian Constitution deals with
of any religion) constitutional remedies that an Indian citizen can seek
• Article 28 (Freedom as to attendance at religious from the Supreme Court. Dr. B.R Ambedkar had said that
instruction or religious worship in certain educational Article 32 is the heart and soul of the Constitution.
institutions) • Article 32 is a fundamental right under Part III. Not a
CGL 2018 fundamental right, it is a constitutional right. Can be
74. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India' is a suspended if an emergency has been declared by the
fundamental right under__________ of the Constitution of President under Article 359. Cannot be suspended even at
India. the time of emergency under Article 359.
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 21 80. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on
(c) Article 14 (d) Article 19 grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or
• Sol. (d); Article 19. Protection of certain rights regarding any of them”. This has been incorporated in:
freedom of speech etc (a) Article 19 (b) Article 23
All citizens shall have the right - (c) Article 15 (d) Article 14
• Sol: (c); Article 15 -The State shall not discriminate against
• to freedom of speech and expression. any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex,
• to assemble peaceably and without arms. place of birth or any of them
• to form associations or unions. Article 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression: Article 19
of the Constitution provides freedom of speech which is
• to move freely throughout the territory of India.
the right to express one's opinion freely without any fear
• to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and through oral/written/electronic/broadcasting/press.
to omitted. Freedom of expression includes Freedom of Press.
• to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, • Article 14 - provides for equality before the law or equal
trade, or business protection of the laws within the territory of India. It states:
CHSL 2021 "The State shall not deny to any person equality before the
75. Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty? law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory
(a) To protect the natural environment of India.
(b) To abide by the Constitution • Article 23 - Article 23 in The Constitution of India 1949.
(c) To cast vote during elections 2(c) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
(d) To uphold and protect the unity and integrity of India labour. (1) Traffic in human beings and beggar and other
similar forms of forced labour are prohibited, and any

154
POLITY - Fundamental Rights and Duties - Different Sources of the Constitution

contravention of this provision shall be an offence • Sol: (c); The Fundamental duties are defined as the moral
punishable in accordance with law. obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of
CHSL 2020 patriotism and to uphold the unity of India.
81. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution of • There are 11 fundamental duties as per Part IV A (Article
India is right to property mentioned? 51A) of the Constitution of India.
(a) Article 300 A (b) Article 301 B • These duties were recommended by Swaran Singh
(c) Article 300 B (d) Article 301 A Committee in 1976.
• Sol: (a); Right To Property is A Legal Right of According to 86. When was the right to property removed from the list of
article 300A fundamental rights?
• Initially in constitution Right to property was a (a) 1975 (b) 1980
fundamental right but with 44th constitution (c) 1978 (d) 1977
amendment,1978. • Sol: (c); The right to property was removed from the list of
• Fundamental rights are borrowed from America In fundamental rights on 1978.
Constitution. • It was done through 44th amendment of the constitution.
82. Which of the following parts of the Constitution of India • It was converted into a simple legal right under article
mentions Fundamental Rights? 300A.
(a) Part I (b) Part IV
87. India is called a secular country because citizens have the
(c) Part II (d) Part III fundamental right to:
• Sol: (d); Article 12 to 35 contained in Part III of the
(A)freedom of speech and expression
Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights.
(B)move freely throughout India
The six fundamental rights are: (C)freedom to profess religion of one's choice
• Right to equality (Article 14–18) (D)live with human dignity
• Right to freedom (Article 19–22) • Sol: (c); India is called a secular country because citizens
have the freedom to profess religion of one’s choice.
• Right against exploitation (Article 23–24)
• The 42nd Amendment Act added the word ‘Secular’ in the
• Right to freedom of religion (Article 25–28)
Preamble of the Indian Constitution.
• Cultural and educational rights (Article 29–30)
• Article 25 also guarantee the freedom of profession,
• Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32) practice, and propagation of religion to all citizens.
CHSL 2019
88. Which of the following Articles ensures to provide free and
83. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India compulsory education to all children in the age group of six
provides constitutional remedies for the enforcement of to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right to Education?
fundamental rights? (a) 20A (b) 14
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 32 (c) 21A (d) 18A
(c) Article 38 (d) Article 40 • Sol: (c); Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide
• Sol: (b); Article 32: - Right to Constitutional Remedies free and compulsory education of all children in the group
• Article 36: - The definition part of the Directive Principles of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.
of State Policy • It was inserted by 86th Amendment Act in 2002.
• Article 38: - State to secure a social order for the promotion • There are six fundamental rights enshrined in Part III
of welfare of the people (Article 12 to 35) of the constitution of India.
• Article 40: - Organisation of village Panchayats CPO 2020
84. Who among the following headed the nine-judge 89. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
constitutional bench that declared the right to privacy as a India abolishes untouchability?
fundamental right? (a) 19 (b) 20
(a) Dipak Mishra (b) TS Thakur (c) 17 (d) 18
(c) JS Khehar (d) HJ Kania • Sol: (c); Article 17 of the Indian constitution abolished
• Sol: (c); JS Khehar headed the nine-judge constitutional untouchability in the country.
bench that declared the right to privacy as a fundamental • It has been included in fundamental rights under Part III of
right. On 24th August 2017 the constituent of India.
• Fundamental Right to privacy of every individual was • The main goal of this article is to remove caste
guaranteed by the constitution, within Article 21 and Part discrimination which is prevalent still in the country.
III on the whole.
• Discrimination on grounds of caste is punishable by the
• Jagdish Singh Khehar was the 44th Chief Justice of India. court of law.
85. How many fundamental duties are set out in Part IV A 90. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
(Article 51A) of the Constitution of India? India prohibits employment of children in factories etc.?
(a) 10 (b) 12 (a) 24 (b) 21
(c) 11 (d) 9 (c) 17 (d) 31
• Sol: (a); Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the
employment of children in factories etc.

155
POLITY - Fundamental Rights and Duties - Different Sources of the Constitution

• It forbids the employment of children below the age of 14 • It is listed under Part III of the Indian Constitution which
in any hazardous industry or factories or mines, without sheds light on the fundamental rights granted to Indian
exception. citizens regardless of caste, religion, and gender.
• Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes the practice 94. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian
of untouchability in any form. Constitution is correctly associated with the article related
to it?
• Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal
liberty to every citizen. (a) Prohibition of human traffic-Article-24
(b) Safety of life and personal liberty-Article-21
• Article 31 stats that no person shall be deprived of his/her
(c) Right to education-Article-22A
property, except by authority of law.
(d) Prohibition on employment of any child below the age of
CPO 2019
fourteen years in any factory or mine-Article23
91. Which of the following is correctly matched? • Sol (b);
(a) Article 19(a) – Right to freedom of speech and expression
• The Fundamental Rights have been described in Articles
(b) Article 19(e) – Right to form associations
12-35, Part III of the Indian Constitution.
(c) Article 19(g) – Right to assemble peaceably and without
arms • Right to Life and Personal Liberty is a right enshrined
in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
(d) Article 19(b) – Right to practise any profession
• Sol: (a); • This right cannot be curtailed even during the National
Emergency (Article 359).
Article Description
Article19(a) Right to freedom of speech and expression • Other rights within the ambit of Article 21 includes the
Article19(b) Right to assemble peaceably and without recently upheld Right to Privacy by the Supreme Court in
arms the Puttuswamy Case.
Article19(c) Right to form associations or unions • Prohibition of traffic in human beings is enshrined
Article19(d) Right to move freely throughout the in Article 23 of the Indian Constitution.
territory of India • Right to education is enshrined in Article 21A which was a
Article19(e) Right to reside and settle in any part of the result of the 86th Amendment 2002 of the Indian
territory of India Constitution.
Article19(f) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of
• It provides for free and compulsory education until the age
property (It has been omitted by
of 14 for all children.
44th amendment act.)
Article19(g) Right to practise any profession, or to carry • Prohibition of employment of any child below fourteen
on any occupation, trade, or business years of age in any factory or mine is enshrined in Article
24 of the Indian Constitution.
92. Under the provisions of which Article of the Constitution
of India, can the Bharat Ratna Award NOT be used as a 95. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental right of
prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name? Indian citizens?
(a) Article 17(2) (b) Article 16(2) (a) Right to property (b) Right to constitutional remedies
(c) Article 18(1) (d) Article 19(1) (c) Freedom of movement (d) Right to form association
• Sol: (c); Under the provisions of Article 18(1) of the • Sol: (a);
Constitution of India, the Bharat Ratna Award can NOT be • Right to Property is not a Fundamental Right provided in
used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name. the Indian Constitution.
• As Bharat Ratna Award, Padma Award also can't be used • Right to Property was removed from the Fundamental
as prefix or suffix to the recipient's name. Rights in 1978 under the 44th Constitutional
• The article is about 'Abolition of Titles' and its section 1 Amendment Act and it was placed in the new Article
states, "The State shall not grant any designation, not being 300A as an ordinary legal right.
a military or academic distinction." 96. As per the interpretation by the Supreme Court of India,
• The Bharat Ratna is the Republic of India's highest civilian tapping of phone calls infracts the fundamental right
award which Established on 2 January 1954. provided in Article ______ of the Constitution
(a) 21 (b) 24
93. Which Article of the Indian Constitution gives right to
(c) 22 (d) 25
minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions? • Sol: (a);
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 32 Article The tapping of the phone calls infracts the
(c) Article 28 (d) Article 30 21 fundamental right provided in Article 21 of the
constitution.
• Sol: (d); Article 30 of the Indian Constitution gives the right
In India, the telephone tapping has to be
to minorities to establish and administer educational
approved by the authority.
institutions.
The Central Government or State Government is
• The protection of religious and ethnic minority rights is the empowered to order interception of messages per
foundation of secular values in India. section 5 of the Indian Telegraph Act 1885.
• Article 30 of the Indian Constitution is one of many Article 21 - Protection of life and personal
provisions that ensure that minority rights are preserved. freedom. (Right to privacy)
Article Prohibition of child labour (children who are

156
POLITY - Directive Principle of State Policy - Different Sources of the Constitution

24 below the age of 14 years). (d) Promotion of international peace and security
The Employment of Children Act 1938 was • Sol: (b); Article 49: - Protection of monuments and places
among the first acts to prevent child labour. and objects of natural importance.
Article Article 22 is telling all about the protection • Article 45: - Provision for free and compulsory education
22 against the arrest and detention in certain cases. for children.
The person who is arrested cannot be detained
• Article 24: -Prohibition of employment of children in
beyond the said period except by the authority of
factories etc
the judicial Magistrate.
Article As per the article 25, "all persons are equally • Article 51: - Promotion of international peace and security.
25 entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to 100. Which Article of the Constitution of India states the
freely profess, practice, and propagate any directive principles of state policy on ‘promotion of
religion subject to public order, morality, and international peace and security’?
health". (a) Article 51 (b) Article 69
(c) Article 62 (d) Article 49
C-5. Directive Principle of State Policy • Sol: (a); Article 51 states the DPSP on “promotion of
• Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 36-51) are broad international peace and security”.
guiding principles that states shall keep in mind while • Directive Principles of State Policy aim to create social and
formulating policies and enacting laws. These are non- economic conditions under which the citizen can lead a
justiciable in nature good life.
CGL 2021 • Article 36-51 under Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal
97. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution with DPSP.
of India were borrowed from the ______ Constitution. • They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, which
(a) Spanish (b) Norwegian had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
(c) Australian (d) Irish CPO 2020
• Sol: (d); Irish
101. The State is obligated to protect every monument, place
Countries Borrowed Features of Indian Constitution and object of national importance and historic interest
Australia Concurrent list under Article ______ of the Constitution of India.
Freedom of trade, commerce, and (a) 46 (b) 48
intercourse (c) 49 (d) 47
Joint sitting of the two Houses of • Sol:(c); The Article 49 of the Indian Constitution deals with
Parliament protection of monuments and places of national
Canada Federation with a strong Centre importance.
Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre
• Article 46: - Refers to the promotion of Scheduled Castes,
Appointment of state governors by the
Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections.
Centre
Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme • Article 47: - Duty to the State to raise the level of nutrition
Court and the standard of living and to improve public health.
Ireland Directive Principles of State Policy • Article 48: - Deals with organisation of agriculture and
Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha animal husbandry
Method of election of the president 102. Part IV of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions
Japan Procedure Established by law on:
Soviet Union Fundamental duties (a) Fundamental Rights
(USSR) (now, Ideals of justice (social, economic, and (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
Russia) political) in the Preamble (c) Elections (d) Citizenship
CGL 2018
• Sol: (b); Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deal with
98. Which of the following articles promotes equal justice and Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
free legal aid for all citizens?
• They are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, which
(a) 39A (b) 32A
had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
(c) 43A (d) 48A
• Sol. (a); Article 39 A of the Directive Principles of State • Unlike the Fundamental Rights (FRs), the scope of DPSP is
Policy of the Constitution of India promotes the idea of limitless and it protects the rights of a citizen and work at a
equal justice and providing free legal aid to the poor. It macro level.
comes under the category of socialistic principles. • The DPSP is not enforceable by law; it is non-justiciable.
CHSL 2019 CPO 2019
99. What is the provision of Article 49 of the Constitution of 103. Part IV of the Constitution of India does NOT explicitly
India? expect the State to secure:
(a) Provision for free and compulsory education for children (a) no concentration of wealth and means of production
(b) Protection of monuments and places and objects of (b) adequate means of livelihood
natural importance (c) equal pay for equal work
(c) Prohibition of employment of children (Under the age of (d) maternity leave for employed women
14) in factories and mines • Sol.

157
POLITY - Union Executive - President

• Article 31C-saving of laws giving effect to the certain certain other territories to Bangladesh (through the
directive principle. exchange of enclaves and retention of adverse possessions)
Article What does it say in pursuance of the Land Boundary Agreement of 1974
29 protection of interest of minorities. and its protocol of 2011.
provides that any section of the citizens residing 105. A bill becomes an Act of the Parliament after being passed
in any part of India having a distinct language, by both the houses of Parliament and assented to by the
script or culture of its own, shall have the right to ______.
conserve the same. (a) Vice President (b) President
30 right of minorities to establish and administer (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
educational institutions. • Sol: (b); President. A bill is the draft of a legislative
grants right to minorities to establish educational proposal, which, when passed by both houses of
institutions and the government will provide Parliament and assented to by the President, becomes an
fund and there may be no discrimination. act of Parliament.
31A saving of law providing for the acquisition of • As soon as the bill has been framed, it must be published
estate, etc. in the newspapers and the general public is asked to
saves five categories of law from being comment in a democratic manner.
challenged or invalidated on the ground of
Types of Bills in India:
contravention of fundamental rights of 14, 19.
31B validation of certain acts and regulations. • Ordinary Bill (Article 107, Article 108) - Concerned with
saves the act and regulations included in the any matter other than financial subjects
ninth schedule from being challenged and • Money Bill (Article 110) - Concerned with financial matters
invalidated on the ground of contravention of like taxation, public expenditure, etc
any fundamental rights. • Financial Bill (Article 117 [1], Article 117[3]) - Concerned
31C saving of laws giving effect to the certain with financial matters (but are different from money bills)
directive principle.
• Constitutional Amendment Bill (Article 368) - Concerned
as inserted by the 25th amendment act of 1971.
with the amendment of the provisions of the Constitution.
32 remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by
this part. CGL 2020
confers the right to remedies for the enforcement 106. Who among the following appoints the Speaker 'Pro tem'
of the fundamental right of an aggrieved citizen. of the Lok Sabha?
33 power of the parliament to modify the rights (a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court (b) President
conferred by this Part in their application to (c) Chief Election Commissioner (d) Prime Minister
forces, etc. • Sol: (b); President appoints the Speaker 'Pro tem' of the
empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate Lok Sabha.
the fundamental right of a member of armed • Duties of pro tem speaker:
forces police etc to ensure proper discharge of
their duties. • The Pro-tem Speaker presides over the first sitting of the
Lok Sabha, administers the oath of office to the newly
34 restriction on rights conferred by this Part while
elected MPs.
martial law is in force in any area.
provides the restriction of fundamental rights • To conduct the vote for the speaker and deputy speaker.
while martial law is in force in any area within • On the election of new Speaker, the office of the pro tem
the territory of India. speaker ceases to exist.
35 legislation to give effect to the provisions of this
• He also administers the floor test.
part.
CGL 2018
lays down that the power to make laws, to give
effect to certain specified fundamental rights 107. The power to summon the Houses of parliament is vested
shall vest only in the parliament and not in the with the _______.
state legislature. (a) Prime Minister (b) Speaker
(c) Vice President (d) President
C-6. Union Executive • Sol: (d); Under Article 85 President is empowered to
summon each house of Parliament.
C-6.1. President • Article 108: Joint Sitting of Parliament. For ordinary and
CGL 2021 Financial bills type 2 only. Joint sitting is not held for
104. Who among the following presidents of India gave assent money bills and Constitutional amendment bills.
to the 100th Amendment of the Constitution of India? Joint Sitting is Presided by Speaker of Lok Sabha.
(a) Ram Nath Kovind (b).Pratibha Devisingh Patil 108. Which article of the Constitution of India talks about the
(c) Pranab Mukherjee (d) APJ Abdul Kalam provisions for impeachmentof the President of India?
• Sol: (c); Pranab Mukherjee (a) Article 51 (b) Article 61
(c) Article 54 (d) Article 63
• Draupadi Murmu - 15th President of India (Article 52 -
• Sol: (b); Article 61: - Procedure for the Impeachment of the
there shall be a President of India)
President.
• The 100th Amendment Act of 2015 gave effect to the
• Article 51: - Promotion of international peace and security.
acquiring of certain territories by India and transfer of

158
POLITY - Union Executive - President

• Article 54: - Election of President • Sol: (d); The process of impeachment of the President of
• Article 63: - The Vice-President of India India can be initiated in either house of the parliament.
109. In case the President of India wants to resign, he would • Article 61 of the constitution provides for the Impeachment
address his resignation to the__________. of the President of India.
(a) Chief Justice of India (b) Vice President of India • The charges needs to be signed by ¼ of the members of the
(c) Chief Election Commissioner of India House and a 14-day notice should be given to the
(d) Prime Minister of India President.
• Sol: (b); In case the President of India wants to resign, he 114. Who is/was the 13th President of India?
would address his resignation to the Vice President. (a) Ram Nath Kovind (b) Pratibha Patil
• This thing is mentioned in Article 56 of Indian (c) Pranab Mukherjee (d) APJ Abdul Kalam
Constitution. • Sol: (c); Pranab Mukherjee was an Indian politician and
• The President of India holds the office for five years. statesman who served as the 13th president of India from
2012 until 2017.
• The Vice-President and Chief Justice of India addresses his
resignation letter to the President of India. • He was also awarded India’s highest civilian honour, the
Bharat Ratna, in 2019.
CHSL 2021
110. Who has the right to appoint an inter-state council to • He succeeded Pratibha Patil (served 2007-12), India’s first
promote centre-state and inter- state cooperation? woman president.
(a) The President of India 115. Who was the President of India during the emergency of
(b) Both the President and Governor together 1975-1977?
(c) Both the Prime Minister and Chief Minister together (a) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (b) Varahagiri Venkatagiri
(d) The Prime Minister of India (c) R Venkataraman (d) Giani Zail Singh
• Sol: (a); Inter-State Council is a non-permanent • Sol: (a); Dr. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the President of
constitutional body set up by a presidential order on the India during the State of Emergency (1975-77).
basis of provisions in Article 26(c) The body was formed • It was declared during the time of the Indira Gandhi
by a presidential order dated 28th May 1990 on the Government on the grounds of “internal Disturbance”.
recommendation of Sarkaria Commission. • Part XVIII and Articles 352 to 360 deal with emergency
CHSL 2019 provisions in India.
111. Who among the following can be removed by the process 116. The President of India can hold office for a term of ______
of impeachment? year/s.
(a) The Governor of India (b) The Prime Minister of India (a) 3 (b) 5
(c) The President of India (d) The Chief Minister of India (c) 1 (d) 10
• Sol: (c); The President of India can by removed by the • Sol: (b); The President of India can hold office for a term of
process of impeachment according to Article 61. 5 years.
• The Article 61 specifically provides that the charge shall be • It is mentioned in the Article 56 of the Constitution of
made by either House of Parliament. India.
• The resolution shall be made only after providing at least • President can only be removed from office by
14 days written notice signed by not less 1/4th of the total impeachment in the manner provided in Article 61.
members of the House.
117. Who was the first president of Independent India?
• The resolution must be passed by 2/3rd of the total (a) Pranab Mukherjee (b) Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan
number of members of the both the Houses. (c) Ram Nath Kovind (d) Rajendra Prasad
112. Which article in the Constitution of India empowers the • Sol: (d); Rajendra Prasad was the first president of
President of India to promulgate ordinances when the Independent India.
Parliament is in recess?
• He stayed in office from 1950 to 1962.
(a) Article 123 (b) Article 213
(c) Article 232 (d) Article 312 • He was also the first elected president of the Constituent
Assembly.
• Sol: (a); Article 123 of the constitution grants the President
certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances CHSL 2018
during the recess of Parliament. 118. Who among the following has the power to promulgate
ordinances under Article 123 of the Constitution of India?
• The ordinance must be approved by the parliament within
six weeks of the reassembly. (a) The President (b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
• President can issue an ordinance for only those matters on
(d) The Attorney-General
which Parliament can make laws.
• Sol: (a); Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President
113. The process of impeachment of the President of India can certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances
be initiated in: during the recess of Parliament.
(a)Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha or any state legislative assembly
• The maximum time that an ordinance can be in force = 6
(b)Rajya Sabha but not in Lok Sabha
months and 6 Weeks
(c)Lok Sabha but not in Rajya Sabha
(d)either house of the parliament

159
POLITY - Union Executive - Vice president

119. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of 124. Under which Article of the Constitution of India can the
India is associated with the election of the President of President promulgate an ordinance?
India? (a)Article 168 (b)Article 75
(a) Article 103 (b) Article 78 (c)Article 101 (d)Article 123
(c) Article 74 (d) Article 54 • Sol: (d); Under Article 123 of the Constitution of India can
• Sol: (d); Article 54 states about the Election of a president. the President promulgate an ordinance.
120. Who presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses of • The Constitution empowers the President to promulgate
Parliament? Ordinances to amend certain laws when either of the two
(a) Prime Minister (b) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha Houses of Parliament is not in session under Article 123.
(c) The Vice President (d) President • The maximum duration of an ordinance is 6 months and 6
• Sol: (b); The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the weeks.
President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by the
• An ordinance will expire after 6 weeks once both houses of
Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, by the
the Parliament are in session.
Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the
Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha • The Governor can also issue ordinances under Article 213.
121. Who among the following is the longest-serving President 125. The President may resign from his office by writing under
of India? his hand addressed to the
(a) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy (b) Shankar Dayal Sharma (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) Vice President
(c) Rajendra Prasad (d) R Venkatraman (c) Chief Election Commissioner (d) Prime Minister of India
• Sol: (c); Dr Rajendra Prasad was the longest-serving Indian • Sol (b); The President may resign from his office by writing
President. Freedom fighter and Congress leader Dr a letter of resignation addressed to the Vice President of
Rajendra Prasad, who served as the President of India for India.
12 years from 1950 to 1962, remains the country's longest- • The candidate should have completed 35 years of age to be
serving President. eligible as a candidate for the presidential election.
CPO 2020 • Article 61 deals with the impeachment of President.
122. Which of the following Presidents of India also served as • If the office falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or
the union Labour minister?
otherwise, then election to fill the vacancy should be
(a) V.V. Giri (b) Ramnath Kovind completed within six months from the date of the
(c) Zakir Hussain (d) N Sanjeeva Reddy occurrence of such a vacancy.
• Sol: (a); V V Giri served as 4th president of India from 1969
• Vice president gives his resignation to President
to 1969.
• Chief Election commissioner gives his resignation to
• When the Congress Party formed a government in Madras
President.
state in 1937, V V Giri became minister of labour and
industries. C-6.2. Vice president
• He is the first president to be elected as an independent CGL 2020
candidate. 126. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
• He was also awarded by the Government of India with the India states that there will be a Vice-President of India?
Bharat Ratna in 1975. (A) Article 63 (B) Article 75
CPO 2019 (C) Article 56 (D) Article 45
123. The power to summon each House of Parliament is vested • Sol: (a); Article 63-The Vice President of India
with the: • Article 75-a Council of Ministers which shall aid the
(a) President (b) Vice President President in the exercise of the President's functions.
(c) Union Cabinet (d) Lok Sabha Speaker • Article 56-Term of office of President
• Sol (a); The power to summon both the Houses of
• Article 45-Provision for free and compulsory education for
Parliament i.e., Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha is vested with
children.
the President of India under Article 85(1) of the Indian
Constitution. 127. Who among the following never became the Vice President
of India?
• Article 85(1) empowers the President to summon each
(A) Gulzarilal Nanda (B) VV Giri
House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he
(C) BD Jatti (D) Zakir Husain
thinks fit.
• Sol: (a);
• Budget, Monsoon, and Winter Sessions are held in a
calendar year. 1 Sarvepalli 12 May 1957 9 years,
Radhakrishnan 12 May 1962 364 days
• The President may also, from time to time prorogue the 2 Zakiir Husain 12 May 1967 4 years,
houses dissolve the house of the people. 364 days
• Vice President is the Chairman of the Council of 3 V.V Giri 3 May 1969 1 year,
States/Rajya Sabha. 355 days
• Article 60 deals with the oath and affirmation of the 4 Gopal Swarup 30 August 1974 4 years,
President. Pathak 364 days
5 B.D Jatti 30 August 1979 4 years,

160
POLITY - Union Executive - Prime minister & Cabinet ministers

364 days the expiry of the term of office of the outgoing vice
6 Mohammad 30 August 1984 4 years, president.
Hidayatullah 365 days • Vice President of India: Jagdeep Dhankar.
7 Ramaswamy 24 July 1987 2 years,
• Electoral College : All MP’s
Vekataraman 327 days
CHSL 2019
8 Shankar Dayal 24 July 1992 4 years,
Sharma 325 days 133. Who acts as the President during casual vacancy that arises
9 K.R Narayanan 24 July 1997 4 years, due to death of the President?
337 days (a) Vice-President (b) Chief Justice of India
10 Krishna Kant 27 July 2002 4 years, (c) Lok Sabha Speaker (d) Nominated Lok Sabha member
340 days • Sol: (a); The Vice President act as President or discharge his
11 Bhairon Singh 21 July 2007 4 years, functions during casual vacancies in the office, or during
Shekhawat 336 days the absence of President.
12 Mohammad 10 August 2012 9 years, • Article 63 of the Indian Constitution specifies that “There
Hamid Ansari 10 August 2017 364 days shall be a Vice President of India.”
13 Venkaiah Naidu Incumbent 4 years, • The VP of India is also the ex officio Chairperson of the
285 days Rajya Sabha.
128. Who among the following was the first Vice President of CPO 2018
India? 134. The minimum age criteria for appointment as the Vice
(a)Varahagiri Venkata Giri (b) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan President of India is ________.
(c) Gopal Swarup Pathak (d) Zakir Hussain (a) 21 (b) 30.
• Sol: (b); (c) 35 (d) 25
CHSL 2021 • Sol. (c); The minimum age criteria for appointment as the
129. The election of the next Vice-President is to be held within Vice President of India is 35 years.
_____ of the expiry of the term of office of the outgoing • This minimum age limit is the same for appointment as the
Vice-President. President and the Governor.
(a) 90 days (b) 60 days
• The minimum age limit for the members of Lok Sabha and
(c) 120 days (d) 75 days
Rajya Sabha are 25 years and 30 years respectively.
• Sol: (b); The election is to be held no later than 60 days of
the expiry of the term of office of the outgoing vice • The minimum age limit for the Lok Sabha speaker and the
president. Deputy Lok Sabha speaker is 25 years.
Vice President of India: Jagdeep Dhankar. • The age limit for being a Gram Panchayat member is 21.
Electoral College : All MP’s
C-6.3. Prime minister & Cabinet ministers
130. Who among the following was the third Vice-President of
India? • In the scheme of Parliamentary system of government, the
(a) BD Jatti (b) Zakir Hussain CGL 2021
(c) Gopal Swarup Pathak (d) V V Giri 135. Who among the following was India’s longest serving
• Sol: (d); Varaha Venkata Giri was the third Vice-President prime minister as of April 2021?
of India. (a) Indira Gandhi (b) IK Gujral
Present: jagdeep Dhankar(14th) (c) Narendra Modi (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
131. Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the • Sol: (d); Jawaharlal Nehru
election of Vice-President? • Jawaharlal Nehru, INC - 16 years, 286 days
(a) He/she is qualified for election as a member of the House • Indira Gandhi, INC/INC(I)/INC(R) - 11 years, 59 days
of People.
• Manmohan Singh, INC - 10 years, 4 days
(b) He/she is qualified for election as a member of the
Council of States. • Narendra Modi, BJP - 8 years +
(c) He/she has completed the age of 35 years of age. • Article 75 of the Indian Constitution mentions that a Prime
(d) He/she must be a citizen of India. Minister is one who is appointed by the President. There is
• Sol: (a); Qualifications of Vice President: no specific procedure for his election or appointment.
According to Article 66 of the constitution, no person shall Article 74(1) states that there shall be a Council of
be eligible for election as Vice- President unless he is a Ministers with a Prime Minister at the head to aid and
citizen of India, has completed the age of thirty-five years advise the President. Thus, the Indian Constitution itself
and is qualified for election as a member of the Council of recognizes a Council of Ministers.
States. CGL 2020
132. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the 136. Who among the following replaced Morarji Desai as the
election of the Vice-President? Prime Minister of India in 1979?
(a) Article 66 (b) Article 68 (A) Chandrasekhar (B) Jagjivan Ram
(c) Article 64 (d) Article 62 (C) Charan Singh (D) Devi Lal
• Sol: (a); Article 66 deals with the election of the Vice- • Sol: (c); Charan Singh replaces Morarji Desai as PM of
President. The election is to be held no later than 60 days of India in 1979.
Name Term of office Remark

161
POLITY - Union Executive - Prime minister & Cabinet ministers

1. Jawahar Lal Nehru 15 August 1947 The first prime 18. Narendra Modi 26 May 2014 - 4th PM of India
to 27 May 1964 minister of India Present who served two
16 years, 286 and the longest- consecutive
days serving PM of tenures
India, the first to 137. In 1977, who became the President of the Janata Party,
die in office. which formed a coalition government at the centre with
2. Gulzarilal Nanda 27 May 1964 to First acting PM Morarji Desai as the Prime Minister?
(Acting) 9 June 1964, of India
(a) Charan Singh (b) Madhu Dandavate
13 days
3. Lal Bahadur Shastri 9 June 1964 to He has given the (c) George Fernandes (d) Chandra Shekhar
11 January 1966 slogan of 'Jai • Sol: (d); Chandra Shekhar
1 year, 216 days Jawan Jai Kisan' • Chandra Shekhar Singh Solanki ( 17 April 1927 – 8 July
during the Indo- 2007) was an Indian politician who served as the 8th Prime
Pak war of 1965 Minister of India, between 10 November 1990 and 21 June
4. Gulzari Lal 11 January 1966 - 199(a)
Nanda (Acting) to 24 January
1966 • He headed a minority government of a breakaway faction
13 days of the Janata Dal with outside support from the Indian
5. Indira Gandhi 24 January 1966 First female National Congress.
to 24 March Prime Minister of • He was the first Indian Prime Minister who had never
1977 India held any Government office.
11 years, 59
138. Who among the following is the Chairman of Planning
days
Commission and National Integration Council of India?
6. Morarji Desai 24 March 1977 Oldest to become
(a) The Attorney General (b) The Vice President
to 28 July 1979 PM (81 years old)
2 year, 126 days and first to resign (c) The Prime Minister (d) The President
from office • Sol: (c); The Prime Minister
7. Charan Singh 28 July 1979 to Only PM who • The Chairman of Planning Commission and National
14 January 1980 did not face the Integration Council of India is the Prime minister.
170 days Parliament
• Planning commission
8. Indira Gandhi 14 January 1980 The first lady
to 31 October who served as • The Planning Commission was reporting directly to
1984 PM for the the Prime Minister of India.
4 years, 291 second term • It was established on 15 March 1950, with Prime Minister
days
Jawaharlal Nehru as the chairman.
9. Rajiv Gandhi 31 October 1984 Youngest to
to 2 December become PM (40 • The Planning Commission did not derive its creation from
1989 years old) either the Constitution or statute but was an arm of the
5 years, 32 days Central/Union Government.
10. V. P. Singh 2 December First PM to step CGL 2018
1989 to 10 down after a vote 139. Who was the prime minister of India during ''the
November 1990 of no confidence Emergency'' between the year 1975 to 1977?
343 days
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi
Chandra Sekhar 10 November He belongs
(c) Morarji Desai (d) Charan Singh
1990 to 21 June to Samajwadi
1991 Janata Party • Sol: (a); Indira Gandhi served as Prime Minister during the
223 days Emergency between 1975 to 1977.
12. P. V. Narasimha 21 June 1991 to First PM from • Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed served as President at that time.
Rao 16 May 1996 south India
• Emergency Provisions are contained in 18th Part of the
4 years, 330
Indian constitution from Article 352 to 360.
days
CHSL 2021
13. Atal Bihari 16 May 1996 to PM for shortest
Vajpayee 1 June 1996 tenure 140. Who among the following is NOT a part of the Union
16 days Executive?
14. H. (D) Deve 1 June 1996 to He belongs (a) The Prime Minister of India (b) The President of India
Gowda 21 April 1997 to Janata Dal (c) The Supreme Court of India (d) The council of ministers
324 days • Sol: (c); Supreme court does not come under Union
15. Inder Kumar 21 April 1997 to ------ Government.
Gujral 19 March 1998 Article 50 - Separation of Executive from the judiciary.
332 days
99 CAA was repealed due to the above article.
16. Atal Bihari 19 March 1998 The first non-
CHSL 2019
Vajpayee to 22 May 2004 congress PM
6 years, 64 days who completed a 141. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that
full term as PM there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime
17. Manmohan Singh 22 May 2004 to First Sikh PM Minister as its head?
26 May 2014 (a) Article 21(1) (b) Article 74(1)
10 years, 4 days (c) Article 44 (d) Article 34

162
POLITY - Union Parliament - Lok Sabha

• Sol: (b); As per Article 74, there shall be a Council of • He was known as the man of peace.
Ministers with the Prime Minister are the head to aid and • He gave slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan” which became very
advise the President. popular during the war.
• According to Article 75, The Presidents appoints the Prime • He was the first individual to be honoured Bharat Ratan
Minister, and the President appoints the other Ministers on posthumously.
the Prime Minister’s suggestion.
CPO 2019
CHSL 2018
148. The Prime Minister and the other Ministers of the Indian
142. Who became the acting prime minister of India after the Union are appointed by the President under ______ of the
death of Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964? Constitution of India.
(a) V P Singh (b) Morarji Desai (a) Article 79 (b) Article 85
(c) Gulzarilal Nanda (d) Charan Singh (c) Article 75 (d) Article 70
• Sol: (c); Gulzarilal Nanda was appointed as the first-ever • Sol: (c); The Prime Minister and the other Ministers of the
acting Prime Minister of India after the demise of the first Indian Union are appointed by the President under Article
PM of India, Jawaharlal Nehru in 1964. 75 of the Constitution of India.
• He remained PM for 13 days after that Lal Bahadur Shastri • The Part V of the Constitution (Union) deals
became the prime minister of India. with President, Vice-President, Council of Ministers
• He again became PM in 1966 after the death of Lal (COM) headed by Prime Minister and Attorney General.
Bahadur Shastri. • According to Article 75, The President appoints the Prime
143. According to which Article of the Constitution of India Minister, and the other Ministers are appointed by the
shall the council of ministers be collectively responsible to President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
the Lok Sabha? • The total number of ministers, including the Prime
(a) Article 29 (b) Article 75 Minister, shall not exceed 15% of the total number of
(c) Article 35 (d) Article 302 members of the People's House in the Council of Ministers.
• Sol: (b); Article 75 of the Constitution says that the council
• The ministers shall hold office at the President's pleasure.
of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok
CPO 2018
Sabha
149. Who hoists the national flag at the Red Fort on
144. In the cabinet of the 17th Lok Sabha, who has been
Independence Day?
appointed as the Finance Minister?
(a) Chief Justice (b) Prime Minister
(a) Amit Shah (b) Nirmala Sitharaman
(c) Governor (d) President
(c) Smriti Irani (d) Rajnath Singh
• Sol. (b); The Prime Minister hoists the national flag at the
• Sol: (b); Nirmala Sitharaman (born 18 August 1959) is an
Red Fort on Independence Day.
Indian economist and politician serving as the Minister of
Finance and Corporate Affairs of India since 2019. • India became independent on 15 August 1947 and on that
145. The first defence minister of independent India was: day the British flag flying on the Red Fort was removed
and our national flag was hoisted.
(a) C Rajagopalachari (b) Baldev Singh
(c) Shri Jagjivan Ram (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel • Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India
• Sol: (b); The first defence minister of independent India hoisted the flag on this day.
was Baldev Singh Chokkar, who served in Prime Minister • Since then, every year the Prime Minister hoists the flag at
Jawaharlal Nehru's cabinet during 1947–52. Red Fort and addresses the nation.
CPO 2020 • The present national flag was designed by Pingali
146. During which of the following periods did Morarji Desai Venkayya.
serve as the Deputy Prime Minister of India?
(a) 1966-67 (b) 1970-71 C-7. Union Parliament
(c) 1967-69 (d) 1964-66
• Sol: (c); Morarji Desai was appointed as Deputy Prime C-7.1. Lok Sabha
Minister in Indira Gandhi government from 1967 to 1969. CGL 2021
• He also served as the 4th Prime Minister of India from 1977 150. With reference to no-confidence motion, which of the
to 1979. following statements is INCORRECT?
• He became the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India. (a) It is moved for ascertaining the confidence of Lok Sabha
• He is also the oldest person to hold the office of prime in the council of ministers.
minister at the age of 81. (b) It should state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok
Sabha.
• He was conferred with India’s highest civilian honour, the
(c) If it is passed in the Lok Sabha, the council of ministers
Bharata Ratna
must resign from office.
147. Lal Bahadur Shastri served as the Prime Minister of India (d) It can be moved against the entire council of ministers
from ______ to ______. only.
(a) 1966; 1977 (b) 1980; 1984 • Sol: (b); It should state the reasons for its adoption in the
(c) 1977; 1979 (d) 1964; 1966 Lok Sabha
• Sol: (d); Lal Bahadur Shastri served as the 2nd Prime
Minister of India from 1964 to 1966.

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POLITY - Union Parliament - Lok Sabha

• A Vote of No Confidence is a formal proposal in Lok Sabha • Sol. (d); Article 331 of the Indian Constitution not more
to evoke a decision of the house. No Confidence Motion than two members of the Anglo-Indian community are
can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. nominated by the President of India to the House of people
• If passed and the Government is deemed to have lost if in his/her opinion they are not adequately represented.
majority and has to resign from office. The Government • Article 330. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
has to prove its majority in the house either by bringing in Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People
a vote of confidence or the opposition can ask the • Article 326. The elections to the House of the People and to
Government to prove its majority after it brings a “No the Legislative
Confidence Motion”
155. Rule (of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
• Constitution does not mention about either a Confidence Business in Lok Sabha) does NOT involve a formal motion
or a No Confidence Motion. before the Parliament House, hence no voting can take
• Although, Article 75 does specify that the Council of place after a discussion on matters under this rule.
Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. (a) 158 (b) 186
151. The salary and allowances of leaders of opposition in (c) 149 (d) 193
parliament are governed by the Act passed for the first time • Sol. (d); Rule 193 (of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct
by the parliament in the year ______. of Business in Lok Sabha) does not involve a formal
(a) 1977 (b) 1979 motion before the Parliament House; hence no voting can
(c) 1982 (d) 1972 take place after the discussion on matters under this rule.
• Sol: (a); 1977 • Rule 184 allows voting but rule 193 doesn't.
• Leader of the Opposition: The leader of the largest • Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament, while
Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of Rajya Sabha is the upper house.
the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader 156. The Parliament of India consists of _____________.
of the Opposition in a House. (a)President, House of the People and Council of States
She/He provides constructive criticism of the government (b)House of the People
policies and to provide an alternative government.
(c)House of the People and Council of States
• The leader of Opposition in both the Houses were (d)Council of States
accorded statutory recognition in 1977 and are entitled to • Sol: (a); Parliament of India consists of Lok Sabha (House
the salary, allowances and other facilities equivalent to that of People), Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the
of a cabinet minister. President. Everyone needs to pass the bill to become an act.
• The office of leader of the opposition is not mentioned in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha should meet at least twice a
the Constitution but in the Parliamentary Statute. year.
CGL 2018 157. In the context of Indian parliament what is 'Zero Hour'?
152. Which of the following is called the 'popular chamber'? (a) Time immediately after Question Hour
(a) State Assembly (b) Rajya Sabha (b) Time in the last half of the parliamentary proceeding
(c) Lok Sabha (d) Gram Sabha (c) Time before Question Hour
• Sol. (c); The Lok Sabha or House of the People is the lower (d) Time in the ﬁrst half of the parliamentary proceeding
house of India's bicameral Parliament with a maximum • Sol: (a); Zero Hour is the time when Members of
strength of 545 members who represent the people of Parliament (MPs) can raise Issues of Urgent Public
India. Importance.
• The lower house of a parliament or Lok Sabha is called a • The Zero Hour starts at 12 noon immediately following the
Popular Chamber because it is composed of Question Hour.
representatives of the people chosen by direct election • Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation. In the
based on universal adult suffrage. field of parliamentary procedures and has been in
153. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and existence since 1962.
the Rajya Sabha?
158. In Parliament, who takes the ﬁnal decision on whether a
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha (b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(c) Prime Minister (d) Vice President (a) Vice President (b) Speaker
• Sol. (a); The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the (c) Finance Minister (d) Prime Minister
President and is presided over by the Speaker or, in his • Sol: (b); Speaker of Lok Sabha decides whether a bill is a
absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his Money Bill or not.
absence, the Chairman or in his absence the Deputy-
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha: -

• If any of the above officers are not present, then any other • The Speaker is the constitutional and ceremonial head and
member of the Parliament can preside by consensus of also the principal spokesperson of the House.
both the House. • Article 93 of the Indian Constitution provides for the
154. Under which article of the Constitution of India can election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
members of the Anglo-Indian community be nominated to • His/her decision in all parliamentary matters is final.
the Lok Sabha by the President? • Shri Om Birla is current speaker of Lok-Sabha appointed
(a) 326 (b) 330 on June 19, 2019.
(c) 342 (d) 331

164
POLITY - Union Parliament - Lok Sabha

159. How many sessions of the Lok Sabha are normally held in transferable vote. The chairperson is appointed by the Lok
a year? Sabha speaker. The term of office of the members is one
(a) 7 (b) 5 year.
(c) 3 (d) 2 Strength = 22(15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha)
• Sol: (c) CHSL 2019

There are 3 sessions of the Lok Sabha held annually. 165. Which article of the Constitution of India mentions that the
Lok Sabha must have a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker?
• Budget Session: - From February to May
(a) Article 93 (b) Article 97
• Monsoon Session: - From July to September (c) Article 85 (d) Article 100
• Winter Session: - November to Mid-December • Sol: (a); Article 93: - It provides for the election of both
160. The maximum number of nominated members to Lok Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
Sabha is . • Article 97: - It regulated the salaries and allowances of the
(a) 0 (b) 3 Chairman and Deputy Chairman and Deputy Chairman of
(c) 1 (d)2 the Council of States.
• Sol: (a); The maximum number of nominated members to • Article 85: - Deals with the provisions of Sessions of
Lok Sabha is 0. Parliament, prorogation and dissolution
• Earlier two members were nominated by the President of • Article 100: - Deals with the Voting in Houses, power of
India but after January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved Housed to act notwithstanding and quorum.
seats in the Parliament and State Legislatures were
166. How many women candidates were elected to the 17th Lok
discontinued by the 126th Constitutional Amendment Bill
Sabha?
of 2019, when enacted as the 104th Constitutional
(a) 70 (b) 72
Amendment Act, 2019.
(c) 76 (d) 78
161. Who decides on the issue related to the disqualification of
• Sol: (d); 78 women were elected to the 17th Lok Sabha or
a Member of Lok Sabha under Tenth Schedule?
2019.
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
• It was highest ever number of women elected in Lok
(c) Vice President (d) Speaker
Sabha.
• Sol: (d); Under Tenth Schedule, Speaker decides on the
issue related to the disqualification of a Member of Lok 167. As of Feb 2020, how many members represent the state of
Sabha. Uttar Pradesh in Lok Sabha?
(a) 48 (b) 39
• Disqualification of Member in all other matter except
under 10th Schedule is decided by President. (c) 80 (d) 62
• Sol: (c); From Uttar Pradesh, 80 members currently
CHSL 2021
represented in Lok Sabha.
162. A Minister who for any period of ______ is not a member of
either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that • UP has 31 seats in Rajya Sabha.
period cease to be a Minister. 168. Which among the following states has the highest
(a) six consecutive months (b) three consecutive months representation in the Lok Sabha?
(c) four consecutive months (d) eight consecutive months (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Rajasthan
• Sol: (a); Article 75(5): A Minister who for any period of six (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
consecutive months is not a member of either House of • Sol: (d); Uttar Pradesh is the state having largest
Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be representations in Lok Sabha(80 seats).
a Minister • UP also has maximum number of representative in Rajya
163. In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of Sabh i.e. 31 seats.
Lok Sabha, who presides the joint sitting of the two houses 169. How many Lok Sabha constituencies are there in
of Parliament? Rajasthan?
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (a) 25 (b) 28
(b) Any senior member of Rajya Sabha (c) 30 (d) 20
(c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha • Sol: (a); There are 25 Lok Sabha constituencies in
(d) Any senior member of Lok Sabha Rajasthan.
• Sol: (c); The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the • It has also 7 constituencies in Rajya Sabha.
President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by the
Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, by the • Ashok Gehlot is the current Chief Minister of Rajasthan.
Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the CHSL 2018
Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 170. According to the Constitution of India, how many
164. Members of Public Accounts Committee are elected for a members from the Anglo-Indian community can be
period of: nominated to the Lok Sabha by the President?
(a) one year (b) two years (a) Five (b) Two
(c) five years (d) three years (c) Three (d) Four
• Sol: (a); The members are elected every year from amongst • Sol: (b); This was removed by 104 CAA.104th amendment
its members of respective houses according to the principle of the Indian Constitution extended the deadline for the
of proportional representation by means of single cessation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and
states assemblies from Seventy years to Eighty. It removed

165
POLITY - Union Parliament - Lok Sabha

the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the lasted its full tenure of five years and was dissolved on 4
Lok Sabha and state assemblies April 1957. The First Session of this Lok Sabha commenced
171. Who among the following was the Speaker of the 15th Lok on 13 May 1952
Sabha? CPO 2020
(a) P A Sangma (b) Rabi Ray 179. Of the 552 members of the Lok Sabha, ______ members
(c) Meira Kumar (d) Sumitra Mahajan represent the states.
• Sol: (c); Meira Kumar was the speaker of the 15th Lok (a) 550 (b) 530
[Link] was the first woman to become the speaker of (c) 520 (d) 540
Lok Sabha • Sol: (b); The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552,
172. The quorum to constitute a sitting of the Lok Sabha is out of which 530 members represent the States.
______ of the total number of Members of the House under • 20 members of them represent the Union Territories.
article 100(3) of the Constitution of India.
• The Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of the
(a) one-tenth (b) one-fifth
people chosen by direct election of the basis of the adult
(c) one-third (d) half suffrage.
• Sol: (a); The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is
CPO 2019
one-tenth of the total number of Members of the House
under article 100(3) of the Constitution. 180. Who among the following was the Deputy Speaker of the
first Lok Sabha?
173. Which of the following Parliamentary Committees does
(a) AK Gopalan (b) M Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
NOT draw any member from the Rajya Sabha?
(c) MN Kaul (d) Rabi Ray
(a) Committee on Estimates
• Sol: (b); M Ananthasayanam Ayyangar was the Deputy
(b) Committee on Petitions Speaker of the first Lok Sabha.
(c) Committee on Public Undertakings
• He served from 1952-1956.
(d) Committee on Public Accounts
• Sol: (a); The Estimates Committee has 30 members, and all • He also served as the second speaker of Lok Sabha.
these members are from Lok Sabha (Lower House). There • M. Thambidurai served as the Deputy Speaker from 2014-
is no representation from Rajya Sabha (Upper House). 2019.
174. Matters, which are not points of order, can be raised by • The post of Deputy Speaker has been vacant after that.
way of Special Mentions under Rule ________ of Lok
181. What allows the government to meet the expenses of
Sabha.
administration until the new parliament passes the Budget
(a) 377 (b) 302 for the whole year?
(c) 223 (d) 214 (a) Voice vote (b) Vote-on-account
• Sol: (a); Matters, which are not points of order can be
(c) Vote-on-adjustment (d) Electronic vote
raised by way of Special Mentions under Rule 377.
• Sol: (b); Vote-on-account allows the government to meet
175. In Parliamentary proceedings, how many matters per day the expenses of administration until the new parliament
as per their priority in the ballot are allowed to be raised passes the Budget for the whole year.
during 'Zero Hour'?
(a) 21 (b) 18 • Vote on Account is an advance grant that allows the
government to move on until grant applications are voted,
(c) 19 (d) 20
and the Appropriation Bill and Finance Bill is passed.
• Sol: (d); In Lok Sabha, only 20 matters per day are allowed
to be raised during the Zero Hour; • It allows the government to finance its expenses for a short
time, or until a full budget is passed.
176. On any issue pertaining to the disqualification of any
member of Lok Sabha under the 10th Schedule of the • Voice-voting is a form of voting in deliberative assemblies
Indian constitution, the final decision is taken by ______. where a collective vote on a subject or motion is taken
(a) Speaker, Lok Sabha (b) Vice-President of India by the oral response.
(c) President of India (d) Election Commission of India • It is considered by deliberative legislatures to be the easiest
• Sol: (a); Tenth Schedule - 1985 - 52nd Amendment. and fastest form of voting.
177. Who decides the admissibility of Questions in Lok Sabha? 182. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Speaker (b) Prime Minister (a) The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952.
(c) Deputy Speaker (d) Vice President (b) The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1947.
• Sol: (a); Admissibility of questions is determined by (c) The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1948.
Direction 10A of the Directions by the Speaker, Lok Sabha, (d) The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1950.
past precedents, decisions and observations from the • Sol: (a); The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952.
Chair, well-established parliamentary practices, usages,
• After India's first general election, the First Lok Sabha was
and conventions.
constituted on 17 April 1952.
178. The first session of the first Lok Sabha commenced on
• The First Session is Lok Sabha began on May 13, 1952.
________.
(a) 26th January 1950 (b) 15th August 1947 • The Lok Sabha must have elected and non-elected
(c) 15th August 1951 (d) 13th May 1952 members, as provided for in Article 93 of the Constitution
• Sol: (d); The First Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April of India.
1952 after India's first general election. The 1st Lok Sabha

166
POLITY - Union Parliament - Rajya Sabha

• The first speaker Lok Sabha was Ganesh Vasudev C-7.2. Rajya Sabha
Mavlankar who elected on 8th May 1952. CGL 2020

• The first leader of the house was Jawahar Lal Nehru who 186. In which of the following years was the Rajya Sabha first
elected on 30th May 1952. constituted?
183. What is the maximum number of Starred Questions for oral (a) 1950 (b) 1948
Answers admitted for discussion on a particular day in the (c) 1947 (d) 1952
Lok Sabha? • Sol: (d); 1952.
(a) 20 (b) 12 • The Rajya Sabha, constitutionally the Council of States, is
(c) 15 (d) 10 the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India.
• Sol. (a); Starred Question is one for which an oral Answer • The vice president of India is the chairman of the Rajya
is required to be given by the Minister on the floor of the Sabha, who presides over its sessions.
House.
• The deputy chairman, who is elected from amongst the
• The maximum number of Starred Questions for oral house's members, takes care of the day-to-day matters of
Answers admitted for discussion on a particular day in the the house in the absence of the chairman.
Lok Sabha is 20.
• The Rajya Sabha held its first sitting on 13 May 1952
• Unstarred Question is one for which the Minister lies on CHSL 2021
the table written Answer.
187. How many seats of Rajya Sabha are present in the state of
• Short Notice Question is one for which can be asked by Maharashtra?
members on matters of the public importance of an urgent (a) 19 (b) 10
nature. (c) 31 (d) 25
• In India, the ﬁrst hour of every Parliamentary sitting is • Sol: (a); The Rajya Sabha (meaning the "Council of States")
allotted for Question Hour. is the upper house of the Parliament of India. Maharashtra
• In this hour, the Members of the Parliament raise questions elects 19 seats and they are indirectly elected by the state
related to the activity of the Administration. legislators of Maharashtra.
Types Of Questions during Question Hour Method of 188. The NBFID bill was passed in Rajya Sabha on 25 March
Answer: 2021, by which NBFID will be set up as a corporate body
with an authorized share capital of ________ lakh crore
• (a) Starred Oral reply
rupees.
• (b) Non- starred Written reply (a) 2 (b) 4
184. In which year was the first-ever motion to remove a (c) 3 (d) 1
Supreme Court Justice signed, by 108 members of the • Sol: (d); The Rajya Sabha on Thursday cleared the
Parliament? legislation to establish the National Bank for Financing
(a) 1991 (b) 1996 Infrastructure and Development (NBFID), which was
(c) 1978 (d) 1984 announced in the Budget speech by Finance Minister
• Sol. (a); The ﬁrst-ever motion to remove a Supreme Court Nirmala Sitharaman as the principal development financial
Justice was signed in the year 1991, by 108 members of the institution (DFIs) for infrastructure financing with an
Parliament. authorized capital of 1 lakh crore.
• It was against Justice V. Ramaswamy, who was accused of CHSL 2020
wrongdoing related to his tenure as Chief Justice of the 189. How many Rajya Sabha seats come from the state of
Haryana and Punjab High Court. Assam?
• He served as the Chief Justice from November 1987- (a) 18 (b) 9
October 1989. (c) 7 (d) 15
CPO 2018 • Sol: (c); ASSAM Has 7 Rajya Sabha Seats
185. Under Article _______ of the Constitution of India, the • According to art 80 Maximum Rajya Sabha Seats Are
quorum to constitute a sitting of House is one-tenth of the 250(238 Elected,12 Nominated by president)
total number of Members of the House. • Currently Rajya Sabha Seats Are 245(233 Elected,12
(a) 102 (b) 100 Nominated)
(c) 103 (d) 101 190. In which of the following years was the Council of States
• Sol. (b); Under Article 100(3), the quorum to constitute a (Rajya Sabha) first constituted?
meeting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of the (a) 1952 (b) 1954
total number of members of the House. (c) 1949 (d) 1950
• If there is no quorum in the House, it shall be the duty of • Sol: (a); The members are elected in the elections held in
the Chairman, either to adjourn the House or to suspend 1952 As per the Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of
the meeting until there is a quorum. India, the Rajya Sabha was first constituted on 3 April
• The total membership of the Rajya Sabha is 245, therefore, 1952.
the presence of 25 members is the quorum sufficient to • According to article 80 maximum Members in Rajya Sabha
constitute its meeting." can be 250. Currently Rajya Sabha has 245 members (233
elected+12 nominated by President).

167
POLITY - Union Parliament - Rajya Sabha

191. How many members are nominated by the President in the • It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days,
Rajya Sabha? either with recommendations or without
(a) 14 (b) 7 recommendations.
(c) 12 (d) 9 • In cases of the ordinary bill, constitutional amendment bill
• Sol: (c); 12 Members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by and financial bill, Rajya Sabha enjoys equal status with Lok
the President of India for six-years term for their Sabha regarding the introduction and passage of bills.
contributions towards arts, literature, sciences, and social CPO 2019
services.
196. The Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police
• Anglo-Indians were provided two nominated seats in the Service are deemed to be services created by the Parliament
Lok Sabha and one nominated seat in the State Legislative under
Assemblies to ensure adequate representation of the
(a) Article 301 (b) Article 292
community in elected legislative bodies.
(c) Article 307 (d) Article 312
• But With 104th Constitution Amendment Removed the
• Sol. (d); The Indian Administrative Service and the Indian
reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok
Police Service are deemed to be services created by the
Sabha and state assemblies.
Parliament under Article 312.
192. Which of the following statements regarding the
• The Civil Services refer to the career bureaucrats which are
functioning of Rajya Sabha is correct?
the Republic of India's permanent executive branch.
(a) Rajya Sabha is dissolved after the dissolution of the Lok
Sabha. • The constitution under Article 312 grants the Rajya Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha is dissolved after the assent of the President (the Parliament's upper house) authority to establish new
of India. branches of All India Services with a two-thirds majority
(c) Rajya Sabha is dissolved every second year. vote.
(d) Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution. • Article 301 of the Constitution of India about "Freedom of
• (d); Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and is house of trade, commerce, and intercourse".
representatives. • The Indian Penal code under Article 307.
• one third of the members retire every second year and are • Article 292 of the Constitution of India about "Borrowing
replaced by newly elected members. by the Government of India".
• Each member is elected for a term of six years. 197. How many members can be appointed in Rajya Sabha from
• The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Uttar Pradesh?
Rajya Sabha. (a) 22 (b) 39
CHSL 2019 (c) 31 (d) 18
193. How many members of the Rajya Sabha can be nominated • Sol. (c); Total number of appointed member members in
by the President of India? Rajya Sabha from Uttar Pradesh is 31.
(a) 14 members (b) 16 members • The members of Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by the
(c) 10 members (d) 12 members State Legislatures of Uttar Pradesh.
• Sol: (d); 12 members can be nominated to the Rajya Sabha • These members are elected for 6 years.
by the President of India for six-years for their contribution • A total number of 1/3 members are retired after every two
towards arts, literature, sciences, and social services. years.
• This right has been bestowed upon the President according CPO 2018
to the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India 198. After 1994, how many sessions of the Rajya Sabha are
194. As per Article 80 of the Constitution of India, what can be usually held in a year?
the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha? (a) four (b) three
(a) 235 (b) 250 (c) two (d) six
(c) 240 (d) 245 • Sol. (b); After 1994, 3 sessions of the Rajya Sabha are
• Sol: (b); Article 80 of the Constitution lays down the usually held in a year.
maximum strength of Rajya Sabha as 250.
• Before that, the Rajya Sabha used to meet for 4 sessions in a
• Out of 250 seats, 12 members are nominated by the year.
President and 238 are representatives of the States and the
• A session is the time between the Parliament meeting and
two Union Territories.
its prorogation.
• The present strength of Rajya Sabha is 245.
• Rajya Sabha is a continuous body and is not a subject to
195. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about dissolution.
Rajya Sabha?
• 250th session of Rajya Sabha starts on 18th November.
(a) It can amend a money bill.
(b) Twelve of its members are nominated by the President. • The Rajya Sabha has 250 fixed seats. One-third of the
members retire every 2 years.
(c) It has powers that protect the rights of states against the
union. • Chairman M Venkaiah Naidu released a publication on
(d) It is the upper house of the Parliament of India. 17th November that details the upper House's journey
• Sol: (a); Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a money bill. since its first sitting in May 1952.

168
POLITY - State Executive and Legislature - Governor

• The Total number sitting of the house till 249th session is • Article 371H -Special provision with respect to the State
5466. of Arunachal Pradesh.
• In the evolution of Rajya Sabha, there are a silver coin of Rs • Article 371I -Special provision with respect to the State
250 and a postal stamp of Rs 5 will also be released. of Goa.
• The first money bill has been passed by Rajya Sabha. • Article 371J - Special provision with respect to the State
• The first bill referred to terrorism was passed in 1984. of Karnataka.

• Joint sessions of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are held to 201. Who has the power to recommend the dismissal of the state
allow the two houses to consider bills together and resolve government and suspension or dissolution of the state
assembly?
disputes. The session is summoned by the President but
presided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha." (a) Chief Minister (b) Governor
(c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker of Legislative Assembly
• Sol: (b); Governor
C-8. State Executive and Legislature
• Governor has the power to recommend the dismissal of the
state government and suspension or dissolution of the
C-8.1. Governor state assembly.
CGL 2020
CGL 2019
199. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the
202. Name the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory
'Pardoning Power of the Governor'?
of Jammu and Kashmir.
(a) Article 150 (b) Article 189
(a) Arif Mohammad Khan (b) Bhagat Singh Koshyari
(c) Article 161 (d) Article 173
(c) Satya Pal Malik (d) Girish Chandra Murmu
• Sol: (c); Article 150- Form of Accounts of The Union and of
● Sol: (d); Girish Chandra Murmu
The States.
● He was the Inaugural Lieutenant Governor of the Union
• Article 189- Voting in Houses power of Houses to act Territory of Jammu and Kashmir till 6 August 2020. He is
notwithstanding vacancies and quorum a 1985 batch IAS officer of Gujarat cadre and was
• Article161- The Governor of a State shall have the power to principal secretary to Narendra Modi during his tenure as
grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of the Chief Minister of Gujarat.
punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence 203. Who appoints the Advocate General of states?
of any person convicted of any offence against any law (a) President of India (b) Chief Justice of the High Court
relating to a matter to which the executive power of the (c) Governor of the state (d) Chief Minister of the state
State extends. ● Sol: (c); Governor of the state
• Article 173- A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to ● The Advocate General of State is appointed by the
fill a seat in the Legislature of a State unless he is, in the Governor. There is no fixed term for the office of the
case of a seat in a Legislative Assembly, not less than Advocate General of State. The Constitution does not
twenty-five years of age, and in the case of a seat in a contain the procedure for its removal.
Legislative Council, not less than thirty-five years of age. CGL 2018
200. In which of the following states does the Governor have 204. Which article of the Constitution of India provides that
special responsibility under Article 371H of the each Indian state will have a governor?
Constitution with respect to law and order and in discharge (a) Article 152 (b) Article 153
of his functions in relation thereto? (c) Article 151 (d) Article 154
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Nagaland • Sol. (b); Art. 151 Audit reports
(c) Mizoram (d) Sikkim
• Art. 152. Definition In this Part, unless the context
• Sol: (a); Arunachal Pradesh otherwise, requires, the expression State does not include
• Article 371 - provision with respect to the States the State of Jammu and Kashmir
of Maharashtra and Gujarat. • Art. 153. Governors of States There shall be Governor for
• Article 371A - Special provision with respect to the State each State: Provided that nothing in this article shall
of Nagaland. It was inserted into the Part XXI of the Indian prevent the appointment of the same person as Governor
Constitution in the year 1962. for two or more States
• Article 371B - Special provision with respect to the State • Art.154 The executive power of State
of Assam. 205. Who among the following is/was the longest serving
• Article 371C - Special provision with respect to the State governor of an Indian state?
of Manipur. (a) Lakshmi Kant Jha (b) Padmaja Naidu
• Article 371 D - Special provisions with respect to the State (c) M M Jacob (d) Sarojini Naidu
of Andhra Pradesh. • Sol: (c); M M Jacob has distinction of being the longest
serving governor of an Indian state.
• Article 371E - Establishment of Central University
in Andhra Pradesh. • He was the governor of Meghalaya from 1995 to 2007 for a
total of 11 years 239 days.
• Article 371F Special provisions with respect to the State
of Sikkim. • Padmaja Naidu is next in line and longest serving women
• Article 371G - Special provision with respect to the State governor of an Indian state who served in West Bengal
of Mizoram. from 1956 to 1967.

169
POLITY - State Executive and Legislature - Governor

• Governor of state is defined in Article 153 of Indian • The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the
Constitution. President.
CHSL 2021 • A person of the age of 35 years can become a Governor.
206. The Article of the Indian Constitution that deals with all • He/she should be a citizen of India in order to become a
the executive powers of the Governor is . Governor.
(a) Article 150 (b) Article 157
• The Governor submits his resignation to the President.
(c) Article 154 (d) Article 156
• Sol: (c); Article 154 deals with the executive power of the 211. According to Article 361 of the Constitution of India, a
State shall be vested in the Governor and shall be exercised criminal proceeding cannot be instituted in a court against
by him either directly or through officer’s subordinate to the ______ during his term of office
him in accordance with this Constitution. (a) Chief Minister (b) Prime Minister
CHSL 2019
(c) Vice-President (d) Governor
• Sol.(d); Governor
207. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Governor has no power to grant pardon in respect of • According to Article 361 of the Constitution of India, a
punishment or sentence inflicted by Court Martial. criminal proceeding cannot be instituted in a court against
(b) The President has no power to grant pardon in respect of the Governor during his term of office.
punishment or sentence inflicted by Court Martial. • The President or Governor, while in the office is not
(c) The Governor has no power to suspend, remit or personally responsible for any court for the exercise and
commute a sentence of death. execution of their powers.
(d) The Governor has power to grant pardon in case of a • Article 361 makes it clear that any court, tribunal, or entity
death sentence. appointed or appointed by any House of Parliament to
• Sol: (a);The governor does not have the power to pardon investigate a complaint pursuant to Article 61 can bring the
the sentence inflicted by the court martial on the convict. President's conduct under investigation.
• The Governor, as well as the President, has the power to • Any criminal proceedings cannot be started or continued
alter the decision announced by the court to grant pardon, in any court during its term of office against the President,
suspend, remit, and commute a death sentence. or the Governor of a State.
• The Governor cannot pardon the Death sentence which • No court may grant arrest warrants for either President or
only can be pardoned by the President. Governor.
208. Who is the head of the government of a state in India? • Civil proceedings against a Governor or President over
(a) Chief Minister (b) Speaker of the Assembly actions that he has done in his personal capacity can only
(c) Governor (d) Prime Minister be carried out with the prior notice of 2 months.
• Sol: (c); The Head of the government of a state in India is 212. The President may issue a proclamation of emergency
the Governor. under Article 356 on receipt of a report from the ______ of a
• The Governor of a State is appointed by the President for a state
term of five years and holds office during his pleasure. (a) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
• The primary function of the governor is to preserve, (b) Chief Justice of the High Court
protect and defend the constitution and law as (c) Advocate-General (d) Governor
incorporated in their oath of office under Article 159 of the • Sol. (d); The President may proclaim a state of emergency
Indian constitution. under Article 356 on receipt of a report from
CHSL 2018
the Governor of a state.
209. Who was the first woman to become the governor of an • Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, the central
Indian state? government may take direct control of the state machinery
(a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Aruna Asaf Ali in the event that a state government is unable to function
according to constitutional provisions.
(c) Vijay Laxmi Pandit (d) Krishna Hutheesing
• Sol: (a); Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the • Executive authority is subsequently exercised by the
governor of an Indian state. She governed Uttar Pradesh constitutionally appointed governor, who has the power to
from 15 August 1947 to 2 March 1949. Her daughter, select other administrators to assist them.
Padmaja Naidu, is the longest-serving female governor • When a state government operates properly, it is run by an
with almost 11 years of tenure in West Bengal. elected Council of Ministers.
CPO 2019 • These elected Council of Ministers are accountable to
210. Which of the following is INCORRECT? the legislative assembly of the state (Vidhan Sabha).
(a) A person of the age of 30 years can become the Governor. CPO 2018
(b) The Governor is appointed by the President 213. The Governor of Indian state generally holds office for a
(c) The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the period of ______ years.
President. (a) 4 (b) 5
(d) The Governor submits his resignation to the President (c) 7 (d) 3
• Sol. (a); • Sol. (b); Article 156 states that the term of the Governor is
• The Governor is appointed by the President. generally five years. No age limit. He remains in the office
under the pleasure of the President.

170
POLITY - Judiciary - Chief minister

• The Governor of the state is similar (not the same) to the CHSL 2019
President of the Union. 218. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
• Article 157 and Article 158 of the Constitution of India India has a provision for the Constitution of Legislatures in
specify eligibility requirements for the post of governor. States?
They are as follows: (a) 165 (b) 168
(c) 163 (d) 167
A Governor must:
• Sol: (b); Under Article-168 of the constitution, there has a
• be a citizen of India. provision for the Constitution of Legislatures in States.
• be at least 35 years of age. • Article 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deals with
• not be a member of either house of the parliament or house the organization, composition, duration, officers,
of the state legislature. procedures, privileges, powers of the state legislature.
• not hold any office of profit. • States having bicameral legislature are Andhra Pradesh,
Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, and
C-8.2. Chief minister Karnataka.
CGL 2019
• The legislature’s maximum strength in fixed at 500 and
214. Freedom fighter Sucheta Kripalani, became the first minimum strength at 60.
woman chief minister of which state?
219. As per the Constitution ninety-first amendment act, 2003,
(a) Rajasthan (b) Andhra Pradesh
the total number of Ministers, including the Chief
(c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State cannot
• Solution: (d); Uttar Pradesh exceed ______ of the total number of members of the
• She was also among the 15 women chosen to draft the Legislative Assembly of that State.
Indian Constitution as part of the legendary Constituent (a) 20% (b) 25%
Assembly. A freedom fighter, a drafter of the Constitution, (c) 15% (d) 10%
a chief minister and a path-breaker for women • Sol: (c); As per 91st Constitution Amendment, the total
everywhere. She inspired students to join the freedom number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the
movement. Council of Ministers in a state shall not exceed fifteen per
• She was jailed by the British. She even worked closely with cent. of the total number of members of the House of the
Mahatma Gandhi. People.
• On August 14, 1947 - she sang the national anthem before • According to article 74(1), there shall be a Council of
PM Nehru made his famous ‘Tryst with destiny’ speech. Ministers, led by the Prime Minister, to assist and advise
CGL 2018 the President.
215. As of April 2019, who is longest serving chief minister of 220. Which of the following statements is correct?
an Indian state? (a) The Vice-President can dissolve the Legislative Council of
(a) Jyoti Basu (b) Sheila Dixit a State.
(c) Jayalalitha (d) Pawan Chamling (b) The Governor can dissolve the Legislative Assembly of a
• Sol: (d); Pawan Chamling has created history by becoming State.
the longest serving CM in India. (c) The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha.
• He has held the Chief Minister position of Sikkim for 25 (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can dissolve the Lok
years which is 5 terms now Sabha.
• Sol: (b); The Governor can dissolve the Legislative
C-8.3. State Legislature Assembly of a State.
CHSL 2021 • The Governor does so due to an emergency or if a vote of
216. How many members of the Legislative Council are there in no confidence against the government is passed.
the state of Karnataka? • The governor is the head of the state.
(a) 68 (b) 78
CHSL 2018
(c) 75 (d) 100
221. What is the minimum age requirement to become a
• Sol: (c); The Karnataka Legislative Council is a permanent
Member of the Legislative Assembly?
body comprising 75 members.
(a) 32 years (b) 42 years
217. The Chairman of the Legislative Council is: (c) 20 years (d) 25 years
(a) elected by the Chief Minister and their Cabinet • Sol: (d); A person should be, citizen of India not less than
(b) appointed by the Chief Minister of that state 25 years and of age to be member of the Legislative
(c) elected by the members of the Legislative Council Assembly and not less than 30 years as per Article 173 of
(d) appointed by the Governor of that state Indian Constitution to be a member of the Legislative
• Sol: (c); The size of the State Legislative Council cannot be Council.
more than one third of the membership of the State
Legislative Assembly. However, its size cannot be less than C-9. Judiciary
40 members. These members elect the Chairman and
Deputy Chairman of the State Legislative Council.

171
POLITY - Judiciary - Supreme court

C-9.1. Supreme court • Sol: (d); The "creamy layer" is excluded from reservation
CGL 2021 under Other Backward Classes category. In Pichra Warg
222. The Contempt of Courts Act was passed to define and limit Kalyan Mahasabha Haryana v. State of Haryana, the Court
the powers of certain courts in punishing contempt of reaffirmed that creamy layer is based on social
courts and to regulate their procedure in relation thereto. In forwardness and not economic criteria alone
which of the following years was the Act passed? 226. In the Jayamma vs state of _____________ case, in May 2021,
(a) 1982 (b) 1969 the Supreme Court observed that dying declarations are
(c) 1971 (d) 1975 admissible in evidence on the principle of necessity, as
• Sol: (c); 1971. The Contempt of Courts Act 1971 defines there is little hope of the maker surviving.
civil and criminal contempt and lays down the powers and (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka
procedures by which courts can penalise contempt, as well (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
as the penalties that can be given for the offence of • Sol: (b); On May 7, 2021, the Hon'ble Supreme Court of
contempt. India delivered a judgment that revolved around the issue
• The Contempt of Courts Act 1971 categorises the offence of of dying declaration.
contempt into civil and criminal contempt. The Act • The decision was passed in the case of Jayamma & Anr. v.
specifies that High Courts and the Supreme Court of India The State of Karnataka, 2021 with Lachma s/o
have the power to try and punish the offence of contempt, Chandyanaika & Anr.
and High Courts have the power to punish acts of 227. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that
contempt against courts subordinate to them; however, the “Supreme Court to be a court of record”?
Supreme Court of India has clarified that any court of
(a) Article 135 (b) Article 126
record has the inherent power to punish for contempt.
(c) Article 129 (d) Article 131
• In addition to these courts, certain administrative tribunals • Sol: (c); Article 129 of the Indian Constitution empowers
also have been given the power to punish for contempt, in the Supreme Court to be a court of record.
their governing statutes.
• In other words, the Supreme Court shall be a court of
CGL 2019
record and shall have all the powers of such a court,
223. Which of the following Articles is related to the Ancillary including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
powers of Supreme Court?
228. To whom can the Judge of the Supreme Court address
(a) Article 143 (b) Article 140 his/her resignation letter?
(c) Article 138 (d) Article 150 (a) The Prime Minister of India (b) The President of India
• Solution: (b); Article 140
(c) The Chief Justice of India (d) The Law Minister of India
• Ancillary powers of Supreme Court. —Parliament may by • Sol: (b); Judges of the supreme court and high courts are
law make provision for conferring upon the Supreme appointed by the president and their resignations are also
Court such supplemental powers not inconsistent with any submitted to the president.
of the provisions of this Constitution as may appear to be
• Supreme Court Judge retires at the age of 65 years.
necessary or desirable for the purpose of enabling the
Court more effectively to exercise the jurisdiction • High Court Judge retires at the age of 62 years
conferred upon it by or under this Constitution. CHSL 2019
CGL 2018 229. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
224. In case of death of the President and the Vice President of (a) President of India in consultation with senior judges of
India, the _________ will act as the President of India. Supreme Court
(a) Parliament chosen candidate (b) Prime Minister of India (b) Judges of Supreme Court and High Court
(c) Chief Justice of India (d) Attorney General of India (c) President of India in consultation with senior judges of
• Sol: (c); The Chief Justice of India will act as the President Supreme Court and High Court
of India, in case of death of President and Vice-President of (d) President of India
India. • Sol: (d); Appointment of acting Chief Justice is to be made
• It happens in 1969, when CJI Mohd Hidyatullah assumed by the President under Article 126 of the Constitution.
duties as Acting President of India in absence of President • The position of the Chief Justice of India is the highest
and Vice-president. judicial position in the country.
• Appointment of acting Chief Justice is to be made by the • The CJI can hold the office up to the age of 65 years.
President under Article 126 of the Constitution. • The CJI can be removed only through a process of
• Harilal Jekisundas Kania was the first Chief Justice of impeachment by Parliament.
India. 230. Who is the 47th Chief Justice of India?
CHSL 2021 (a) Sharad Arvind Bobde (b) Dipak Misra
225. In August 2021, the Supreme Court in the Pichra Warg (c) Ranjan Gogoi (d) NV Ramana
Kalyan Mahasabha vs. _______________case reaffirmed that • Sol: (a); Sharad Arvind Bobde served as the 47th Chief
‘creamy layer’ is based on social forwardness and not Justice of India from 18 November 2019 to 23 April 2021.
economic criteria alone.
• He is a former Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh Court.
(a) State of Rajasthan (b) State of Gujarat
(c) State of Madhya Pradesh (d) State of Haryana

172
POLITY - Judiciary - High court
CHSL 2018 or he must be, in the opinion of the President, a
231. The power to enquire into and decide all doubts and distinguished jurist.
disputes arising out of election of the President is vested • In the constitution provisions also exist for the
in: appointment of a Judge of a High Court as an Ad-hoc
(a) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha Judge of the Supreme Court and for retired Judges of the
(b) The Prime Minister of India Supreme Court or High Courts to sit and act as Judges of
(c) The Supreme Court (d) The Election Commission that Court.
• Sol: (c); All doubts and disputes arising out of or in 235. The inaugural session of the Supreme Court of India took
connection with the election of a President or Vice- place on ___________.
President shall be inquired into and decided by the (a) 26th January 1950 (b) 28th January 1950
Supreme Court whose decision shall be final
(c) 29th January 1950 (d) 31st January 1950
CPO 2019 • Sol. (b); The inaugural session of the Supreme Court of
232. The power to enquire into and decide all doubts and India took place on 28th January 1950.
disputes arising out of the election of the President is
• This was just 2 days after India became the Democratic
vested in the:
Republic.
(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (b) High Court of Delhi
(c) Lokpal (d) Supreme Court • Supreme Court is the uppermost court of appeal and is the
custodian of the Constitution.
• Sol. (d); All disputes and doubts regarding the election of
the President are adjudicated by the Supreme Court. • It has 33 judges and 1 Chief Justice of India appointed by
the President of India. The total strength as prescribed by
• The decision given by the Supreme Court will not be
the constitution is 31.
challenged.
• The judges of the supreme court retire at the age of 65
• Article 54 of the Indian Constitution deals with Election of
years. There is no minimum age required to become Chief
President and Article 61 deals with his impeachment.
Justice.
• The President is elected by members of the Electoral
• Foundation stone for the building of Supreme Court was
College consisting of the elected members of both the
laid by first President of India Dr Rajendra Prasad on 29
Houses of Parliament.
October 1954.
• The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the
states and the elected members of the Legislative C-9.2. High court
Assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and • There are 24 High Courts in India. The Calcutta High
Puducherry. Court, established in 1862, is the oldest High Court in
233. Which article of the Constitution of India states that 'all India.
authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall • Under Article 217, the Judges of the High Court are
act in aid of the Supreme Court'? appointed by the President.
(a) Article 157 (b) Article 121 CGL 2020
(c) Article 137 (d) Article 144
236. As per Article ______ of the Constitution of India, English
• Sol. (d); Article 144 of the Constitution of India states that
is the official language for all the high courts in the
'all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India
country.
shall act in aid of the Supreme Court'.
(a) 315 (1) (b) 329 (1)
• Article 157 of the Indian Constitution deals with the (c) 336 (1) (d) 348 (1)
powers of the State Governor. • Sol: (d); Article 348 (1): Article 348 (1) of the Constitution
• Article 137 of the Indian Constitution deals with the of India provides that all proceedings in the Supreme
Review Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Court and in every High court shall be in English
• Article 121 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Language until Parliament by law otherwise provides.
Restriction of Discussion in Parliament. • Article 315 (1): Subject to the provisions of this article,
CPO 2018 there shall be a Public Service Commission for the Union
234. As per the Constitution of India, Supreme Court Judges in and a Public Service Commission for each State.
India retire at the age of ________. • Article 329 (1): special provision as to elections to
(a) 60 (b) 75 parliament in the case of prime minister and speaker.
(c) 65 (d) 50 • Article 336 (1): During the first two years after the
• Sol. (c); At present, the retirement age is 65 years for commencement of this Constitution, appointments of
Supreme Court judges and 62 years for high court judges. members of the Anglo-Indian community to posts in the
• Union Parliament decides the retirement age for both railway, customs, postal and telegraph services of the
Supreme Court and High Court judges. Union shall be made on the same basis as immediately
before the fifteenth day of August, 1947.
• According to article 124 of the Indian constitution, in order
CGL 2018
to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court, a person
must be a citizen of India and must have been, for at least 237. Lok Adalats have been created under__________.
five years, a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such (a) Legal Services Authority Act
Courts in succession, or an Advocate of a High Court or of (b) Administration of Justice Act
two or more such Courts in succession for at least 10 years (c) Arbitration and Conciliation Act

173
POLITY - Local Self-Government - Panchayats

(d) Legal Conciliation Act CHSL 2019

• Sol. (a); Lok Adalat is one of the modes of Alternative 242. The election to constitute a Panchayat should be completed
Dispute Resolution. before the expiration of a period of______ from the date of
• The Lok Adalat Mechanism is available throughout the its dissolution.
State through the Legal Services Authorities/Committees (a) one year (b) two months
for amicable settlement. (c) six months (d) eight months
• Sol: (c); An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be
• It is a very effective institution of alternative dispute
completed before the expiration of a period of six
resolution, where the cases pending in the court of law or
months from the date of its dissolution.
at pre-litigation stage are settled amicably.
• It is mentioned in Article 243E of the Constitution of India.
• The decision or decree of Lok Adalat is final and binding
like a civil court. CHSL 2018
243. As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the
• It consists of a sitting or retired judicial officer. Lok Adalat
intermediate level may NOT be constituted in a State
has been given statutory status under the Legal
having a population not exceeding:
Services Authorities Act, 1987.
(a) Thirty lakhs (b) Forty lakhs
CHSL 2021
(c) Ten lakhs (d) Twenty lakhs
238. Which of the following is the oldest High Court?
• Sol: (d); Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be
(a) Karnataka High Court (b) Calcutta High Court constituted in a State having a population not exceeding
(c) Allahabad High Court (d) Delhi High Court twenty lakhs
• Sol: (b); The Calcutta High Court is the oldest high court in CPO 2019
the country, established on 2 July 186(b) High courts that
244. As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the
handle numerous cases of a particular region have
intermediate level may not be constituted in a state having
permanent benches established there.
a population not exceeding
239. In February 2022, the Karnataka High Court declared (a) twelve lakh (b) twenty-five lakh
certain provisions of the Karnataka Police (Amendment)
(c) fifteen lakh (d) twenty lakh
Act, 2021 as unconstitutional, which prohibited and
• Sol. (d); As per the Constitution of India, Panchayats at the
criminalised the activities related to .
intermediate level may not be constituted in a state having
(a) use of dark web (b) gathering at nightclubs
a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
(c) online gaming (d) gambling
• Sol: (c); In a relief to online gaming operators and players, • PART IX Article 243(B) provides for Panchayati raj
the High Court of Karnataka on Monday declared as institutions in every village, district and state. It provides
unconstitutional certain provisions of the Karnataka Police the conditions to be met for setting up a panchayat
(Amendment) Act, 2021, which prohibited and • The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) provided a
criminalised the activities of offering and playing online Constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions in
games, by risking money or otherwise India through the insertion of Article 243 to Part IX of
240. A judge of the High Court retires at the age of . Indian Constitution.
(a) 60 (b) 56 • Part IX focused on organizing the 3 tier Panchayat system,
(c) 65 (d) 62 which would be constituted in every state at the village
• Sol (d); Judges of the supreme court and high courts are level, intermediate level and district level.
appointed by the president and their resignations are also 245. Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law
submitted to the president. for the time being in force, shall continue for ______ year/s
Supreme Court Judge retires at the age of 65 years. from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
• As per Article 217(1) of the Constitution, High Court (a) three (b) One
judges retire at 62. (c) five (d) two
• Sol. (c); Every Panchayat can continue for 5 years from the
C-10. Local Self-Government date of its first meeting. It can be dissolved earlier in
accordance with State law.
C-10.1. Panchayats • A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution,
CGL 2018 continues only for the remainder of the period. But if the
241. What is the term of the elected representatives of a Gram remainder of the period is less than 6 months it is not
Panchayat? necessary to hold elections.
(a) 5 years (b) 3 years • The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 gave constitutional
(c) 2 years (d) 4 years status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
• Sol: (a); The term of the elected representatives of a Gram • The Panchayati Raj system is for only those states having a
Panchayat is 5 years. population of more than 20 lakhs.
• They are elected on basis of Direct Election • The first gram panchayat of India was at Nagaur district of
• The Gram panchayat is chaired by the president of the Rajasthan.
village, known as Sarpanch. 246. How many tiers are there in the Panchayati Raj structure?
(a) Four (b) Three
(c) Two (d) Five

174
POLITY - Important Articles of the Constitution - Municipalities

• Sol. (b); There are three tiers in the Panchayati Raj • P.K. Thungon Committee,1989
structure. • S. Mohinder Singh, 2013
• These 3 tiers are Gram Panchayat, Zila Parishad, and
Panchayat Samiti. C-11. Important Articles of the Constitution
• Gram Panchayat is at the village level, Panchayat Samiti at CGL 2021
the block level, and Zila Parishad at the district level. 249. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is the watchdog of
• A Gram Panchayat covers one or more villages. free and fair elections in the country and ______ of the
Constitution of India provides for its establishment.
• Panchayat Samitis are indirectly elected bodies, in most
cases. (a) Article 356 (b) Article 324
(c) Article 352 (d) Article 101
• The jurisdiction of Zila Parishad extends over a district.
• Sol: (b); Article 356 - if a state government is unable to
The district collector heads the Zila Parishad at the district
function according to Constitutional provisions, the Union
level.
government can take direct control of the state machinery.
• The Panchayati raj institutions were constitutionalized
through the 73rd amendment Act 1992.
• Article 324 - Superintendence, direction, and control of
• Rajasthan was the first state to ratify and set up the elections to be vested in an Election Commission
Panchayati raj institution in the country.
• Article 352 - deals with the proclamation of an emergency
C-10.2. Municipalities due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion. This is
CHSL 2018
popularly known as ‘National Emergency’.
247. According to Article 243 V of the Constitution of India, the • Article 101 - No person shall be a member of both Houses
minimum age requirement for becoming a member of a of Parliament and provision shall be made by Parliament
Municipality is ___________. by law for the vacation by a person who is chosen a
(a) 24 years (b) 28 years member of both Houses of his seat in one House or the
(c) 32 years (d) 21 years other
• Sol: (d); According to Article 243 V of the Constitution of 250. Article ______ of the Constitution of India lays down the
India, the minimum age requirement for becoming a process for introducing changes in the
member of a Municipality is 21 years Constitution.
CPO 2018 (a) 374 (b) 368
248. The Panchayat Raj System was first adopted by the state of (c) 351 (d) 342
________. • Sol: (b); Amending the Constitution of India is the process
(a) West Bengal (b) Tamil Nadu of making changes to the nation's fundamental law or
supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the
• Sol. (d); The Panchayati Raj System was first adopted by
Constitution of India.
the state of Rajasthan.
• Article 351 – It shall be the duty of the Union to promote
Panchayati Raj -
the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it
• It is a system of local self-government in India. may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements
• It was put in force in 1992 through the 73rd amendment to of the composite culture of India.
the Indian Constitution. • Article 342 deals with the provisions related to Scheduled
The system has three levels: Tribes.
➢ Gram Panchayat (village level), 251. Article ______ of the Indian Constitution states that ‘there
➢ Mandal Parishad or Block Samiti or Panchayat Samiti shall be a Commission for the socially and educationally
(block level), backward classes to be known as the National Commission
for Backward Classes’.
➢ Zila Parishad (district level)
(a) 243S (1) (b) 243Y (1)
• Currently, the system exists in all states except Nagaland, (c) 338B (1) (d) 124A (1)
Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and in all Union Territories • Sol: (c); 338B (1)
except Delhi.
• The 102nd Amendment inserted Article 338B into the
• The Panchayat Raj system was first adopted by the state of Constitution.
Rajasthan in Nagaur district on 2 Oct 1959.
• This article provides for the establishment of a commission
List of committees constituted for recommendations for the socially and educationally backward classes to be
regarding Panchayati Raj in India: - known as the National Commission for Backward Classes.
• Balwant Rai Mehta, 1957 • The NCBC thus received a constitutional status after this
• V.T. Krishnamacharya, 1960 amendment was passed.
• Takhatmal Jain Study Group, 1966 • As per the article, the commission shall consist of the
• Ashok Mehta Committee, 1978 following members who would be appointed by the
President:
• G.V.K. Rao Committee, 1985
• Chairperson
• Dr. L.M. Singhvi Committee, 1986
• Vice-chairperson

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POLITY - Important Articles of the Constitution - Municipalities

• Three other members Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the
CGL 2020 Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
252. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of • Article 123-grants the President certain law-making
India provides power to the President for promulgating- powers to promulgate ordinances during the recess of
ordinances? Parliament.
(A) Article 111 (B) Article 77 • Article 231-enable Parliament to establish a common High
(C) Article 123 (D) Article 143 Court for two or more States.
• Sol: (c); Article- 123- If at any time, except when both 256. According to which of the following Articles of the
Houses of Parliament are in session, the President is Constitution of India shall a Money Bill NOT be
satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary introduced in the Council of States?
for him to take immediate action, he may promulgate such (A) Article 298 (B) Article 109
Ordinances as the circumstances appear to him to require.
(C) Article 193 (D) Article 354
• Article-111- "Assent to Bills" • Sol: (b); Article 109-The President shall in respect of every
• Article-77- All executive action of the Government of India financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses of
shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President. Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and
expenditure of the Government of India for that year
• Article- 143- the president to seek the opinion of the
Supreme court • Article 193- It prescribed a penalty for disqualified or not-
253. The concept of ‘Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes qualified members who participate or vote in the State
and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People’ is Legislature.
highlighted in Article ______ of the Constitution of India. • Article 298-Article gave the Union and the State executives
(A) 361 (B) 330 the power to grant, sell, dispose or mortgage any property
(C) 345 (D) 326 held by them and the power to purchase, acquire property
• Sol: (b); Article 330- Reservation of seats for Scheduled and make contracts.
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People. • Article 354-Whoever assaults or uses criminal force to any
• Article 361-The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh woman, intending to outrage or knowing it to be likely
of a State, shall not be Answerable to any court for the that he will there by outrage her modesty.
exercise and performance of the powers 257. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
• Article 345-Official language or languages of a State India defines for a separate secretarial staff for each House
Subject of the Parliament?
(a) Article 155 (b) Article 98
• Article 326- the elections to the House of the People and to
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 34
the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the
• Sol: (b);
basis of adult suffrage
Article 98
254. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
India provides for the creation of a GST Council? • Secretariat of Parliament
(A) Article 246A (B) Article 279A • 1. Each House of Parliament shall have a separate
(C) Article 269A (D) Article 323A secretariat staff: Provided that nothing in this clause shall
• Sol: (b); Article 279 A- The President shall, within sixty be construed as preventing the creation of posts common
days from the date of commencement of the Constitution to both Houses of Parliament
(One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, by order, • 2. Parliament may by law regulate the recruitment, and the
constitute a Council to be called the Goods and Services conditions of service of persons appointed, to the
Tax Council secretarial staff of either House of Parliament
• Article 246A- inserted to confer concurrent taxing powers • 3. Until provision is made by Parliament under clause (2),
on the Union as well as the States. the President may, after consultation with the Speaker of
• Article 269 A- Article 269A stipulates that GST on supplies the House of the People or the chairman of the council of
in the course of inter- State trade or commerce shall be States, as the case may be, make rules regulating the
levied and collected by the Government of India. recruitment, and the conditions of service of persons
• Article 323A- establishment of Administrative Tribunals appointed, to the secretarial staff of the House of the
and is not relevant for our purpose People or the council of States, and any rules so made shall
have effect subject to the provisions of any law made
255. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
under the said clause Conduct of Business
India adopted Hindi in Devanagari script as the official
language of the Union? Article 155
(A) Article 108 (B) Article 343 (1) • Appointment of Governor the Governor of a State shall be
(C) Article 123 (D) Article 231 appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and
• Sol: (b); Article 343 (1)- Hindi in Devanagari script shall be seal
the official language of the Union. Article 123
• Article 108-The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by • Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during
the President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by recess of Parliament
the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, by the Article 34

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POLITY - Important Articles of the Constitution - Municipalities

• It empowers the parliament to indemnify any government • Freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse Subject to
servant or any other person for any act done by him in the other provisions of this Part, trade, commerce, and
connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free
any area where martial law in force. CGL 2019
258. According to which of the following Articles of the 261. Article 17 of the Constitution of India deals with the
Constitution of India shall a Money Bill not be introduced abolition of ________.
in a Legislative Council? (a) sati (b) untouchability
(a) Article 451 (b) Article 189 (c) titles (d) slavery
(c) Article 333 (d) Article 198 • Sol: (b); Untouchability
• Sol: (d); Article 198
• Article 17 of the Indian Constitution helps end
Article 198 untouchability against lower castes. Untouchability is a
• Special procedure in respect of Money Bills. criminal offense. The article is crucial to establishing
Article 333 equality in Indian society. This article stipulates that
anybody who violates the article infringes on citizen
• Representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the equality and constitutional rights
Legislative Assemblies of the States Notwithstanding
262. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prohibits
anything in Article 170, the Governor of a State may, if he
discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex,
is of opinion that the Anglo Indian community needs
and place of birth?
representation in the Legislative Assembly of the State and
is not adequately represented therein, nominate one (a) Article 23 (b) Article 25
member of that community to the Assembly (c) Article 19 (d) Article 15
• Sol: (d); Article 15
Article 189
• Article 15 : Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of
• Voting in Houses, power of Houses to act notwithstanding
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. (1) The State shall
vacancies and quorum
not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of
259. According to which of the following Articles of the religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
Constitution of India can the Parliament amend the
263. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution are special
Constitution?
provisions provided to language spoken in a section of the
(a) Article 129 (b) Article 234 population?
(c) Article 103 (d) Article 368 (a) Article 347 (b) Article 357
• Sol: (d); Article 368-Under this, the parliament can amend
(c) Article 337 (d) Article 374
the constitution.
• Sol: (a); Article 347 gives the President the power to
• Article 129-Supreme Court to be a court of record The recognise a language as an official language of a given
Supreme Court shall be a court of record and shall have all state, provided that the President is satisfied that a
the powers of such a court including the power to punish substantial proportion of that state desires that the
for contempt of itself language be recognise(d) Such recognition can be for a part
• Article 234-Recruitment of persons other than district of the state or the whole state
judges to the judicial service Appointment of persons other 264. Which of the following is one of the Articles of the
than district judges to the judicial service of a State shall be Constitution of India that mentions the Comptroller and
made by the Governor of the State in accordance with rules Auditor General of India?
made by him in that behalf after consultation with the (a) 352 (b) 280
State Public Service Commission and with the High Court (c) 156 (d) 148
exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State • Sol: (d); Article 148 of the Indian Constitution deals with
• Article 103-Decision on questions as to disqualifications of provisions related to the Comptroller and Auditor-General
members of India. It states that there shall be a Comptroller and
260. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of Auditor-General of India who shall be appointed by the
India states that there would be no tax levied or collected President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall
EXCEPT by the authority of law? only be removed from office in like manner and on like
(a) Article 265 (b) Article 123 grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
(c) Article 107 (d) Article 301 • Also, Article 148 gives details regarding the oath or
• Sol: (a); Article 265 affirmation to be taken by the CAG, salary and other
Article 265 conditions
265. Article _____ of the Constitution of India deals with
• Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law No tax
provisions related to the administration and control of
shall be levied or collected except by authority of law
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
Article 123 (a) 244(1) (b) 244(2)
• Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during (c) 222(1) (d) 222(2)
recess of Parliament • Sol: (a); Article 244 of the Indian Constitution deals with
Article 107 the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. It
• Provisions as to introduction and passing of Bills contained two provisions as follows:

Article 301

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POLITY - Important Articles of the Constitution - Municipalities

• The provisions of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the Constitutional provisions, the Union government can take
administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and direct control of the state
Scheduled Tribes in any State other than the States of • In 1959 central government of India undertook Kerala's
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. governance on behalf of article 356 (president rule)
• The provisions of the Sixth Schedule shall apply to the • In constitution there are 3 types of emergencies
administration of the tribal areas in the States of Assam
1. Art 352-National Emergency
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
CHSL 2021 2. Art 356-President Rule
266. Which Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the 3. Art 360 - Financial Emergency
Union Executive? 271. which Article of the Constitution of India envisages that a
(a) Articles 38 to 50 (b) Articles 52 to 78 person shall NOT be qualified to be chosen to fill up a seat
(c) Articles 80 to 86 (d) Articles 112 to 118 in the Parliament unless he is a citizen of India?
• Sol: (b); Article 52-78 in Part V of the constitution deals (a) Article 84 (b) Article 76
with Union Executive. (c) Article 61 (d) Article 52
• The Union executive consists of the President (Article 52- • Sol: (a); ARTICLE 84: - qualification of members of
62), the Vice-President, the Prime minister, and the council parliament
of ministers (Article 74-75 & Article 78) and the Attorney • Must be a citizen of India.
General for India (Article 76). • Rajya Sabha member-minimum age 30 yrs
267. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers a High • Lok Sabha member-minimum age-25 yrs
Court to issue writs for the enforcement of the
Fundamental Rights of the citizens? • Must be a voter for any parliamentary constituency in
(a) Article 226 (b) Article 235 India.
(c) Article 230 (d) Article 242 • ARTICLE 76: - The President shall appoint a person who is
• Sol: (a); Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers a qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to
High Court to issue writs for the enforcement of the be Attorney-General for India.
Fundamental Rights of the citizens. • ARTICLE 61: - procedure for impeachment of the
• Article 32 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President.
supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of the • Article 52: - There shall be a President of India.
Fundamental Rights of the citizens. Writ Jurisdiction of CHSL 2019
High court is wider than Supreme Court.
272. Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India
268. ‘All minorities, whether based on religion or language, has a provision for financial emergency?
shall have the right to establish and administer educational (a) Article 365 (b) Article 330
institutions of their choice’. Which article of the (c) Article 356 (d) Article 360
Constitution of India guarantees this right?
• Sol: (d); Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers
(a) Article 25 (b) Article 28 the President to invoke financial emergency.
(c) Article 36 (d) Article 30
• Emergency Provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the
• Sol: (d); Article 30 of the Indian Constitution states the
Constitution of India.
right of minorities to establish and administer educational
institutions. It says: “All minorities, whether based on • There are three types of emergencies: - Nation Emergency,
religion or language, shall have the right to establish and State Emergency, and Financial Emergency.
administer educational institutions of their choice.” • Article 352 of Part XVIII of the constitution include the
269. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the national emergencies.
definition of the Money Bill? 273. The definition of ‘money bills’ is given in which article of
(a) Article 120 (b) Article 100 the Constitution of India?
(c) Article 115 (d) Article 110 (a) Article 110 (b) Article 93
• Sol: (d); Money Bill is defined in Article 110 of the Indian (c) Article 44 (d) Article 33
Constitution. • Sol: (a); Money bill is defined in Article 110 of the Indian
• 109- Procedure for Money bills is defined here. Constitution.
• 112- Annual Finance statement. • Money bills are concerned with financial matters like
taxation, public expenditure etc
• 117- Financial Bills.
CHSL 2018
• Money bill is a subset of financial bills.
274. The powers, privileges and immunities of either House of
CHSL 2020
Parliament and of its Committees and Members have
270. In 1959, the Central Government of India undertook the mainly been laid down in article _______ of the
governance in Kerala under ______ of the Constitution of Constitution of India.
India. (a) 115 (b) 107
(a) Article 356 (b) Article 352 (c) 105 (d) 102
(c) Article 360 (d) Article 349 • Sol: (c); Article 105 in The Constitution of India 1949.
• Sol: (a); Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, if a
• 105. Powers, privileges, etc of the Houses of Parliament
state government is unable to function according to
and of the members and committees thereof.

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POLITY - Emergency Provisions and Important Amendments of the Constitution - Municipalities

275. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution • Sol. (c); Article 44 of the Directive Principles in the
provides for the appointment of a Finance Commission? Constitution says:
(a) Article 300 (b) Article 290 • "State shall endeavour to provide for its citizens a uniform
(c) Article 320 (d) Article 280 civil code (UCC) throughout the territory of India".
• Sol: (d); The President shall, within two years from the
• The objective of Article 44 of the Directive Principles in the
commencement of this Constitution and thereafter at the
Indian Constitution was to address the discrimination
expiration of every fifth year or at a such earlier time as the
against vulnerable groups and harmonize diverse cultural
President considers necessary, by order constitute a
groups across the country.
Finance Commission which shall consist of a Chairman
and four other members to be appointed by the President • The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) calls for the formulation of
one law for India, which would be applicable to all
276. Which article of the Constitution of India provisions for
religious communities in matters such as marriage,
reservations of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled
divorce, inheritance, adoption.
tribes in the House of People?
(a) Article 325 (b) Article 321 • The origin of the UCC dates back to colonial India when
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 335 the British government submitted its report in 1835
• Sol: (c); Article 330 of the Indian Constitution provides for stressing the need for uniformity in the codification of
the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Indian law relating to crimes, evidence, and contracts,
Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People. specifically recommending that personal laws of Hindus
and Muslims be kept outside such codification.
CPO 2019
277. A child below the age of ______ years cannot be employed
to work in any factory under Article 24 of the Constitution C-12. Emergency Provisions and Important
of India. Amendments of the Constitution
(a) 16 (b) 14 CGL 2021
(c) 15 (d) 17 280. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution of
• Sol. (b); A child below the age of 14 years cannot be India added a new fundamental duty under Article 51-A?
employed to work in any factory under Article 24 of the (a) Eighty-Sixth Amendment Act, 2002
Constitution of India. (b) Eighty-Fifth Amendment Act, 2001
• A child's employment under the age of 14 is strictly (c) Eighty-Seventh Amendment Act, 2003
prohibited. (d) Eighty-Eighth Amendment Act, 2003
• If violated, can result in the imposition of fines, or • Sol: (a); Eighty-Sixth Amendment Act, 2002: Provides
imprisonment in some states. Right to Education for the age of six to fourteen years and
Early childhood care until the age of six.
• Also, night work, work for more than 6 hours a day, and
overtime work is also strictly prohibited. • Eighty-Fifth Amendment Act, 2001: Main purpose was to
extend the benefit of reservation in favour of the SC/ST in
• The Child Labour Amendment Act 2012 was passed in
matters of promotion with consequential seniority.
2016 in this regard.
• Eighty-Eighth Amendment Act, 2003: Service tax levied by
278. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
India provides for an independent office of the Union and collected and appropriated by the Union and
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India? the States.
(a) Article 148 (b) Article 110 281. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution of
(c) Article 343 (d) Article 124 India declared that the Parliament has the power to abridge
• Sol. (a); Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for or take away any of the Fundamental Rights under Article
368 and such an Act, will NOT be a law under the meaning
an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor
of Article 13?
General (CAG) of India.
(a) Twentieth Amendment
• CAG audits all receipts and expenditures from the
(b) Twenty-fourth Amendment
Government of India and the Governments of the State,
(c) Twenty-eighth Amendment
including those from government-funded agencies and
authorities. (d) Twenty-third Amendment
• Sol: (b); Twenty-fourth Amendment
• It is also the head of the Department of Indian Audit and
Accounts, whose affairs are handled by Indian Audit and • Twentieth Amendment - inserted a new article 233A inter
Accounts Service officers and has over 58,000 employees alia validating the appointments, postings, promotions,
nationally. and transfers of and judgements, delivered before the
commencement of the present Act, by district judges who
• The CAG is ranked 9th in Indian order of precedence and were appointed, posted, promoted, or transferred as a
has the same standing as a Supreme Court judge of India. district judge in any State otherwise than in accordance
• G. C. Murmu is the current CAG of India. with the provisions of article 233 or article 235 of the
CPO 2018 Constitution.
279. Which of the following articles of the India Constitution • Twenty-eighth Amendment - abolished the special
deals with the Uniform Civil Code? privileges of ICS officers and empowered the Parliament to
(a)Article 46 (b)Article 45 determine their service conditions. It has provisions of
(c)Article 44 (d)Article 43 deletion of article 314 and inclusion of a new article 312-A

179
POLITY - Emergency Provisions and Important Amendments of the Constitution - Municipalities

which confers powers on Parliament to vary or revoke by Panchayat Raj System to perform functions and powers
law the conditions of Civil Services. entrusted to it by the State Legislatures.
• Twenty-third Amendment - discontinued reservation of (a) 72nd (b) 73rd
seats for the Scheduled Tribes in Nagaland, both in the Lok (c) 71st (d) 74th
Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly and stipulated • Sol: (b); 73rd
that not more than one Anglo-Indian could be nominated • The 72nd Constitutional Amendment Act Provides
by the Governor to any State Legislative Assembly. reservation to Scheduled Tribes in Tripura State Legislative
282. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution of Assembly until the re-adjustment of seats is made on the
India gave the status of state to Goa? basis of the first census after the year 2000 under article 170
(a) 59th Amendment b.48th Amendment of the Constitution.
(c) 52nd Amendment d.56th Amendment • The 71st Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially
• Sol: (d); The Constitution (56th Amendment) Act, 1987. It known as The Constitution (Seventy-first Amendment)
confers Statehood on Goa and forms a new Union Act, 1992, amended the Eighth Schedule to the
Territory of Daman and Diu. Constitution to include Konkani, Meitei (Manipuri) and
• The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 is popularly known as Nepali languages, thereby raising the total number of
Anti-Defection Law because it provided for languages listed in the schedule to eighteen.
disqualification of members of Parliament and state • The 74th constitutional amendment act mandated the
legislatures on the ground of defection and added a new setting up and devolution of powers to Urban local bodies
Tenth Schedule containing the details in this regard. (ULBs) or city governments as the lowest unit of
• The Constitution (59th Amendment) Act, 1988. It governance in cities and towns.
empowered the Central Government to impose Emergency 286. Which of the following Amendments to the Constitution of
in Punjab when deemed necessary. Under the amendment, India was passed with the primary objective to
the President's rule can be extended up to three years. The constitutionally encode the re-organisation of Indian States
earlier maximum period was two years. based on language?
283. An amendment to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 was (a) Tenth Amendment (b) Sixth Amendment
passed in the year ______. (c) Fourth Amendment (d) Seventh Amendment
(a) 2008 (b) 2012 • Sol: (d); Seventh Amendment
(c) 2005 (d) 2010 • The Constitution, through the Fourth Amendment,
• Sol: (c); 2005. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, protects people from unreasonable searches and seizures
2005, an amendment to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, by the government. The Fourth Amendment, however, is
received the assent from President of India on 5 September not a guarantee against all searches and seizures, but only
2005 and was given effect from 9 September 2005. those that are deemed unreasonable under the law.
• It was essentially meant for removing gender • The Sixth Amendment of the Constitution of India brought
discriminatory provisions regarding property rights in the taxes on inter-State sales and purchases of goods other
Hindu Succession Act, 1956. than newspapers within the exclusive legislative and
• was enacted to amend and codify the law relating to executive power of the Union, and levied taxes on inter-
intestate or unwilled succession among Hindus, Buddhists, State sales and purchase of goods other than newspapers.
Jains and Sikhs • The Tenth Amendment of the Constitution of India,
• Hindu women’s limited estate is abolished by the Act incorporated Dadra, and Nagar Haveli as the seventh
Union territory of India, by amending the First Schedule to
• any person who is a Hindu by religion in any of its forms the Constitution. It also amended clause (1) of article 240 of
or developments including a Vira Shaiva, a Lingayat or the Constitution to include therein the Union territory of
follower of the Brahmo, Prarthana or Arya Samaj. Dadra and Nagar Haveli in order to enable the President to
284. The ______ Constitutional Amendment Act gave "make regulations for the peace, progress and good
constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions. government of the territory".
(a) 82nd (b) 73rd 287. The 60th Amendment to the Constitution of India
(c) 54th (d) 68th increased the ceiling of profession tax from ₹ 250 p.(a) to
• Sol: (b); The 73th Amendment envisages the Gram Sabha ______ p.a.
as the foundation of the Panchayat Raj System to perform (a) ₹2,500 (b) ₹7,000
functions and powers entrusted to it by the State (c) ₹5,000 (d) ₹1,000
Legislatures. • Sol: (a); ₹2,500
• The constitution (eighty second amendment) act 2000: The • The Sixtieth Amendment of the Constitution of India,
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes had been officially known as The Constitution (Sixtieth Amendment)
enjoying the facility of relaxation of qualifying marks and Act, 1988, amended article 276 of the Constitution relating
standards of evaluation in matters of reservation in to taxes on professions, trades, callings, and employments.
promotion.
• Section 2 of the Act amended Clause (2) of article 276 of the
• The Constitution (54th Amendment) Act, 1986. (a) It Constitution to increase the ceiling of tax on professions,
enhances the salaries of Judges of the High Courts and trades, callings, and employments from ₹250 (equivalent to
Supreme Court of India. ₹2,400 or US$32 in 2020) per person per annum to ₹2500
285. The ______ Amendment of the Constitution of India per person per annum.
envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the

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POLITY - Emergency Provisions and Important Amendments of the Constitution - Municipalities

288. Which amendment to the Constitution of India changed 291. The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added a new Part______
the description of India from a ‘sovereign- to the Constitution of India.
democratic republic’ to a ‘sovereign, socialist secular (a) IX-A (b) X
democratic republic’ and changed the words ‘unity of the (c) IX (d) VIII
nation’ to ‘unity and integrity of the nation’? • Sol: (a); IX-A
(a) 47th (b) 44th
• The 74th Amendment Act of 1992 provides a basic
(c) 42nd (d) 40th
framework of decentralisation of powers and authorities to
• Sol: (c); The 42nd Amendment changed the description of the Municipal bodies at different levels.
India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a
"sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic", and also • The 74th Amendment Act has added a new Part IX-A to
changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and the Constitution of India.
integrity of the nation". • This part is entitled as 'The Municipalities' and consists of
• The 47th Amendment of the Constitution of India, provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
officially known as The Constitution (Forty-seventh • Additionally, the act also added a new Twelfth Schedule to
Amendment) Act, 1984, amended the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 18 functional
the Constitution, and added 14 legislations relating to land items of municipalities.
reforms, enacted by the States of Assam, Bihar, Haryana, • The Act provides for the constitution of 3 types of
Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal and the union municipalities, depending upon the size and area in every
territory of Goa, Daman and Diu with a view to provide state.
that the enactments shall not be deemed to be void on the
ground that they are inconsistent with any of the • Nagar Panchayat (for an area in transition from rural to the
provisions of Part III of the Constitution relating to urban area);
Fundamental Rights. • Municipal Council for the smaller urban area; and
• The 44th Amendment of 1978 removed the right to • Municipal Corporation for a larger urban are(a)
property from the list of fundamental rights. A new 292. The ______ Amendment Act of the Constitution of India
provision, Article 300-A, was added to the constitution, introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.
which provided that “no person shall be deprived of his (a) 101st (b) 104th
property save by authority of law”. (c) 92nd (d) 98th
289. The First Amendment Act of the Constitution of India • Sol: (a); 101st CAA - GST bill got an approval in 2016 and
came up in ______. was renumbered in the statute by Rajya Sabha as the 101st
(a) 1951 (b) 1953 Constitutional Amendment Act.
(c) 1954 (d) 1952 • 104th CAA - The 104 Amendment of Indian Constitution
• Sol: (a); 1951. The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, extends the deadline for the abolition of the reservation of
1951, enacted in 1951, made several changes to the seats by 10 years in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative
Fundamental Rights provisions of the Indian constitution. Assemblies for members of Scheduled Castes and
• It provided means to restrict freedom of speech and Scheduled Tribes.
expression, validation of zamindari abolition laws, and The Ninety-Second Amendment Act of 2003 included four
clarified that the right to equality does not bar the more languages in the Eighth Schedule. They are:
enactment of laws which provide "special consideration"
• Bodo
for weaker sections of society.
• Dogri (Dongri)
290. The 40th Amendment Act of 1976 was applied to which
Article of the Constitution of India? • Mathilli (Maithili) and
(a) 245 (b) 248 • Santhali.
(c) 297 (d) 226 • With this, the total number of constitutionally recognised
• Sol: (c); 297. 40th Amendment Act of 1976 was applied to languages increased to 22
Article 297 of the Constitution of India.
293. Which of the following Amendment Acts of the
• Under article 297 of the Constitution, all lands, minerals, Constitution of India abolished the privy purses and
and other things of value underlying the ocean within the privileges of former rulers of princely states?
territorial waters or the continental shelf of India vest in (a) 28th Amendment Act 1972 (b) 26th Amendment Act 1971
the Union to be held for the purposes of the Union. (c) 25th Amendment Act 1971 (d) 27th Amendment Act 1971
• Article 245 - Extent of laws made by Parliament and by the • Sol: (b); The 26th Amendment Act, 1971 to the Constitution
Legislatures of States. Subject to the provisions of this of India abolished the privy purses and privileges of the
Constitution, Parliament may make laws for the whole or former rulers of princely states as the concept of rulership
any part of the territory of India, and the Legislature of a with privy purses and special privileges was incompatible
State may make laws for the whole or any part of the State. with an egalitarian social order.
• Article 248 of the Indian Constitution deals with the • 25th Constitutional Amendment - Fundamental Right to
residuary powers of legislation. Parliament has exclusive Property was curtailed and also Provided that any law
power to make any law with respect to any matter not made to give effect to the Directive Principles contained in
enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Such Article 39 (b) or (c) cannot be challenged on the ground of
power shall include the power of making any law violation of the rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 19 and 31.
imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists.

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POLITY - Emergency Provisions and Important Amendments of the Constitution - Municipalities

294. An amendment to the Right to Information Act 2005 (d) 72nd Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1989
proposing that the Chief Information Commissioner and • Sol: (b); 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1992
Information Commissioners be appointed ‘for such term as
• The system of Municipalities or Urban Local Governments
may be prescribed by the Central Government’ was passed
was constitutionalised through the 74th Constitutional
in the year _____.
Amendment Act of 1992 The provisions in this amendment
(a) 2017 (b) 2019 are included in Part IXA which came into force on June 1,
(c) 2014 (d) 2016 199() Therefore, it gave a constitutional foundation to the
• Sol: (b); 2019 local self-government units in urban areas.
• The Right to Information (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was • The 74th Amendment Act has added a new Part IX-A to
introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of State for the Constitution of India.
Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, Mr. Jitendra
• This part is entitled as ‘The Municipalities’ and consists of
Singh, on July 19, 2019. It seeks to amend the Right to
provisions from Articles 243-P to 243-ZG.
Information Act, 2005. Key features of the Bill include:
• Additionally, the act also added a new Twelfth Schedule to
• Term of Information Commissioners: Under the Act, Chief
the Constitution. This schedule contains 18 functional
Information Commissioner (CIC) and Information
items of municipalities.
Commissioners (ICs) are appointed at the national and
state level to implement the provisions of the Act. The Act • The Act has brought Municipalities under the purview of
states that the CIC and other ICs (appointed at the central the justiciable part of the Constitution.
and state level) will hold office for a term of five years. • In other words, state governments are under constitutional
The Bill removes this provision and states that the central obligation to adopt the new system of municipalities in
government will notify the term of office for the CIC and accordance with the provisions of the act [Article 243 Q].
the ICs.
298. The 61st Amendment to the Constitution of India ______.
295. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution of (a) exempted Arunachal Pradesh from reservation for
India amended Article 19 and inserted provisions fully Scheduled Castes in Panchayati Raj institutions
securing the constitutional validity of zamindari abolition
(b) substituted ‘Odia’ for ‘Oriya’
laws in general and certain specified State Acts in
(c) reduced the age for voting from 21 to 18 years
particular?
(d) restricted the size of council of ministers to 15% of the
(a) Second Amendment (b) Fourth Amendment
number of legislative members
(c) First Amendment (d) Third Amendment
• Sol: (c); reduced the age for voting from 21 to 18 years
• Sol: (c); First Amendment
• Article 326 of the Constitution of India deals with elections
• The important provisions of the 1st Constitutional
to the Houses and to the State Legislative Assemblies on
Amendment Act, 1951 are as follows:
the basis of universal adult suffrage.
• Empowered the state to make special provisions for the
• The article before being amended by the 61st Amendment
advancement of socially and economically backward
stated that any citizen of India who is 21 years or above,
classes.
and who is not disqualified on any other grounds such as
• Provided for the saving of laws providing for the non-residence, crime, corrupt or illegal practices or
acquisition of estates, etc., unsoundness of mind, is eligible to vote at an election.
• Added Ninth schedule to protect the land reform and • In 2011, there was a talk of reducing the age further to 16
other laws included in it from the judicial review. years, but nothing has come of it so far.
• Added three more grounds of restrictions on freedom of • The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 was
speech and expression, viz., public order, friendly relations introduced in the Lok Sabha on 13th December 1988 by the
with foreign states and incitement to an offence. Also, then Water Resources Minister B. Shankaranand.
made the restrictions ‘reasonable’ and thus, justiciable in
• It was debated and passed by the lower house on 15th The
nature.
Rajya Sabha passed the bill on 20th December. As per law,
• Provided that state trading and nationalisation of any more than half the state legislatures had to ratify the bill
trade or business by the state is not to be invalid on the and this was duly obtained. Only five states, Jammu &
ground of violation of the right to trade or business. Kashmir, Punjab, Nagaland, Tamil Nadu and Tripura did
296. Which amendment to the Constitution of India added a not ratify.
new subject in the Union List called 'taxes on services’? • The bill received the presidential assent on 28th March
(a) 88th (b) 56th 1989 when the then President R Venkataraman assented it.
(c) 78th (d) 62nd 299. The Constitution (112th Amendment) Bill 2009 provides for
• Sol: (a); 88th CAA – Provision of Service Tax was made ______ reservation for women in Urban Local Bodies was
under Articles 268-A – Service Tax levied by Union and introduced in Lok Sabha on 24th November 2009.
collected and appropriated by the Union and the States (a) 20% (b) 50%
297. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution of (c) 10% (d) 30%
India was enacted in 1993 to constitutionally recognise • Sol: (b); 50%
municipal governments?
• Amendment to Article 243T of the Constitution to provide
(a) 71st Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1988
for 50 percent reservation for women in Urban Local
(b) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1992
Bodies
(c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA), 1990

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POLITY - Emergency Provisions and Important Amendments of the Constitution - Municipalities

• The Constitution (112th Amendment) Bill 2009 to provide • Provided that state trading and nationalisation of any
for 50% reservation of women in Urban Local Bodies were trade or business by the state is not to be invalid on the
introduced in Lok Sabha. ground of violation of the right to trade or business.
• Through this Bill the Government of India seeks to 303. Under which Amendment to the Constitution of India was
increase the representation of women in Urban Local Goods and Services Tax imposed?
Bodies (ULBs) from the present level of one-third to 50 (a) 97th (b) 99th
percent which would also include enhancement of (c) 103rd (d) 101st
reservation for women up to 50 percent in seats reserved • Sol: (d); 101st
for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and 50 percent
• The 101 Constitutional Amendment Act is the first
reservations for women in the posts of Chairpersons
amendment made in the Constitution of India.
CGL 2019 Constitutional Amendment Act 101 allows both the centre
300. Under which Article can the Parliament amend the and states to assess excise duty, Octroi tax, customs duty,
Constitution? service tax, entry tax, entertainment tax, etc., all substituted
(a) Article 269 (b) Article 74 by the GST, making it a single indirect tax.
(c) Article 368 (d) Article 374 CGL 2018
• Sol: (c); Article 368 304. The Constitution of India was amended for the first time
• The Constitution of India provides for its amendment in in which year?
order to adjust itself to the changing conditions and needs. (a) 1951 (b) 1954
Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the (c) 1961 (d) 1960
powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its • Sol: (a); The Constitution of India was amended for the
procedure. first time on 10th May 1951.
301. Under which of the following Amendments to the • The 9th Schedule and Article 31B was inserted into the
Constitution of India is defection to another party after Indian Constitution through the Constitution (First
election made illegal? Amendment) Act, 1951 to protect the land reform and
(a) 86th (b) 61st other laws present in it from the judicial review.
(c) 52nd (d) 92nd • Articles 19 & 15 were also amended through this
• Sol: (c); 52nd amendment and brought changes in the right to property.
• The 52nd constitution amendment act on anti-defection 305. ______ Constitution Amendment Act, 2002 provided for
was passed in 1985 and the 10th Schedule was added in free and compulsory elementary education to all children.
the Indian Constitution. It provided for the disqualification (a) 84th (b) 85th
of the members of Parliament and the state legislatures on
(c) 86th (d) 87th
the grounds of defection.
• Sol: (c); 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002: -
302. In which year was the first amendment to the Constitution Provides Right to Education for the age of six to fourteen
of India made? years and Early childhood care until the age of six.
(a) 1950 (b) 1953
• 84th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002: - This act froze
(c) 1951 (d) 1952 the total number of existing seats in the Lok Sabha on the
• Sol: (c); 1951 basis of the 1971 Census.
Reasons: • 85th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2001: - To extend the
• To remove certain practical difficulties created by the benefit of reservation in favour of the SC/ST in matters of
court's decision in several cases such as Kameshwar Singh promotion with consequential seniority.
Case, Romesh Thapar Case, etc.
• 87th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002: - Provided for
• Issues involved in the cases included freedom of speech, readjustment and rationalization of territorial
acquisition of the Zamindari land, State monopoly of trade, constituencies in the states on the basis of the population
etc figures of the 2001 census and not the 1991 census as
Amendments: provided earlier by the 84th Amendment Act of 2001.
• Empowered the state to make special provisions for the CHSL 2021
advancement of socially and economically backward 306. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation)
classes. Amendment Bill, 2021 was introduced in Lok Sabha on 15
March 2021, which amended the Mines and Minerals
• Provided for the saving of laws providing for acquisition
(Development and Regulation) Act, _________.
of estates, etc.
(a) 1957 (b) 1949
• Added Ninth Schedule to protect the land reforms and (c) 1952 (d) 1959
other laws included in it from the judicial review. After • Sol: (a); The Mines and Minerals (Development and
Article 31, Articles 31A and 31B were inserted. Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2021 The Mines and
• Added three more grounds of restrictions on freedom of Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill,
speech and expression: public order, friendly relations 2021 was introduced in Lok Sabha on March 15, 2021 The
with foreign states and incitement to an offence. Also, it Bill amends the Mines and Minerals (Development and
made the restrictions ‘reasonable’ and thus, justiciable in Regulation) Act, 1957
nature. 307. _______ of the Constitution deals with the amendment
procedure of the Constitution.

183
POLITY - Election - Municipalities

(a) Article 332 (b) Article 363 (a) Article 350 (b) Article 352
(c) Article 368 (d) Article 360 (c) Article 347 (d) Article 269
• Sol: (c); Amending the Constitution of India is the process • Sol: (b); a national emergency could be declared based on
of making changes to the nation's fundamental law or "external aggression or war" and "internal disturbance" in
supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the the whole of India or a part of its territory under Article
constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the 352.
Constitution of India. CPO 2019
308. In 1978, the _______ to the Constitution removed the right 314. Which of the following statements is NOT correct
to property from the list of Fundamental Rights. regarding the Constitution of India (Eighty-sixth
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) 44th Amendment Amendment) Act, 2002?
(c) 46th Amendment (d) 43rd Amendment (a) It made the provision for early childhood care and
• Sol: (b); In 1978, the 44th amendment to the Constitution education to children below the age of six years under
removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Article 45.
Rights and converted it into a simple legal right under (b) Providing opportunities for education to his child or
article 300 A. ward between the age of 6 and 14 years was made a
CHSL 2019 Fundamental Duty of a parent or guardian under Article
309. Goods and Services Tax (GST) was enacted by Parliament 51A.
vide ______Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 on 8th (c) It made it binding for the Government of India to set up a
September 2016. nodal ministry to ensure effective implementation of these
(a) 101st (b) 105th provisions under Article 75.
(c) 103rd (d) 107th (d) Free and compulsory education to all children of the age
• Sol: (a); The GST was enacted by Parliament with 101st of 6 to 14 years in the manner as determine by the State' was
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. made a Fundamental Right under Article 21A.
• Sol: (c); Article 75
• It came into force on 1st July 2017.
• It was the 91st amendment act that passed in 2003.
• It is considered the largest tax reform in the economic
history of India. • Article 75 states that the prime minister shall be appointed
by the President of India.
310. GST was introduced by which amendment act of the
Constitution? • The Minister shall be appointed by the President by the
(a) 106 (b) 101 recommendation of the Prime Minister.
(c) 102 (d) 107 • The minister shall hold the office during the pleasure of the
• Sol: (b); The GST was introduced by Parliament with 101st president.
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016. • The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to
• It came into force on 1st July 2017. the house of the people.
• It is considered the largest tax reform in the economic (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
history of India. • The 86th amendment act was inserted as 21A in article 21
311. When was the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002, which tells about the right to education.
enacted? • It became the fundamental right for children between 6-14
(a) 1975 (b) 1972 years.
(c) 1976 (d) 1978
• As per this amendment, the state shall provide free and
• Sol: (d); 44th Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted compulsory education to 6 to 14 years in such a manner as
in 1978. the state may by law determine..
• It removed the right to property from the list of CPO 2018
fundamental rights. 315. Right _____ ceased to be a fundamental right after the 45th
• A new provision, Article 300-A, was added to the Amendment bill, 1978 to the Indian Constitution.
constitution, which provided that “no person shall be (a) To Property (b) Against Exploitation
deprived of his property save by authority of law”. (c) To Education (d) To Equality
CHSL 2018 • Sol. (a); The 45th constitutional amendment bill was
312. The 124th Amendment Bill, 2019 deals with: renamed as the 44 amendment Act.
(a) Triple Talaq (b) Privatisation of Air India • In the original constitution, the right to property was a
(c) GST (d) Economic Reservation fundamental right under article 31.
• Sol: (d); The government introduced the 124th Constitution • Right to property was removed from the list of the
Amendment bill (2019), which proposed amendment to Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitution Amendment
Article 15 (reservation in educational institutions) and Act, 1978 and after amendment, it was made legal right
amendment to Article 16 (reservation in jobs) to provide under Article 300-A in part-12 of the Constitution.
the state power to make special provisions for the
economically weaker section.
C-13. Election
313. ___________ of the Constitution of India deals with
• An independent Election Commission has been established
emergency due to war, external aggression or armed
rebellion. under the Constitution in order to carry out and regulate the
holding the elections in India. The Election Commission was

184
POLITY - Election - Municipalities

established in accordance with the Constitution on 25 th January (a) Rs.25,000 (b) Rs.20,000
1950 (c) Rs.30,000 (d) Rs.15,000
• The Election Commission prepares, maintains and periodically • Sol: (d); The nomination paper must be presented in
updates the electoral roll, which shows who is entitled to vote, person to the Returning Officer, either by the candidate
supervises the nominations of candidates, register political himself or by any of his proposers or seconders. The
parties, monitors the election campaign security deposit for the election is Rs. 15,000/- which will
be required to be made along with the nomination paper.
• The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election
CHSL 2019
Commissioners are appointed by the President for 6 years or
till 65 years whichever is earlier (Article 324) 320. The Constitution under Article ______ mandates the
CGL 2019 Election Commission, to conduct elections to the
Parliament and the State Legislatures.
316. In which of the following years were two additional
(a) 298 (b) 324
Commissioners appointed to the Election commission of
India for the ﬁrst time? (c) 330 (d) 312
(a) 1989 (b) 1998 • Sol: (b); As per 324, the Election Commission is mandated
to conduct elections to the Parliament and the State
(c) 1991 (d) 1990
legislatures
• Sol: (a); The president of India appointed two additional
Commissioners on 16 October 1989. • The Election Commission of India is a constitutional body.
• The objective behind the appointment of two more • It was established in the year 1950 to ensure the fairness of
commissioners was to cope with the increased work of the the elections throughout India.
election commission due to the lowering of the voting age 321. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of
from 21 to 18 years. India?
• By the 61th constitutional amendment act, the 1989 voting (a) 4 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
age from 21 was reduced to 18 years. (b) 3 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• In January 1990 additional 2 posts of the election, (c) 5 Years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
commissioners were abolished. In 1993 president of India (d) 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
appointed two more election commissioners since then • Sol: (d); The tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of
Election Commission of India is a multi-member body. India is 6 years or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is
earlier.
• All the election commissioners have similar equal power
and their salary structure is also the same. • He/she is appointed by the President.
• Sukumar Sen was the first election commissioner of India. • Election commission of India is mentioned under Article
CGL 2018 324.
CHSL 2018
317. Article of the Constitution of India gives the Election
Commission the power to supervise elections to the 322. In Lok Sabha 2019 Elections, Congress won _______ seats
Parliament and state legislatures. out of the 13 Lok Sabha seats of Punjab.
(a) 314 (b) 342 (a) 8 (b) 6
(c) 324 (d) 341 (c) 10 (d) 5
• Sol. (c); Art. 324 Superintendence, direction, and control of • Sol: (a); General elections were held in India in seven
elections to be vested in an Election Commission phases from 11 April to 19 May 2019 to elect the members
of the 17th Lok Sabha
• Art. 314 Provision for protection of existing officers of
certain services Rep by the Constitution (Twenty- eight 323. The Lok Sabha elected after the 2019 elections is the
Amendment) Act, 1972 ________ Lok Sabha.
(a) 18th (b) 16th
• Art. 342 Scheduled Tribes
(c) 15th (d) 17th
• Art. 341 Scheduled Castes • Sol: (d); The 17th Lok Sabha was formed by the members
318. was the first Chief Election Commissioner of elected in the 2019 Indian general election. Elections, across
India. India, were conducted in seven phases from 11 April 2019
(a) Sukumar Sen (b) T N Sheshan to 19 May 2019 by the Election Commission of India.
(c) Sunil Arora (d) M S Gill 324. The Election Commission of India recently launched a
• Sol: (a); Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election mobile app for enabling citizens to report Model Code of
Commissioner of India, serving from 21 March 1950 to 19 Conduct and Expenditure violations during the elections.
December 1958. The app has been named as:
• He was responsible for conducting the first general (a) iElect (b) cVigil
elections of independent India. (c) iMonitor (d) Samadhan
• The CEC is appointed by the President of India. • Sol: (b); cVigil. Election Commission has launched a
mobile application named 'cVigil' for citizens to report
• He has a tenure of up to 65 years or 6 years. Model Code of Conduct and Expenditure violations
• Shri Rajiv Kumar is the current CEC of India. during the elections.
CHSL 2021 CPO 2019
319. A candidate seeking election as Vice-President is required 325. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of
to make a security deposit of _____. India deals with the manner of election of the President?

185
POLITY - National Symbols - Municipalities

(a) Article 51 (b) Article 61 Supreme Court held that lottery, gambling, and betting are
(c) Article 55 (d) Article 65 taxable under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Act, 2017.
• Sol. (c); Article 55 of the Constitution of India deals with • In 2020, the Supreme Court held that lottery, gambling,
the manner of election of the President. and betting are taxable under the Goods and Services Tax
• Article 51 of the Constitution of India deals with the (GST) Act, 2017.
promotion of international security and peace. • ‘Betting and gambling’ is part of the State List in the
• Article 61 of the Constitution of India deals with the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
procedure for impeachment of the President. 329. As per the Hindu Succession Act 1956, who amongst the
• Article 65 of the Constitution of India deals with the roles following has the first right over the property of a Hindu
of the Vice President in the absence of the President. woman who dies intestate?
CPO 2018 (a) Her parents (b) The legal heirs of her husband
326. The Election Commission celebrated its golden jubilee in (c) The legal heirs of her father (d) Her husband
the year ______. • Sol: (d); Her husband
(a) 2001 (b) 2011 • The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is an Act of the Parliament
(c) 1998 (d) 1997 of India enacted to amend and codify the law relating to
• Sol. (a); The year 2001 was the year of the Golden Jubilee intestate or unwilled succession, among Hindus,
Celebration for the Election Commission of India (ECI). Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs.
• The Election Commission was set up in 1950 and 17 • The property of a Hindu male dying intestate, or without a
general elections (Lok Sabha) in total have been conducted will, would be given first to heirs within Class I. Class I
by the Election Commission of India till date so far. heirs are sons, daughters, widows, mother, and
grandchildren.
• The first general election was conducted by Election
Commission from October 25, 1951, to February 21, 1952, The property of a Hindu female dying intestate, or without
since India got independence in 1947. a will, shall devolve in the following order:
• upon the sons and daughters (including the children of
C-14. National Symbols any pre-deceased son or daughter) and the husband.
CPO 2018 • upon the heirs of the husband,
327. What is the approximate playing time of the full version of • upon the father and mother,
the Indian National Anthem?
• upon the heirs of the father, and
(a) 48 seconds (b) 62 seconds
• upon the heirs of the mother.
(c) 52 seconds (d) 68 seconds
• Sol. (c); The approximate playing time of the full version of 330. In which of the following years was the Dowry Prohibition
the Indian National Anthem is 52 seconds. Act passed in India?
(a) 1967 (b) 1952
• It was originally composed as Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata in
Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore. (c) 1961 (d) 1959
• Sol: (c); 1961
• The first stanza of the Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata was
adopted as the national anthem by the Constituent • Dowry Prohibition Act, Indian law, enacted on May 1,
Assembly in 24th January 1950. 1961, intended to prevent the giving or receiving of a
dowry. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, dowry includes
• It was first publicly sung on 27 December 1911 at the property, goods, or money given by either party to the
Calcutta (now Kolkata) Session of the Indian National marriage, by the parents of either party, or by anyone else
Congress. in connection with the marriage.
Extra: - 331. Which of the following Indian Acts was passed in the year
• Rabindranath Tagore was born on 7 May 1861 2005?
• He was the first Indian and first non-European to win a (a) The Biological Diversity Act
Noble Prize in Literature in 1913 for his work “Gitanjali”. (b) The Prevention of Money-Laundering Act
• Bangladesh’s National Anthem “Amar Sonal Bangla” is (c) The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
also taken from the works of Rabindranath Tagore. (d) The Competition Act
• Sol: (c); The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence
• He renounced his knighthood after the Jallianwala
Act 2005 is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to
massacre.
protect women from domestic violence.
The Competition Act – 2002
C-15. Miscellaneous
CGL 2021 • Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 is an Act of the
Parliament of India enacted by the NDA government to
328. In which year was the ‘Lotteries Regulation Act’ passed?
prevent money-laundering and to provide for confiscation
(a) 1993 (b) 1991
of property derived from money-laundering.
(c) 1998 (d) 1999
• Sol: (c); 1998. • The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 is an Act enacted by the
Parliament of India for the preservation of biological
• An Act to regulate the lotteries and to provide for matters diversity in India and provides mechanism for equitable
connected therewith and incidental thereto. In 2020, the

186
POLITY - Miscellaneous - Municipalities

sharing of benefits arising out of the use of traditional • In order to effectively address the heinous crimes of sexual
biological resources and knowledge. abuse and sexual exploitation of children through less
332. With reference to the Money Bills in the Parliament, which ambiguous and more stringent legal provisions, the
of the following statements is INCORRECT? Ministry of Women and Child Development championed
(a) It can only be introduced by a minister and not by a the introduction of the Protection of Children from Sexual
private member. Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.
(b) It can be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. • The Act has been enacted to protect children from offences
(c) It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. of sexual assault, sexual harassment and pornography and
(d) The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the provide for establishment of Special Courts for trial of such
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. offences and related matters and incidents.
• Sol: (b); It can be rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha. • The Act was amended in 2019, to make provisions for
• A Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. enhancement of punishments for various offences so as to
deter the perpetrators and ensure safety, security and
• However, a Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya
dignified childhood for a child.
Sabha. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with prior
recommendation of the President for introduction in Lok 336. The Regional Rural Banks were established on the
Sabha. recommendations of the ______ on Rural Credit.
(a) Tandon Committee (b) Rekhi Committee
• If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not,
(c) Kelkar Committee (d) Narsimha Committee
the decision of the Speaker thereon is final.
• Sol: (d); Narsimha Committee
• Rajya Sabha is required to return a Money Bill passed and
• Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976: Regional Rural Banks
transmitted by Lok Sabha within a period of 14 days from
(RRBs) were set up as government-sponsored, regional
the date of its receipt.
based rural lending institutions under the Regional Rural
• Rajya Sabha may return a Money Bill transmitted to it with Banks Act, 1976.
or without recommendations. It is open to Lok Sabha to
• The RRBs were established as per the recommendations of
accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of Rajya
the Narasimham Committee to cater to the rural credit
Sabha.
needs of the farming and other rural communities.
333. The fine for extinguishing public lamps may extend to
337. The _____ considers a marriage as complete and binding at
______ as per Section 141 of The Electricity Act, 2003.
the completion of the Saptapadi ritual.
(a) ₹2,500 (b) ₹2,000
(a) Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1862
(c) ₹3,000 (d) ₹5,000
(b) Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936
• Sol: (b); ₹2,000
(c) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
• Section 141 Electricity Act 2003: (d) Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937
• Extinguishing public lamps. • Sol: (c); Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
• Whoever maliciously extinguishes any public lamp shall • Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act recognises that there
be punishable with fine which may extend to two may be different, but equally valid ceremonies and
thousand rupees. customs of marriage. As such, Hindu marriage may be
334. Right to Information Act ______ mandates timely response solemnised in accordance with the customary rites and
to citizen requests for government information. ceremonies of either the bride or the groom. These rites
(a) 2003 (b) 2005 and ceremonies include the Saptapadi and Kreva
(c) 2002 (d) 2004 • A marriage cannot be registered unless the following
• Sol: (b); 2005 conditions are fulfilled:
Right to Information Act, 2005 - • a ceremony of marriage has been performed; and
• The Right to Information (RTI) is an act of the Parliament • the parties have been living together as husband and wife
of India which sets out the rules and procedures regarding 338. The Hindu Marriage Act was enacted in the year ______.
citizens' right to information. It replaced the former (a) 1955 (b) 1953
Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
(c) 1952 (d) 1956
• Under the provisions of RTI Act, any citizen of India may • Sol: (a); 1955
request information from a "public authority" (a body of
Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Government or "instrumentality of State") which is
required to reply expeditiously or within thirty days. • It extends to the whole of India, except the State of Jammu
and Kashmir, applies also to Hindus domiciled in
335. In India, the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences
territories to which the Act extends and those who are
(POCSO) Act, ______ is a comprehensive law to provide for
outside the said territories.
the protection of children from the offences of sexual
assault, sexual harassment, and pornography, while Key aspects include:
safeguarding the interests of the child. • It applies to Hindus (in any of its forms or development)
(a) 2010 (b) 2006 and also to Buddhists, Sikhs, Jains and also those who are
(c) 2008 (d) 2012 not Muslims, Christians, Parsis or Jews by religion.
• Sol: (d); 2012

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POLITY - Miscellaneous - Municipalities

• It does not apply to members of any scheduled tribes (a) Punjab (b) Jharkhand
unless the Central Government by notification in the (c) Nagaland (d) West Bengal
official Gazette otherwise directs. • Sol: (c); AFSPA remains in force in parts of these three
• Provisions in regard to divorce are contained in Section 13 states as well as in parts of Arunachal Pradesh and Jammu
of the Hindu Marriage Act and Section 27 of the Special & Kashmir.
Marriage Act. • Recently, the Union Government has partially withdrawn
Common ground on which divorce can be sought by a the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), 1958 from
husband or a wife under these Acts fall under these broad parts of three Northeast states— Assam, Nagaland and
heads: Manipur.
• Adultery, • AFSPA gives sweeping powers to the armed forces.
• Desertion, • For example, it allows them to open fire, even causing
death, against any person in contravention to the law or
• Cruelty,
carrying arms and ammunition.
• Unsoundness of mind,
• Also, it gives them powers to arrest individuals without
• Venereal disease, warrants, based on “reasonable suspicion”, and search
• Mutual Consent premises without warrants.
• Not being heard of as alive for seven year 342. Till 20 January 1972, which present-day Indian state was
339. Realising the importance of maintaining the cleanliness of known as the North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA)?
the water bodies, the Government of India passed the (A) Sikkim (B) Nagaland
Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, ________, (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Assam
to safeguard our water resources. • Sol: (c); The North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA), originally
(a) 1971 (b) 1974 known as the North-East Frontier Tracts (NEFT), was one
(c) 1973 (d) 1969 of the political divisions in British India, and later
• Sol: (b); 1974 the Republic of India until 20 January 1972.
Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974 - • when it became the Union Territory of Arunachal
Pradesh and some parts of Assam.
• The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was
enacted in 1974 to provide for the prevention and control • Its administrative headquarters was Shillong
of water pollution, and for the maintaining or restoring of • It received the status of State on 20 February 1987.
wholesomeness of water in the country. 343. Which of the following is a state party as of February 2021?
The Act was amended in 1988. (a) Aam Aadmi Party (b) Bahujan Samaj Party
• The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act (c) Communist Party of India (d) Trinamool Congress
was enacted in 1977, to provide for the levy and collection • Sol: (a); Aam Aadmi Party
of a cess on water consumed by persons operating and • A party is recognised as a state party in a state if any of the
carrying on certain types of industrial activities. following conditions is fulfilled:
• The Act vests regulatory authority in State Pollution • If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the state at a
Control Boards to establish and enforce effluent standards general election to the legislative assembly of the state
for factories. concerned and in addition, it wins 2 seats in the assembly
CGL 2020 of the state concerned or
340. In which of the following years was the Planning • If it secures 6% of the valid votes polled in the state at a
Commission of India set up? general election to the Lok Sabha from the state concerned
(a) 1962 (b) 1950 and in addition, it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha from the
(c) 1958 (d) 1945 state concerned or
• Sol: (b); 1950
• If it wins 3% of seats in the legislative assembly at a
• Planning commission was established on 15 March 1950. general election to the legislative assembly of the state
And dissolved on 13 Aug 2014. concerned or 3 seats in the assembly, whichever is more or
• Its headquarters is in Yojna Bhawan New Delhi. • If it wins 1 seat in the Lok Sabha for every 25 seats or any
• NITI Aayog is superseding agency of planning fraction thereof allotted to the state at a general election to
commission. the Lok Sabha from the state concerned or
• Indian Prime Minster is the head of this agency. • If it secures 8% of the total valid votes polled in the state at
a General Election to the Lok Sabha from the state or to the
• Ex- officio members of the commission are Finance
legislative assembly of the state. This condition was added
Minister, Agriculture Minister, Hoe minister, health
in 2011.
Minister, Chemical and fertilizer Minister, Law Minister,
CGL 2019
Human Resource minister and Minister of State for
planning. 344. The Indus Waters Treaty was signed between India and
Pakistan on .
341. In December 2020, the Ministry of Home Affairs declared
the entire State of ______ as a ‘disturbed area’ for six more (a) 19 September 1960 (b) 12 November 1959
months under the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 (c) 16 December 1963 (d) 18 October 1969
(AFSPA). • Sol: (a); 19 September 1960

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POLITY - Miscellaneous - Municipalities

• The Indus system comprises of main Indus River, Jhelum, (c) 1965 (d) 1952
Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej. The basin is mainly shared • Sol: (a); The National Assembly of Pakistan passed and
by India and Pakistan with a small share for China and enforced its Constitution on 10th April, 1973.
Afghanistan. • It consists of 280 articles and 7 schedules with Objective
• Under the treaty signed between India and Pakistan in Resolution forming the preamble of the constitution.
1960, all the waters of three rivers, namely Ravi, Sutlej and • Pakistan celebrates its Independence Day on 14 August
Beas ( Eastern Rivers) were allocated to India for exclusive every year.
use.
351. The Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act was
• While, the waters of Western rivers - Indus, Jhelum, and passed in the year .
Chenab were allocated to Pakistan except for specified (a) 1956 (b) 1948
domestic, non-consumptive and agricultural use permitted (c) 1964 (d) 1965
to India as provided in the Treaty.
• Sol: (a); The Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act
• India has also been given the right to generate was passed in the year 1956.
hydroelectricity through run of the river (RoR) projects on
• It is a statutory body which works under the Ministry of
the Western Rivers which, subject to specific criteria for
MSME.
design and operation is unrestricted.
352. The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development
CGL 2018
Act was passed in the year---.
345. The maximum strength of the Bangladeshi Parliament
(a) 2006 (b) 2004
is______.
(c) 2008 (d) 2002
(a) 350 (b) 340
• Sol: (a); The Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(c) 322 (d) 363 Development Act was passed in the year 2006.
• Sol: (a); Bangladeshi Parliament, also known as Jatiya
Sangsad, is unicameral in nature and has a maximum • It regulates and classifies enterprises as small, medium and
strength of 350 with 50 seats reserved for women. micro enterprises.
346. _________was not only Sri Lanka's first woman prime • Nitin Gadkari is the minister of MSME currently.
minister, but also the first woman prime minister in the CHSL 2021
world. 353. The first linguistic state in India got established in:
(a) Sirimavo Bandaranaike (b) Upeksha Swarnamali (a) 1957 (b) 1951
(c) Rosy Senanayake (d) Chandrika Kumaratunga (c) 1952 (d) 1953
• Sol: (a); Sirimavo Bandaranaike was the first women PM • Sol: (d); Indian states formed based on language. The first
of Srilanka and the worl(d) She became PM in 1960. state to be created on a linguistic basis was Andhra in 1953,
Indira Gandhi: 2nd woman PM in the world (1966) created out of the Telugu-speaking northern parts of
• Meira Kumar: 1st women Speaker of Lok Sabha Madras State. JVP committee, Fazal commission, Dhar
committee are related to this.
347. How many members are present in the Sri Lankan
parliament? 354. Out of the given four alternatives, select the one that is
(a) 210 (b) 215 NOT a constitutional body?
(c) 232 (d) 225 (a) Finance Commission
• Sol: (d); Sri Lankan Parliament consists of 225 members (b) Election Commission
known as Members of Parliament (MPs), elected by (c) National Human Rights Commission
proportional representation for five-year terms, with (d) Union Public Service Commission
universal suffrage. The President of Sri Lanka has the • Sol: (c); National: The National Human Rights Commission
power to summon, suspend, prorogue, or terminate a of India is a statutory public body constituted on 12
legislative session and to dissolve the Parliament. October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights
348. Who among the following was the first president of Ordinance of 28 September 199(c) It was given a statutory
Pakistan? basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
(a) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto (b) Yahya Khan 355. The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted in:
(c) Iskander Mirza (d) Ayub Khan (a) 2016 (b) 2017
• Sol: (c); In 1956 Pakistani constitution was passed and its (c) 2018 (d) 2019
first president, Iskander Mirza was appointed. He was a • Sol: (b); Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted in
former Major General of the Country. During 1947-56, [Link] Kishore Singh was appointed as the
Pakistan was a republic with British Monarch as its head. commission's chairman, with its full-time members being
349. Which of the following countries has the largest Shaktikant Das and Anoop Singh and its part-time
parliament in the world? members being Ramesh Chand and Ashok Lahiri. Article
(a) UK (b) India 280 in the constitution deals with the finance commission.
(c) China (d) Japan CHSL 2020
• Sol: (c); China has the largest parliament in the worl(d) It 356. What is the tenure of the chairman of the State Public
has a strength of 2,980 seats in the singular house of its Service Commission?
Parliament. (a) 6 years or the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
350. When was the Constitution of Pakistan enforced? (b) 5 years or the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
(a) 1973 (b) 1947 (c) 5 years or the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

189
POLITY - Miscellaneous - Municipalities

(d) 6 years or the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier 362. Who has been elected as the new Jharkhand assembly
• Sol: (d); State Public Service Commission: The chairman speaker?
and member occupy the office for 6 years or till they reach (a) Alamgir Alam (b) CP Singh
62 years. They can resign by writing to Governor and be (c) Rabindra Nath Mahto (d) Inder Singh Namdhari
removed by the president before their term expires • Sol: (c); Rabindra Nath Mahto is the current speaker of the
• Union Public Service Commission -Chairman of the UPSC Jharkhand Legislative Assembly.
holds office for a term of 6 years or till he attains the age of • The current 10th Governor of Jharkhand is Mr. Ramesh
65 years, whichever is earlier. The UPSC chairman is Bais.
appointed by the president of India. 363. The period of 12th Five Year Plan was:
357. In which year was a new Constitution adopted in Sri Lanka (a) 2007-2012 (b) 2002-2007
creating the 'Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri Lanka'? (c) 2012-2017 (d) 1997-2002
(a) 1965 (b) 1982 • Sol: (c); The 12th Five Year Plan went into effect on April 1,
(c) 1980 (d) 1978 2012 and will run for five years from 2012 to 2017.
• Sol: (d); In 1978 a new Constitution was adopted in Sri
• It was launched with the objective of “Faster, Sustainable
Lanka creating the 'Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri
and more Inclusive growth”.
Lanka'.
• It aimed to increase the GDP at a faster pace such that each
• The Constitution Of Republic of South Africa was
stratum of the society is a part of and contributed to the
approved in 1996, and came into effect on 4feb 1997.
growth and hence foster an environment of inclusive
CHSL 2019 growth which is sustainable.
358. When did the Sarkaria Commission submit its report? 364. The first Education Minister of Independent India was
(a) 1986 (b) 1988 ______.
(c) 1984 (d) 1985 (a) Indira Gandhi (b) Abul Kalam Azad
• Sol: (b); Sarkaria Commission submitted its report to the (c) Triguna Sen (d) Pranab Mukherjee
then prime minister Rajiv Gandhi on 27 October 1987. • Sol: (b); Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was India’s first
• It was set up in 1983 by the central govt of India to Education Minister after independence.
examine the central-state relationship on various portfolios • His contribution to establishing the education foundation
and suggest changes within the framework of Constitution in India is recognized by celebrating his birthday as
of India. National Education Day across India.
• Justice Rajendra Singh Sarkaria, a retired Judge of SC of • The book “India Wins Freedom” was written by Maulana
India, was the Chairman of the commission. Abul Kalam Azad.
359. The first Five-Year Plan’s main emphasis was to improve 365. The period of second five-year plan in India was:
the condition of agriculture in India. The plan began in the
(a) 1951-56 (b) 1969-74
year:
(c) 1956-61 (d) 1961-66
(a) 1951 (b) 1952
• Sol: (c); The Second Five Year Plan covers the period from
(c) 1953 (d) 1949
April 1956 through March 1961.
• Sol: (a); The first five-Year Plan was implemented from
1951 to 1956. • The second plan was to put India on a path toward
industrialization.
• It gave a predominant importance to development of
agriculture and irrigation. • P.C. Mahala Nobis was driving force behind the second
five-year plan as he placed the greatest emphasis on
• India was primarily an agricultural country at the time of strengthen economy’s industrial basis.
independence.
366. Who among the following is the 15th Chairman of the
360. The GST council is headed by the: Finance Commission of India?
(a) Prime minister (b) Union finance minister (a) Vijay L. Kelkar (b) Y. V. Reddy
(c) SEBI chairman (d) RBI governor (c) N.K Singh (d) C. Rangarajan
• Sol: (b); The GST council is headed by the Union finance • Sol:(c); Nand Kishore Singh was the 15th Chairman of the
minister. Finance Commission of India.
• Nirmala Sitharaman is the current finance minister of • The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated
India. that is at the centre of fiscal federalism.
• Late Arun Jaitley was the first chairman of the GST • Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a
council. Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body.
361. In which year was a separate Andhra state formed after the
• It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year.
linguistic reorganisation of the then Madras province?
(a) 1947 (b) 1950 367. Which state in India was the first to introduce the 'Mid-day
Meal Scheme' for school children?
(c) 1953 (d) 1956
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra
• Sol: (c); Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic state in
1953. (c) Gujarat (d) Kerala
• Sol: (a); Tamil Nadu was the first to introduce the Mid-day
• Kurnool was the capital city of the Andhra state. Meal Scheme.
• T Prakasam was the first chief minister of Andhra state.

190
POLITY - Miscellaneous - Municipalities

• This scheme was designed to better the nutritional financial assistance of micro, small and medium scale
standing of school-age children nationwide. industries. These State Financial Corporations provide
• By 2002, the scheme was implemented in all of the states loans to individual trading concerns, partnership firms as
under the orders of the Supreme Court of India. well as private and public limited companies.
368. The first Backward Classes Commission of India was 375. Who among the following was NOT a governor of the
headed by ______. Reserve Bank of India?
(a) Lokmanya Tilak (b) Nanaji Deshmukh (a) (D) Subbarao (b) Manmohan Singh
(c) Kaka Kalelkar (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (c) M Narasimham (d) M S Gill
• Sol: (c); Shri Kaka Kalelkar headed the first Backward • Sol: (d); Manohar Singh Gill is an Indian bureaucrat,
Classes Commission of India. politician, and writer. As a bureaucrat, he belonged to the
Indian Administrative Service. As a politician, he belonged
• It was set up by a Presidential Order under Article 340 of to the Indian National Congress party. He has served as
the Constitution of India on Jan 29th, 1953. the Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports.
• It is also known as the Kaka kalelkar Commission. 376. In June 2019, which Ministry was created by merging the
369. In which year did NITI Aayog come into existence? Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and
(a) 2014 (b) 2015 Ganga Rejuvenation and the Ministry of Drinking Water
(c) 2016 (d) 2013 and Sanitation?
• Sol: (b); NITI Aayog came into existence on 1 January 2015. (a) Jal Jeevan (b) Jal Nidhi
• The first meeting of NITI Aayog was chaired by Narendra (c) Jal Shakti (d) Jal Sangrah
Modi on 8 February 2015. • Sol: (c); The government has launched the new Jal Shakti
ministry by merging the Ministry of Water Resources,
• It was formed by replacing Planning Commission. River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation and Ministry
CHSL 2018 of Drinking Water and Sanitation. Gajendra Singh
370. Who among the following was India's defence minister Shekhawat has been appointed as the Minister of Jal
during the 1971 war between India and Pakistan? Shakti.
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan (b) Indira Gandhi 377. The famous Civil Rights activist Irom Chanu Sharmila
(c) Swaran Singh (d) Jagjivan Ram belongs to which of the following states of India?
• Sol: (d); Jagjivan Ram (a) Manipur (b) Tripura
371. The First Health Minister of Independent India was (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Assam
____________. • Sol: (a); Irom Chanu Sharmila, also known as the "Iron
(a) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Lady" or "Mengoubi" is a civil rights activist, political
(c) Vijayalakshmi Pandit (d) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur activist, and poet from the Indian state of Manipur.
• Sol: (d); Princess Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, a daughter of the 378. Which of the following is the major state tax in India?
ruling house of Kapurthala state in north‐central India, (a) Stamp duty and registration (b) Income tax
was for more than 30 years one of this country's great (c) Corporation Tax (d) Customs duty
champions of women's rights. She sat in Parliament and • Sol: (a); It is levied by the state government on documents
served as National Health Minister from 1947, when India used in trSol: actions of contracts, assets, licences etc.
became independent, until 1957.
379. Which of the following decisions was taken in the first
372. In which year was the Central Board of Revenue Act in cabinet meeting of the Narendra Modi 2.0 Government?
India promulgated? (a) Expansion of Ayushman Bharat Program
(a) 1983 (b) 1963 (b) Scholarship to wards of martyred state police officials
(c) 1973 (d) 1953 (c) Disinvestment of 10 key PSUs
• Sol: (b); The Central Board of Revenue Act was established (d) Announcement of new employment policy
in 1963, in India
• Sol: (c); Scholarship to wards of martyred state police
373. Which committee was appointed to give a detailed report officials
on the Non-Performing Assets of public sector banks?
380. Who was the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?
(a) Malegam Committee (b) Srikrishna Committee
(a) Munshi Ram (b) Devi Lal
(c) Pannir Selvam Committee (d) Mandal Committee
(c) Kanshi Ram (d) Lakshman Singh
• Sol: (c); Pannir Selvam Committee Report submitted in
• Sol: (b); The Bahujan Samaj Party was founded on the birth
1998 on NPAs of public sector banks suggests
anniversary of B. R. Ambedkar (14 April 1984) by Kanshi
Arbitration/Conciliation under the Arbitration Act 1996 as
Ram, who named former schoolteacher, Mayawati, as his
an effective tool. Some of the observations made in that
successor of BSP in 2001.
report in this connection are extracted below
381. Justice Rajinder Sachar Committee was set up to study
374. In which year was the State Financial Corporation Act
________.
passed? The Act provides for the establishment of state
(a) the socio-economic status of Muslim community in India
financial corporations.
(b) the impact of globalisation on India
(a) 1972 (b) 1983
(c) the standards maintained by government hospitals in
(c) 1951 (d) 1947
India
• Sol: (c); The State Financial Corporations Act was passed in
1951 which empowered all states and union territories to (d) the environmental issues of the western ghats in India
set up State Financial Corporations to meet the need for

191
POLITY - Miscellaneous - Municipalities

• Sol: (a); In March 2005, former Prime Minister Manmohan • Schemes such as the Mid-day Meal Scheme (MDMS), the
Singh had constituted a seven-member High-Level Public Distribution System (PDS), and the Integrated Child
Committee headed by former Chief Justice of Delhi High Development Services (ICDS) are included under the act.
Court Rajinder Sachar to study the social, economic, and 387. Planned economic development in India began in ______
educational condition of Muslims in India. with the inception of the First Five Year Plan.
382. The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi scheme, (a) 1951 (b) 1956
announced in the Interim Budget 2019, aims at: (c) 1948 (d) 1958
(a) providing life insurance for small and marginal farmers • Sol: (a); The Planned economic development in India
(b) ensuring effective implementation of minimum support began in 1951 with the inception of the First Five Year
prices for all edible crops Plan.
(c) providing medical insurance for small farmer families • It focused primarily on the development of the primary
(d) ensuring minimum income for farmer families who own sector, specifically agriculture and irrigation.
up to two hectares of cultivable land
• The first five-year plan from 1951 to 1956 was an economic
• Sol: (d); The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-
initiative drafter by India’s first Prime Minister Jawaharlal
KISAN) scheme announced as part of the 2019-20 budget
Nehru.
will provide Rs 6,000 per year as income support to small
and marginal farmers. It aims at ensuring minimum 388. Who among the following politicians used the title ‘Babu’
income for farmer families who own up to two hectares of before his name?
cultivable land. (a) K Kamraj (b) Jagjivan Ram
(c) JB Kripalani (d) Morarji Desai
383. As per the Table of Precedence, who among the following
enjoys the highest ceremonial protocol? • Sol: (b); Jagjivan Ram was a politician and an
independence activist from Bihar.
(a) Holders of Bharat Ratna
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court of India • He used the title “BABU” before his name.
(c) Cabinet ministers of the Union • He was the youngest minister in the Jawaharlal Nehru’s
(d) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha Interim government in 1946.
• Sol: (c); Cabinet ministers of the Union 389. Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on ______.
384. Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (a) 2 October 1869 (b) 12 October 1904
(MPLADS) was introduced in December ______. (c) 12 October 1869 (d) 2 October 1904
(a) 2014 (b) 2004 • Sol: (d); Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on 2 October 1904 in
(c) 1991 (d) 1993 Mughal Sarai.
• Sol: (d); Member of Parliament Local Area Development • Lal Bahadur Shastri served as the 2nd Prime Minister of
Scheme (MPLADS) was introduced in December 1993 The India from 1964 to 1966.
objective is to enable the Members of Parliament (MP) to
• He was known as the man of peace.
suggest and get executed developmental works of a capital
nature based on locally felt needs with an emphasis on the • He gave slogan “Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan” which became very
creation of durable assets. popular during the war.
CPO 2020 CPO 2019

385. On the night of ______ 1975, Indira Gandhi recommended 390. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President at
the imposition of Emergency to president Fakhruddin Ali the end of every _________ year.
Ahmed. (a) tenth (b) fifth
(a) 1st June (b) 22nd May (c) seventh (d) sixth
(c) 25th June (d) 1st July • Sol. (b); The Finance Commission is constituted by the
• Sol: (c); On 25th June 1975, National emergency was President at the expiration of every fifth year.
imposed during the reign of then Prime Minister of India, • The Finance Commission was established pursuant
Indira Gandhi. to Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the President of
• Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the President of India when India in 1951.
National emergency was imposed. He was the fifth • It was formed to define the financial relations between the
President of India. individual State governments and the Central government
• National Emergency can be declared under Article 352. of India.
• It has been declared 3 times in India – 1962 (China war), • In addition, the Finance Commission Act, 1951, specifies
1971 (Pakistan war), and 1975 (Internal Disturbances). the terms of the Finance Commission's qualification,
appointment and disqualification, term, eligibility, and
386. In which of the following years was the National Food
Security Act enacted in India? powers.
(a) 2013 (b) 2009 • The Commission is appointed every five years
(c) 2012 (d) 2011 according and consists of a chairman and four other
• Sol: (a); National Food Security Act was enacted in 2013. members.
• It is an Indian Act of Parliament which aims to provide 391. How many polities does the institutional mechanism of
subsidized food grains to approximately two thirds of the federalism accommodate?
country’s 1.2 billion people. (a) One (b) Three
(c) Two (d) Four

192
POLITY - Miscellaneous - Municipalities

• Sol. (c); The institutional mechanism of federalism

accommodates two polities.
• First is the national or centre level, and the second is at the
regional or provincial level.
• Both are autonomous in their own spheres.
• Each level has distinct responsibilities and powers and a
separate system of government.
392. Which Commission was appointed by the central
government to examine issues related to Centre-State
relations?
(a) Kothari Commission (b) Nanavati Commission
(c) Sarkaria Commission (d) Mandal Commission
• Sol. (c); Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the central
government in 1983 to examine issues related to Centre-
State relations.
• Kothari Commission was appointed by the government in
1964 to examine all the aspects related to the education
sector in India.
• Nanavati Commission was appointed in the year 2000 by
the National Democratic Alliance to probe the 1984 anti-
Sikh riots.
• Mandal Commission was established in 1979 under PM
Morarji Desai to study the representation and condition of
educationally or socially backward castes.
CPO 2018
393. The Supreme Court has issued a notice the Central
Government on ______ questioning the centre’s
notification authorizing 10 central agencies to intercept
monitor and decrypt any computer system
(a) PIL (b) IPL
(c) LPI (d) LIP
• Sol: (a); The Supreme Court has issued a notice to the
Central Government on PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
questioning the centre's notification authorizing 10 central
agencies to intercept monitor and decrypt any computer
system.
• The term Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was originated in
the United States in the mid-1980s.
• The Public interest Litigation is litigation filed in a court of
law, for the protection of Public Interest”, such as
Pollution, Terrorism, Road safety, etc.
• It also functions as an effective instrument for changes in
society or social welfare.
• In India, an individual can file a PIL either in Supreme
Court or High Court under article 32 and 226 of the Indian
constitution respectively.

193
ECONOMY - Introduction to Economy

Chapter D: ECONOMICS
D-1. Introduction To Economy ............................................. 194 • Secondary activities add value to natural resources by
D-2. National Income ............................................................. 195 transforming raw materials into valuable products.
D-3. Economic Growth And Development ........................ 197 4. 'Income and employment theory' is the other name for
D-4. Money Supply................................................................. 198 which branch of Economics?
D-5. Banking ............................................................................ 199 (a) Macroeconomics (b) Microeconomics
D-6. Inflation ........................................................................... 204 (c) International economics (d) Public finance
D-7. Financial Market............................................................. 205 • Solution: (a); ‘Income and employment theory’ is the
other name for “Macroeconomics”.
D-8. Taxation............................................................................ 205
D-9. Government Budgeting ................................................. 206 • Macroeconomics deals with the study of economics as a
D-10. External Sector ........................................................... 208 whole and the study of collective or aggregate variables
like national income and how they influence the whole
D-11. Economic Planning.................................................... 208
economy.
D-12. Industries .................................................................... 208
• John Maynard Keynes (1883–1946) was an early 20th-
D-13. Financial Inclusion .................................................... 209
century British economist, best known as the founder of
D-14. Global Economic Institutions.................................. 209
Keynesian economics and the father of modern
D-15. Agriculture And Food Management ...................... 210 macroeconomics, the study of how economies—markets
D-16. Infrastructure.............................................................. 211 and other systems that operate on a large scale—behave.
D-17. Misc .............................................................................. 211 5. Which of the following activities can be classified as a
part of secondary sector of an economy?
D-1. Introduction to Economy (a) Legal consulting (b) Tea plantation
CHSL 2019 (c) Farm equipment manufacturing (d) Banking
1. The concepts of wages, rent, interest and profit are • Solution: (c); The secondary sector of the economy is an
studied under which branch of economics? economic sector that describes the role of manufacturing.
(a) Macroeconomics (b) Econometrics • It involves the transformation of raw or intermediate
(c) Microeconomics (d) Health economics materials into goods.
• Solution: (c); Microeconomics is the study of what is • Farm equipment manufacturing can be classified as
likely to happen when individuals make choices in secondary sector of an economy.
response to changes in incentives, prices, resources,
and/or methods of production. 6. The mixed economy is:
(a) co-existence of traditional and modern industries
• The concepts of wages, rent, interest and profit are
(b) presence of subsistence and commercial farming
studied under microeconomics.
(c) presence of domestic and foreign investments
• Adam Smith is considered the father of modern (d) a market system of resource allocation, commerce, and
economics (both micro and macro). He was an 18th- trade in which free markets coexist with government
century Scottish philosopher. Smith is most famous for intervention
his 1776 book, "The Wealth of Nations." • Solution: (d); The mixed economy is a market system of
2. Which of the following is a tertiary economic activity? resource allocation, commerce, and trade in which free
(a) Weaving (b) Trading markets coexist with governmental intervention.
(c) Hunting (d) Farming • The US and France are the example of mixed economies.
• Solution: (b); The tertiary sectors involve the provision of • It monitors the power of monopolies.
services to other businesses as well as to final consumers.
CHSL 2018
• The tertiary sector covers wide range of activities from
7. Who among the following is also known as the founder of
commerce to administration, transport, trading, financial
macroeconomics as a separate discipline?
and real estate activities, business and personal services,
(a) Adam Smith (b) Fischer Black
education, health and social work.
(c) Robert Merton (d) John Maynard Keynes
• Hunting and Farming comes under primary sector • Sol: (d); John Maynard Keynes
whereas weaving comes under secondary sector.
• Adam Smith is the father of economics; John Maynard
3. An industrial economy is best defined as an economy Keynes is the founding father of macroeconomics.
whose 50% or more produce value comes from the ______
sector. • Macroeconomics is a branch of economics that studies
(a) primary (b) banking how an overall economy—the market systems that
(c) tertiary (d) secondary operate on a large scale—behaves.
• Solution: (d); The economy whose 50% or more produce • Macroeconomics studies economy-wide phenomena such
value comes from the secondary sector is defined as an as inflation, price levels, rate of economic growth,
Industrial Economy. national income, gross domestic product (GDP), and
• Higher the contribution, higher is the level of changes in unemployment.
industrialization. • Macroeconomics, as it is in its modern form, is often
defined as starting with John Maynard Keynes and the

194
Biology - Introduction to Biology

Chapter E: BIOLOGY
E-1. Biology ..................................................................... 218 • Monoon longifolium- It is commonly known by its
synonym Polyalthia longifolia. It is an Asian small tree
E-1.1. INTRODUCTION TO BIOLOGY ................................ 218 species in the family Annonaceae.
E-1.2. CIRCULATORY SYSTEM .......................................... 222
• Cocos nucifera:- The coconut tree (Cocos nucifera) is a
E-1.3. DIGESTIVE SYSTEM ................................................ 225 member of the palm tree family (Arecaceae) and the only
E-1.4. ENDOCRINE SYSTEM.............................................. 226 living species of the genus Cocos.
E-1.5. RESPIRATORY SYSTEM ........................................... 227
• Casuarina:- They are evergreen shrubs and trees growing
E-1.6. SKELETAL SYSTEM ................................................. 227 to 35 m (115 ft) tall.
E-1.7. EXCRETORY SYSTEM .............................................. 229
4. Which of the following is the application of sciences such as
E-1.8. NERVOUS SYSTEM ................................................. 230 physics, chemistry, biology, computer science and
E-1.9. ANIMAL DISEASES ................................................. 231 engineering to matters of law and to the identification of
E-1.10. NUTRITION......................................................... 238 various facts of civilian investigation?
E-1.11. ANIMAL KINGDOM ............................................ 240 (a) Kalology (b) Morphology
E-1.12. MISCELLANEOUS ............................................... 246 (c) Forensic science (d) Psychology
E-2. Botany ...................................................................... 249 • Sol. (c); Forensic science - Study of critical element of
criminal justice system; application of scientific methods
E-2.1. CELL....................................................................... 249 and techniques to matters under investigation by a court of
E-2.2. BOTANY ................................................................. 250 law.
E-2.3. PLANT HORMONES ............................................... 254 • Kalology - Study of beauty
E-2.4. PIGMENTS .............................................................. 254
• Morphology - Study of form and structure of animal and
E-2.5. PLANT MORPHOLOGY ........................................... 254 plant.
• Psychology - Scientific study of mind and behavior.
E-1. Biology 5. The scientific study of birds is called ______.
(a) gerontology (b) ichthyology
E-1.1. Introduction to Biology (c) Ornithology (d) pomology
CGL 2021 • Sol. (c); Ornithology is a branch of zoology that concerns
1. Which of the following is the study of insects and their the methodological study and consequent knowledge
relationship to humans, the environment, and other of birds with all that relates to them.
organisms?
• Gerontology is the study of
(a) Ethology (b) Entomology
the social, cultural, psychological, cognitive,
(c) Ornithology (d) Mycology and biological aspects of aging.
• Sol. (b); Entomology is a branch of zoology which deals
with the scientific study of insects. • Ichthyology is the branch of zoology devoted to the study
of fish, including bony fish (Osteichthyes), cartilaginous
• Ornithology: - a branch of zoology dealing with the study fish (Chondrichthyes), and jawless fish (Agnatha).
of birds.
• Pomology is a branch of botany that studies fruit and its
• Ethology: - a branch of knowledge dealing with human cultivation.
character and with its formation and evolution; the
CGL 2019
scientific and objective study of animal behavior especially
under natural conditions. 6. ________ are called the ‘Powerhouses’ of the cell.
(a) Mitochondria (b) Arteries
• Mycology: - the study of fungi, a group that includes the
(c) Pituitary glands (d) Lungs
mushrooms and yeasts.
• Sol. (a); Mitochondria are called the ‘Powerhouses’ of the
CGL 2020
cell because it converts oxygen and nutrients into
2. Who among the following was the founder of Homeopathy? adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
(a) Selman Waksman (b)Robert Koch
• ATP powers the metabolic activities of cells.
(c) Samuel Hahnemann (d) FG Hopkins
• Sol. (c); Samuel Hahnemann, the originator of • They are located in the cytoplasm of cells with other
homeopathy. organelles of the cells.

• Homeopathy is a medical system that was developed in 7. Who discovered cells in the human body?
Germany. (a) Charles Darwin (b) Robert Hooke
(c) Herbert Spencer (d) Albert Einstein
3. What is the botanical name of mango? ● Sol. (b); Robert Hooke
(a) Monoon longifolium (b) Mangifera indica
Person Inventions
(c) Cocos nucifera (d) Casuarina
• Sol. (b); Mangifera indica, commonly known as mango, is Robert Hooke Cells in 1665
a species of flowering plant in the family Anacardiaceae. Albert Theory of General Relativity and
Einstein Theory of Special Relativity

218
PHYSICS - - Lens & Mirror

Chapter F: PHYSICS
F-1. Optics.................................................................................. 258 • Progressive lenses also called multifocal lenses are the
F-1.1. LENS & MIRROR ......................................................... 258 lenses that have a seamless progression of added
F-1.2. LIGHT.......................................................................... 258 magnifying power for intermediate and near vision.
F-2. Heat ..................................................................................... 259 Defects of
Details Corrections
F-3. Electricity & Magnetism.................................................. 261 Vision
F-4. Wave ................................................................................... 263 Hypermetropia The human eye can Convex
or see distant objects Lens
F-4.1. SOUND WAVE ............................................................. 263
Farsightedness clearly but cannot see
F-4.2. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE ......................................... 265
nearby objects clearly.
F-5. Matter ................................................................................. 266 Presbyopia In this defect both near Bifocal
F-6. Motion ................................................................................ 267 and far objects are not lenses
F-7. Newton's Laws Of Motion .............................................. 267 clearly visible. It is an old
F-8. Circular Motion ................................................................ 267 age disease and it is due
F-9. Gravitation, Lift ................................................................ 267 to the loosing power of
F-10. Friction ............................................................................... 268 accommodation.
F-11. Work, Power & Energy .................................................... 268 Astigmatism In this defect, the eye Cylindrical
cannot see horizontal and lens
F-12. Simple Pendulum............................................................. 270
vertical lines clearly,
F-13. Satellite............................................................................... 270
simultaneously. It is due
F-14. Units & Dimensions ........................................................ 270 to the imperfect spherical
F-15. Fluid Mechanics ............................................................... 272 nature of the eye lens.
F-16. Miscellaneous ................................................................... 273 CHSL 2018
3. The lens-type commonly used for correcting presbyopia is
F-1. Optics ______.
(a) bifocal lens (b) cylindrical lens
F-1.1. Lens & Mirror (c) convex lens (d) concave lens
CGL 2019 • Sol (a); A bifocal lens is created with two different areas of
1. The total number of images formed by two mirrors vision correction, which are divided by a distinct line that
inclined at 120° to each other (symmetrically) is . sits horizontally across the lens. The top portion of the lens
(a) 4 (b) 3 is used for distant, while the bottom portion of the lens is
(c) 2 (d)1 used for closer vision.
• Sol (c); 2 CPO 2018
• Number of Images 4. The Power of a lens is measured in _________.
360 (a)Candela (b)Kelvin
• For Symmetrical cases, n = – 1, where θ is angle
𝜃 (c)Ampere (d)Diopter
between two mirrors • Sol (d); The power of the lens measured is measured with
360
• For Asymmetrical cases, n = Diopter and we represent it by D.
𝜃
CGL 2018 • The reciprocal of focal length in meters is equals to the
2. Rajat has hypermetropia. What type of lens will the power of lens. D=1/f, where D stands for power of lens
ophthalmologist recommend correcting his vision? (Diopter) and f stands for focal length of the lens in meter.
(a) Bifocal (b) Concave • Lumen is the SI unit of Luminous flux. It measures light
(c) Progressive (d) Convex energy emitted from a light source.
• Sol (d); A person with hypermetropia can see distant • Candela is the SI unit of Luminous intensity.
objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.
• The amount of light that emits in unit time per unit solid
• Hypermetropia is also known as farsightedness. Such a angle is known as Luminous intensity.
person must keep a reading material much beyond 25 cm
from the eye for comfortable reading. F-1.2. Light
CGL 2020
• Hypermetropia defect can arise mainly due to two reasons
5. Which phenomenon deals with the scattering of light by
(i) the focal length of the eye lens become too long or (ii)
molecules of a medium when they are excited to
the eyeball becomes too small.
vibrational energy levels?
• This defect can be corrected by using a convex lens of (a) Raman Effect (b) Maxwell Effect
appropriate power. (c) Rayleigh Effect (d) Huygens Effect
• A concave lens is used for the correction of Myopia which • Sol (a); Raman scattering or the Raman effect is
is also known as near-sightedness. the inelastic scattering of photons by matter, meaning that
• The bifocal lens can be used for the correction of there is both an exchange of energy and a change in the
Presbyopia (a person suffering from both myopia and light's direction.
hypermetropia). • Rayleigh Effect

258
CHEMISTRY -

Chapter G: CHEMISTRY
G-1. Acids, Base & Salts ........................................................... 276 responsible for the tears and odour resulting from freshly
G-2. Metals And Non-Metals .................................................. 279 cut onions?
G-3. Carbon & Its Compounds ............................................... 282 (a) Acetic acid (b) Ascorbic acid
G-4. Periodic Table ................................................................... 284 (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Citric acid
• Sol. (c); Sulfuric acid is responsible for the tears and odour
G-5. Polymer .............................................................................. 288
resulting from freshly cut onions.
G-6. Cement & Glass ................................................................ 289
• Sulfuric acid is known in antiquity as oil of vitriol.
G-7. Fertilizers ........................................................................... 289
G-8. Valency ............................................................................... 290 • The molecular formula H2SO4.
G-9. Water Ph ............................................................................. 290 • It is a colorless, odorless and viscous liquid that
G-10. Radioactivity ................................................................ 291 is miscible with water.
G-11. Types Of Solutions ..................................................... 291 Acetic acid
G-12. Atomic Structure .......................................................... 293 • Acetic acid systematically named ethanoic acid is an acidic,
G-13. Some Important Compounds .................................... 297 colourless liquid and organic compound with the chemical
formula CH3COOH
G-14. Chemistry In Everyday Life ....................................... 299
G-15. Environment And Pollution ...................................... 302 • Vinegar is at least 4% acetic acid by volume, making acetic
acid the main component of vinegar apart from water and
G-16. Misc ................................................................................ 303
other trace elements.
Ascorbic acid
G-1. Acids, Base & Salts • Vitamin C (also known as ascorbic acid and ascorbate) is a
CGL 2021 water-soluble vitamin.
1. Acidic nature of soil is shown by high concentration of
• It is used to prevent and treat scurvy.
______.
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrozen • Vitamin C is an essential nutrient involved in the repair
(c) Phosphorous (d) Nitrogen of tissue, the formation of collagen, and
• Sol. (b); More Hydrogen H+ ions concentration shows the enzymatic production of certain neurotransmitters.
acidic nature of the soil Citric acid
• Soil acidity is a problem adversely affecting plant growth • it is a colorless weak organic acid.
and yield production. The most important limiting factors • It occurs naturally in citrus fruits.
under the stress of acidity are the high concentrations of
5. Which of the following acids is used in the purification of
Al, Fe, Mn, and H with toxic effects, which are not
gold and silver?
favorable to plant growth.
(a) Acetic acid (b) Nitric acid
• Maximum nutrients are available to crops when the pH (c) Formic acid (d) Maleic acid
ranges from 6.5 to 7. • Sol. (b); Nitric acid is the inorganic compound with the
2. The salinity of ocean waters is calculated as the amount of formula HNO3.
salt (in gm) dissolved in ______ gm of seawater. • It is a highly corrosive mineral acid
(a) 1000 (b) 10
Formic acid
(c) 100 (d) 10000
• Sol. (a); Salinity is the term used to define the total content • Formic acid, systematically named methanoic acid, is the
of dissolved salts in seawater. It is calculated as the amount simplest carboxylic acid, and has the chemical
of salt (in gm) dissolved in 1,000 gm (1 kg) of seawater. formula HCOOH.
• It is usually expressed as parts per thousand or ppt. Maleic acid
Salinity is an important property of seawater. • Maleic acid or cis-butenedioic acid is an organic
3. Acidic drain cleaners made of ______ or ______ acid are compound that is a dicarboxylic acid, a molecule with
powerful enough to clear heavy-duty hair, food, grease, two carboxyl groups.
soap scum or paper-based clogs in 15 minutes or less. 6. Which of the following liquids has the highest pH?
(a) nitric, carbonic (b) malic, lactic (a) Milk of magnesia (b) Orange juice
(c) formic, citric (d) sulphuricc, hydrochloric (c) Lemon juice (d) Human blood
• Sol. (d); Acidic drain cleaners are usually found in liquid • Sol. (a); Milk of magnesia has the highest pH.
form. With these types of cleaning solutions, the main • pH is defined as the negative logarithm of H+ ion
ingredient is generally sulphuric acid (H2SO4), a highly concentration. Hence the meaning of the name pH is
toxic chemical that dissolves organic materials. justified as the power of hydrogen.
• The main reason for adding sulfuric acid to a drain • A pH scale is a tool for measuring acids and bases. The
cleaning solution is the strong dissolving action when it scale ranges from 0-14.
contacts organic material such as food, hair, grease, leaves
and other debri Item Ph value
Human blood 7.4
CGL 2020
Lemon juice 2-3
4. When we cut an onion, the vegetable emits an odour and
our eyes tear up. Which of the following compounds is Orange juice 3.3 – 4.2
Milk of magnesia 10.5

276
STATIC GK - National Parks in India

Chapter H: STATIC GK
H-1. National Parks In India .................................................... 307 H-52. Abbreviation ................................................................. 422
H-2. Tiger Reserve In India...................................................... 308 H-53. India And Its Neighbouring Countries ................... 423
H-3. Wildlife Sanctuaries In India.......................................... 308 H-54. Misc ................................................................................ 426
H-4. Hydro, Thermal & Nuclear Power Plants In India...... 309
H-5. Biosphere Reserves In India ........................................... 309 H-1. National Parks in India
H-6. Major Straits Of The World ............................................ 309 For complete list of National Parks, refer to - 1 EQ Static GK Part 2;
H-7. Major Rivers Of The World ............................................ 309 Chapter 1.1 List of National Parks in India
CHSL 2021
H-8. Indian Rivers And Their Place Of Origin .................... 309
1. Which of the following Tiger Reserves/ National Parks
H-9. Important Dams Of India ................................................ 310
and states situated in is INCORRECTLY matched?
H-10. Banks, Their Headquarters And Taglines ............... 310 (a) Manas Tiger Reserve – Assam
H-11. Books And Authors...................................................... 311 (b) Bandhavgarh National Park – Madhya Pradesh
H-12. Airports In India........................................................... 327 (c) Sundarbans National Park – Odisha
H-13. Important Indian Cities Located In River Banks.... 327 (d) Corbett National Park – Uttarakhand
H-14. Census In India............................................................. 327 ● Sol: (c); The Sundarbans National Park is a national park,
H-15. Country Capital And Currency .................................. 329 tiger reserve and biosphere reserve in West Bengal, India.
H-16. Stadiums In India......................................................... 329 CGL 2020
H-17. Major Sea Ports In India ............................................. 329 2. In which of the following states is the Bhitarkanika
H-18. International Organizations And Headquarters..... 329 National Park situated?
H-19. Important Boundary Lines Around The World ...... 332 (a) Goa (b) Odisha
H-20. Schemes ......................................................................... 332 (c) Kerala (d) Meghalaya
H-21. Hill Ranges In India And Its Location ..................... 335 ● Sol:(b); Total of two national parks in Odisha:
H-22. Important Awards And Their Fileds ........................ 335 ● Simlipal National Park, Baripada - Largest National Park
H-23. Sports Events, Venues And Related Trophies ........ 342 of Odisha.
H-24. Famous Indian Cities And Their Nicknames.......... 356 ● Bhitarkanika National Park
H-25. Important Fairs And Festivals .................................... 356 3. Which of the following is the only floating national park
H-26. Music, Musical Instruments And Persons Associated in India and the world?
361 (a) Balpakram National Park
H-27. Art, Important Dance Forms In India, Persons (b) Gugamal National Park
Related, Classical, Folk Dances Of India .................................... 372 (c) Keibul Lamjao National Park
H-28. Important Superlatives In India ................................ 389 (d) Nagarhole National Park
● Sol: (c); Keibul Lamjao National Park
H-29. Rupee Denomination And Features ......................... 390
● List of national parks with states
H-30. Important Forts & Palaces In India ........................... 390
H-31. Unesco World Heritage Sites In India ...................... 394 4. ______ National Park is in Ladakh.
H-32. Famous Religious Places, Temples In India And Its (a) Hemis (b) Gir
Location 395 (c) Namdapha (d) Manas
● Sol:(a); Hemis National Park is a high-altitude national
H-33. Famous Tombs Or Mausoleums In India ................ 397
park in Ladakh.
H-34. Symbols Of Indian States And Union Territories.. 397
● Famous for its snow leopards.
H-35. International Summits, Conferences And Its Venues
● It is the only national park in India that is north of
398
the Himalayas, the largest notified protected area in India
H-36. Computer Knowledge ................................................. 398
CGL 2019
H-37. Reports & Indices Of Different Organization ........ 405
5. Which National Park among the following is the largest
H-38. Public Sector Companies And Headquarters .......... 407 protected area in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region?
H-39. Research & Educational Institutions In India ......... 408 (a) Bandipur National Park
H-40. International Food Festivals. ...................................... 409 (b) Namdapha National Park
H-41. Ramsar Sites In India .................................................. 409 (c) Keibul Lamjao National Park
H-42. Important Days ............................................................. 409 (d) Jim Corbett National Park
H-43. Important Lakes In India ............................................ 412 ● Sol:(b); Namdapha National Park
H-44. Important Indian Missiles .......................................... 413 ● Namdapha National Park – Arunachal Pradesh
H-45. Central Banks Of Different Countries ..................... 413 ● Jim Corbett National Park – Uttarakhand
H-46. Important Gardens In India ....................................... 413
● Keibul Lamjao National Park – Manipur
H-47. Important International Boundary Lines In World 413
● Bandipur National Park – Karnataka
H-48. Space ............................................................................... 413
CGL 2018
H-49. Famous Personalities ................................................... 413
6. Where is the Bandipur National Park located?
H-50. First In India, First In World ...................................... 419
(a) Karnataka (b) Kerala
H-51. Defence .......................................................................... 422

307

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SSC Toppers' Guide to TCS PYQs

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SSC Toppers' Guide to TCS PYQs

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THE LATEST BOOK ON TCS PATTERN

SSC GENERAL AWARENESS

GST Inspector ENGLISH ENGLISH

• NARENDRA KUMAR, AIR 176

Proof Reading & Translation 120+ 2500+

• SAHADEV SINGH RATHORE

SSC_cover.indd 1 13/11/22 3:01 PM

SSC GENERAL AWARENESS

GST Inspector ENGLISH ENGLISH

• NARENDRA KUMAR, AIR 176

Proof Reading & Translation 120+ 2500+

• SAHADEV SINGH RATHORE

SSC_cover.indd 1 13/11/22 3:01 PM

First Edition: 2022

Maximum Retail Price: 699/-

For further information contact us on :

Address: 412, OCUS Quantum, Sector 51, Gurgaon 122003

[Link] | [Link] | [Link]

Jagadeesh Taluri (Founder, 1EQ)

Chapter A-1: ANCIENT HISTORY

4.1. Mahajanapadas ........................................................ 6 3. Burzahom, the neolithic site, is located in ________.

Chapter A-2: MEDIEVAL HISTORY – INDIA

Chapter A-3: MODERN HISTORY – INDIA

• Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities

C-1.3. Different Sources of the Constitution • Javan: Critically Endangered

• Sol: (c); 1955 whereby provisions of the Constitution which were

• Capital: Ranchi. • Article 26 - Freedom to manage religious affairs. Subject to

(d) Legal Conciliation Act CHSL 2019

• Sol. (c); The institutional mechanism of federalism

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