Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER1 – INTRODUCTION

1. The maximum range at which an aircraft at FL250 can receive transmissions from a VHF
R/T station at 300 ft is:
a) 200 nm
b) 219 nm
c) 175 nm
d) 198 nm

2. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 5,045 MHz is:

a) 59.5 cm
b) 5.95 cm
c) 19.8 cm
d) 1.98 cm

3. The frequency band containing a wavelength of 75 cm is:

a) MF
b) HF
c) VHF
d) UHF

4. The phase of a variable wave is at 240° as the phase of a reference wave is 090°. The
phase difference is:
a) 210°
b) 150°
c) 330°
d) 030°

5. The greatest range for a surface wave will be at a frequency of:

a) 198 KHz
b) 121.5 MHz
c) 2,182 KHz
d) 4,300 MHz

6. At a fixed frequency if the level of ionisation increases, then:

a) The dead space will increase because of the increase in critical angle.
b) The dead space will decrease because of a decrease in critical angle
c) The dead space will increase because of a decrease in the critical angle.
d) The dead space will decrease because of an increase in the critical angle.

7. The reduction in the power available in a radio wave as the distance from a transmitter increases
is known as:
a) Dissipation
b) Diffraction
c) Attenuation
d) Refraction

8. An advantage of FM when compared with AM is:

a) Less susceptible to static interference
b) Smaller bandwidth
c) Easier to demodulate (ie extract information)
d) More suitable for use at lower frequencies

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9. An aircraft is using a night time HF frequency of 5.5 MHz with ATC) The frequency the
pilot would expect to use by day is:
a) 3 MHz
b) 12 MHz
c) 15 MHz
d) 18 MHz

10. Which of the following frequencies is likely to experience the most severe static interference?
a) 121.5 MHz
b) 500 KHz
c) 4,300 MHz
d) 5,500 KHz

11. The highest levels of ionisation will be found:

a) At high latitudes in summer
b) At low latitudes in summer
c) At high latitudes in winter
d) At low latitudes in winter

12. Concerning skywave propagation, which of the following is correct?

a) The D-layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by night.
b) The D-layer attenuates LF and MF frequencies by day.
c) The D-layer attenuates HF frequencies by night.
d) The D-layer attenuates HF frequencies by day.

13. The wave which leaves the transmitter tangential to the surface of the earth and follows the
earth’s curvature is called:
a) Direct wave
b) Sky wave
c) Ground wave
d) Surface wave

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER 4 – ADF

1. The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:
a) is most marked at night.
b) can be minimised by using beacons situated well inland.
c) can be minimised by taking bearings where the signal crosses the coastline at right angles.
d) is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset.

2. An aircraft is intending to track from NDB 'A' to NDB 'B' on a track of 050 °(T), heading 0600(T).
If the RBI shows the relative bearing of'A' to be 180' and the relative bearing of'B' to be 3300
then the aircraft is:
a) Port of track and nearer `A'.
b) Port of track and nearer `B'.
c) Starboard of track and nearer `A'.
d) Starboard of track and nearer `B'.

3. ADF Quadrantal Error is caused by:

a) static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo's Fire.
b) the aircraft's major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the incoming
NDB transmissions.
c) station interference and/or night effect.
d) NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water propagation path.

4. An aircraft is tracking away from an NDB on a track of 023°(T). If the drift

is 8° port and variation 10° west, which of the
RMIs illustrated below shows the correct
indications?

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5. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the Promulgated

Range/Designated Operational Coverage (DOC) is:
a) ± 3°
b) ± 5°
c) ± 6°
d) ± 10°

6. In order to Tune, Identify and Monitor NON A1 A NDB emissions the BFO should be used
as follows:
Tune Identify Monitor
a) On On Off
b) On On On
c) On Off Off
d) Off Off Off

7. The magnitude of the error in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are affected
by coastal refraction may b reduced by:
a) selecting beacons situated well inland.
b) only using beacons within the designated operational coverage.
c) choosing NON A2A beacons.
d) choosing beacons on or near the coast.

8. The BFO facility on ADF equipment should be used as follows when an NDB having
NON A1Atype emission is to be used:
a) BFO on for tuning and identification but may be turned off for monitoring.
b) BFO on for tuning but can be turned off for monitoring and identification purpose.
c) BFO off during tuning, identification and monitoring because this type of emission is
not modulated.
d) BFO should be switched on for tuning, ident and monitoring.

9. The Protection Ratio of 3:1 that is provided within the Promulgated range/Designated
Operational Coverage of an NDB by day cannot be guaranteed at night because of:
a) Long range skywave interference from other transmitters.
b) Skywave signals from the NDB to which you are tuned.
c) The increased skip distance that occurs at night.
d) The possibility of sporadic E returns occurring at night.

10. An aircraft has an RMI with two needles. Assume that:

i) The aircraft is outbound from NDB Y on a track of 126°(M) drift is 14°Port.
ii) A position report is required when crossing a QDR of 022 from NDB Z.
Which of the diagrams below represents the RMI at the time of crossing the reporting point?

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11. Each NDB has a range promulgated in the COMM section of the Air Pilot. Within this
range interference from other NDBs should not cause bearing errors in excess of:
a) day ± 5 °
b) night ± 10°
c) day ± 6 °
d) night ± 5 °

12. Deleted.

13. In order to resolve the 180 ° directional ambiguity of a directional LOOP aerial its polar diagram
is combined with that of a SENSE aerial ……... to produce a……….. whose single null ensures
the ADF needle moves the shortest distance to indicate the correct.............
a) at the aircraft cardioid, radial.
b) at the transmitter, limacon, bearing.
c) at the aircraft, limacon, bearing.
d) at the aircraft, cardioid, bearing.

14. Deleted.

15. The phenomena of coastal refraction affecting ADF bearings is caused by the
signal when it reaches the coastline and bending the normal to the coast:
a) accelerating towards
b) decelerating towards
c) acceleratingaway from
d) deceleratingaway from

16. In an ADF system, night effect is most pronounced:

a) during long winter nights.
b) when the aircraft is at low altitude.
e) when the aircraft is at high altitude.
d) at dusk and dawn.

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17. When the induced signals from the loop and the sense antenna are combined in an ADF
receiver, the resultant polar diagram is:
a) a limacon
b) a cardioid
c) figure of eight shaped
d) circular

18. When flying over the sea and using an inland NDB to fix position with a series of position
lines, the plotted position in relation to the aircraft's actual position will be:
a) further from the coast.
b) closer to the coast.
c) co-incident.
d) inaccurate due to the transmitted wave front decelerating.

19. An aircraft on a heading of 235°(M) shows an RMI reading of 090° with respect to an NDB.
Any quadrantal error which is affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
a) a maximum value.
b) a very small value.
c) zero, since quadrantal error affects only the RBI.
d) zero, since quadrantal error affects only the VOR.

20. The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is:

a) skywave
b) surface wave
c) direct wave
d) ducted wave

21. The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of 189°(T) will experience the greatest effect due
to Quadrantal Error if the NDB bears:
a) 234°(T)
b) 279°(T)
c) 225°(T)
d) 145°(T)

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER 5 – VOR

1. Assuming the maximum likely error in VOR to be 5.5°, what is the maximum distance apart
that beacons can be situated on the centre line of an airway in order that an aircraft can
guarantee remaining within the airway boundary ?
a) 54.5 nm
b) 109 nm
c) 66 nm
d) 132 nm

2. The Designated Operational Coverage quoted for VOR beacons in the COMM section of the
Air Pilot:
a) Is only applicable by day.
b) Guarantees a Protection Ratio of at least 3 to 1 by day and night.
c) Defines the airspace within which an aircraft is assured of protection from interference
from other VORs on the same channel.
d) Is determined by the type of surface over which the signal will have to travel.

3. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 050 radial with 10° starboard drift. An NDB
lies to the east of the VOR. Which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the aircraft when it is
obtaining a relative bearing of 100 ° from the NDB ?

4. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain from a
VOR beacon situated at 900 feet above mean sea level ?
a) 274 nms
b) 255 nms
c) 112 nms
d) 224 nms

5. A Conventional VOR:
a) has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal.
b) has a 150Hz reference signal and a 90Hz variable signal
c) has an AM reference signal and a 150 Hz variable signal
d) has an AM reference signal and an FM variable signal.

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6. The OBS on a deviation indicator is set to 330° and gives a 3 dots fly right demand with
FROM indicated. What is the QDM of the aircraft to the station ?
a) 144
b) 324
c) 336
d) 156

7. An aircraft is homing towards a VOR which marks the centre line of an airway. The beacon is
100 nms distant. If the pilot had the airway QDM set on the OBS what deflection of the
deviation indicator would be given if the aircraft was on the boundary of the airway ? Assume
that one dot equals 2 degrees.
a) 3 dots
b) 2 dots
c) 2.5 dots
d) 1.5 dots

8. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 420 will obtain from a
VOR beacon situated at 400 feet above mean sea level ?
a) 225 nm
b) 256 nm
c) 281 nm
d) 257 nm
9. Concerning conventional and Doppler VORs (DVOR), which of the following is correct?
a) There is no way of knowing from the instrumentation display which type is being used.
b) The DVOR will always have a "D" in the ident.
c) The DVOR has a higher pitch ident than the standard VOR.
d) The conventional VOR has less site error.

10. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is, the bearing signal is and the direction
of rotation of the bearing signal is
a) AM FM anti-clockwise.
b) AM FM clockwise.
c) FM AM anti-clockwise.
d) FM AM clockwise.

11. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots fly right
with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows a range of 45 nm. Where is
the aircraft in relation to the required track?
a) 6 nm right of track.
b) 3 nm right of track.
c) 6 nm left of track.
d) 3 nm left of track.

12. A VOR beacon ceases to transmit its normal identification which is substituted by'TST'.
This means that:
a) The beacon may be used providing that extreme caution is used.
b) The beacon is undergoing maintenance or calibration and should not be used.
c) This is a temporary short range transmission and will have approximately half its normal range.
d) The beacon is under test and pilots using it should report its accuracy to air traffic control.
13. What is the approximate maximum range that an aircraft flying at 25000' would expect to
obtain from a VOR beacon situated 900' above mean sea level ?
a) 220nm
b) 100nm
c) 235nm
d) 198nm

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14. An aircraft is on the airway boundary range 100 nm from a VOR marking the airway centre line.
Assuming that each dot equates to 2 °, how many dots deviation will be shown on the deviation
indicator?
a) 3.0 dots
b) 2.5 dots
c) 2.0 dots
d) 1.5 dots

15. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 Radial. The OBS should
be set to:
a) 064 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
b) 244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
c) 064 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.
d) 244 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.

16. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 150 radial with 10° starboard drift. An NDB
lies to the South of the VOR. Which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the aircraft when it is
obtaining a relative bearing of 100° from the NDB?

17. Assuming the maximum likely error in VOR to be 5°, what is the maximum distance apart
that beacons can be situated on the centre line of an airway in order that an aircraft can
guarantee remaining within the airway boundary ?
a) 60nm
b) 100nm
c) 120nm
d) 150nm

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18. A VOR is providing satisfactory signals, in accordance with the ICAO specifications, to an
aircraft within the Designated Operational Coverage (DOC) at 42500ft, groundspeed 480kt.
The approximate time that the aircraft is in the "cone of confusion" is:
a) 1.75min. 30° 40 50° 60
b) 1.50 [Link] .[Link]
c) 2mm. TAN .577 .839 1.192 1.732
d) 3min. COs .866 .766 .643 .5

19. The type of emission radiated by a VOR beacon is:

a) A double channel VHF carrier with one channel being amplitude modulated and the
second channel being frequency modulated.
b) A single channel VHF carrier wave amplitude modulated at 30 Hz with a sub carrier
being frequency modulated at 30 Hz.
c) A VHF carrier wave with a 90 Hz frequency modulation and a 150 Hz amplitude modulation.
d) A VHF pulse modulated emission with a pulse repetition frequency of 30 pps.

20. An aircraft wishes to track towards a VOR along the 274 radial. If variation is 10° W what
should be set on the OBS ?
a) 274
b) 264
c) 094
d) 084

21. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on a heading of 287°M with 14° starboard drift. If
the variation is 6°W what is the phase difference between the reference and variable phase
components of the VOR transmission?
a) 121°
b) 295°
c) 301
d) 315°

22. What is the theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated 900
feet above mean sea level in an aircraft flying at 18 000 feet ?
a) 168nm
b) 188nm
c) 205nm
d) 250nm

23. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR beacon. The pilot has set 329 on the OBS of the
deviation indicator. If the aircraft is situated on the 152 radial then the deviation indicator
will show:
a) one and a half dots fly right.
b) one and a half dots fly left.
c) three dots fly right.
d) three dots fly left.

24. A VOR receiver in an aircraft measures the phase difference from a DVOR as 220°. Which
radial is the aircraft on?
a) 140
b) 040
c) 320
d) 220

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25. The RMI indicates the aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and
VORs to true bearings, the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:
NDB VOR
a) beacon position aircraft position
b) beacon position beacon position
c) aircraft position beacon position
d) aircraft position aircraft position

26. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications
from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. Use the information to answer the following:
The information given on the RMI indicates

a) that the aircraft is heading 033°(M), is on the

310° radial from the VOR, and bears 050°(M) from
the NDB.
b) that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the 310°
radial from the VOR, and bears 050° from the NDB.
c) that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the
130° radial from the VOR, and bears 050°(M) from
the NDB.
d) that the aircraft is heading 330°(M), is on the
130° radial from the VOR, and bears 230°(M) from
the NDB.

27. The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to define

the centre line of an airway which you intend to fly. The
indication received on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator is
shown below. At the same time the DME gave a range of
90nm from the facility. At the time of the observation,
the aircraft's radial and distance from the airway centre-
line were:
a) 062 radial 9 nm
b) 074 radial 6 nm
c) 242 radial 6 nm
d) 254 radial 9 nm

28. The normal maximum error which might be expected with a VOR bearingis:
a) plus or minus V
b) plus or minus 2°
c) plus or minus 5°
d) plus or minus 10°

29. An aircraft is tracking away from VOR "A"

on the 310° radial with 8° starboard drift;
NDB "X" is north of "A". Which diagram
below illustrates the RMI when the aircraft
is on its present track with a QDR from "X"
of 270° ?

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30. An aircraft bears 175°(M) from a VOR. If the aircraft OBS is set to 002 its heading is 359°(M)
which diagram below represents the aircraft VOR/ILS deviation indicator? (assume 1 dot =
2°)

31. The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero:

a) are magnetic.
b) are compass.
c) are relative.
d) must have deviation applied before being used.

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER 6 – ILS

1. The coverage of an ILS localiser extends to either side of the on course line out to a range of
nm. a) 10° 35
b) 35° 10
c) 35° 17
d) 25° 25

2. The upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.5° glide slope
are: a) 6.125° 1.575°
b) 7.700° 1.225°
c) 5.250° 1.350°
d) 3.850° 3.150°

3. The minimum angle at which a false glide path is likely to be encountered is:
a) 6 degrees
b) 5.35 degrees
c) normal glide slope times 1.75
d) normal glide slope times 0.70

4. The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are:
a) continuous low pitched dashes with synchronised blue light.
b) continuous high pitched dots with synchronised amber light.
c) alternating medium pitch dots and dashes with amber light.
d) one letter in Morse with synchronised white light.

5. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving stronger 150Hz signals than 90Hz signals.
The correct actions to be taken to place the aircraft on the centreline and on the glidepath are to
fly:
a) DOWN and LEFT.
b) UPand LEFT
c) UPand RIGHT.
d) DOWN and RIGHT.

6. In elevation the upper and lower limits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.0 degree
glide slope are:
a) 0.35° 0.70°
b) 3.00° at least 6°
c) 5.25° 1.35°
d) 10.0° 35.0°

7. A category 2 ILS installation :

a) provides accurate guidance down to 50' above the horizontal plane containing the
runway threshold.
b) has a steep glide path, normally 7.5°.
c) provides accurate guidance down to the runway and along the runway after landing.
d) has a false glide path that is exactly twice the true glide path angle.

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8. Which of these ILS indicators shows an aircraft on final approach left of the centre line and
at maximum safe deviation below the glide path ?

9. An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localiser inbound on the approach side but outside
the published coverage angle:
a) will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals.
b) will not normally receive signals.
c) will receive signals without coding.
d) can expect signals to give correct indications.

10. The outer marker of an ILS installation has a visual identification of:
a) alternating dots and dashes on a blue light.
b) continuous dots at a rate of 3 per second, blue light.
c) continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, amber light.
d) continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, blue light.

11. The specified maximum safe fly up indication on a 5 dot CDI is:
a) half full scale needle deflection above the centre line.
b) 2.5 dots fly up.
c) just before full scale deflection.
d) 1.3 dots fly up.

12. An aircraft is attempting to use an ILS approach outside the coverage sectors of an ICAO
standard system:
a) From the glideslope needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse
sense indications and from the localiser needle intermittent and incorrect indications.
b) The aircraft's receiver is not detecting any transmissions and the ILS needle OFF flags
are visible.
c) From the localiser needle the captain may be receiving false course and intermittent
indications and from the glideslope needle reverse sense and incorrect indications.
d) From the localiser needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse
sense indications and from the glideslope needle intermittent and incorrect indications.

13. The coverage of the ILS glideslope in azimuth is:

a) ± 8° out to l Onm
b) ± 10° out to 8nm
c) ± 12° out to 17nm
d) ± 35° out to 25nm

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14. An aircraft's Instrument Landing System glideslope and localiser receivers are receiving
predominant 90Hz modulated signals. If the aircraft is within the coverage of the ILS, QDM
of 264°, it is:
a) north of the localiser and below the glideslope.
b) south of the localiser and above the glideslope.
c) north of the localiser and above the glideslope.
d) south of the localiser and below the glideslope.

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER 7 – MICROWAVE LANDING SYSTEM

7.6 QUESTION PAPER

1. The coverage of the Micro-wave Landing System extends to ....nm up to a height .... of and
-------- degrees either side of the on course line.
a) 20nm; 20000ft; 40 degrees.
b) 35nm; 5000ft; 40 degrees.
c) 35nm; 5000ft; 20 degrees.
d) l7nm; 2000ft; 35 degrees.

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER 8 – RADAR PRINCIPLES

1. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:

a) pulse repetition rate
b) pulse width
c) power
d) beamwidth

2. The main advantage of continuous wave radars is:

a) No maximum range limitation
b) Better range resolution
c) No minimum range limitation
d) Better range resolution

3. If the PRF of a primary radar is 500 pulses per second, the maximum range will be:
a) 324 nm
b) 300 nm
c) 162 nm
d) 600 nm

4. To double the range of a primary radar would require the power to be increased by a factor of.
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

5. The time between the transmission of a pulse and the reception of the echo from a target is
1720 microseconds. What is the range of the target?
a) 139 km
b) 258 km
c) 278 km
d) 516 km

6. A radar is required to have a maximum range of 100 rim. What is the maximum PRF that
will achieve this?
a) 1620 pulses per second (pps)
b) 1234 pps
c) 617 pps
d) 810 pss

7. If the PRI of a radar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is:
a) 170 nm
b) 315 nm
c) 340 nm
d) 630 nm

8. To improve the resolution of a radar display requires:

a) a narrow pulse width and a narrow beam width
b) a high frequency and a large reflector
c) a wide beamwidth and a wide pulse width
d) a low frequency and a narrow pulse width

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9. An advantage of a phased array (slotted antenna) is:

a) better resolution
b) less power required
c) reduced sidelobes and clutter
d) all of the above

10. An echo is received from a target 900 microseconds after the pulse was transmitted. The range
to the target is:
a) 73 nm
b) 270 nm
c) 135 nm
d) 146 nm

11. The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar is:
a) pulse repetition interval
b) transmitter power
c) pulse width
d) pulse repetition frequency

12. The use of Doppler techniques to discriminate between aircraft and fixed objects results in
second trace returns being generated. These are removed by:
a) using a different frequency for transmission and reception
b) jittering the PRF
c) making regular changes in pulse-width
d) limiting the power output of the radar

13. A radar is designed to have a maximum range of 12 km. The maximum PRF that would
permit this is:
a) 25000 pps
b) 6700 pps
c) 12500 pps
d) 13400 pps

14. The bearing of a primary radar is measured by:

a) phase comparison
b) searchlight principle
c) lobe comparison
d) DF techniques

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER 9 – GROUND

RADAR

1. A primary radar has a pulse repetition frequency of 275 pulses per second. The time
interval between the leading edges of successive pulses is:
a) 3.64 milliseconds.
b) 36.4 milliseconds.
c) 3.64 microseconds.
d) 36.4 microseconds.

2. A primary radar system has a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second. Ignoring
pulse width and flyback at the CRT, the maximum range of the radar would be:
a) 333 nm
b) 180 nm
c) 666 nm
d) 360 nm

3. When flying a Precision Approach Radar, vertical displacement is based upon:

a) Regional QNH
b) QFE
c) QFF
d) Airfield QNH

4. The frequency band and rate of scan of Airfield Surface Movement radars are:
a) SHF; 60RPM
b) SHF; 200RPM
c) EHF; 100RPM
d) EHF; I0RPM

5. When carrying out a precision radar approach, talkdown normally ceases atnm from touchdown:
a) 0.5 nm
b) 2 nm
c) 3 nm
d) 5 nm

6. A ground based radar with a scanner rotation of 60rpm, a beam width in the order of .5 ° and
a PRF of 10000pps would be:
a) an Airfield Surface Movement Indicator with a theoretical range of 8nm.
b) a Precision Approach Radar.
c) an Airfield Surface Movement Indicator with a theoretical range of 16nm.
d) a high resolution Surveillance Approach Radar.

7. The SHF band has been selected for Airfield Surface Movement Indicator (ASMI) radars
in preference to the EHF band because:
a) the EHF band causes unacceptable radiation hazards to personnel.
b) the attenuation caused by precipitation is greater in the EHF band and reduces the
radar's effective range and usefulness.
c) the EHF band is not suitable for the provision of the very narrow beams needed for an ASMI radar.
d) target discrimination using the SHF band is better.

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER10– AIRBORNE WEATHER RADAR

1. A frequency used by airborne weather radar is:

a) 8800 MHz
b) 9.375 GHz
c) 93.75 Ghz
d) 1213 Mhz

2. An airborne weather radar is required to detect targets up to a maximum range of 200 nm.
Ignoring pulse length and flyback in the CRT calculate the maximum PRR.
a) 405 pps
b) 810 pps
c) 1500 pps
d) 750 pps

3. Using airborne weather radar the weather beam should be used in preference to the fan
shaped beam for mapping in excess of nm:
a) 20 to 25
b) 60 to 70
c) 100 to 150
d) 150 to 200

4. Airborne Weather Radar is an example of radar operating on a frequency of in the band.

a) primary 8800 MHz SHF
b) secondary 9.375 MHz UHF
c) secondary 9375 MHz SHF
d) primary 9375 MHz SHF

5. A prominent island is identified on the 30° right bearing line and the 10 nm range marker of an
airborne weather radar. If the heading is 045°(T) and the aircraft is at flight level 360 what
range and bearing should be plotted in order to obtain a fix?
a) 10nm 030°(T)
b) 10nm 075°(T)
c) 8nm 075°(T)
d) 8nm 255°(T)

6. The correct sequence of colours of a colour Airborne Weather Radar as returns get stronger is:
a) red yellow green.
b) yellowgreen red.
c) green yellow red.
d) red green yellow.

7. A false indication of water may be given by the Airborne Weather Radar display when:
a) flying over land with the Land/Sea switch in the Sea position.
b) flying over mountainous terrain.
c) there is cloud and precipitation between the aircraft and a cloud target.
d) attempting to use the mapping beam for mapping in excess of 50 nm.

8. An aircraft heading 017°(T) has a small island showing on the Airborne Weather Radar at
45nm range on the 60° left azimuth line. To obtain a fix from this information you should plot:
a) range 45nm and QTE 060 from the centre of the island.
b) range 45nm and QTE 240 from the centre of the island.
c) range 45nm and QTE 317 from the centre of the island.
d) range 45nm and QTE 137 from the centre of the island.

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9. An aircraft heading 137°(M) has a small island showing on the Airborne Weather Radar at 45nm
range on the 30 ° left azimuth line. Local variation is 12° W. To obtain a fix from this
information you should plot:
a) Range 45 nm and QTE 095 from the centre of the island.
b) Range 45 nm and QTE 275 from the centre of the island.
c) Range 45 nm and QTE 107 from the centre of the island.
d) Range 45 nm and QTE 287 from the centre of the island.

10. Airborne weather radar operates on a frequency of:

a) 8800 MHz because gives the best returns from all types of precipitation
b) 13300 MHz
c) 9375 MHz because it gives the best returns from rainfall associated with Cb
d) 9.375 GHz because this frequency is best for detecting aircraft in flight.

11. The mapping mode of Airborne Weather Radar utilises:

a) a pencil/weather beam from 70 nm to 150 nm.
b) a cosecant/fan shaped beam which is effective to 150 nm.
c) a pencil/weather beam with a maximum range of 70 nm.
d) a cosecant/ fan shaped beam effective 50 nm to 70 nm.

12. An Airborne Weather Radar system uses a frequency of 9 GHz because:

a) it has a short wavelength so producing higher frequency returns.
b) the short wavelength allows signals to be reflected from cloud water droplets of all sizes.
c) the wavelength is such that reflections are obtained only from the larger water droplets.
d) the frequency penetrates clouds quite easily enabling good mapping of ground features in
the mapping mode.

13. The antenna of an Airborne Weather Radar is stabilised:

a) in pitch, roll and yaw.
b) in pitch and roll.
c) in pitch and roll whether the stabilisation is on or off.
d) in pitch and roll but only when 0° tilt has been selected.

14. The centre of a small island is identified at the intersection of the 60° left bearing line and 15nm
range arc of an airborne weather radar. If the aircraft's heading and height are 035°(M) and
42500ft what QTE and range should be plotted in order to obtain a fix from the island ?
(variation is 20'W)
a) 175 15nm
b) 135 15nm
c) 135 13nm
d) 155 14nm

15. The colours used to denote variations in rainfall rate on an Airborne Weather Radar screen are....
for very light or no returns, ...... for light returns,..... for medium returns and .... for strong returns.
a) black, yellow, green, magenta.
b) black, green, yellow, magenta
c) grey, green, yellow, red.
d) black, green, yellow, red.

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER11 – SSR

l. The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency , radio failure, unlawful interference with
the conduct of the flight
a) 7700; 7600; 7500.
b) 7500; 7700; 7600;.
c) 7600; 7500; 7700.
d) 7500; 7600; 7700.

2. Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form of radar with type emissions operating in the band.
a) primary pulse SHF
b) primary pulse UHF
c) secondary FM SHF
d) secondary pulse UHF

3. If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed

a) it causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller's screen.
b) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35p
sec before the last framing pulse.
c) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 10 seconds, 4.35p
sec after the last framing pulse.
d) an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20 seconds, 4.35p
sec after the last framing pulse.

4. When using SSR the ground controller will ask the pilot to cancel mode C if there is adiscrepancy
of more than .......... feet between the altitude detected by the radar from the reply pulses and the
altitude reported by the pilot read from an altitude with the subscale set to ………. :
a) 100 ft Regional QNH
b) 300 ft 1013 HPa
c) 50 ft 1013 HPa
d) 300 ft Regional QNH

5. The SSR code which is appropriate for a UK FIR (inbound) crossing, where no other
"squawk" has been allocated is:
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) 2000

6. Secondary radars require:

a) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an aircraft.
b) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be ground based.
c) a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an aircraft or
a ground based transponder.
d) a quiescent target.

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER12 – DME

1. Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and
pulses intended for other aircraft because:
a) aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies.
b) aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses.
c) aircraft reject pulses not synchronized with its own random pulse recurrence rate.
d) each aircraft has its own frequency allocation.

2. A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a receive frequency of
a) 1030 Mhz
b) 902 Mhz
c) 1025 Mhz
d) 962 Mhz

3. A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last
identifying letter of the DME is a Z. This means that:
a) they are co-located.
b) they are more than 600m apart but serve the same location.
c) they are widely separated and do not serve the same location.
d) they are a maximum distance of 30m apart.

4. Distance Measuring Equipment is an example of radar operating on a frequency of in the band.

a) primary 8800 MHz SHF
b) secondary 1030 MHz UHF
c) secondary 962 MHz UHF
d) primary 9375 MHz SHF

5. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME because:
a) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate.
b) DME transmits and receives on different frequencies.
c) it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.
d) DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators.

6. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within:

a) 3% of range
b) 1.25 % of range
c) 0.5 nm
d) +/-0.25 nm to +/-1.25% of range

7. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogations and replies
to other aircraft because:
a) DME is secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency.
b) DME transponders reply to interrogations with twin pulses and the airborne equipment
ejects all other pulses.
c) Each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept synchronised replies.
d) When DME is in the search mode it will only accept pulses giving the correct range.

8. When a DME transponder becomes saturated:

a) it reverts to standby.
b) it increases the number of pulse pairs to meet the demand.
c) it increases the receiver threshold to remove weaker signals.
d) it goes into a selective response mode of operation.

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9. An aircraft flying at flight level 250 wishes to interrogate a DME beacon situated 400' above
mean sea level. What is the maximum range likely to be achieved ?
a) 210 nm
b) 198 nm
c) 175 nm
d) 222 nm

10. For a DME and a VOR to be said to be associated it is necessary for:

a) the DME to transmit on the same VHF frequency as the VOR.
b) the aerial separation not to exceed 100 feet in a TMA or 2000 feet outside a TMA.
c) the aerial separation not to exceed 100 metres in a TMA or 2000m outside a TMA.
d) both beacons to have the same first two letters for their ident' but the last letter of the DME
to be a `Z'.

11. The transmission frequency of a DME beacon is 63 MHz removed from the aircraft
interrogator frequency to prevent:
a) interference from other radars.
b) the airborne receiver locking on to primary returns from its own transmissions.
c) static interference.
d) receiver accepting replies intended for other interrogators.

12. The accuracy associated with DME is:

a) + or - 3% of range, or 0.5nm, whichever is greater
b) + or - 1.25% of range
c) + or - 3% of range
d) +/-0.25 nm to +/-1.25% of range

13. For a VOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must not
exceed in a terminal area andoutside a terminal area.
a) 100 m2000 m
b) 50 feet200 feet
c) 30m 600m
d) 50m 200 m

14. DME is a ...... radar operating in the ...... band and uses ....... in order to obtain range information.
The correct words to complete the above statement are:
a) primary SHF CW signals
b) secondary UHF twin pulses
c) secondary SHF "jittered pulses"
d) primary UHF pulse pairs

15. The receiver of airborne DME equipment is able to "lock on" to its own "reply pulses" because:
a) each aircraft has its own unique transmitter frequency and the receiver only accepts reply
pulses having this frequency.
b) the reply pulses from the ground transmitter have the same frequency as the
incoming interrogation pulses from the aircraft.
c) the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which have the same time interval
between successive pulses as the pulses being transmitted by its own transmitter.
d) the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which arrive at a constant time interval.

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The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to define the centre line of an airway which you intend to
fly. The indication received on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator is shown below. At the same time the
DME gave a range of 40 nm from the facility. Use the 1 in 60 rule and assume 1 dot equals 2°.

16. At the time of the observation, the aircraft was on

the:
a) 042° radial
b) 048° radial
c) 222° radial
d) 228° radial

The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to define the centre line of an airway which you intend to
fly. The indication received on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator is shown below. At the same time the
DME gave a range of 40 nm from the facility. Use the 1 in 60 rule and assume 1 dot equals 2°.

17. Assuming still air conditions, on regaining the

centreline, it will be necessary to make the
following alteration of heading:
a) left onto 045°
b) right onto 048°
c) left onto 225°
d) right onto 225°

18. DME operates in the ...... frequency band, it transmits ...... which give it the emission designator
of
. ..... .
a) SHF double size pulses POI
b) UHF twin pulses PON
c) EHF twin pulses A9F
d) UHF double pulses J3E

19. Referring to DME during the initial stage of the "search" pattern before "lock-on":
a) the airborne receiver checks 150 pulses each second.
b) the airborne transmitter transmits 150 pulses each second.
c) the ground receiver maintains the ground transmitter pulse transmission rate at no more
than 150 per second.
d) the aircraft transmits 24 pulses per second and the receiver checks a maximum of 150
pulses per second.

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20. DME and VOR are "frequency paired" because:

a) the same receiver can be used for both aids.
b) the VOR transmitter is easily converted to the required DIVE frequency.
c) "cockpit workload" is reduced.
d) both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the same site if required.

21. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogation pulses and
those intended for other aircraft using the same transponder because:
a) DME is a secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different frequency.
b) DME transponders reply to interrogations by means of twin pulses and the airborne
equipment rejects all single pulses.
c) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate("jittering") and will only accept replies
that match this randomisation.
d) when DME is in the range search mode it will accept only pulses separated by + or -
63MHz from the interrogation frequency.

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RADIO NAVIGATION
CHAPTER13 – INTRODUCTION

1. The accuracy required of a precision area navigation system is:

a) 0.25 nm
b) 2 nm
c) 1 nm
d) 0.5 nm

2. A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information from:

a) twin DME
b) VOR/DME
c) Twin VOR
d) Any of the above

3. An aircraft using a basic 2D RNAV system is on a section between WP1 and WP2, a
distance of 45 [Link] aircraft is 20 nm from the phantom station, which is 270/30 nm from
the VOR/DME. The aircraft is 15 nm from the VOR/DME. The range readout will show:
a) 15 nm
b) 20 nm
c) 25 nm
d) 30 nm

4. The sequence of displays accessed on initialisation is:

a) POS INIT, IDENT, RTE
b) IDENT, RTE, POS MIT
c) IDENT, POS INIT, RTE
d) POS MIT, RTE, IDENT

5. The IRS position can be updated:

a) on the ground only
b) at designated positions en-route and on the ground
c) on the ground and overhead VOR/DME
d) at selected waypoints and on the ground

6. Refer to Appendix A. What are the correct selections to insert the most accurate position into
the IRS?
a) 3R then 4R
b) 2R then 4R
c) 4R then 3R
d) 3L then 4R

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7. Deleted.

8. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:

a) on take-off
b) at TOC
c) at TOD
d) on final approach

9. Which positions can be input to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alpha-numerics?

a) SIDS & STARS, reporting points and airways designators
b) Navigation facilities, reporting points and airways designators
c) SIDS & STARS and latitude and longitude
d) Latitude and longitude, reporting points and airways designators

10. The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots:

a) to update the database
b) to read information only
c) to change information between the 28 day updates
d) to change the information to meet the sector requirements

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11. Above latitudes of 84° a twin FMS/triple IRS system will go to de-coupled operations. The
reason for this is:
a) to prevent error messages as the IRS longitudes show large differences
b) to ease the pilot's workload
c) to improve the system accuracy
d) because the magnetic variation changes rapidly in high latitudes

12. Deleted.

13. Concerning FMC operation, which of the following is true:

a) the FMC combines the long term accuracy of the IRS with the short term accuracy of
the external reference
b) the FMC combines the long term accuracy of the IRS with the long term accuracy of
the external reference
c) the FMC combines the short term accuracy of the IRS with the short term accuracy of the
external reference
d) the FMC combines the short term accuracy of the IRS with the long term accuracy of
the external reference

14. The correct format for the input of position 50N 00527E to the CDU
is: a) [Link]
b) N50EO0527
c) N5000.OE00527.0
d) N5000E00527

15. The period of validity of the navigational database is:

a) 28 days
b) 1 month
c) determined by the national authority and may be from 28 days to 91 days
d) 91 days

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER15 – Global Navigation Satellite Systems

1. NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the ...... band and the receiver determines position by......
a) UHF, range position lines
b) UHF, secondary radar principles
c) SHF, secondary radar principles
d) SHF, range position lines

2. The NAVSTAR/ GPS control segment comprises:

a) the space segment, the user segment and the ground segment
b) a ground segment and the INMARSAT geostationary satellites
c) a master control station, a back-up control station and five monitoring stations
d) a master control station, a back-up control station, five monitoring stations and the
INMARSAT geostationary satellites

3. The orbital height and inclination of the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation

are: a) 20180 km, 65°
b) 20180 km, 55°
c) 19099 km, 65°
d) 19099 km, 55°

4. The model of the earth used for NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a) WGS90
b) PZ90
c) WGS84
d) PZ84

5. The minimum number of satellites required for a 3D fix is:

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

6. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises ...... satellites

a) 12
b) 21
c) 24
d) 30

7. The most accurate fixing information will be obtained from:

a) four satellites spaced 90° apart at 30° above the visual horizon
b) one satellite close to the horizon and 3 equally at 60° above the horizon
c) one satellite directly overhead and 3 equally spaced at 60° above the horizon
d) one satellite directly overhead and 3 spaced 120° apart close to the horizon

8. The most significant error of GNSS is:

a) GDOP
b) Receiver clock
c) Ionospheric propagation
d) Ephemeris

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9. The frequency available to non-authorised users of NAVSTAR/GPS

is: a) 1227.6 MHz
b) 1575.42 MHz
c) 1602 MHz
d) 1246 MHz

10. The purpose of the pseudo-random noise codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

a) identify the satellites
b) pass the almanac data
c) pass the navigation and system data
d) pass the ephemeris and time information

11. The minimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity monitoring is:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

12. If a receiver has to download the almanac, the time to do this will be:
a) 2.5 minutes
b) 12.5 minutes
c) 25 minutes
d) 15 minutes

13. The use of LAAS and WAAS remove the errors caused by:
a) propagation, selective availability, satellite ephemeris and clock
b) selective availability, satellite ephemeris and clock
c) GDOP, selective availability and propagation
d) receiver clock, GDOP, satellite ephemeris and clock

14. The most accurate satellite fixing information will be obtained from:
a) NAVSTAR/GPS & GLONASS
b) TRANSIT & NAVSTAR/GPS
c) COSPAS/SARSAT & GLONASS
d) NAVSTAR/GPS & COSPAS/SARSAT

15. A LAAS requires:

a) an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a link through the INMARSAT
geostationary satellites to pass corrections to X, Y & Z co-ordinates to aircraft
b) an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a link through the INMARSAT
geostationary satellites to pass satellite range corrections to aircraft
c) an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a system known as a pseudolite to
pass satellite range corrections to aircraft
d) an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and system known as a pseudolite to pass
corrections to X, Y & Z co-ordinates to aircraft

16. The position derived from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites may be subject to the following errors:
a) selective availability, skywave interference, GDOP
b) propagation, selective availability, ephemeris
c) GDOP, static interference, instrument
d) ephemeris, GDOP, siting

17. EGNOS is:

a) the proposed European satellite navigation system
b) a LAAS
c) a WAAS

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d) a system to remove errors caused by the difference between the model of the earth and
the actual shape of the earth

18. The PRN codes are used to:

a) determine the time interval between the satellite transmission and receipt of the signal at
the receiver
b) pass ephemeris and clock data to the receivers
c) synchronise the receiver clocks with the satellites clocks
d) determine the range of the satellites from the receiver

19. The availability of two frequencies in GNSS:

a) removes SV ephemeris and clock errors
b) reduces propagation errors
c) reduces errors caused by GDOP
d) removes receiver clock errors

20. The NAVSTAR/GPS reference system is:

a) A geo-centred 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to the sun
b) A geo-centred 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to the prime
meridian, equator and pole
c) A geo-centred 3D Cartesian co-ordinate system fixed with reference to space
d) A geo-centred 3D system based on latitude, longitude and altitude

21. The initial range calculation at the receiver is known as a pseudo-range, because it is not
yet corrected for:
a) receiver clock errors
b) receiver and satellite clock errors
c) receiver and satellite clock errors and propagation errors
d) receiver and satellite clock errors and ephemeris errors

22. The navigation and system data message is transmitted through the:
a) 50 Hz modulation
b) The C/A and P PRN codes
c) The C/A code
d) The P code

23. An all in view receiver:

a) informs the operator that all the satellites required for fixing and RAIM are in available
b) checks all the satellites in view and selects the 4 with the best geometry for fixing
c) requires 5 satellites to produce a 4D fix
d) uses all the satellites in view for fixing

24. When using GNSS to carry out a non-precision approach the MDA will be determined using:
a) barometric altitude
b) GPS altitude
c) Radio altimeter height
d) Either barometric or radio altimeter altitude

25. If an aircraft manoeuvre puts a satellite being used for fixing into the wing shadow then:
a) the accuracy will be unaffected
b) the accuracy will be temporarily downgraded
c) the receiver will automatically select another satellite with no degradation in
positional accuracy
d) the receiver will maintain lock using signals reflected from other parts of the aircraft with
a small degrading of positional accuracy

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26. Which of the following statements concerning NAVSTAR/GPS time is correct?

a) satellite time is the same as UTC
b) the satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is independent of UTC
c) the satellite runs its own time based on seconds and weeks which is correlated with UTC
d) satellite time is based on sidereal time

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RADIO NAVIGATION

CHAPTER17 – Combined

1. VOR operates in the ...... band, it transmits a bearing signal by means of a ...... and uses ......
to determine the radial.
a) VHF stationary limacon , phase comparison
b) UHF stationary cardioid, envelope matching
c) VHF rotating limacon, phase comparison
d) UHF rotating cardioid, envelope

2. The bearing signal transmitted from a Conventional VOR beacon is:

a) produced by a 30Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Limacon, which rotates at 30revs./sec.
b) produced by a 30Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Cardiod, which rotates at 30revs./sec.
c) produced by a 30Hz frequency modulated signal rotating at 30revs./sec.
d) produced by a 30Hz amplitude modulated signal, a Limacon, which rotates anti - clockwise
at 30revs./sec.

3. The modulation technique used in ILS and a typical localiser frequency

are: MODULATION FREQUENCY

a) A9W 329.30Mhz
b) A8W 110.30Mhz
c) A9W 110.70Mhz
d) A8W 118.30Mhz

4. An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to signals reflected from the ground because:

a) DME uses the UHF band.

b) DME transmits twin pulses.
c) the pulse recurrence rates are varied.
d) the reflections are not at the receiver frequency.

5. The advantage of a narrow beam in a primary pulsed radar system is that:

a) target definition is improved.
b) system range (ignoring any PRF limitations) is improved
c) differentiation between adjacent targets is more likely to occur.
d) all of the above advantages apply.

6. The middle marker of an ILS system has an audible code which is:
a) alternating dots and dashes at 400Hz.
b) alternating dots and dashes at 1300Hz.
c) alternating dots and dashes at 3000Hz.
d) high pitch dots.

7. Assuming an accuracy of +/- 5.5°, the maximum spacing of two VORs, defining the centreline
of an airway, that would ensure no aircraft could be outside the airway is:
a) 54nm
b) 51 nm
c) 109nm
d) 132nm

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8. When tuning, identifying and monitoring an NDB which has the emission characteristic NONA
1 A, it is necessary:
a) for the BFO to be on for all three.
b) for the BFO to be off for tuning only.
c) for the ADF function to be selected.
d) for the ANT function to be selected.

9. Accurate glidepath coverage in elevation is provided for ILS installations between:

a) an angle of 1.35° to an angle of 5.25° above the horizontal, for a 3° glidepath.
b) an angle of 1.85° to an angle of 4.75° above the horizontal, for a 3° glidepath.
c) an angle of 2.15° to an angle of 5.75° above the horizontal, for a 3° glidepath.
d) an angle of 1.00° to an angle of 6.0° above the horizontal, for a 3° glidepath.

10. SELCAL functional check must be made:

a) only on the ground before departure of a flight into an area where SELCAL is available
b) on initial contact and when entering an area where SELCAL is available.
c) with the local ATCC before take-off.
d) when crossing the coast inbound.

11. When a Mode C check is carried out the controller's readout must agree with the pilot's
reported level at the same time, within:
a) +/- 50ft
b) +/-
1000ft c) +/-
500 ft d) +/-
200ft

12. An aircraft at FL 250 is using an Airborne Weather Radar (stabilisation on) with a beam width
of 5°. An isolated cloud at a range of 25nm just ceases to paint when the tilt control is at 1° tilt
up. The approximate altitude of the cloud top is: (use 1 in 60 rule)
a) 21000ft
b) 25000
ft
c) 29000 ft
d) 33000ft

13. When using an Airborne Weather Radar in the weather mode the strongest returns on the
screen indicate:
a) areas where high concentrations of large water droplets exist.
b) areas of moderate or severe turbulence.
c) areas of probable windshear.
d) areas of thunderstorm activity.

The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to fly the centreline of an airway . The indication on the
VOR/ILS deviation indicator is shown below. At the same time the DME gave a range of 115 nm from the
facility. (Assume 1 dot equals 2°)

14. At the time of the observation, the aircraft was on the ......
radial and, assuming still air conditions, on regaining the
centreline it will be necessary to turn .......
a) 159° right onto 347°
b) 175° left onto 167°
c) 339° right onto 167°
d) 355° left onto 347°

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The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to fly the centreline of an airway . The indication on the
VOR/ILS deviation indicator is shown below. At the same time the DME gave a range of 115 nm from
the facility. (Assume 1 dot equals 2°)

15. At the time of the observation the aircraft was displaced from
the centre line by:
a) 4nm
b) 8nm
c) 12nm
d) 15nm

16. Operational Performance Category 2 is awith a -lower thanand a RVR

a) precision instrument approach and landing; MDH; 60m (200ft); not less than 300m.
b) precision instrument approach and landing; DH; 60m (200ft) but not lower than 30m
(100ft); not less than 300m.
c) precision instrument approach and landing; DH; 30m (100ft) or no DH; not less than 200m.
d) ILS approach and landing; DH; 60m (200ft) but not lower than 30m (100ft); not less
than 300m.

17. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications
from both are shown on the RMI illustrated:
The information given by the RMI is:
a) that the aircraft is heading 360°(M), is on the 220°
radial from the VOR, and bears I I 0°(M) from the NDB.
b) that the aircraft is heading 360°(M), is on the 040° radial
from the VOR, and bears I I 0°(M) from the NDB.
c) that the aircraft is heading 360°(M), is on the 220°
radial from the VOR, and bears 290°(M) from the NDB.
d) that the aircraft is heading 000°(T), is onthe 220°
radial from the VOR, and bears 1 I 0°(M) from the NDB.

18. The rate of descent of an aircraft with an approach speed of 140kt on an ILS approach with
a glide path angle of 3.25° is (use 1 in 60 ):
a) 700 ft/min
b) 780 ft/mm
c) 860 ft/min
d) 1050 ft/min

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19. Study this diagram of a VOR presentation. Assuming the proper selection has been made,
choose the line which contains the words to correctly complete the
following statement:
You are on the ...... radial and, on reaching the selected radial you
should turn ......, assuming still air conditions. RADIAL TURN
a) 279° left
b) 099° right
c) 273° left
d) 093° right

20. When using an NDB with the emission designation of NONA2A the BFO position is:
TUNING IDENTIFYING MONITORING
a) ON ON ON
b) OFF OFF OFF
c) OFF ON ON
d) ON OFF OFF

21. In a conventional VOR the reference signal is ...... and the variable signal is ...... .
a) FM AM
b) AM FM
c) FM FM
d) AM AM

22. A typical ILS localiser frequency, in Mhz,

is: a) 329.30
b) 110.30
c) 110.45
d) 75.00

23. With reference to airborne weather radar the principle of operation and the frequency band
in which it operates are:
PRINCIPLE BAND
a) secondary radar UHF
b) primary radar EHF
c) secondary radar VHF
d) primary radar SHF

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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

24. The diagram above shows four aircraft in relation to the localiser beam of an ILS. The
aircraft position which corresponds to the illustration of the ILS presentation shown is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

25. The correct SSR code to indicate radio failure

is: a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 2000
d) 7500

26. A primary radar has a PRF of 500 pulses per second The maximum theoretical range, ignoring
all other factors, is:
a) 300 nm
b) 162 nm
c) 600 nm
d) 324 nm

27. The ILS outer marker transmits on ...... and is identified by an aural signal of ...... . The line
with the correct terms to complete the above statement is:
a) 75Mhz 2 dashes per second
b) 75khz alternate dots and dashes
c) 75Mhz alternate dots and dashes
d) 75khz 2 dashes per second

28. The diagram below shows four aircraft in relation to a VOR. Assuming that in each case the
pilot has selected 080° on the OBS, the aircraft position which corresponds to the VOR
presentation shown is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

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29. VLF surface waves achieve greater range than LF surface waves because:
a) VLF diffraction is greater and attenuation is less.
b) VLF diffraction and attenuation are less.
c) VLF diffraction is less and attenuation is greater.
d) VLF diffraction and attenuation are greater.

30. With reference to a DME the time interval between the aircraft transmission and the reception of
a reply pulse is 2,000/secs. The slant range is:
a) 300km b) 81 nm c) 60nm d) 162km

31. When using airborne weather radar to obtain a fix from a ground feature, the pencil beam is
used in preference to the mapping beam:
a) because the wider beam gives better definition of ground features.
b) the angle of tilt is restricted in the mapping mode.
c) at ranges over about 50 nm because greater power can be concentrated in the beam.
d) because it overcomes the problems of "hill" shadows.

32. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 225 can receive signals from a
VOR station situated 1,600 ft AMSL is:
a) 194nm
b) The DOC range
limit. c) 237.5nm
d) 68.75nm

33. On selecting a DME beacon the pointer or counters of a DME indicator revolve rapidly to
a maximum value and return to zero and continue the process. This indicates:
a) a range search and that the aircraft's DME receiver is searching for responses from the
ground transponder.
b) a range search and that the aircraft's DME interrogator is searching for responses from
the ground transponder.
c) a range search and that the DME beacon's receiver is searching for interrogations from
the aircraft.
d) that the system is "jittering".

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34. A class B true bearing from a ground VDF station isa ...... with an accuracy of ...... .
a) QTE +/-5°
b) QDM +/-5°
c) QUJ +/-5°
d) QDR +/-5°

35. Category 2 ILS installation provides accurate guidance to:

a) 100 ft on the threshold QFE.
b) 50 ft above aerodrome elevation.
c) 200 ft above aerodrome elevation.
d) 50 ft above the plane containing the runway threshold.

36. Deleted.

37. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 244 radial. The OBS should
be set to:
a) 064 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
b) 244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication.
c) 064 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.
d) 244 to get correct needle sense and a FROM indication.

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RADIO NAVIGATION TEST

PAPER 17-12
TEST PAPER 1

1. To provide 3D positioning when flying under IFR a stand alone GPS equipment needs a
minimum of:
a) 3 satellites with adequate elevation and suitable geometry.
b) 6 satellites above the horizon.
c) 4 satellites with adequate elevation and suitable geometry.
d) 5 satellites with adequate elevation and suitable geometry.

2. An apparent increase in transmitted frequency, proportional to the velocity of the transmitter,

is caused by:
a) the receiver moving towards the transmitter.
b) the transmitter moving away from the receiver.
c) the transmitter moving towards the receiver.
d) the transmitter and the receiver moving away from eachother.

3. With reference to the Navstar Global Positioning System (GPS) the horizontal accuracy
figures quoted are based upon the assumption that position is referenced to:
a) local datums.
b) European Datum 1950.
c) Nouvelle Triangulation de France (NTF) 1970.
d) World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS84) Datum.

4. Which of the following statements is correct ?

a) Primary radar uses echoes from a reflecting object, whereas secondary radar uses
responses from a transponder beacon.
b) Primary radar gives range not bearing, of a reflecting object.
c) Secondary always measures the bearing of a reflecting object more accurately than
primary radar.
d) Only secondary radar can be carried on an aircraft.

5. With reference to DME:

During the search period, to achieve a quick 'Lock-on', the aircraft's interrogator:
a) transmits at 150 pps; if 'Lock-on' is not acheived after 100 seconds the PRF is reduced to
60pps and maintained at this rate until the range search is complete.
b) transmits pulse pairs at 60pps; when lock-on is achieved the rate is reduced to between 25
and 30pps.
c) transmits at 150 pps; if 'Lock-on' is not acheived after 15000 pairs of pulses the PRF is
reduced to 60pps and maintained at this rate until the range search is complete.
d) interrogates at a frequency +/- 63MHz in relation to the transponder's frequency.

6. A frequency of 15 Ghz produces a wavelength of ....... is in the ...... frequency band and
is allocated to .......
a) .002 m EHF ASMI
b) 2 cm EHF radar research
c) 2 m SHF high resolution SRA
d) .02 m SHF ASMI

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7. A Doppler VOR (DVOR) is more accurate because it minimises ....... error. The reference
signals and variable phase directional signals rotate ......., are ....... and ....... respectively, and an
aircraft
....... to be fitted with a special receiver.
a) site; anti-clockwise; FM; AM; needs.
b) equipment; anti-clockwise; AM; FM; does not need.
c) site; clockwise; AM; FM; needs.
d) site; anti-clockwise; AM; FM; does not need.

8. If an aircraft's groundspeed reduces by l0kt whilst it is flying an ILS approach with a 3°

glidepath then its rate of descent:
a) should increase by 50 ft/min.
b) should decrease by 25 ft/min.
c) should decrease by 50 ft/min.
d) does not need to be adjusted as the speed change is too small to have any significant effect.

9.

9. The above AWR presentation represents a particular condition encountered in flight. Which of
the following statements describes the presentation correctly?

a) The CONTOUR facility has been selected; positions A indicate areas of heavier rainfall
and associated CAT. Sensitivity Time Control (Swept Gain) also operates up to 25nm range.
b) The CONTOUR facility has been selected and STC (Swept Gain) is not in operation;
positions B indicate areas of heavier rainfall usually associated with turbulence.
c) The CONTOUR facility has been selected and STC (Swept Gain) operates up to
25nm; positions B indicate areas of heavier rainfall usually associated with turbulence. .
d) The MAPPING beam has been selected and the picture represents the contouring of islands
and reefs within 50-60nm of the aircraft.

10. An aircraft at 36 400' indicates a DME range of 10.5 nm. The ground distance to the beacon is:
a) 7nm
b) between 8nm and 9nm
c) 8nm
d) 9nm

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11. An Airfield Surface Movement Indicator Radar uses frequencies within the ....... band,
beam widths in the order of ....... and its scanner rotates at around .......; it ...... be used as a
high resolution radar for Surveillance Radar Approaches.
a) EHF; ½°; 15-20rpm; can also
b) SHF; 1° ; 60rpm; can also
c) SHF; ½° ; 15-20rpm; cannot
d)SHF ½° ; 60rpm; cannot

12. With reference to SSR operating procedures pilots shall when reporting levels under routine
procedures or when requested by ATC, state the current altimeter reading to ....... If on
verification there is a difference of more than ....... between the readout indicated on the
controller's screen and the reported level the pilot will be instructed to ....... or select ........ The
ATC screen indicates flight levels to the nearest .......
a) 100'; 200'; switch off Mode C; 0000; 100'
b) 200'; 100"; switch off Mode C; 7007; 100'
c) 100'; 200'; switch off Mode C; 0000; 50'
d) 100'; 200'; select the other 0000; 100' transponder

13. A hyperbolic navigation system where the baseline distances from the master transmitter to
the individual slaves are in the order 400 to 500nm miles uses the principle of:
a) differential range by phase comparison.
b) differential range by pulse technique.
c) differential range by pulse technique using frequencies between 70 and l30kHz.
d) reflecting pulses in groups of eight and nine from the master and slave transmissions.

14. Whilst in flight you are using a Doppler VOR. Which of the following statements is true?

a) The first letter of the DVOR identification is'D'.

b) The DVOR identification is followed by six dots.
c) You are unable to differentiate between a conventional and Doppler VOR when using
the aircraft's system.
d) The last letter of the DVOR identification is a 'Z'.

15. The errors in DECCA are:

a) station interference; static interference; lane slip.
b) station interference; static interference; lane slip; height error.
c) coastal refraction; quadrantal error; lane slip; height effect.
d) night effect; static interference; lane slip; height error.

16. With reference to VDF let-downs or QGH let-downs available at the same airfield:
a) a VDF let-down is controlled by the pilot; a QGH is controlled by the ground operator.
b) both are controlled by the pilot.
c) both are controlled by the ground operator.
d) a VDF let-down is controlled by the ground operator; a QGH is controlled by the pilot.

17. A pilot is using a VOR and DME simultaneously. The identification of each beacon is the same
except that the last letter of the DME's identification is a 'Z'. If the pilot plots the bearing and
range from these beacons then:
a) he will obtain an accurate fix from which it is safe to start a descent and airfield
approach procedure, if he assumes the DME beacon is located with the VOR beacon.
b) he will obtain an accurate fix, even though the distance between the two beacons can be
between 2000' and 6nm, if he plots the bearing from the VOR beacon position and the range
from the DME beacon's position.
c) the beacons are situated more than 6nm apart and may be frequency paired.

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d) the VOR is a civilian facility, whilst the DME is a military TACAN beacon.

18. The Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) is a system which consists of ....... active
satellites plus ....... operational spare satellites in ....... orbital planes around the earth. A
minimum of ....... satellites are needed to provide a ....... dimensional fix.

a) 21; 3; 6; 3; 3;
b) 21; 3; 4; 3; 2;
c) 21; 3; 6; 4; 3;
d) 24; 3; 5; 3; 3;

19. At 1000UTC in zero wind conditions three aircraft are using the same co-located VOR/DME
transponder. Aircraft A is at 120nm, FL 350, heading 270(M) on the 270° radial. Aircraft B is
at 15nm, FL70, heading 300°(M) on the 120° radial. Aircraft C is at 15 nm, FL410, heading
090°(M) and crossing the 180° radial. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Aircraft B's DME groundspeed computation is the most accurate.

b) Aircraft A's DME groundspeed computation is the most accurate.
c) All the DME groundspeed computations are correct.
d) Aircraft C's DME groundspeed computation is the most accurate because the aircraft is
the highest and furthest from the beacon.

20. An aircraft is maintaining an outbound track of 160°(M), with 20° port drift, from NDB A.
ATC have requested a position report when the aircraft intercepts the 070° radial from VOR B.

Which of the above RMIs represents the aircraft's position at the reporting point ?
a)
b)
c)
d)

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21. Aircraft Ais homing, with 11 ° port drift,

on a track of 060°(M) to NDB P, whilst aircraft B is maintaining an outbound track of 320°(M)
with 13° starboard drift from the same NDB; each aircraft has a Relative Bearing Indicator.
Which of the following is correct?
Relative Bearing
Aircraft A Aircraft B
a) 349° 167°
b) 011° 167°
c) 349° 193°
d) 169° 193°

22. A pilot hears the morse TST from a navigational aid. This means that:
a) The station is on test and may be used with caution.
b) The facility is transmitting for test purposes only and must not be used.
c) The station accuracy has just been checked and it has passed the test
d) The aid may be used with caution and the accuracy reported to ATC

23. An aircraft is flying downwind within the coverage sectors of an ICAO ILS; it is abeam and to
the left of the touchdown point and above the glideslope:
a) Its localiser receiver is detecting more 150Hz than 90Hz modulations and the localiser needle
indicates fly "right"; the glideslope receiver is receiving more 90Hz than 150Hz modulations
and the indication is to fly down.
b) Its localiser receiver is detecting more 150Hz than 90Hz modulations and the localiser
needle indicates fly "left"; the glideslope receiver is receiving more 90Hz than 150Hz
modulations and the indication is to fly down.
c) Its localiser receiver is detecting more 90Hz than 150Hz modulations and the localiser
needle indicates fly "left"; the glideslope receiver is receiving more 150Hz than 90Hz
modulations and the indication is to fly down.
d) Or, like me you are totally confused!

24. The two factors which affect the amount of Doppler shift measured by an aircraft's system are:
a) TAS and height of the terrain.
b) Ground speed and transmitted wavelength.
c) Transmitted frequency and the depression angle of the transmission beams.
d) Aircraft altitude and the Doppler's pulse repetition frequency.

25. With reference to Loran C: All the master and slave transmitters transmit on a frequency
of. Each chain consists of a master and up toslaves and differentiates itself from other chains on
the common frequency by having

a) 14kHz; three; comparison frequency.

b) l OOkHz; four; pulses transmitted in groups of eight.
c) 100kHz; four; differential range by phase comparison.
d) 100kHz; four; a unique Pulse Group Repetition Interval.

26. With reference to the Global Positioning System (GPS): The minimum number of satellites,
with adequate elevation and suitable geometry, to provide the RAIM function and to isolate the
faulty satellite is:
a) 6 b) 5 c) 3 d) 24

27. A transmitter is emitting a 5cm wavelength and moving towards a receiver at 500 metres
per second. The received Doppler shift is:
a) 5kHz b) l0000kHz c) l0kHz d) 2.5kHz

28. Deleted.

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29. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 230° radial with 10 starboard drift. An NDB
lies to the south of the VOR. Which of the illustrations below represents the RMI when the
aircraft is obtaining a relative bearing of 265°

30. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The indications from
both are shown on the RMI illustrated. Use this information to answer the following question.
The information given on the RMI is:
a) that the aircraft is heading 012°(M), is on the 110° radial from the VOR, and bears
350°(M) from the NDB.
b) that the aircraft is heading I I 0°(M), is on the 120° radial from the VOR, and bears
180°(M) from the NDB.
c) that the aircraft is heading 120°(M), is on the 170° radial from the VOR, and bears
290°(M) from the NDB.
d) that the aircraft is heading 120°(M), is on the 290° radial from the VOR, and bears
170°(M) from the NDB.

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31. AWR uses the frequency of 9.375GHz because it:

a) produces the best returns from precipitation, and enables narrow, efficient beams to be
formed for accurate target discrimination.
b) produces the best returns from precipitation, and enables narrow, efficient beams to be
formed for accurate target discrimination and mapping beyond 60nm.
c) produces the best returns from large water droplets and wet hail, indicates areas of clear air
turbulence, and enables narrow, efficient beams to be formed for accurate target
discrimination.
d) produces the best returns from large water droplets and wet hail, and enables narrow,
efficient beams to be formed for accurate target discrimination.

32. The BFO facility on ADF equipment should be used as follows when an NDB having NONA 1
A type emission is to be used:
a) BFO on for tuning and identification but may be turned off for monitoring.
b) BFO on for tuning but can be turned off for monitoring and identification purpose.
c) BFO off during tuning, identification and monitoring because this type of emission is
not modulated.
d) BFO should be switched on at all times when an NON A1A NDB is being used.

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TEST PAPER 2

1. With reference to the Global Positioning System (GPS): The number of satellites, with adequate
elevation and suitable geometry, needed to perform the RAIM function without isolating a
faulty satellite is:
a) 6 b) 5 c) between 21 and 24 d) 4

2. An accuracy of 5° in VOR bearings received at an aircraft is achieved:

a) within the cone of confusion by day only.
b) at all ranges within the Design Operational Coverage (DOC) limits day and night.
c) within the DOC limits by day only.
d) beyond the cone of confusion as far as the DOC limits by day and night.

3. A VOR station which continues to transmit bearings but ceases to transmit its identification:
a) can be used only by day.
b) can be used only in VMC.
c) has developed an error exceeding 1° at the transmitter and must not be used.
d) can be used provided the frequency selected is checked as correct.

4. The emission designator for a particular aeronautical radio facility which utilises both FM and
AM could be:
a) A9W b) NONA2A c) A8W d) A3E

5. Two radio navigation aids use the principle of phase comparison to establish position lines;
they are:
a) Loran C, DECCA
b) GPSS, Decca
c) VOR, DME, Decca
d) VOR, Decca

6. An aircraft is inbound, with 20° starboard drift, on the 180° radial from VOR "K". The relative
bearing of NDB "L" is 300°. Which of the following correctly shows the RMI presentation in
the aircraft
HDG(M) "K" POINTER "L" POINTER
a) 340° 000° 300°
b) 340° 000° 280°
c) 020° 000° 320°
d) 160° 180° 100°

7. In reference to NDB/ADF, Night Effect is caused by sky-waves from interferring

with its omni-directional surface wave. The effect occurs at and is worst
a) the NDB in use; ranges of 70nm and above; at dawn and dusk.
b) other distant NDBs on the same or similar frequencies; outside the NDB's DOC and up to
70nm and above; during hours of darkness.
c) the NDB in use; ranges of 100nm and above; diurnally in the winter.
d) the NDB in use; any range; at midnight when the D layer is the weakest.

8. A radio transmitter is emitting a frequency of l0 Ghz and moving away from a stationary
receiver where a Doppler shift of 5khz is measured. The received frequency is:
a) 10,000005Ghz
b) 5Ghz
c) 10.0005Ghz
d)
9.999995Ghz

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9. A typical ILS localiser frequency

is: a) 329.30Mhz
b) 110.30Mhz
c) 110.45Mhz
d) [Link]

10. Deleted.

11. The ILS MIDDLE MARKER has the following flight-deck aural and visual
characteristics: IDENT' RATE LIGHT
a) Alternate dot/dash 3/sec Amber
b) Alternate dot/dash 2/sec Blue
c) Dashes 3/sec Amber
d) Alternate dot/dash 3/sec Blue

12. The maximum safe fly-up indication on an ILS approach when using a meter with a 5 dot
display is:
a) 0.35° b) 2.5dots c) 1.3dots d) 0.7°

13. Which of the following would be the normal fix for a Basic RNAV (B-RNAV) equipment:
a) DME/DME
b) VOR/DME
c) VOR/NDB
d) VOR/VOR

14. Which following statement is true?

a) Primary radar uses echoes from a reflecting object whereas secondary radar uses responses
from a transponder.
b) Primary radar can only find the range of a reflecting object.
c) Secondary radar always measures the bearing of a reflecting object more accurately than
a primary.
d) Only secondary, not primary, radar can be carried in an aircraft.

15. Two examples of secondary radar are:

a) VOR and DME
b) AWR and SSR
c) SSR and DME
d) VOR and DECCA

16. TheMicro-waveLandingSystemhas.......... channels, isallocatedthefrequencies between ..............

and............ : it requires .......... antennas to provide Back Azimuth, Elevation, Flare and
Approach Azimuth/DME.

a) 252, 5031 Mhz, 5090Mhz, separate.

b) 250, 5031 Mhz, 5060Mhz, three.
c) 200, 962Mhz, 1213Mhz, separate.
d) 200, 5031 Mhz, 5090Mhz, separate.

17. The Airfield Surface Movement Indicator radar has a.............. rotation rate compared to that
of standard Surveillance radars and also has a.............. beam.
a) similar, wider.
b) higher, narrower.
c) slower, narrower.
d) similar, narrower.

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18. Micro-wave Landing Systems in the UK provide azimuth and glideslope coverage out to .........nm.
The coverage, of the azimuth is......... either side of the runway on-course line whilst the
glideslope coverage is up to ........
a) 20, 40, 10
b) 40, 20, 40
c) 20, 40, 20
d) 20, 20, 20

19. The areas of greatest turbulence associated with storm clouds are indicated on the colour screen
of an Airborne Weather Radar by:
a) Cyclic Contouring which emphases the high intensity rainfall areas by alternately flashing
them red and black.
b) the thinnest lines of colour which indicate steep rainfall gradients.
c) the black holes produced by the Iso-echo Contour facility.
d) selecting the Sensitivity Time Control function.

20. A frequency of around 10Ghz is chosen for an Airborne weather radar because:
a) it gives the best results for ground mapping.
b) a higher frequency gives greater attenuation from all types of precipitation.
c) this frequency will produce narrow beams, for good target resolution, from antennas
whose diameters are constrained by the dimensions of the aircraft's radome.
d) this frequency reflects from areas of clear air turbulence.

21. The Global Positioning System frequency available for use by civil operators
is: a) 1227.6MHz
b) 1575.42MHz
c) 2227.5MHz
d) 1783.74MHz

22. With reference to NAVSTAR GPS; when used as a stand-alone system, the minimum number
of satellites which must be in view at any one time, is:
a) 6 b) 7 c) 4 d) 5

23. The principle of operation of MLS is:

a) lobe comparison of scanning beams.
b) phase comparison of directional beams.
c) time referenced scanning beams.
d) frequency comparison of reference beams.

24. A hyperbolic navigation system where the baseline distances between the master transmitter
and the slave transmitters are in the order of 70 to 110nm works on the principle of
a) differential range by phase comparison.
b) differential range by pulse technique.
c) phase comparison of the slave signal against an atomic time standard.
d) phase comparison of both master and slave signals against an atomic time standard.

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 Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

18 (01-33) RADIO NAVIGATION

1. When would VHF direction finding be used for a position fix?

[Link] an aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency.
[Link] first talking to a FIR on crossing an international
boundary. [Link] joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled
airspace. [Link] declaring an emergency on 121.500 MHz.

2. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VHF direction finding
letdown? [Link] radio
b. VOR
c. VOR/DME
d. Non
e

3. Which of the following is an advantage of a VHF direction finding let

down? [Link] equipment required in the aircraft
[Link] special equipment required in the aircraft or on the ground
[Link] a VHF radio is needed in the aircraft
[Link] is pilot interpreted, so ATC is not
required

4. What is the maximum range at which a VHF direction finding station at 325 ft can provide
a service to an aircraft at FL080 ?
a.134
nm
b.107
nm
c.91
nm
d.114
nm

5. Which of the following statements regarding VHF Direction Finding (VDF) is most
accurate. [Link] is simple and only requires a VHF radio on the ground
[Link] is simple and requires a VHF radio and DF equipment in the aircraft
[Link] is simple requiring only VHF radios on the ground and in the
aircraft [Link] uses line of sight propagation

6. What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 KHz?

a.8 m
b.80 m
c.800 m
d.8000 m

7. A NDB transmits a signal pattern which is:

a.a 30 Hz polar diagram
[Link] -directional
c.a bi-lobal
pattern
d.a beam rotating at 30
Hz

8. The accuracy of ADF within the Designated Operational Coverage (DOC) by day
is: a. +/-1o
b. +/-2°
c. +/-5°
d. +/-10°
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

9. Given that the compass heading is 270°, the deviation is 2°W, the variation is 30°E and
the relative bearing of a beacon is 316°, determine the QDR:
a. 044
b. 048
c. 074
d. 224

10. Two NDB's, one 20 nm from the coast and the other 50 nm further inland. Assuming coastal
error is the same for each, from which NDB will an aircraft flying over the sea receive the
greatest error?
[Link] NDB at 20 nm
[Link] NDB at 50 nm
[Link] when the relative bearing is 090/270
[Link] when the relative bearing is 180/360

11. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF
bearings? [Link] from other NDB's particularly by day
b. nterference between aircraft aerials
c. interference from other NDB's, particularly
at night [Link] drift at the ground station

12. Which of the following are all errors associated with

ADF? [Link] availability, coastal refraction, night
effect [Link] effect, quadrantal error, lane slip
[Link] effect, station interference, static interference
[Link] availability, coastal refraction, quadrantal error

13. What action must be taken to receive a bearing from an

ADF? [Link] on
b. elect the loop position
c. Both the loop and sense aerials must receive the
signal [Link] the LOOP position

14. When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low

level? [Link] inland at an acute angle to the coast
[Link] inland at 90° to the coast
[Link] close to the coast at an acute angle to the coast
[Link] close to the coast at 90° to the coast

15. A radio beacon has a range of 10 nm. By what factor should the power be increased to achieve
a range of 20 nm?
a. 16
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8

16. Which of the following is the most significant error in

ADF? [Link] error
[Link] refraction
[Link] static
[Link] from Cb

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17. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF

bearings? [Link] interference, height effect, lack of failure
warning [Link] interference, mountain effect, selective
availability [Link] refraction, slant range, night effect
[Link] of failure warning, station interference, static interference

18. The allocated frequency coverage of NDB's is:

a. 250 450 KHz
b. 190 1750 KHz
c. 108 117.95 MHz
d. 200 500 KHz

19. The principle used to measure VOR bearings

is: [Link] comparison
[Link] cardioids
c. difference in depth of modulation
[Link] technique

20. When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the ...... should be used for
VOR and at the ...... for ADF.
[Link], aircraft
[Link], station
[Link], aircraft
[Link], station

21. An aircraft flies from a VOR at 61N 013W to 58N 013W. The variation at the beacon is 13W
and the variation at the aircraft is 5W. What radial is the aircraft on?
a. 013
b. 005
c. 193
d. 187

22. In a conventional VOR the reference signal and the variable signal have a 30 Hz modulation.
The variable signal modulation is produced by:
[Link] 30 Hz to the transmitted signal
b.a 30 Hz rotation producing a 30 Hz modulation
[Link] the amplitude up and down at +/-30 Hz
[Link] Doppler techniques to produce a 30 Hz amplitude modulation

23. If the VOR accuracy has a limit of 1°, what is the maximum cross track error at 200 nm?
a.3.0 nm
b.2.5 nm
c.2.0 nm
d.3.5 nm

24. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the
same identification?
a.2000 m
b.60 m
c.600 m
d.6 m

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25. What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the centreline of an airway
(10 nm wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5°?
a.120 nm
b.109 nm
c.60 nm
d.54 nm

26. On a CVOR the phase difference between the AM and FM signals is 30°. The VOR radial
is: a. 210
b. 030
c. 330
d. 150

27. In a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ.
This means that the distance between the two beacons is in excess of:
a.600 m
b.100 m
c.2000 m
d.300 m

28. Using a 5 dot CDI, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100
nm from the VOR beacon?
a. 5
b. 2.5
c. 1.5
d. 3

29. The maximum range an aircraft at FL370 can receive transmissions from a VOR/DME at 800 ft is:
a.275 nm
b.200 nm
c.243 nm
d.220 nm

30. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the aircraft would fly:
a.a constant track
b.a great circle track
c.a rhumb line track
d.a constant heading

31. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a

VOR? a. 107.75
b. 109.90
c. 118.35
d. 112.20
32. Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result
in: [Link] of signal due to line of sight limitations
[Link] from other VOR's operating on the same frequency
[Link] contamination of the VOR signal
[Link] errors
33. An aircraft is flying a heading of 090° along the equator, horning to a VOR. If variation at
the aircraft is 10°E and 15°E at the VOR, what is the inbound radial?
a. 075
b. 105
c. 255
d. 285

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34. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code
every 30 seconds:
a.4 identifications in the same tone
b.4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone
c.4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone
[Link] DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated
then this shows that both are serviceable

35. What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received by
an aircraft at FL012
a.60 nm
b.80 nm
c.120 nm
d.220 nm

36. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should
put on the OBS and the CDI indications are:
a. 5, TO
b.105, TO
c.285, FROM
d.105,
FROM

37. When tracking the 090 radial outbound from a VOR, the track flown is:
a.a straight line
b.a rhumb line
c.a great circle
d.a constant true heading

38. The frequency band of VOR is:

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
[Link] & MF

39. On which radial from a VOR at 61N025E (VAR 13°E) is an aircraft at 59N025E (VAR
20°E)? a. 160
b. 347
c. 193
d. 167

40. What is the minimum height an aircraft must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196 ftamsl at
a range of 175 nm?
a.26000 ft
b.16000
ft c.24000
ft
d. 20000 ft

41. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090° would be achieved by flying ...... from
the beacon:
a. west
b. north
c. east
d. south

42. Deleted.
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43. The quoted accuracy of VOR is valid:

a. at all
times
b. by day
only
c. at all times except
night
d. at all times except dawn and
dusk

44. Which of the following provides distance information?

a. DME
b. VOR
c. ADF
d. VDF

45. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?
a. a VOR on the flight plan
route
b. a VOR off the flight plan
route
c. a DME on the flight plan
route
d. a DME off the flight plan
route

46. What happens when a DME in the search mode fails to achieve lock-on?
a. it stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 pulse pairs per second (ppps) after 100
seconds
b. it stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 ppps after 15000 pulse
pairs
c. it stays in the search mode at 150
ppps
d. it alternates between search and memory modes every 10
seconds

47. The most accurate measurement of speed by DME for an aircraft at 30000 ft will be when
the aircraft is:
a. tracking towards the beacon at 10
nm
b. overhead the
beacon
c. tracking away from the beacon at 100
nm
d. passing abeam the beacon at 5
nm

48. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about ...... aircraft are interrogating
the transponder.
a. 10
b. 50
c. 100
d. 20
0

49. A typical DME frequency

is: a.1000 MHz
b.1300
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)
MHz c.1000
KHz d.1575
MHz

50. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at FL210, fails to achieve lock on a DME at msl at a range of
210 nm. The reason for this is:
[Link] beacon is
saturated
[Link] aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
[Link] aircraft is beyond line of sight range
[Link] aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a
response

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51. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies to
other aircraft transmissions because:
[Link] PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft
[Link] pulse pairs from each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation
[Link] interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
[Link] interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz

52. When an aircraft at FL360 is directly above a DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:
a.6 nm
b.9 nm
c. 0
d.12 nm
53. A DME frequency could be:
a.10 MHz
b.100 MHz
c.1000 MHz
d.10000 MHz

54. An aircraft at FL360 is 10 nm plan range from a DME. The DME reading in the aircraft will be:
a.8 nm
b.11.7 nm
c.10 nm
d.13.6 nm

55. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections
because: [Link] PRF of the pulse pairs is j jittered
[Link] uses MTI
[Link] interrogation and reply frequencies differ
[Link] reflections will all fall within the flyback period

56. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation
users? [Link] bearing
b. DME
c. Nothing
d. ME and magnetic bearing

57. The DME in an aircraft flying at FL430 shows a range of 15 nm from a beacon at an elevation
of 167 ft. The plan range is:
a.13.5 nm
b.16.5 nm
c.15 nm
d.17.6 nm

58. What are the DME

frequencies? a.1030 & 1090
MHz
b.1030 - 1090
MHz c.960 & 1215
MHz d.960 - 1215
MHz

59. The time from the transmission of the interrogation pulse to the receipt of the reply from the
DME ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at the DME). The slant range is:
a.330 nm
b.185 nm
c.165 nm
d.370 nm

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60. The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates

that: [Link] DME is unserviceable
[Link] DME is trying to lock onto range
[Link] DME is trying to lock onto
frequency
[Link] DME is receiving no response from the ground station

61. On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This

indicates: [Link] DME is in the search mode
[Link] DME is unserviceable
[Link] DME is receiving no response from the transponder
[Link] transponder is unserviceable

62. An aircraft at FL200 is 220 nm from a DME at msl. The aircraft equipment fails to lock on to
the DME. This is because:
a. DME is limited to 200 nm
b. The aircraft is too high to receive the
signal [Link] aircraft is too low to receive the
signal
[Link] beacon is saturated

63. On an ILS approach you receive more of the 90 Hz modulation than the 150 Hz modulation.
The action you should take is:
[Link] left and up
[Link] left and down
[Link] right and up
[Link] right and
down

64. The errors of an ILS localiser (LLZ) beam are due

to: [Link] sidelobes
[Link] reflections
[Link] signals from objects near the runway
[Link] from other systems operating on the same frequency

65. The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is ....... and it illuminates the ...... light in
the cockpit.
a.400 Hz, blue
b.1300 Hz, amber
c.400 Hz, amber
d.1300 Hz, blue

66. The principle of operation of the ILS localiser transmitter is that it transmits two overlapping lobes
on: [Link] frequencies with different phases
[Link] same frequency with different phases
[Link] same frequency with different amplitude modulations
[Link] frequencies with different amplitude modulations

67. The ILS glideslope transmitter generates false glidepaths because

of: [Link] returns from the vicinity of the transmitter
[Link] scattering of the signals
[Link] lobes in the radiation pattern
[Link] from obstacles in the vicinity of the transmitter

68. A category III ILS system provides accurate guidance down

to: [Link] surface of the runway
[Link] than 50 ft
[Link] than 100 ft
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)
[Link] than 200 ft

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69. A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200°. When the aircraft is lined up on the centreline of the
ILS localiser for runway 25, the localiser needle will be:
[Link] of the centre
b. centred
[Link] of the centre
[Link] with the fail flag showing

70. The coverage of the ILS glideslope with respect to the localisercentreline
is: a.+/-10° to 8 nm
b.+/-10° to 25 nm c.+/-
8° to 10 nm d.+/-35° to
17 nm

71. The middle marker is usually located at a range of ......, with an audio frequency of ......
and illuminates the ...... light.
a.4-6 nm, 1300 Hz, white
b.1 km, 400 Hz, white
c.l km, 1300 Hz, amber
d.1 km, 400 Hz, amber

72. The sequence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach

is: [Link], blue, amber
b.b lue, white,
amber [Link],
amber, white
[Link], blue,
white

73. The sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter
when: [Link] operations are in progress
b.c tegory 1 ILS operations are in
progress [Link] II/III ILS operations are
in progress [Link] ILS is undergoing
calibration

74. The ILS localiser is normally positioned:

a.300 m from the downwind end of the runway
b.300 m from the threshold
c.300 m from the upwind end of the runway
d.200 m abeam the threshold

75. The audio frequency of the outer marker

is: a.3000 Hz
b.400 Hz
c.1300 Hz
d.1000 Hz

76. An aircraft is flying downwind outside the coverage of the ILS. The CDI indications will
be: [Link] in azimuth and elevation
[Link] in azimuth, unreliable in elevation
[Link] indications will be shown
[Link] in azimuth and elevation

77. The frequency band of the ILS glidepath is:

a. UHF
b. VHF
c. SHF
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d. VLF

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78. In which band does the ILS glidepath operate?

a. metric
b. centimetric
c. decimetric
d. hectometric

79. The coverage of MLS is ...... either side of the centreline to a distance of ......
a. 40°, 40 nm
b. 40° 20 nm
c. 20°, 20 nm
d. 20°, 40 nm

80. Distance on MLS is measured by:

[Link] the time taken for the primary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to
the aircraft receiver
[Link] the time taken for the secondary radar pulse to travel from the MLS transmitter to the
aircraft receiver
[Link] comparison between the azimuth and elevation beams
[Link]-located DME

81. Which of the following is an advantage of

MLS? [Link] be used in inhospitable terrain
[Link] the same aircraft equipment as ILS
[Link] a selective access ability
[Link] not affected by heavy precipitation

82. The frequency band of MLS is:

a. UHF
b. VHF
c. SHF
d. VLF

83. Primary radar operates on the principle

of [Link] interrogation
[Link] technique
[Link] comparison
[Link] wave emission

84. The definition of a radar display will be best

with: [Link] beamwidth and narrow
pulsewidth [Link] beamwidth and wide
pulsewidth
[Link] beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth
[Link] beamwidth and wide pulsewidth

85. The main advantage of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar
is: [Link] complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy
[Link] the minimum range restriction
[Link] more compact equipment
[Link] measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing

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86. Which of the following systems use pulse technique?

[Link] surveillance radar
[Link] weather radar
[Link] measuring equipment
[Link] radar

[Link] the above

b.B and D only
c.B only
d.A and C only

87. To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16

88. In a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor

of: [Link] width
b. Beamwidth
c. Pulse
recurrence rate [Link]
of rotation

89. The maximum range of a ground radar is limited

by: [Link] width
[Link] power
[Link] power
[Link] recurrence
rate

90. What does pulse recurrence rate refer

to? [Link] number of cycles per second
[Link] number of pulses per second
[Link] ratio of pulse width to pulse repetition period
[Link] delay known as flyback or dead time

91. The maximum PRF required for a range of 50 nm is:

a.300 pulses per second (pps)
b.600 pps
c.1620 pps
d.3280 pps

92. The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:
a.a continuous wave primary radar
b.a pulsed secondary radar
c.a pulsed primary radar
d.a continuous wave secondary radar

93. Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short

ranges? [Link] pulse
[Link] wave primary
[Link] pulse
[Link] wave secondary

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 Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

94. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:

[Link] sidelobes and directs more energy into the main beam
[Link] the need for azimuth slaving
[Link] suppression
[Link] produce simultaneous map and weather information

95. The maximum unambiguous (theoretical) range for a PRF of 1200 pps is:
a.134 nm
b.180 nm
c.67 nm
d.360 nm

96. The PRF of a radar is 450 pps. If the speed of light is 300000 kps, what is the maximum range
of the radar?
a.150 km
b.333 km
c.666 km
d.1326 kin

97. The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained

using: [Link] frequency, narrow beam
[Link] wavelength, narrow beam
[Link] frequency, wide beam
[Link] wavelength, wide beam

98. Which of the following is a primary radar system?

a. SSR
b. DME
c. GPS
d. AWR

99. On what principle does primary ATC radar work?

a. pulse technique
[Link]
comparison
[Link] wave
[Link] interrogation

100. ATC area surveillance radars will normally operate to a maximum range o£
a.100 nm
b.200 nm
c.300 rim
d.400 nm

101. An area surveillance radar is most likely to use a frequency of.

a.330 MHz
b.600 MHz
c.10 GHz
d.15 GHz

102. Short range aerodrome radars will have ...... wavelengths.

a. millimetric
b. centimetric
c. decimetric
d. metric

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103. The ASMRoperates in the ...... band, the antenna rotates at ...... rpm can ...... distinguish
between aircraft types.
[Link], 120, sometimes
[Link], 60, always
[Link], 120, never
[Link], 60, sometimes

104. The frequency band of most ATC radars and weather radars is:
a. UHF
b. SHF
c. VHF
d. EHF

105. The airborne weather radar (AWR) cannot detect:

a. snow
[Link]
rain [Link] hail
[Link] hail

106. The frequency of AWR

is: a.9375 MHz
b.937.5 MHz
c.93.75 GHz
d.9375 GHz

107. The use of the AWR on the ground

is: [Link] permitted
[Link] provided reduced power is reduced
[Link] provided special precautions are taken to safeguard personnel and equipment
[Link] permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions

108. Which type of cloud does the AWR detect?

a. Cirro-cumulus
b. Alto-stratus
c. Cumulus
d. Stratus

109. The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the ...... mode.
a. WEA
b. CONT
c. MAP
d. MAN

110. On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be

shown: [Link] flashing red
[Link] a black hole
[Link] a steep colour gradient
[Link] red and white

111. On an AWR colour display, the sequence of colours indicating increasing water droplet size is:
a. blue, green, red
b. green, yellow, red
c. black, amber, red
d. blue, amber, green

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 Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

112. In an AWR with a 5° beamwidth, how do you orientate the scanner to receive returns from
clouds at or above your level?
a. 0°
tilt b.2.5°
uptilt
c.2.5° downtilt
d.5° uptilt

113. The ISO-ECHO circuit is incorporated in the

AWR: [Link] allow ground mapping
[Link] alert pilots to the presence of cloud
[Link] display areas of turbulence in cloud
[Link] allow simultaneous mapping and cloud detection

114. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud
are: [Link] size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna
reflector [Link] scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength
[Link] size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency
[Link] size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

115. In an AWR with a colour CRT, areas of greatest turbulence are indicated
by: [Link]-echo areas coloured black
[Link] areas of flashing red [Link]-
echo areas with no colour [Link]
rapid change of colour

116. With the AWR set at 100 nm range a large cloud appears at 50 nm. If the range is 50
nm: [Link] image will decrease in area and remain where it is
[Link] image will increase in area and move to the top of the screen
[Link] image will increase in area and move to the bottom of the
screen
[Link] image will decrease in area and move to the top of the screenreduced to

117. As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will
change: [Link], yellow, amber
[Link], yellow, red
[Link], green, orange
[Link], yellow, amber

118. The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:
a.a greater range can be achieved
b.a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage
c.a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam
d. t allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping

119. On switching on the AWR a single line appears on the display. This means
that: [Link] transmitter is unserviceable
[Link] receiver is
unserviceable [Link] CRT is
not scanning [Link] antenna is
not scanning

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 Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

120. The AWR can be used on the ground provided:

[Link] aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles
[Link] beam is selected
[Link] uptilt is
selected
iv. he AWR must never be operated on the

a. iv
b.i, iii
c.i, ii, iii
[Link], iii

121. Doppler navigation systems use to determine the aircraft groundspeed and drift.
a. DVOR
b. Phase comparison of signals from ground
stations
c. Frequency shift in signals reflected from the
ground
d. DME range
measurement

122. Which axes is the AWR stabilized

in'? [Link], roll and yaw
[Link] and
yaw [Link]
and roll
[Link] only

123. With normal SSR mode C altitude coding the aircraft replies by sending back a train of up to
12 pulses contained between 2 framing pulses with:
a.4096 codes in 4 blocks
b.2048 codes in 3
blocks c.4096 codes in 3
blocks
d. 2048 codes in 4
blocks

124. Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with
SSR? [Link] frequency is too high
[Link] does not use the echo principle
[Link] PRF is jittered
[Link] the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving
returns

125. The advantages of SSR mode S

are: [Link] resolution, TCAS
[Link] link, reduced voice communications
[Link], no RT communications
[Link] resolution, selective
interrogation

126. Which SSR mode A code should be selected when entering European airspace from an area
where no code has been allocated?
a. 7000
b. 750
0
c. 2000
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Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)
d. 000
0

127. The accuracy of SSR mode C altitude as displayed to the air traffic controller
is: a.+/-25 ft
b.+/-50 ft
c.+/-75 ft
d.+/-100
ft

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 Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

128. The SSR ground transceiver interrogates onand receives responses

on. a.1030 MHz, 1030 MHz
b.1030 MHz, 1090
MHz c.1090 MHz, 1030
MHz d.1090 MHz,
1090 MHz

129. The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced

to: [Link] unless QFE is in use
b.1013.25
HPa
c. QNH
d.WGS84
datum

130. Why is a secondary radar display free from weather clutter?

a. the frequencies are too low to detect water
droplets
b. the frequencies are too high to detect water
droplets
c. moving target indication is used to suppress the static generated by water
droplets
d. the principle of the return of echoes is not
used

131. The availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:

a. A
b. C
c. S
d. All

132. With reference to SSR, what code is used to indicate transponder altitude
failure? a. 9999
b. 000
0
c. 4096
d. 760
0

133. LORAN C is available:

a. globall
y
b. in oceanic
areas
c. in continental
areas
d. in specified
areas

134. The frequencies used by LORAN C are:

a. 70 - 130 KHz
b. 90 - 110 KHz
c. 108 - 112 MHz
d. 190 - 1750 KHz

135. The principle of operation of LORAN C is:

a. differential range by phase
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 Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)
comparison
b. differential range by pulse
technique
c. range by pulse
technique
d. range by phase
comparison

136. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a. reduce ionospheric and tropospheric
errors
b. determine satellite
range
c. eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris
errors
d. remove receiver clock
error

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 Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)

137. The MDA for a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:
a. barometric altitude
b. radio altimeter
c. GPS altitude
d. GPS or barometric altitude

138. If, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the wing,
the effect on position will be:
a. none
b. the position will degrade
c. another satellite will be selected, so there will be no degradation of position
d. the GPS will maintain lock using reflections of the signals from the fuselage

139. The time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for the NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a.12.5 minutes
b.12 hours
c.30 seconds
d.15 minutes

140. The effect of the ionosphere on NAVSTAR/GPS accuracy is:

a. only significant for satellites close to the horizon
b. minimized by averaging the signals
c. minimized by the receivers using a model of the ionosphere to correct the signals
d. negligible

141. The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GPS is:

a. above mean sea level
b. above ground level
c. above the WGS84 ellipsoid
d. pressure altitude

142. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

a.24 satellites in 6 orbits
b.24 satellites in 4 orbits
c.24 satellites in 3 orbits
d.24 satellites in 8 orbits

143. Selective availability may be used to degrade the accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS position.
This is achieved by:
a. introducing an offset in the satellites clocks
b. random dithering of the broadcast satellites clock time
c. random dithering of the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates
d. introducing an offset in the broadcast satellites X, Y & Z co-ordinates

144. The positioning of a GNSS aerial on an aircraft is:

a. in the fm
b. on the fuselage as close as possible to the receiver
c. on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
d. under the fuselage

145. The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:

a. provides X, Y & Z co-ordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite data
b. provides X, Y, Z & T co-ordinates and the constellation data
c. monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time
d. provides geographic position and UTC

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146. Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?

a. the inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 12
hours
b. the inclination of the orbits is 55° with an orbital period of 24
hours
c. the orbits are geostationary to provide global
coverage
d. the orbits are inclined at 65° with an orbital period of 11 hours 15
minutes

147. NAVSTAR/GPS receiver clock error is removed by:

a. regular auto-synchronisation with the satellite
clocks
b. adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the
error
c. synchronisation with the satellite clocks on
initialisation
d. having an appropriate atomic time standard within the
receiver.

148. The contents of the navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs include:
a. satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation
information
b. satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position
error
c. position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock
error
d. ionospheric propagation information, X, Y & Z co-ordinates and corrections, satellite
clock time and error

149. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:

a. space, control,
user
b. space, control,
ground
c. space, control,
air
d. space, ground,
air

150. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is:

a. multiplex
b. multi-channel
c. sequential
d. fast
multiplex

151. The orbital height of geostationary satellites

is: a.19330 km
b.35800
km c.10898
nm
d.10313
nm

152. The best accuracy from satellite systems will be provided by:
a. NAVSTAR/GPS and TNSS
transit
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 Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh Navigation (ATPL/FOOL)
b. GLONASS and
COSPAS/SARSAT
c. GLONASS and TNSS
transit
d. NAVSTAR/GPS and
GLONASS

153. The azimuth and elevation of the satellites is:

a. determined by the satellite and transmitted to the
receiver
b. determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac
data
c. transmitted by the satellite as part of the
almanac
d. determined by the receiver from the broadcast satellite X, Y, Z & T
data

154. The sky search carried out by a GNSS receiver:

a. is done prior to each
fix
b. is done when the receiver position is in
error
c. involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining
which satellites are in view
d. is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stations to check the accuracy of the satellite
data

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155. An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. If the receiver deselects one
satellite then the flight should be continued:
a. using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring the receiver output
b. using alternative navigation systems
c. using alternative radio navigation systems only
d. using inertial reference systems only

156. The WGS84 model of the earth is:

a. a geoid
b. a sphere
c. an exact model of the earth
d. an ellipse

157. The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. EHF
d. SHF

158. The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is:

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

159. How many satellites are needed for a 2D fix?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5

160. Which of the following statements concerning ionospheric propagation errors is true?
a. they are significantly reduced by the use of RAIM
b. they are eliminated using differential techniques
c. they are significantly reduced when a second frequency is available
d. transmitting the state of the ionosphere to the receivers enables the error to reduced to less
than one metre

161. Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:
a. barometric
b. GNSS
c. radio
d. radio or GNSS

162. The number of satellites required to provide a 3D fix without RAIM is:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3

163. The number of satellites required for a fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a. 21
b. 18
c. 24
d. 30

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164. `Unauthorised' civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access:

a. the P and Y codes
b. the P code
c. the C/A and P codes
d. the C/A code

165. When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used?
a. barometric
b. GPS height
c. radio altitude
d. average of barometric and GPS

166. The nav/system message from GLONASS and NAVSTAR/GPS is found in the band.
a. SHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. EHF

167. Which GNSS system can be used for IFR flights in Europe?
a. NAVSTAR/GPS
b. GLONASS
c. COSPAS/SARSAT
d. TNSS transit

168. During flight using NAVSTAR/GPS and conventional navigation systems, you see a large
error between the positions given by the systems. The action you should take is:
a. continue the flight in VMC
b. continue using the conventional systems
C. continue using the GPS
d. switch off the faulty system after determining which one is in error

169. What information can a GPS fix using four satellites give you?
a. latitude and longitude
b. latitude, longitude, altitude and time
c. latitude, longitude and altitude
d. latitude, longitude and time

170. What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

i. offset of the satellite clock from GMT
ii. ephemeris data
iii. health data
iv. ionospheric delays
v. solar activity
a. i, ii, iii, IV, V
b. i, ii, iii
c. i, ii, 1V
d. 11, 111, 1V

171. What is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

a. to control the use of the satellites by unauthorised users
b. to monitor the satellites in orbit
c. to maintain the satellites in orbit
d. degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorised users

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172. In GNSS a fix is obtained by:

a. measuring the time taken for signals from a minimum number of satellites to reach the
aircraft. [Link] the time taken for the aircraft transmissions to travel to a number of
satellites in known positions and return to the aircraft
[Link] the pulse lengths of the sequential signals from a number of satellites in known
positions
[Link] the phase angle of the signals from a number of satellites in known positions

173. The inclination of a satellite is:

a. the angle between the SV orbit and the equator
b. the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane
c. 90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the equator
d. 90° minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

174. How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV and the receiver determined?
a. by referencing the SV and receiver positions to WGS84
b. by synchronising the receiver clock with the SV clock
c. by measuring the time from transmission to reception and multiplying by the speed of light
d. by measuring the time from transmission to reception and dividing by the speed of light

175. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo-range because:
a. it is measured using pseudo-random codes
b. it includes receiver clock error
c. satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other
d. it is measured against idealisedKeplerian orbits

176. The task of the control segmentis to:

a. determine availability to users
b. monitor the SV ephemeris and clock
c. apply selective availability
d. all of the above

177. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires ...... SVs:
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 7

178. In NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a. differentiate between satellites
b. pass satellite ephemeris information
c. pass satellite time and epheaneris information
d. pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information

179. An `all in view' satellite navigation receiver is one which:

a. monitors all 24 satellites
b. tracks selected satellites
c. selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four
d. tracks the closest satellites

180. Which GPS frequencies are available for commercial air transport?
a.1227.6 MHz only
b.1575.42 MHz only
c.1227.6 MHz and 1575.42 MHz
d.1227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz

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181. Which GNSS is authorised for use on European airways?

a. GLONASS
b. NAVSTAR/GPS
c. Galileo
d. COSPAS/SARSAT

182. In GPS on which frequencies are both the C/A and P codes transmitted?
a. both frequencies
b. the higher frequency
c. neither frequency
d. the lower frequency

183. The orbits of the NAVSTAR GPS satellites are inclined

at: a.55° to the earth's axis
b. 5° to the plane of the equator
c. 9° to the earth's axis
d. 9° to the plane of the equator

184. RAIM is achieved:

a. by ground monitoring stations determining the satellite range errors which are relayed
to receivers via geo-stationary satellites
b. by ground stations determining the X, Y & Z errors and passing the corrections to
receivers using pseudolites
c. within the receiver
d. any of the above

185. The function of the receiver in the GNSS user segment is to:
a. interrogate the satellites to determine range
b. track the satellites to calculate time
c. track the satellites to calculate range
d. determine position and assess the accuracy of that position

186. In which frequency band are the Ll and L2 frequencies of GNSS?

a. SHF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. EHF

187. Which of the following statements concerning differential GPS (DGPS) is true?
a. Local area DGPS gives the same improvement in accuracy regardless of distance from the station
b. DGPS removes SV ephemeris and clock errors and propagation errors
c. DGPS can improve the accuracy of SA affected position information.
d. Wide area DGPS accuracy improves the closer the aircraft is to a ground station

188. The visibility of GPS satellites is:

a. dependent on the location of the user
b. greatest at the equator
c. greatest at the poles
d. the same at all points on and close to the surface of the earth

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189. In the approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot deviation from
track would represent:
a.5 nm
b.0.5 nm
c. 5°
d. 0.5°

190. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is:

a.0.25 nm standard deviation or better
b.0.5 nm standard deviation or better
c.1 nm standard deviation or better
d.1.5 nm standard deviation or better

191. The ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:

a. when the forecast W/V equals the actual WN and the FMS calculated Mach No. equals
the actual Mach No.
b. If the groundspeed and position are accurate.
c. If the forecast WN at take-off is entered.
d. If the groundspeed is correct and the take-off time has been entered.

192. When is the FMS position likely to be least accurate?

a. TOD
b. TOC
c. Just after take-off.
d. On final approach.

193. Deleted.

194. When using a two dot HSI, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents:
a. 2°
b. 5°
c. 5 nm
d. 2 nm

195. An aircraft, using a 2D RNAV computer, is 12 nm from the phantom station, 25 nm from
the VOR/DME designating the phantom station and the phantom station is 35 nm from the
VOR/DME. The range read out in the aircraft will be:
a. 12 nm
b. 25 nm plan range
c. 35 nm
d. 25 nm slant range

196. The FMC position is:

a. the average of the IRS positions
b. the average of the IRS and radio navigation positions
c. computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation positions
d. computer generated from the radio navigation

positions 197------200 Deleted.

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201. When midway between two waypoints, how can the pilot best check the progress of the aircraft?
a. by using the ATD at the previous waypoint
b. by using the computed ETA for the next waypoint
c. by using the ATA at the previous waypoint
d. by using the ETA at the destination

202. Which of the following can be input manually to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?
a. waypoints, latitude and longitude, SIDS and STARS
b. ICAO aerodrome designators, navigation facilities, SIDs and STARS
c. Waypoints, airways designators, latitude and longitude
d. Navigation facilities, reporting points, airways designators

203. The inputs to the EHSI display during automatic flight include:
a. auto-throttle, IRS and FMC
b. FCC, FMC and ADC
c. IRS, FMC and radio navigation facilities
d. IRS, ADC and FCC

204. The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialisation will include:
a. ETD, aircraft position, and planned route
b. Planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway
c. Navigation data base, aircraft position and departure aerodrome
d. Departure runway, planned route and

ETD. 205------208 Deleted.

209. In the NAV and EXP NAV modes one dot on the EHSI represents:
a.2 nm
b. 2°
c.5 nm
d. 5°

210. The phantom station in a 2D RNAV system may be generated by:

a. VOR/DME
b. Twin VOR
c. Twin DME
d. Any of the above

211. The operation of a 2D RNAV system may be seriously downgraded:

a. because the computer cannot determine if the aircraft is within the DOC of the programmed
facilities
b. because the computer cannot determine if the heading and altitude input are in error
c. because the pilot cannot verify the correct frequency has been selected
d. if the selected navigation facility is in excess of about 70

nm 212-----215 Deleted.

216. The FMS database can be:

a. altered by the pilots between the 28 day updates
b. read and altered by the pilots
c. only read by the pilots
d. altered by the pilots every 28 days

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217-----220 Deleted.

221. When is the IRS position updated?

a. continuously by the FMC
b. at VOR beacons on route by the pilots
c. at significant waypoints only
d. on the ground only

222----225 Deleted.

226. The navigation database in the FMS:

a. may be modified by the pilot to meet routing requirements
b. is read only
c. may be modified by the operations staff to meet routing requirements
d. may be modified by national aviation authorities to meet national requirements

227. Deleted.

228. In an EHSI the navigation information comes from:

a. INS, weather mapping, radio navigation
b. FMC, radio navigation
c. IRS, radio navigation, TAS and drift
d. FMC, weather mapping, radio navigation

229. Deleted.

230. According to ICAO (Annex 11), the definition of an RNAV system is:
a. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of
appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-board
systems or a combination of the two
b. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage of
appropriate ground based navigation aids or within the specified limits of self contained on-
board systems but not a combination of the two
c. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the coverage
of appropriate ground based navigation aids only
d. one which enables the aircraft to navigate on any desired flight path within the specified
limits of self contained on-board systems.

231. Which of the following is independent of external inputs?

a. INS
b. Direct reading magnetic compass
c. VOR/DME
d. ADF

232. The track line on an EFIS display indicates:

a. that a manual track has been selected
b. that a manual heading has been selected
c. the actual aircraft track over the ground, which will coincide with the aircraft heading when
there is zero drift
d. the aircraft actual track which will coincide with the planned track when there is zero drift

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233. Deleted.

234. The EHSI is showing 5° fly right with a TO indication. The aircraft heading is 280°(M) and
the required track is 270°. The radial is:
a. 275
b. 265
c. 085
d. 095

235. Deleted.

236. In an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most accurate position?
a. GPS/rho
b. Rho/theta
c. Rho/rho
d. GPS/theta

237----240 Deleted.

241. In order that a waypoint designated by a VOR can be used by a RNAV system:
a. the VOR must be identified by the pilot
b. the VOR must be within range when the waypoint is input
c. the VOR need not be in range when input or used
d. the VOR need not be in range when input but must be when used

242. Which EHSI modes cannot show AWR information?

a. FULL VOR/ILS/NAV and MAP
b. PLAN, CTR MAP and EXP VORJILS/NAV
c. CTR MAP and PLAN
d. PLAN and FULL VOR/ILS/NAV

243. Deleted.

244. Deleted.

245. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

a. 6 SVs each in 4 orbits
b. 4 SVs each in 6 orbits
c. 8 SVs each in 3 orbits
d. 3 SVs each in 8 orbits

246. Comparing the L1 and L2 signals helps with the reduction of which GNSS error?
a. tropospheric propagation
b. SV ephemeris
c. SV clock
d. Ionospheric propagation

247. The normal maximum range for an ATC surveillance radar is:
a. 50 nm
b. 150 nm
c. 250 nm
d. 350 nm

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248. The cause of a RNAV giving erratic readings would be:

a. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station
b. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the phantom station
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the reference station
d. the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference station

249. Flying an ILS approach with a 3° glideslope referenced to 50 ft above the threshold, an aircraft at
4.6 nm should be at an approximate height of:
a. 1400 ft
b. 1380 ft
c. 1500 ft
d. 1450 ft

250. The height of the GPS is:

a. 19300 km
b. 20200 km
c. 10900 km
d. 35800 km

251. Which type of radar could give an indication of the shape and sometimes the type of the aircraft?
a. area surveillance radar
b. SSR
c. AWR
d. Aerodrome surface movement radar

252. What are the ground components of MLS?

a. separate azimuth and elevation antennae with DME
b. separate azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers
c. combined azimuth and elevation antennae with DME
d. combined azimuth and elevation antennae with middle and outer markers

253. The accuracy required of a basic area navigation (B-RNAV) system is:
a. +/-5 nm on 90% of occasions
b. all the time
c. +/-5 nm on 95% of occasions
d. +/-5 nm on 75% of occasions

254. What function does the course line computer perform?

a. Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft to the facility
b. Uses VOR/DME information to direct the aircraft along a specified track
c. Converts VOR/DME information into HSI directions to maintain the planned track
d. Uses VOR/DME information to determine track and distance to a waypoint

255. The emissions from a non-directional beacon (NDB) are:

a. a cardioid with a 30 Hz rotation rate
b. omni-directional
c. a phase-compared signal
d. a frequency modulated continuous wave (FMCW)

256. How does night effect affect ADF?

a. Causes false bearings as the goniometer locks onto the skywave
b. Skywave interference which affects the null and is worst at dawn and dusk
c. Interference from other NDB's which is worst at dusk and when due east of the station
d. Phase shift in the received signal giving random bearing errors

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257. What is an ADC input to the FMC?

a. Heading
[Link]/DME
c. TAS
position

d. Groundspeed and drift

258. A typical frequency for DME would be:

a. 300 MHz
b. 600 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 1200 MHz

259. When flying under IFR using GPS and a multi-sensor system:
a. If there is a discrepancy between the GPS and multi-sensor positions, then the
multisensor position must be regarded as suspect
b. The GPS must be operating and its information displayed
c. The multi-sensor system must be operating and its information displayed
d. Both systems must be operating but only the primary system information needs to be displayed

260. The indications from a basic RNAV are behaving erratically. The reason is likely to be:
a. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the phantom station
b. the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference VOR/DME
c. the aircraft is below line of sight range of the reference VOR/DME
d. the aircraft is in the cone of confusion of the reference VOR

261. What is the maximum PRF that allows detection of targets to a range of 50 km? (ignore
any flyback time)
a. 330 pulses per second (pps)
b. 617 pps
c. 3000 pps
d. 1620 pps

262. In NAVSTAR/GPS the space segment:

a. Provides the positional information to the receiver
b. the receiver interrogates the satellite and the satellite provides positional information
c. sends information for receiver to determine latitude, longitude and time
d. relays positional data from the control segment

263. An accurate position fix on the EHSI will be provided by inputs of:
a. FMC
b. FMC, IRS, radio navigation aids
c. AWR, drift and TAS
d. All of the above

264. The almanac in the receiver:

a. determines selective availability
b. assigns the PRN codes to the satellites
c. is used to determine receiver clock error
d. is used to determine which satellites are above the horizon

265. In a RNAV system the DME is tuned:

a. by what is selected on the pilots DME and hence is tuned manually
b. automatically by taking pilot's DME selection
c. by selecting DMEs to give suitable angle of cut to get a fix automatically
d. by automatically selecting the nearest suitable DME

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266. Which input to the FMC is taken from sources external to the aircraft?
a. INS
b. pressure altitude
c. magnetic heading from a direct reading compass
d. VOR/DME

267. In NAVSTAR/GPS range measurement is achieved by measuring:

a. the time difference between the minimum number of satellites
b. the time taken for the signal to travel from the satellite to the
c. the synchronisation of the satellite and receiver clocks
d. the time taken for a signal to travel from the receiver to the satellite and return to the receiver

268. Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by:

a. the metallic structure of the aircraft
b. generative voltages caused by the rotation of the engines
c. the electrical wiring running through the aircraft
d. multipath reception

269. For the FMC the take-off speeds, V1, VRand V2 are found:
a. in the operating manual and input to the FMC
b. in the performance database
c. in the checklist and input manually
d. in the navigation database

270. The optimum climb and descent speeds used by the FMC are found:
a. in the operating manual and input to the FMC
b. in the performance database
c. in the checklist and input manually
d. in the navigation database

271. The optimum cruise speeds used by the FMC are found:
a. in the operating manual and input to the FMC
b. in the performance database
c. in the checklist and input manually
d. in the navigation database

272. Which of the following external inputs is required by the FMC to determine W/V ?
a. magnetic heading
b. Mach no.
c. TAS
d. Track and groundspeed

273. Which of the following is true concerning the use of GNSS position in the FMC?
a. it is used to verify and update the IRS position
b. an alternate source of position must be used and displayed
c. GNSS position is usable stand alone
d. GNSS data may only be used in the absence of other positional information

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18 (37-46) RADIO NAVIGATION

1. Which wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 5035 MHz?

a. 5.96 mm
b. 5.96 cm
c. 59.6 cm
d. 5.96 m

2. The VDF term meaning `true bearing from the station' is:
a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QTE
d. QUJ

3. A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy

of: a.± 2°
b .± 10°
c .± 1°
d .± 5°

4. ATC inform a pilot that they will provide aQGHservice. The pilot can expect:
a. headings and heights to fly to arrive overhead the aerodrome
b. radar vectors to position on final approach
c. QDM information to position overhead the aerodrome
d. Radar vectors to position overhead the aerodrome

5. The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ftamsl can provide a service to an aircraft at FL350 is:
a.280 nm
b.200 nm
c.224 nm
d.238 nm

6. The Doppler effect is:

a. the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter and receiver
b. the change in frequency caused by the movement of a receiver
c. the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter
d. the change in frequency caused by the relative movement between a transmitter and receiver

7. The least accurate bearing information taken by an aircraft over the sea from a NDB will be from:
a. a coastal beacon at an acute angle
b. an inland beacon at an acute angle
c. a coastal beacon perpendicular to the coast
d. an inland beacon perpendicular to the coast

8. The accuracy of ADF may be affected by:

a. night effect, tropospheric propagation, quadrantal error
b. static interference, siting errors, slant range
c. angle of bank, mountain effect, station interference
d. angle of bank, static from Cb, siting errors

9. The ADF error which will cause the needle to `hunt' (ie oscillate around the correct bearing) is:
a. night effect
b. Cb static
c. station interference
d. coastal refraction

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10. The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding compass error

is: a. +/-1o
b. +/-2°
c. +/-5°
d. +/-10°

11. A NDB has emission designator N0NA1A this will require the use of the BFO for:
a. tuning
b. identification
c. identification and monitoring
d. tuning, identification and monitoring

12. The principle of operation of VOR is:

a. bearing by lobe comparison
b. bearing by frequency comparison
c. bearing by searchlight principle
d. bearing by phase comparison

13. The pilot of an aircraft flying at FL 240 is 250 nm from a VOR at 16 ftamsl which he selects.
He receives no signal from the VOR. This is because:
a. the VOR is unserviceable
b. the range of VOR is limited to 200 nm
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d. there are abnormal atmospheric conditions

14. The phase difference measured at the aircraft between the VOR FM modulation and the
AM modulation is 235°. The bearing of the beacon from the aircraft is:
a. 055°
b. 235°
c. 145°
d. 325°

15. In a Doppler VOR (DVOR) the reference signal is the variphase signal is and the rotation is
. [Link], AM, clockwise
[Link], FM, clockwise
[Link], AM, anti-clockwise
[Link], FM, anti-clockwise

16. A pilot intends to home to a VOR on the 147 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS and
the CDI indications will be:
a. 7, TO
b.147,
FROM c.327,
d.327, TO
FROM

17. An aircraft is 100 nm SW of a VOR heading 080°. The pilot intends to home to the VOR on
the 210 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS is ...... and the CDI indications will be:
a.030, TO, Fly Right
b.030, TO, Fly Left
c.210, FROM Fly Right
d.210, FROM, Fly Left

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18. Flying an ILS approach the equipment senses that the 90 Hz modulation predominates on both
the localiser and the glidepath. The indications the pilot will see are:
a. fly left and fly up
b. fly left and fly down
c. fly right and fly up
d. fly right and fly down

19. On an ILS approach using a 3.5° glidepath, the height an aircraft, groundspeed 160 kt, should be at
3.5 nm is:
a. 800 ft
b. 1050 ft
c. 900 ft
d. 1500 ft

20. A category 2 ILS facility is required to provide guidance to:

a. below 50 ft
b. below 200 ft
c. the surface
d. below 100 ft

21. When flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway the indications from the ILS on
the CDI will be:
a. in the correct sense for the localiser and no glidepath signal
b. erratic on both localiser and glidepath
c. erratic on the localiser and in the correct sense on the glidepath
d. no localiser signal and in the correct sense for glidepath

22. The azimuth coverage of a 3° glidepath

is: a. +/-35° to 17 nm
b. +/-10° to 25 nm
c. +/-8° to 10 nm
d. +/-10° to 8 nm

23. The coverage of the approach azimuth and elevation of a MLS

is: a. +/-20° to 40 nm
b. +/-20° to 20
nm c. +/-40° to 40
nm d. +/-40° to
20 nm

24. A full MLS system comprises a DME and:

a. 4 elements multiplexing on 2 frequencies
b. 4 elements multiplexing on one frequency
c. 2 elements using 2 frequencies
d. 2 elements multiplexing on one frequency

25. MLS has 200 channels available in the frequency

band: a. 108 - 112 MHz
b. 329 - 335 MHz
c. 960 - 1215 MHz
d. 5031 - 5090 MHz

26. The type of radar which has no minimum range restriction is:
a. primary CW radar
b. primary pulsed radar
c. secondary CW radar
d. secondary pulsed radar

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27. The maximum theoretical range of aradar is determined by:

a. power
b. PW
c. beamwidth
d. PRF

28. The time interval between the transmission of a pulse and receipt of the echo from a target is
925.5 microseconds. The range of the target is:
a. 37.5 nm
b. 75 nm
c. 150 nm
d. 300 nm

29. An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar array) over a parabolic reflector are:
a. side lobes removed
b. 360° scan without any rotation requirement
c. less power required
d. higher data rate possible

30. The best resolution will be achieved on a radar display with:

a. high power output and large parabolic reflector
b. narrow beamwidth and narrow pulse width
c. low frequency and small parabolic reflector
d. wide beamwidth and large pulsewidth

31. A radar transmitting on 600 MHz has a PRF of 300 pps and an aerial rotation rate of 5 rpm.
This radar will be:
a. an area surveillance radar
b. an aerodrome surface movement radar
c. an aerodrome surveillance radar
d. a terminal area radar
32. The AWR operating frequency is:
a. 9375 MHz
b. 9375 GHz
c. 937.5 MHz
d.93.75 GHz
33. A cloud detected at 60 nm on the AWR of an aircraft flying at FL390 just disappears from the
screen when the tilt is selected to 2° UP. If the beamwidth of the radar is 6°, then the altitude
of the cloud tops is:
a.6000 ft
b.45000 ft
c.33000 ft
d.63000 ft
34. The AWR frequency is selected because it gives:
a. good returns from water droplets
b. good returns from turbulence
c. good penetration of cloud
d. good returns from water vapour

35. On a colour AWR display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:
a. amber
b. red
c. yellow
d. blue

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36. The SSR code to select when entering an area where a radar service is available from an
area where there is no radar service within the JAA area is:
a. 7000
b. 7007
c. 2000
d. 0000

37. In SSR the ground station interrogates the aircraft on MHz and receives replies from the
aircraft on MHz
a. 1030, 1090
b. 1090, 1030
c. 1030, 1030
d. 1090, 1090

38. The altitude readout at the ground station from a mode C response will give the aircraft
altitude within:
a. 300 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 500 ft
d. 50 ft

39. If the aircraft DME interrogates a ground transponder on a frequency of 1199 MHz, it will look
for replies on:
a. 1262 MHz
b. 1030 MHz
c. 1090 MHz
d. 1136 MHz

40. A DME recognises replies to its own interrogating pulses because:

a. each pulse pair has its own unique modulation which is replicated by the transponder
b. the PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered
c. each aircraft has a different time interval within the pulses pairs which is replicated by
the transponder
d. the transponder uses a selective reply system to respond to the aircraft interrogation pulses

41. Deleted.

42. If the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired DME identification is FKZ, then:
a. the transmitters are co-located
b. the beacons are between 600 m and 6 nm apart
c. the transmitters are within 600 m
d. the transmitters are in excess of 6 nm apart

43. The frequency used by LORAN C is:

a. 100 KHz
b. 100 MHz
c. 190 KHz
d. 190 MHz

44. The accuracy of LORAN C using surface wave fixing is:

a. 20 nm at 1000 nm
b. 1 nm at 2500 nm
c. 1 nm at 1000 nm
d. 20 nm at 2500 nm

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45. The coverage of LORAN C is:

a. in specified areas
b. in oceanic areas
c. over land only
d. in oceanic areas in the northern hemisphere

46. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises:

a. 21 satellites in 6 orbits
b. 24 satellites in 6 orbits
c. 24 satellites in 3 orbits
d. 30 satellites in 6 orbits

47. The model of the earth used for GPS is:

a. WGS90
b. PZ84
c. PZ90
d. WGS84

48. The major limitation in the use of GPS for precision approaches using wide area
augmentation systems (WAAS) is:
a. lack of failure warning
b. the height difference between the ellipsoid and the earth
c. global coverage of WARS is not available
d. degradation of range measurement because of ionospheric propagation errors

49. The number of SV's required to produce a 3D fix is:

a. `3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

50. EGNOS provides a WAAS by determining the errors in ...... and broadcasting these errors
to receivers using ......
a. X, Y & Z co-ordinates, geostationary satellites
b. X, Y & Z co-ordinates, pseudolites
c. SV range, geostationary satellites
d. SV range, pseudolites

51. The principle error in GNSS is:

a. ionospheric propagation
b. GDOP
c. receiver clock error
d. SV ephemeris error

52. If the signal from a SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre:

a. the receiver will select another SV with no loss in accuracy
b. the receiver will go into a DR mode with no loss of accuracy
c. the receiver will compensate by using the last calculated altitude to maintain positional accuracy
d. the receiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken

53. The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

a. identify the satellites
b. synchronise the receiver clocks with the SV clocks
c. pass navigation and system data to the receiver
d. all of the above

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54. If the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the constellation.
This download will take:
a. 15 minutes
b. 2.5 minutes
c. 12.5 minutes
d. 25 minutes

55. The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of SVs.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

56. The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is:
a. in the cockpit as close as possible to the receiver
b. on the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
c. on the aircraft as far as possible from other aerials to reduce reflections
d. close to each wing tip to compensate for manoeuvre errors

57. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at to the equator with an orbital period of
a. 55°, 11 hr 15 min
b. 65°, 11 hr 15 min
c. 65°, 12 hr
d. 55° 12 hr

58. The NAVSTAR/GPS frequency available to non-authorised users

is: a. 1227.6 MHz
b. 1575.42 MHz
c. 1215.0 MHz
d. 1090.0 MHz

59. The NAV and system data message is contained in the signal.
a. 50 Hz
b. C/A PRN code
c. P PRN code
d. C/A & P PRN code

60. A 2D RNAV system takes fixing inputs from:

a. co-located VOR/DME
b. twin DME
c. VOR and/or DME
d. Any of the above

61. The accuracy required of a basic RNAV system is:

a. 5 nm
b. 5°
c. 1 nm
d. 1°

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62. An aircraft using a 2D RNAV system is 23 nm from the waypoint on a 50 nm leg. The waypoint
is 45 nm from the VOR/DME and the aircraft is 37 nm from the VOR/DME. The range indicated
to the pilot will be:
a. 23 nm
b. 27 nm
c. 37 nm
d. 45 nm

63. The navigation database in a FMC:

a. can be modified by the flight crew to meet the route requirements
b. can be modified every 28 days
c. can only be read by the flight crew
d. cannot be accessed by the flight crew

64. The RNAV function of the FMC produces a position which:

a. combines the short term accuracy of the external reference with the long term accuracy of the IRS
b. produces a long term accuracy from the short term accuracy of the external reference and the IRS
c. produces a long term accuracy from the long term accuracy of the external reference and the IRS
d. combines the long term accuracy of the external reference with the short term accuracy of the

65. The most accurate external reference position will be provided by:
a. VOR/DME
b. Twin DME
c. Twin VOR
d. Suitable combination of VOR and

DME 66-----73 Deleted.

74. The FMC position is:

a. the selected IRS position updated by external reference using Kalman filtering
b. derived from IRS and external reference positions using the Kalman filtering process
c. derived from external reference position and monitored against the IRS position using
the Kalman filtering process
d. the external reference position updated by IRS information through the Kalman filtering process

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