What is the Minimum Descent Altitude(MDA)
A. Specified altitude in a non-precision approach which descent must not be made
unless pecivisual
B. height 50 feet above threshold
C. Minimum height for VFR traffic flying in non-control airspace
D. Minimum height guaranteed for obstacle clearance in airspace class A and B with
radar coverage
What is part of Take Off Distance Available(TODA)?
A. Length of Take off Run Available(TORA) plus Clearway
B. Same as Take off Run Available(TORA)
C. Runway plus stop way
D. Only runway without Stopway and Clearway
Having consumed a small amount of alcohol, you should not fly for at least :
A. 8 hours
B. 5 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
When a pilot declares to the ATC “Minimum Fuel” it means :
A. The pilot calculates that they might land below planned reserve fuel
B. A diversion is required
C. No meaning it is not a standard phraseology
D. Aircraft is declaring emergency
What does the term BROADCAST mean?
A. A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a
specific station or stations
B. A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station
C. A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight
D. A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft
engaged in flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground
stations
EDTO approval for Malaysia Airlines’s B738 is:
A. 120 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 90 minutes
D. 180 minutes
Bay A5 and B5 operations at WMKK requires:
A. APU to be serviceable for pushback
B. ATC Clearance if APU unserviceable
C. No change in operations
D. Only one enging is allowed to start before tow to Breakaway Point(BP)
What is ADS-C?
A. System that allows the establishment of communication contract between ground
system and aircraft avionics
B. A ground radar system that detects aircraft
C. Same as CPDLC
D. System that allows clearance to be given in advance to facilitate traffic flow into
major airports
Which of these statements are NOT true regarding Engine Out Taxi(EOT)?
A. Engine One or Two is shutdown depending on expected direction of turn
B. EOT is recommended for flights arriving into KUL
C. EOT is not recommended for flights into BKK
D. APU must be serviceable
If flying on a north-easterly heading at 2500 feet and you are asked to report your heading
and level, then you should reply with the message:
A. HEADING 045 AT TWO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET
B. NORTH-EAST AT 25 HUNDRED
C. 045 AT 2 POINT 5
D. HEADING 215 AT 2500 FEET
Steady green light signal from aerodrome to the aircraft means:
A. You may land
B. Continue approach
C. Return to this aerodrome and wait for permission to land
D. Standby
What is the acceleration height for Noise Abatement Procedure 1(NADP1)?
A. 3000ft
B. 800ft
A. C.1500ft
B. D.2500ft
APU usage for aircraft arrival into KLIA recommends:
A. Start APU approximately 2 minutes prior to stopping at bay
B. Start APU as soon as vacating runway
C. Start the APU at pilot’s discretion
D. Start APU when on chocks at the bay
What is the flying procedure for Moderate turbulence?
A. Seatbelt sign switch “ON”
B. Seatbelt sign switch “ON” and fly speed “.76” if in cruise
C. Seatbelt sign switch “ON” and thrust is manually set to “TURB N1”
D. No action
A(n) _____-slopping runway will decrease required take off distance
A. Downward
B. Upward
If a Co-pilot assumes control of the aircraft due to Captain incapacitation in flight, he is
NOT allowed to hand over control to another qualifies Malaysia Airlines Berhad
Commander
A. False
B. True
What is Common Traffic Advisory Frequency(CTAF)?
A. A common frequency designated for purpose of carrying out airport advisory
practices while at airport without operating control tower
B. A procedure that emphasizes on threat and error management to operate into
airports with high terrain
C. A degraded control tower operating at non controlled aerodromes
D. Control tower used give clearance to civilian aircraft at military airports
What are the recommendations to improve Carbon Brake life improvement?
A. Utilize higher autobrake settings and idle reversers
B. Apply brakes in short burst multiple times
C. Utilize maximum reversers when using autobrake
D. Pilot procedures have negligible impact on brakes due nature of carbon
Aircraft approved for Required Navigation Performance(RNP) means the aircraft’s lateral
NAV accuracy must be withon:
A. 95% percent of the total flight time
B. 80% percent of the total flight time
C. 85% percent of the total flight time
D. 90% percent of the total flight time
To maintain LVO recency crew must:
A. conduct 1 approach and landing using approved category II/III procedures during
previous 6 months
B. conduct 1 approach and landing using approved category II/III procedures during
previous 3 months
C. conduct 1 approach and landing using approved category II/III procedures during
precious 12 months
D. Only requires simulator recurrency to stay current
Air Traffic Control Service is provided for ALL aircraft in class A and Class B airspace
A. True
B. False
You may begin the take-off roll from a runway with a displaced threshold before crossing
the runway threshold bar.
DISPLACED THRESHOLD PICTURE
A. True
B. False
Maximum crosswind limitation for Co-pilot is not above:
A. 15kts
B. 10kts
C. 20kts
D. Commander’s discretion
Maximum fuel burn off discrepancy for Malaysia Airlines is:
A. 300kg
B. 100kg
C. 150kg
D. No limit
To maintain recency of experience, A Co-pilot must complete
A. at least 3 take-offs and landing in 90 days PF
B. at least 3 take-offs and landing in 60 days
C. at least 3 take-offs and landing in 35 days
D. at least 3 take-offs and landing in 90 days as PM or PF
If aural “UNSTABLE, UNSTABLE” is triggered at short final:
A. Mandatory go around shall be executed immediately regardless of condition
B. A landing can be made if the aural is triggered by known factors and aircraft is in
stablised approach criteria
C. No immediate action is required is it is only an alert
D. Crew may exercise discretion
What is the B737-800 speedbrake limitations?
A. Do not deploy speedbrake in flight below 1000 ft RA
B. No limitation in flight
C. Do not deploy speedbrake in flight when flaps are down
D. Do not deploy speedbrake in flight below 1500 ft RA
Orbits / 360 degrees turn:
A. Is not allowed below 1500 ft and must only be done using autopilot
B. Has no restriction if under VMC
C. Must only be carried out under radar coverage
D. Is allowed as commander’s discretion
What is Traffic Broadcast by Aircraft(TIBA)?
A. A mandatory broadcast at designated airspace
B. Permit reports and information of an advisory nature to be transmitted by pilots on
designated frequencies
C. A permanent procedure at designated airspace of high risk
D. Pilots on listening watch must acknowledge traffic information received
If an aircraft with a Wake Turbulence Category(WTC) of “H” is leading “M” in radar
coverafe, the minimum distance is:
A. 5nm
B. 3nm
C. 7nm
D. 9nm
Safety Report for Mandatory Occurrence Report must be submitted __ hours after end of
flight.
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
What is circadian rhythm?
A. Steady 24-hour rhythm that our body follows
B. Our immune system
C. The main muscle in our body that helps us sleep
D. The time we use to wind down before going to sleep
The “sterile cockpit” concept refers to:
A. Limiting conversation and to operationally pertinent topics in high work-load
situations
B. Ensuring that the windshields is free of blinds or other contaminants, which reduce
your ability to spot traffic
C. Ensuring that there are no loose articles in the cockpit
D. Ensuring the cockpit is clean and neat
What does the weather abbreviation FU mean?
A. Smoke
B. Funnel
C. Fume
D. Dust
The Squawk code for radio failure is:
A. 7600
B. 7500
C. 7700
D. 700
Completed Voyage Report (VR) must be submitted to the Company within _ hours after
end of duty in KL
A. 72
B. 12
C. 24
D. 48
The maximum flight time for the flight crew in 28 consecutive days is:
A. 100 hours
B. 80 hours
C. 90 hours
D. no limit
A tailwind will have what effect on published landing ground roll distances?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. None
What does the selected “BCFG” significant weather abbreviation means?
A. Patches Fog
B. Broken Fog
C. Smoke and Fume
D. Blowing funnel cloud or water spout
VFR flying is allowed in Class A airspace:
A. False
B. True
Which reasons are NOT valid as consideration for overweight landing?
A. Significant fuel saving and economical reasons
B. Airworthiness of aircraft is in doubt
C. Crew or passenger illness that requires immediate medical attention
D. Safety of the aircraft is degraded if continued operations
APU MAINT “BLUE LIGHT” means:
A. APU usage is fit for another 30 hours of operation
B. APU start attempt is not allowed
C. Low APU oil quantity and a top up is required to continue APU operations
D. ETOPS flight is not allowed
ICAO Maximum Holding Speed for aircraft operation above 14,000 ft to and inclusive
20,000ft kts
A. 240
B. 220
C. 230
D. 265
If both two pilots flying together is making an approach into an aerodrome they have not
flown into, the approach minima must be increased by
A. 100 feet
B. 50 feet
C. 200 feet
D. no change in minima if visibility is more than 5 km
Which are NOT TRUE regarding RVSM operations
A. Cross check altimeters must be made intervals of 1 hour in RVSM and shall agree
between 100 feet
B. RVSM level is between FL290-FL410
C. RVSM approved aircraft shall insert the letter W in field 10 of flight plan
D. When RVSM is unachievable, ATC is notified by station unable RVSM
During landing roll, you noticed the runway edge lights are amber in colour. What does
this signify?
A. The last 600 meters or last one third to the remote end of the landing runway
B. You have half the runway length or last 2000 ft left for the landing roll whichever is
less
C. The last 100 ft from the threshold of the landing runway
D. You are at the midpoint of the runway
Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding Stabilized Approach policy?
A. In VMC all aircraft shall be stabilized by 500 feet
B. All approaches except base training circuit pattern, side step and circling approach
must be stabilized by 1000 feet
C. Go-around is mandatory if aircraft becomes unstabilized
D. At 1000 ft PM will call out “ 1000 feet stable” or “1000 feet unstable mandatory go-
around”
RNP 10 navigation requires on board performance monitoring and alerting system
A. False
B. True
What are the two main causes of fatigue?
A. Sleep debt and circadian rhythm
B. Exercise and physical work
C. Heightened concentration and emotion
D. Circadian Rhythm and lack of motivation
We all listen to the weather stations on television. We hear the weather person mention
the jet stream. What exactly is a jet stream?
A. a narrow and shallow stream of wind which is usually westerly, strong and
concentrates in the upper troposphere of the sky
B. the trail left by an airplane high in the sky
C. condensation particles that are starting to form clouds
D. precipitation caused by extremely high winds in the upper atmosphere