Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

SBI PO PRELIMS MODEL TEST-37

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-5): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by

r’s
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
1. No sooner had the (A)/ scientists published their (B)/ groundbreaking research
(C)/ when it garnered international acclaim.(D) /No error (E)
ha
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
2. The citizens had every reason (A)/to trust their new leader, whose integrity (B)/
and commitment to justice were(C)/ well-documented and widely respected.(D)/
No error (E)

3.
1) A 2) B

E 3) C 4) D 5) No error
Succeeding in a competitive (A)/industry often means (B)/putting in 60-hours
workweeks (C)/ to stay ahead of the curve.(D)/ No error (E)
d
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
4. The CEO’s roughly estimate (A)/ of market trends is (B)/grounded in extensive
industry(C)/ knowledge and economic analysis.(D)/ No error (E)
ee

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
5. The majestic mountain range, with its(A)/ snow-capped peaks piercing the
heavens, is (B)/fondly called as the “Crown of the Continent” (C)/by those who
behold its splendor.(D)/ No error (E)
C
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
Directions (6-10): In the question given below, a set of sentences is given, which
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when properly sequenced form a coherent paragraph. Arrange the sentences in

the correct sequence and answer the questions that follow
A. All of this makes the unregulated use of sunscreens risky.
B. According to a non-profit organisation, most of the commercially available
sunscreens do not provide adequate protection against the sun’s harmful UV
radiation.
C. They may also contain chemicals with questionable safety records.
D. While most sunscreens block out at least some UVB radiations, many don’t
C
screen UVA rays at all.
E. Many such products contain potentially harmful chemicals that mimic naturally
occurring hormones, which can disturb the normal hormonal cycles of our bodies.
6. Which of these should be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) E 3) A 4) D 5) B
7. Which of these should be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) B 4) D 5) C
8. Which of these should be LAST sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) A
9. Which of these should be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) C 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) E
10. Which of these should be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) C 4) D 5) B
Directions (11-13): Which phrase should replace the phrase given in bold in the
sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given, mark ‘No correction required’ as your answer.
11. To become agricultural strong, farmers must adopt sustainable farming practices.
1) To became agriculturally strong 2) To become agriculturally strong
3) To become agriculturally stronger
4) To become a agriculturally strong 5) No correction required
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

12. Recently he has got insured for life insurance to secure his family’s financial
future.
1) he recently got insure 2) he insured recently
3) recently he insured 4) he has recently got insured
5) No correction required
13. I read the newspaper over a cup of tea this morning, catching up on the latest
headlines.
1) No correction required 2) today morning
3) today this morning 4) on this today morning 5) this morning today
Directions (14-23): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.

r’s
Climate change, a phenomenon driven largely by human activities, has emerged
as one of the most critical challenges facing our planet. The Earth’s climate is
undergoing profound shifts, with widespread implications for ecosystems, weather
patterns, and the overall well-being of both human and non-human life.
Understanding the causes, effects, and potential solutions to climate change is
crucial for charting a sustainable future. At the heart of climate change lies the
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increase in greenhouse gas emissions, primarily carbon dioxide and methane,
resulting from human activities such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and
industrial processes. These gases trap heat in the atmosphere, leading to a gradual
rise in global temperatures, a phenomenon commonly referred to as global warming.

E
The consequences are far-reaching, impacting everything from rising sea levels
and extreme weather events to disrupt in agriculture and biodiversity. One of the
d
most _______ aspects of climate change is the melting of polar ice caps and glaciers.
As temperatures rise, these icy expanses are receding at unprecedented rates,
contributing to the rise in sea levels. Coastal regions and low-lying islands face the
imminent threat of submersion, displacing millions of people and causing irreversible
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damage to ecosystems. The urgency to address climate change has never been
more evident. Extreme weather events, once considered anomalies, are now
becoming more frequent and severe. Hurricanes, droughts, floods, and wildfires
C
are wreaking havoc across the globe, impacting communities, economies, and
ecosystems. The vulnerability of marginalized populations is particularly pronounced,
as they often reside in areas more susceptible to climate-related disasters and
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have fewer resources to cope with the aftermath. Climate change is intricately
linked to shifts in ecosystems and biodiversity. Species are struggling to adapt to
the rapidly changing climate, leading to disruptions in food chains and ecosystems.
Coral reefs, vital marine ecosystems that support a plethora of marine life, are
experiencing bleaching and degradation due to rising sea temperatures. The loss
of biodiversity not only threatens the survival of numerous species but also jeopardizes
the delicate balance of ecosystems that sustain life on Earth. In the face of these
challenges, international efforts to combat climate change have gained momentum.
C
The Paris Agreement, signed by countries around the world, aims to limit global
warming to well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels. Nations are
pledging to reduce emissions, transition to renewable energy sources, and enhance
resilience to the impacts of climate change. However, translating commitments
into meaningful action remains a formidable task. Individuals, communities, and
businesses also play a pivotal role in mitigating climate change. Adopting sustainable
practices, reducing carbon footprints, and promoting environmental awareness are
essential steps toward a more sustainable future. The imperative to transition to
renewable energy sources, embrace circular economies, and implement eco-friendly
technologies has never been more urgent. In confronting climate change, education
and advocacy are powerful tools. Raising awareness about the impacts of climate
change and promoting sustainable lifestyles can inspire collective action. The
responsibility to protect our planet for future generations rests on the shoulders of
individuals, communities, and nations alike. Only through concerted and immediate
efforts can we hope to mitigate the worst effects of climate change and safeguard
the delicate balance of our shared home, Earth.
14. What is a synonym for “profound” as used in the passage?
1) Shallow 2) Insignificant 3) Deep
4) Superficial 5) Trivial

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

15. According to passage fill in the blank with suitable word to make sentence
grammatically and contextually correct.
One of the most _________aspects of climate change is the melting of polar ice
caps and glaciers.
1) consent 2) alarming 3) neglect 4) disturb 5) menacing
16. What is an antonym for “disrupt” as used in the passage?
1) Harmonize 2) Interrupt 3) Deteriorate 4) Fragment 5) Obstruct
17. What is a synonym for “imbalance” as used in the passage?
1) Stability 2) Equilibrium 3) Discord 4) Harmony 5) Congruence
18. How do greenhouse gas emissions contribute to global warming, and what are the
consequences of this phenomenon?

r’s
1) By cooling the atmosphere; consequences include decreased sea levels
2) By trapping heat in the atmosphere; consequences include a gradual rise in
global temperatures, rising sea levels, extreme weather events, and disruptions
in agriculture and biodiversity
3) By stabilizing weather patterns; consequences include enhanced ecosystem
health

and glaciers
5) All the above
ha
4) By reducing temperatures globally; consequences include increased ice caps

E
19. What concerning aspect of climate change is highlighted in the passage, with a
specific emphasis on the melting of polar ice caps and glaciers?
1) Polar ice caps and glaciers are expanding, contributing to a decrease in sea
d
levels.
2) Polar ice caps and glaciers are stable, with no significant changes observed.
3) Polar ice caps and glaciers are receding at unprecedented rates, contributing
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to a rise in sea levels, posing a threat to coastal regions and low-lying islands.
4) Polar ice caps and glaciers have no impact on sea levels or climate.
5) None of these
20. How does the passage characterize extreme weather events in the context of
C
climate change, and what populations are particularly vulnerable?
1) Extreme weather events are diminishing, and all populations are equally affected.
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2) Extreme weather events are increasing in frequency and severity, impacting

communities, economies, and ecosystems and vulnerable populations, often
residing in disaster-prone areas, face heightened risks due to limited resources.
3) Extreme weather events have no connection to climate change. Vulnerable
populations are unaffected.
4) Extreme weather events are localized phenomena with no global impact.
5) All the above
21. What is the primary cause of climate change according to the passage?
C
A. The primary cause of climate change is, more people using mobile phones
because of its radiation atmosphere is polluting.
B. The primary cause of climate change is the increase in greenhouse gas
emissions, primarily carbon dioxide and methane, resulting from human activities
such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial processes.
C. The primary cause of climate change is, more people using more vehicles and
chimneys atmosphere is polluting.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) Both B and C
22. What role do individuals, communities, and businesses play in mitigating climate
change according to the passage?
A. Individuals, communities, and businesses play a pivotal role in mitigating
climate change by adopting sustainable practices, reducing carbon footprints,
and promoting environmental awareness.
B. Individuals, communities, and businesses should stop using their vehicles as
it causes pollution.
C. Individuals, communities should stop taking water from rivers as the polar
caps are melting.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both C and B 5) Both A and C

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

23. What is the significance of raising awareness about climate change, as mentioned
in the passage?
Raising awareness about climate change is significant because
A. it can inspire collective action
B. promote sustainable lifestyles.
C. Boating in sea waters.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) Both A and C
Directions (24-27): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as
(A), (B), (C), (D) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either
inappropriate in the context to the sentence or wrongly spelt. The corresponding
alphabet of that word is the answer. If all the four words are appropriate and also
correctly-spelt, mark ‘All correct’ as the answer.

r’s
24. The artist’s intricate (A) brocade tapestry seemed to defy (B) the craftsmanship,
allowing him leeway (C) to fulminate (D) his creative energy onto the canvas.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
25. She found herself in an addle (A) state amidst the clangoure (B) of conflicting
emotions, trying to parry (C) the onslaught (D) of doubt.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
26.

1) A 2) B
ha
The chef’s masterpiece was a viand (A) so exquisite (B), it made the flavors of his
creede (C) flourish, while serenity (D) embraced the entire room.
3) C 4) D 5) All correct
27. In the passe (A) streets of the old town, a sense of certitude (B) lingered, echoing

2) B

E
(C) the tenet (D) of tradition and heritage.
1) A 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
d
Directions (28-30): In the given question, four words are printed in bold and are
marked A, B, C and D . The positions of some highlighted words may be incorrect
and need to be exchanged with another highlighted word to make the sentence
correct. Find the pair of word(s) that need to be exchanged. If all the words are
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appropriate then mark ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

28. Financial advisors help clients deposit (A) their spending habits, withdrawals (B)
potential savings, and suggest suitable analyze (C) options, ensuring easy calculate
C
(D) when needed.
1)B-C 2) A-D 3) A-B & C-D 4) All Correct 5) A-C &B-D
29. The bank manager must verify (A) the merger to consolidate (B) the company’s
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assets and facilitate (C) growth while ensuring to authorize (D) all legal documents.
1) A-C &B-D 2) B-D 3) A-B & C-D 4) A-D 5) All Correct
30. The voracious (A) reader devoured (B) books of all genres, savouring (C) each
word with delight.(D)
1) B-C 2) A-D 3) A-B & C-D 4) All Correct 5) A-C &B-D
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction(31-35) : The question consists of a question and two statements I and
C
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements
are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the
appropriate option :
31. How much time will the boat take to cover a distance of 63 km upstream ?
(I) The difference between the time taken by the boat to travel from A to B (upstream)
and the time taken by it to travel from B to A (downstream) is 2 hours.
(II) The distance between A and B is 45 km and speed of the boat in still water is
12 kmph.
1) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
2) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
4) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
5) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

32. There are two cylindrical rollers- bigger and smaller. How many rotations will the
bigger roller take to flatten a stretch of land (X) ?
(I) The respective ratio of the radii of the bigger and the smaller roller is 7 : 3.
Both the rollers are of the same length.
(II) The smaller roller takes 63 rotations to flatten the stretch of land (X).
1) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
2) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
3) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to

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answer the question.
4) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
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33. An item was sold after giving a certain discount on the marked price. What was
the percentage of discount given ?
(I) The profit earned after giving the discount is 44%. Had the percentage of

E
discount been doubled the profit earned would have been 28%
(II) The cost price of the item is Rs. 400
1) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
d
question.
2) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
ee

3) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
4) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
C
answer the question.
5) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
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question.
34. What is the respective ratio of initial investments of A and B ?
(I) A started the business by investing a certain amount and he invested for the
whole year. B joined A after 4 months from the start of the business and invested
for the rest of the year. The profit earned by A and B are in the respective ratio of
7 : 8.
(II) The initial investment of B was Rs. 10,800.
C
1) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
4) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
35. What is the definitely the value of “x” ?

 x2  6
(I) The value of   - x +   is equal to 0.
 7  7
(II) The value of 3x-2. 92x-3 is equal to 95x-19

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

1) the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) the data in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
3) the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the
question.
4) the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
5) the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

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Direction(36-40) : Refer to the graph and answer the given question :
Data related to number of elephants in two reserves (A and B) of country X
during 6 years :
ha A B

110
100

E
90
Number of Elephants

80
d
70
60
50
ee

40
30
C
20
10
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0
2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 2021
Years

36. Number of elephants in reserve A decreased by 25% from 2021 to 2022 and number
of elephants in reserve B increased by 15% from 2021 to 2022. What was the total
number of elephants in reserves A and B together in 2022 ?
C
1) 166 2) 174 3) 158 4) 172 5) 164
37. Number of elephants in reserve A increased by what percent from 2016 to 2020 ?
1) 62.5 2) 68.5 3) 56.5 4) 58.5 5) 64.5
38. What is the respective ratio between total number of elephants in reserve A in
2018 and 2021 together and total number of elephants in reserve B in 2020 and
2021 together ?
1) 23 : 24 2) 9 : 14 3) 11 : 12 4) 11 : 14 5) 11 : 18
39. What is the average number of elephants in reserve B during 2016, 2018, 2020
and 2021 ?
1) 56 2) 46 3) 53 4) 51 5) 49
40. Out of the total number of elephants in reserves A and B together in 2017 only
40% were African elephants and out of the total number of elephants in reserves
A and B together in 2019 only 65% were African elephants. What is the difference
between total number of African elephants in reserves A and B together in 2017
and total number of African elephants in reserves A and B together in 2019 ?
1) 37 2) 41 3) 43 4) 47 5) 35

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

Direction(41-45): Study the following graph carefully and answer the question
given :
Number of three different types of products manufactured by a company
Over the years (in lakhs)

Product A Product B Product C

40

35
Number of Products (in lakhs)

35

30

30

30
27.5

27.5

27.5
30

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25

25
22.5

22.5

22.5
25

20

17.5
20
15

15
12.5

15
10

10
5
ha
0
2017

E 2018 2019
Years
2020 2021 2022
d
41. The total production of all the three types of products together was maximum in
which of the following years among the given years ?
1) 2021 2) 2022 3) 2018 4) 2019 5) 2020
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42. What is the difference between the total production of all the three types of
products together in 2020 and the total production of all the three types of products
C
together in 2022 ?
1) 12.5 lakhs 2) 10 lakhs 3) 2.5 lakhs 4) 7.5 lakhs 5) 5 lakhs
43. What is the percent increase in total number of three types of products from 2017
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to 2022?
1) 125 2) 100 3) 150 4) 50 5) 200
44. What was the percentage increase of A type products from 2019 to 2021 ?
1) 20 2) 5 3) 25 4) 10 5) 15
45. The total production of B and C type products in 2022 was exactly equal to the
total production of B and C type products in which of the following years ?
C
1) 2018 2) 2019 3) 2021 4) 2017 5) 2020
Direction(46-50) : Study the table and answer the given question :

Name of Percentage of Respective ratio Respective ratio of

the villages literate population of literate males illiterate males and
and literate illiterate females
females
A 60% 7 :5 5:3
B 40% 3 :1 7:5
C 55% 3 :2 5:4
D 50% 7 :3 3:2
E 65% 7 :6 4:3
F 45% 5 :4 6:5

46. In village B number of literate males is what percent of the number of illiterate
males in that particular village ?
3 4 2 5 1
1) 83 2) 78 3) 81 4) 85 5) 88
7 7 7 7 7

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

47. If the population of village F is 9500. What is the number of illiterate females in
that village ?
1) 2455 2) 2335 3) 2425 4) 2375 5) 2515
48. Number of literate males in village E is what percent more than the number of
illiterate males in that particular village ?
1) 72.5 2) 75 3) 80 4) 77.5 5) 70
49. If the population of village C is 6400. What is the difference between number of
literate males and number of illiterate females in that village ?
1) 924 2) 916 3) 882 4) 832 5) 854
50. Population of village A is 8400. If 5% of the literate males of that village are post

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graduates, What is the number of post graduate males in village A ?
1) 147 2) 141 3) 145 4) 151 5) 157
51. A and B started a business by investing Rs. 24,000 and Rs. 20,000 respectively. At
the end of 6th month from the start of the business, B quits and C joins with an
investment of Rs. 12,000. If profit received at the end of the year is Rs. 13,060,
ha
what is A’s share in profit ?
1) Rs. 7,308 2) Rs. 7,932 3) Rs. 7,464 4) Rs. 7,836 5) Rs. 7,392
52. Boats X and Y started from point A towards point B at the same time. The speed of

E
Boat X travelling downstream from A to B was 4 km/h more than its speed while
travelling upstream from B to A. Boat Y took 2 hours 30 minutes to travel
d
downstream from A to B. If the distance between point A and point B is 55 km,
what is the speed of Boat Y in still water (considering that the speed of the
current is constant) ? (in km/h)
ee

1) 22 2) 20 3) 18 4) 16 5) 24
53. The diameter of a circle is equal to the diagonal of a rectangle. If the circumference
6
C
of the circle is 40 cm and the breadth of rectangle is 5 cm, what is the perimeter
7
of the rectangle ?
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1) 42 cm 2) 34 cm 3) 50 cm 4) 36 cm 5) 24 cm
54. The respective ratio between Rita’s age 3 years ago and Sonu’s age 5 years ago
was 2:1. Anita’s present age is twice Sonu’s present age. If Anita is 7 years elder
to Rita, what is Rita’s present age ? (in years)
1) 41 2) Cannot be determined 3) 24 4) 48 5) 38
55. A jar contains mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 9 : 2. When 22
C
litres of mixture is taken out from the jar and 2 litres of pure water is added to
the mixture, the percentage of water in the resultant mixture becomes 25%,
what was the initial quantity of mixture in the jar ? (in litres)
1) 48 2) 44 3) 40 4) 36 5) 42
Direction(56-60) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
56. I. 6x2 – 5x + 1 = 0 II. 12y2 – 23y + 10 = 0
1) X > Y 2) X < Y 3) X  Y
4) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established 5) X  Y
57. I. 15x2 + 26x + 8 = 0 II. 25y2 + 15y + 2 = 0
1) X < Y 2) X > Y
3) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
4) X  Y 5) X  Y
2
58. I. 10x + 21x + 8 = 0 II. 5y2 + 19y + 18 = 0
1) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
2) X > Y 3) X  Y 4) X < Y 5) X  Y

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

59. I. 6x2 – 19x + 15 = 0 II. 5y2 – 22y + 24 = 0

1) X > Y 2) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
3) X  Y 4) X < Y 5) X  Y
60. I. 4x2 – 12x + 5 = 0 II. 4y2 – 8y + 3 = 0
1) X > Y 2) Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
3) X  Y 4) X  Y 5) X < Y
Direction(61-65): What will coma in place of question mark (?) in the given number
series ?
61. 534 278 150 86 54 ?
1) 28 2) 36 3) 42 4) 32 5) 38

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62. 11 23 71 287 ? 8639
1) 1387 2) 1439 3) 1531 4) 1477 5) 1519
63. 198 195 188 175 ? 123
1) 148 2) 158 3) 142 4) 152 5) 154
64. 5 6 16 57 244 ?
1) 1245
4) 1225
ha
2) 992
5) 964
3) Other than those given as options

65. 19 37 58 88 145 ?
1) 271 2) 289

E 3) 283
REASONING
4) 295 5) 276
d
Direction: (66-70) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in eight different years
ee

-1964, 1967, 1971, 1978, 1982, 1988, 1993 and 1997. Each one has different
zodiacs Scorpio, Aries, Libra, Virgo, Taurus, Cancer, Leo and Gemini but not
necessarily in the same order.
C
U was born in a leap year. Three persons were born between the one who
has Scorpio zodiac and the one who has Cancer zodiac. Only one person was born
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between U and the one who has Virgo zodiac. The age difference between the one
who has Gemini zodiac and Q is multiple of six. As many people were born after
the one who has Virgo zodiac as born before the one who has Gemini zodiac.
Neither T nor R has Virgo zodiac. P did not have Gemini Zodiac. V was born
immediately before the one who has Leo zodiac. The one who has Scorpio zodiac
was born immediately after Q. W was born in an odd numbered year. Either R or
V has Libra zodiac. Three people were born between T and R, who was born after
C
T. W did not have Virgo zodiac. The age difference between W and the one who
has Aires zodiac is 11 years.
66. P was born in which of the following year?
1) 1993 2) 1988 3) 1967 4) 1997 5) 1982
67. How many people were born between T and Q?
1) One 2) None 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than three
68. Who among the following person was born in 1964?
1) Q 2) U 3) S 4) R 5) W
69. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE?
1) W has Leo zodiac.
2) Two persons were born between P and V.
3) T was born before the one who has Libra zodiac.
4) U did not have Scorpio zodiac. 5) All the statements are true
70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) P – Libra 2) Q – Taurus 3) S – Cancer 4) U – Leo 5) R – Virgo
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

71. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘RECOMMEND’, each of
which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical
series?
1) Two 2) One 3) None 4) Three 5) More than three
Direction: (72-75) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Point A is 18m West of point F. Point C is 10m South of point A. Point K is 4m
South of point I. Point I is 5m East of point C. Point E is 7m East of point K. Point H
is 12m West of point D. Point E is 9m South of point H. Point G is 8m West of point

r’s
B. Point F is 19m North of point G. Point B is 5m South of point J.
72. In Which direction is point I with respect to ponit D?
1) West 2) North-East 3) South-West 4) North-West 5) South-East
73. If point V is west of point D and South of point F, then what is the distance
between point G and point V?
ha
1) 13m 2) 12m 3) 15m 4) 14m 5) 16m
74. What is the shortest distance between point D and point F?
1) 51 m 2) 59 m 3) 61 m 4) 63 m 5) 47 m

E
75. Which among the following three points make a straight line?
1) CHD 2) KJE 3) FHE 4) DJB 5) ACE
Direction: (76-77) Study the following information carefully and answer the
d
questions given below.
491 627 938 215 763
76. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in ascending order from left
ee

to right within the number which of the following will be the sum of all the three
digits of the number which is third highest in the new arrangement?
1) 14 2) 16 3) 15 4) 20 5) 13
C
77. If ‘1’ is subtracted from the third digit of every odd number and ‘1’ is added to the
third digit of every even number, how many numbers thus formed will be divisible
Sr

by three?
1) Three 2) None 3) One 4) Two 5) More than three
Direction: (78-82) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Ten people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J live in five different floors from
one to five. Ground floor is numbered as one and top floor is numbered as five.
Each of the floor has 2 flats in it as flat-1 and flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately
C
above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the
same way flat-2 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-2 of floor-1 and immediately
below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat-1 is in West of flat-2. I lives in an even
numbered floor but not an even numbered flat. F lives in South-West of H. E lives
North of A. Only one floor lives between I and H and both are livsing in different
flats. E and F do not live in same floor. J lives South of H. B lives in South-West of
J. C lives in East of G.
78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence form a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) H 2) A 3) C 4) B 5) J
79. J lives in which floor and flat?
1) Flat 2 – Floor 5 2) Flat 1 – Floor 3 3) Flat 2 – Floor 1
4) Flat 2 – Floor 3 5) Flat 1 – Floor 2
80. Who lives in flat 1 of floor 4?
1) F 2) D 3) C 4) E 5) G

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

81. Which of the following statement is/are NOT TRUE?

1) A lives South-West of H. 2) F and B live same Floor. 3) C lives North of H.
4) All the statements are true 5) Both 1 and 2
82. Who among the following live North of I?
1) F 2) H 3) A 4) B 5) J
83. In the given number ‘9246183572’, if ‘1’ is subtracted to all the odd digits and ‘1’
is added to all the even digits, then all the digits are arranged in ascending order
from right to left then how many digits places will remain unchanged?
1) Two 2) None 3) Three 4) One 5) More than three
Direction: (84-88) Study the following information carefully and answer the

r’s
questions given below.
Eleven people – M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting in a straight
line facing North but not necessarily in the same order. P sits at second to the
one of the extreme ends of the line. V sits immediate left of O. R sits exactly
between U and Q. M sits third to the right of V. Only Four people are sitting
ha
between P and O. Neither P nor M sits immediate to N. The number of people sit
after M is two more than the number of people sit before T. S and N sit immediate
to each other. More than three people are sitting between T and Q.
84.
2) Four

E
How many people are sitting between N and R?
1) Two 3) Three 4) One 5) More than four
d
85. Who sits third to the right of N?
1) R 2) T 3) M 4) V 5) O
86. Who amongst the following persons are immediate to the persons, who are at
ee

extreme ends of the line?

1) Q, T 2) M, P 3) W, P 4) P, V 5) Q, N
87. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE?
C
I. Only four people are sitting between M and N.
II. U does not sit immediate to O.
Sr

III. U sits at an one of the extreme ends of the line.

1) Only I 2) Only III 3) Both I and III
4) Both I and II 5) All the statements are true
88. If all the persons are arranged in an alphabetical order from right to left, then
how many persons will remain unchanged?
1) None 2) Three 3) One 4) Two 5) More than three
Direction: (89-92) Study the following information carefully and answer the
C
questions given below.
M  P $ 7 B # U 4 & ! 9 H Q & 2 I N 3 @ L R 8 G O % C 5 V D
1 * X U ^ K 6  A T
89. If all the letters are removed from the above arrangement, then which of the
following 15th from the right end?
1) 4 2) & 3) 2 4) ! 5) #
90. How many numbers are there in the above arrangement which are immediately
followed by a letter and immediately preceded by a symbol?
1) Three 2) None 3) Two 4) One 5) More than three
91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) G%8 2) 7#$ 3) X*^ 4) H&9 5) 6AK
92. Which of the following element is 7th to the right of 16th from the left end in the
given arrangement?
1) G 2) R 3) 1 4) % 5) 8
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI PO PRELIMS MT-37

Direction: (93-96) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Ten people – K, D, G, M, T, H, U, J, V and R belong to a family of three
generations with three married couples. D is the father of H, who has uncle of J.
M is the brother-in-law of H. D has only two children. U is the Aunt of K, who is
the spouse of T. M has no sons. G is the mother-in-law of R. J and K are siblings.
V is the spouse of D. J and H are unmarried.
93. How is G related to K?
1) Mother 2) Aunt 3) Grandmother
4) Granddaughter 5) Niece
94. How is H related to R?

r’s
1) Brother 2) Son 3) Sister 4) Father 5) Either 1 or 3
95. If S is the spouse of G, then how is S related to U?
1) Father-in-law 2) Son 3) Daughter
4) Father 5) Brother-in-law
96. How many female members are there in the family?
1) Four 2) Seven ha 3) Six 4) Five 5) Three
Direction: (97-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a square table. Four
people are sitting at the corner of the table and four people are sitting at the

E
middle of the table all of them facing away from the centre. Each one has different
number of gold coins 25, 32, 41, 49, 57, 62, 67 and 83 but not necessarily in the
same order.
d
F sits one of the corners of the table. B sits second to the left of the one who
has 41 gold coins. Only two persons are sitting between F and the one who has 41
gold coins (either from left or right). As many people sit between E and the one
ee

who has 41 gold coins from left of E as between C and the one who has 62 gold
coins from right of C. The difference between the gold coins of G and H is 18. Only
three people are sitting between B and E. Neither C nor H has 41 gold coins. B
C
has a perfect square numbered gold coins. The sum of the gold coins of G and C is
99. E does not sit immediate to the one who has 62 gold coins. G sits second to
the left of A, who has 57 gold coins.
Sr

97. E has how many gold coins?

1) 32 2) 67 3) 49 4) 83 5) 62
98. How many persons are sitting between F and C from right of C?
1) Two 2) Four 3) One 4) Three 5) More than four
99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence form a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) A – 67 2) B – 49 3) E – 41 4) G – 57 5) H – 83
C
100. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE?
1) A sits one of the sides of the table. 2) H has 49 gold coins.
3) H sits fourth to the right of D. 4) Both 2 and 3 are true
5) All the satements are true

KEY
1.4 2.5 3.3 4.1 5.3 6.4 7.3 8.5 9.1 10.2
11.2 12.4 13.1 14.3 15.2 16.1 17.3 18.2 19.3 20.2 SCAN QR FOR
21.2 22.1 23.4 24.2 25.2 26.4 27.5 28.5 29.4 30.4 OUR RESULTS
31.4 32.1 33.3 34.2 35.1 36.5 37.1 38.5 39.4 40.1
41.4 42.5 43.2 44.1 45.1 46.4 47.4 48.2 49.4 50.1
51.4 52.2 53.2 54.2 55.2 56.2 57.5 58.2 59.4 60.2
61.5 62.2 63.5 64.1 65.3 66.4 67.1 68.3 69.3 70.2
71.4 72.3 73.4 74.3 75.2 76.3 77.4 78.4 79.4 80.2
81.5 82.1 83.3 84.3 85.5 86.3 87.4 88.1 89.2 90.1
91.3 92.5 93.3 94.1 95.4 96.3 97.4 98.3 99.4 100.4

12