NDAEB REVIEW

The primary source of topical fluoride is:

a. Toothpaste
b. Foods and beverages
c. Fluoride supplements
d. Water fluoridation

2) The first step in the formation of plaque is:

a. Calculus
b. Acquired Pellicle
c. Materia Alba
d. Food debris

3) A hard
deposit, which may be found on the lingual surfaces of lower anterior teeth would
be known as:

a. Dental plaque
b. Sub-gingival plaque
c. Supra-gingival calculus
d. Materia Alba

4) The following contribute to plaque accumulation EXCEPT:

a. crowded teeth
b. non-vital teeth
c. teeth out of occlusion
d. dental prosthesis

5) Materia alba is:

a. soft, sticky, and tooth-coloured deposit

b. hard, tenacious tooth-coloured deposit
c. transparent film forms after brushing
d. mineralized deposit on the teeth

6)What procedure involves the mechanical removal of calculus, debris, plaque and stains
on the coronal surfaces of the teeth and in the gingival sulci?

a. Coronal polishing
b. Scaling
c. Curettage
d. Oral prophylaxis
7) When removing deep stains from the occlusal surface, a/an should be used:

a. Toothbrush
b. Prophy brush
c. Prophy cup
d. None of the above .

8) Abrasives are prepared with a wetting agent:

a. To completely remove the stain from the surface

b. To produce a fluoride-rich surface
c. To reduce frictional heat during the coronal polish
d. To reduce the cost of abrasive agents

9) Reinforcement when the patient is successful and encouragement when he or she

backslides is:

a. An effective education program for the client

b. Not necessary as good oral hygiene is expected from our clients
c. Not effective and should be discouraged by all dental staff
d. A prognosis for conditions that will result from neglect.

10) Teeth, which are free of plaque, will more likely appear:

a. Smooth, shiny and reflect light

b. Matted and fur like
c. Dull dingy and reflect light
d. Smooth to the touch
e. None of the above

11) Enamel decalcification is a/an:

a. Endogenous extrinsic stain

b. Endogenous intrinsic stain
c. Exogenous intrinsic stain
d. Exogenous extrinsic stain

12) Enamel hypoplasia is an

a. endogenous extrinsic stain.

b. exogenous intrinsic stain.
c. exogenous extrinsic stain.
d. endogenous intrinsic stain.
13) For which purpose is disclosing solution NOT used?

a. identifying areas of plaque

b. desensitizing cervical surfaces
c. showing instrinsic stains
d. evaluating effectiveness of polishing

14) What is the proper equation for dental caries?

e) Calculogenic foodstuff-plaque bacteria-acid formation-dental caries

b) Demineralization-plaque bacteria-acid formation-dental caries
c) Acid formation-plaque bacteria-demineralization-dental caries
d) Carbohydrates-plaque bacteria-acid formation-demineralization-dental caries

15) When using a disclosing agent, the client would be instructed to

a. rub the excess on their lips to disclose any lesions

b. expectorate the excess
c. swallow the excess
d. brush with the excess

16) Your client has a 4 unit bridge from 4.6 to 4.3. The brushing technique(s) that you
recommend is/are:

a. Charters
b. Modified Stillman
c. Modified Bass
d. Both a and c
e. Both b and c

17) New plaque develops in:

a. minutes after brushing

b. 1 to 2 hours
c. 6 to 8 hours
d. 12 to 24 hours

18) Dietary analysis is used to help the patient understands the role of nutrition in their dental health.
Modification in the diet is suggested in positive manner never in critical terms.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. First statement is true, second statement is false.
d. First statement is false, second statement is true.
19) Damage that can result from aggressive toothbrushing includes:
a. Abrasion
b. Recession
c. Halitosis
d. A & B

20) The pH of in-office Sodium Fluoride gel or foam is: page 94

a. 3.5 pH
b. 5 pH
c. 7.0 pH
d. 8.0pH

21) What is a tenacious membranous layer that is amorphous, accelular, and organic and
forms over exposed tooth surfaces?

a. Acquired Pellicle
b. Calculus
c. Plaque
d. Materia Alba

22) Using disclosing solution and a hand mirror to allow your client to observe plaque
removal with a toothbrush demonstrates:

a. The necessity of universal selective coronal polishing

b. Areas missed during their daily plaque control
c. Their knowledge on the many types of bacteria found in plaque
d. That plaque can be removed if proper brushing techniques are used
e. Both b and d

23) The following statements are true regarding fluoride EXCEPT:

a. Fluoride supplements can be given when fluoride is not available in the water
supply
b. Initial deposition using topical fluoride is permanent
c. Boiling fluoridated water will increase the ppm ratio of fluoride
d. Fluoridated water is the least expensive way to provide caries resistance

24) Caries is an infectious and transmissible disease. The specific group of bacteria responsible for
caries is streptococcus mutans.
a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. First statement is true, second statement is false.
d. First statement is false, second statement is true.
25) The pit and fissure sealant application technique requires the following correct
sequenced procedure.

1. Polish occlusal surface of the tooth with pumic

2. Apply phosphoric acid etch according to manufacturer`s directions
3. Examine the sealed tooth to assure retention
4. Rinse and dry the occlusal tooth surface
5. Rinse and dry the tooth and apply sealant

a. 1,2,3,4,5,
b. 1,4,2,5,3
c. 1,3,2,4,5
d. 1,4,5,2,3

26) When the Ph. level drops within the mouth, the fluoride ion:

a. Will start to demineralize the tooth

b. Will precipitate to a free ion to aid in remineralization
c. Will drop the ph. even lower within the mouth
d. All of the above

27) Which of the statement is TRUE in coronal polishing?

a. the index finger must always be used as a fulcrum when polishing

b. when stains are tenacious, excessive polishing should be avoided
c. mobile teeth can be safely used as a fulcrum
d. a pen grasp is used to hold the handpiece during polishing

28) refers to the unintentional addition of fluoride to a concentrated beverage that is

reconstituted from a water supply containing fluoride

a. beneficial effect
b. halo effect
c. residual effect
d. side effect

29) Sensitive teeth should be polished with a fast rotating cup to:

a. avoid pain to the patient

b. let tooth surface absorb fluoride better
c. slow down formation of new deposits
d. none of the above
30) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding client motivation:

a. It stems from basic physiologic and social needs

b. Instruction can be effective if the patient considers oral health a valuable asset
c. Leads to success if goals are valued
d. Both a and c
e. All of the above

31) The term used to describe a program that combines patient education, fluorides, nutrition
and plaque control is referred to as:

a. Preventive Dentistry
b. A maintenance Program
c. A hygiene Program
d. Preventative Dentistry

32) Rubber tip stimulators are used for:

a. Removing biofilm around appliances

b. Removal of occlusal biofilm
c. Cleaning debris from interdental area
d. Removal of biofilm on exposed root surfaces
e.) Both c and d

33) The protein found in saliva that mixes with sugars to form bacterial plaque:

a. Amylase
b. Mucin
c. Glucans
d. Polysaccharides

34) Bacteria that produce colour or pigment is known as:

a. acidogenic
b. chromogenic
c. cariogenic
d. calculogenic

35) The following are considered extrinsic stains EXCEPT:

a. fluorosis
b. chlorhexidine stain
c. tea, betel leaf, coffee,
d. soya sauce, fungi
36) Which of the following is not part of a periodontal examination?

a. Periodontal Probing
b. Mobility
c. Radiographic Records
d. Apicoectomy

37) To help shrink tissue the following ingredient is added to mouthwash:

a. Detergents
b. Pyrophosphates
c. Astringents
d. Humectants

38) Curettage is:

a. process of smoothing and slightly contouring the root surface

b. process of removing calculus and bacteria
c. process of cleansing and removing necrotic tissue in an area
d. process of removing plaque

39) The pH of plaque before eating is:

a. 4.5 to 5.5
b. 6.0 to 6.7
c. 6.2 to 7.0
d. 7.0 - 7.8

40) Before placing the sealant, the tooth should be polished with:
a. Fine Polishing paste
b. Medium polishing paste
c. Dentifrice with fluoride
d. Pumice with water.

41) Food that contains the most amount of fluoride is:

a. Meat
b. Fish
c. Eggs
d. Fruits
42) Handling acid etch solutions and gels requires:

a. donning gloves
b. utilizing a commercial clean-up kit
c. rinsing with an emergency eye wash fountain in case of eye exposure
d. only a and c
e. all of the above

43) Chlorhexedine is a/an:

a. Endogenous extrinsic stain

b. Endogenous intrinsic stain
c. Exogenous intrinsic stain
d. Exogenous extrinsic stain

44) A good preventive maintenance schedule benefits the client by:

a. Saving them valuable dollars and chair time

b. Improving their esthetics and self esteem
c. Preventing new and recurring disease
d. All of the above

45) When the Ph. level drops within the mouth, the fluoride ion:

a. Will start to demineralize the tooth

b. Will precipitate to a free ion to aid in remineralization
c. Will drop the ph. even lower within the mouth
d. All of the above

46) Which device is used to direct a stream of water through a nozzle into the sulcus area?

a. Bridge threader
b. Oral irrigator
c. Powered toothbrush
d. Perio- aid

47) Sealants have been proven an effective way to prevent the development of
dental caries and indicated:

a. through the caries-active period (ages 6 to 15 years)

b. for teeth with deep pits and fissures
c. for some adults
d. All of the above
48) Dr. Smith just cemented a 5 unit bridge on your client and he has asked you to review the
homecare instructions with the client. This will include the use of which of the following:

a. Proxybrush
b. Charters brushing technique
c. Floss threader and dental floss
d. Superfloss
e. All of the above

49) Reducing the dental biofilm and gingivitis can be achieved by using a powerbrush for
which of the following clients:

a. Physically able patients with ineffective manual plaque removal techniques

b. Orthodontic clients
c. Aggressive brushers
d. Patients with disabilities or limited dexterity
e.) All of the above

50) The client’s medical history should be checked:

a. Prior to the coronal polish

b. Prior to the disclosing of the teeth
c. After the patient has expressed concern
d. Before any treatment is rendered

51) The most effective polishing agents are:

a. Dull, rounded, small and fine

b. Sharp, irregular shape, small and fine
c. Dull, irregular shape, large, and fine
d. Depends on the agent

52) Floss cuts and craters are caused from which of the following:

a. Using too long a piece of floss between the fingers when held for insertion
b. Snapping the floss through the contact area
c. Not curving (C-Shaping) the floss around the teeth
d. Both b and c
e. All of the above

53) Sealant placement is considered _________ procedure:

a. Preventative non-invasive
b. Preventative invasive
c. Restorative
d. Surgical.
54) In Electric Pulp Testing the following statements are true EXCEPT:

a. A thin layer of toothpaste on the tip of the electrode is placed prior to use
b. The tooth must be moistened prior to placement of the electrode
c. The electrode must be placed on the facial surface of the tooth
d. A control tooth must be tested first

55) The method of toothbrushing is recommended for orthodontic clients

and clients that have fixed bridges:

a. Fones
b. Stillman
c. Charter
d. Horizontal scrub

56) Which of the following are the effects of cleaning the tongue:

a. Reduces the number of microorganisms

b. Reduces potential for halitosis
c. Contributes to overall cleanliness
d. Slows dental biofilm formation and total biofilm accumulation
e. a and d
f. All of the above

57) Sealants may vary in:

a. their method of polymerization

b. their color
c. whether or not they contain filler
d. a and b
e. all of the above

58) Insufficient mixing of irreversible hydrocolloids impression material results in which of

the following?

a. A grainy mix and a model with poorer detail

b. An increased tear strength
c. large voids/Bubbles
d. Finer surface detail
e. A and C
59) The PSR is designed to be used on adults and not recommended for patients under
the age of 18:

a. True
b. False

60) To help control biofilm and halitosis, your patient should be instructed to brush at least
twice a day:

a. For approximately 5 minutes

b. For approximately1 to 2 minutes
c. Until all biofilm has been removed
d. The length of time spent depends on the patient’s ability and efficiency
e. Both c and d

61) Polishing each tooth usually done within_______, the more time spent for polishing, the more
abrasive effect.
a. 3-5 seconds
b. 30-40 seconds
c. 1-2 minutes
d. 3-5 minutes

62) The depression in the gingival tissue under a contact area between the lingual and the
facial papilla is known as the:

a. Embrasure
b. Col
c. Collimator
d. Floss crater

63) In plaque control instruction, what is the last decision stage the client must go through
before habits can be changed?

a. Action
b. Involvement
c. Awareness
d. Motivation

64) If DDS would extract tooth number 3.6, a dental assistant would place the topical
anesthetic on the area of :

a. Anterior superior alveolar nerve

b. Inferior alveolar nerve
c. mental nerve
d. Posterior superior alveolar nerve.
65) Nearly 84% of all cavities occur in the pits and fissures of posterior teeth.

a. True
b. False

66) An acquired pellicle:

1. Is the first sign of periodontal disease

2. Is very susceptible to intrinsic stains
3. Is removed by irrigation or rinsing
4. Forms within minutes of brushing

a) 1, 2, 3,
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 4 only

67) Concave proximal surfaces of the teeth are not accessible with the dental floss. These
areas can be reached by interproximal brushes.

a. The first statement is correct but the second statement is incorrect.

b. The first statement is incorrect but the second statement is correct.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect.

68) For extraction of tooth number 2.6, the following nerve branches are affected EXCEPT:

a. Inferior alveolar nerve

b. Middle superior alveolar nerve
c. Greater palatine nerve
d. Posterior superior alveolar nerve

69) rubber polishing cup with abrasive is used to remove:

a. Plaque from interproximal areas
b. Plaque from tongue
c. Plaque & stains from clinical crown
d. Intrinsic amalgam staining.
70) People with xerostomia should use a mouthwash with fluoride because there is an
increase in

a. periodontal disease.
b. enamel hypoplasia.
c. dental caries.
d. mucous membrane drying.

71) Teeth with very small initial lesions may be sealed, and the bacteria will not survive
under a properly placed sealant.

a. True
b. False

72) What type of tray allows for impression materials to obtain a mechanical lock?

a. Custom trays
b. Metal trays
c. Perforated trays
d. Plastic trays

73) For 3.5 root canal treatment, a dental assistant would place the topical anesthetic on the
area of :

a. Anterior superior alveolar nerve

b. Inferior alveolar nerve
c. mental nerve
d. Posterior superior alveolar nerve

74) The primary source of topical fluoride is:

a. Toothpastes
b. Foods and Beverages
c. Fluoride supplements
d. Water Fluoridation

75) Fluoride rinses should not be used with children:

a. Between the age of 10 and 14

b. Between the age of 7 and 9
c. Under six years of age
d. None of the above
76) In punching rubber dam, the largest hole on the punch plate is usually reserved for the:

a. Anchor tooth
b. Tooth to be operated
c. Anterior tooth second molar
d. Second bicuspid only

77) When a rubber dam clamp is being selected, the important thing to consider is:

a. Size of tooth
b. Shape of tooth
c. Degree of eruption
d. Mesial and distal width
e. All of the above

78) While punching the dental dam, the largest hole # 5 used for:
a. Clamped tooth
b. Maxillary anterior
c. Mandibular anterior
d. Premolars.

79) How many minutes prior to an impression tray being placed in your patients mouth
should you apply tray adhesive?

a. 2 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 10 minutes
d. 15 minutes

80) The proper stroke when using the prophy cup is:

a. Short
b. Intermittent
c. Overlapping
d. All of the above

81) Using the appropriate pressure sufficient to cause the edges of the polishing cup to flare
slightly, each tooth should be completed in approximately:

a. 1 to 2 seconds
b. 3 to 5 seconds
c. one minute
d. until stains disappear
82) What minerals are found in saliva that contribute to remineralization?

a. calcium, fluoride, material alba

b. calcium, fluoride, phosphate
c. iron, fluoride, phosphate
d. glycoprotein, fluoride, iron

83) Why would a fast set alginate be selected for taking a preliminary impression?

a. To keep the patient from talking

b. For time restriction purposes patient was late for appointment
c. Patient has a strong gag reflex
d. Patient does not like the taste

84) Dry abrasives should be applied to the tooth:

a. When the patient has stubborn stains

b. When the patient cannot tolerate the taste of the other abrasive agents
c. When the patient has tobacco stains
d. Never

85) What abrasive is used when placing enamel sealants?

a. pumice mixed with distilled water

b. dentifrice mixed with fluoride
c. pumice mixed with fluoride
d. zinc oxide mixed with fluoride

86) Sealants may vary in:

a. their method of polymerization

b. their color
c. whether or not they contain filler
d. a and b
e. all of the above

87) If tooth has been contaminated with saliva after etching, it should be:

a. rinsed throroughly and dried prior to sealant application

b. immediately dried prior to sealant application
c. dried prior to sealant application
d. re-etched, rinsed and dried prior to sealant application
88) Preparation of sealant material in advance is necessary because any delay can increase
the risk of

a. moisture contamination.
b. material contamination.
c. plaque contamination.
d. improper flowing of material.

89) Poor oral hygiene usually results in:

a. Cardiovascular disease
b. Gingivitis
c. Halitosis
d. Periodontitis
e. Both b and c

90) For extraction of tooth number 2.6, the following nerve branches are affected EXCEPT:

a. Inferior alveolar nerve

b. Middle superior alveolar nerve
c. Greater palatine nerve
d. Posterior superior alveolar nerve

91) What thickness dental dam is most frequently used for endodontic applications?

a. Heavy
b. Medium
c. Thin
d. All of the above

92) When is the in-office oral irrigator used?

a. After root planing

b. After fluoride
c. After desensitizing
d. After sealants

93) The inner force that drive people into action is called:

a. Needs
b. Motivation
c. Opinions
d. Influences
94) An adult mandibular alginate impression requires generally:
a. 2 scoops of powder & 1 measure of water
b. 2 scoops of powder & 2 measures of water
c. 3 scoops of powder & 3 measures of water
d. 3 scoops of powder & 1 measure of water.

95) Which is not a unique characteristic of calcium hydroxide?

a. protects the tooth from chemical irritation

b. produces reparative dentin
c. compatible with all restorative materials
d. replaces the need for a dentin sealer

96) When using an impregnated gingival retraction cord on a heart patient, the appropriate choice
would be one impregnated with the chemical:

a. epinephrine
b. aluminum chloride
c. aluminum dioxide
d. all of the above

97) What is a finger rest?

a. Position
b. Location
c. Fulcrum
d. Stabilization

98) To provide a seal against moisture leakage, the edges of the holes in the rubber dam are:

a. Stretched
b. Proximal seal
c. Inverted
d. Occlusal crimped

99) During dental dam punching, if the arch is punched too flat or too wide, it will result in:

a. bunching and stretching of the dam on the lingual aspect

b. folds and stretching of the dam on the facial aspect
c. leakage during restorative procedure
d. improved moisture control
100)To prevent patient from gagging during impression taking, you should:

a. tip the patient’s head back

b. use fast-set alginate
c. instruct patient to breathe through the nose
d. use warm water to mix the alginate

101)Which one of the following is not a contraindication of an air-powered polishing

techniques (prophy-jet) on a client?

a. Restricted sodium diet

b. Communicable disease
c. Removing stain
d. Respiratory disease

102)What position is a left handed operator seated when performing a coronal polish?

a. 3 to 4 o’clock
b. 8 to 9 o’clock
c. 1 to 2 o’clock
d. 11 to 12 o’clock
e. a or c

103)Why should a bristle brush and abrasive NOT be used on cementum or dentin?

a. It is stained by the abrasive

b. It is sensitive to the abrasive
c. It is soft and easily grooved
d. It will cause attrition

104)In case of accidental fluoride swallowing in your office, you should:

a. call 911
b. induce vomitting
c. rinse patient’s mouth thoroughly
d. give patient warm salt water rinse

105)When SHOULD clients that require antibiotic premedication have their

impressions scheduled?

a. In the morning after taking aspirin

b. In the afternoon after taking an aspirin and an antibiotic
c. When the client has completed the entire antibiotic prescribed
d. When the client has received antibiotic coverage for other procedures
106)Prior to a preliminary impression being transported to the lab to pour up what step
will have needed to be completed.

a. Left on a patient tray to dry completely.

b. Immersed in a disinfectant solution.
c. Placed in a rubber bowl filled with cold water
d. Rinsed, disinfected and wrapped in a moist paper towel and placed in a bag.

107)The is made up of the structures that surround, support, and are attached to the
teeth.

a. cementum
b. alveolar bone
c. periodontal ligament
d. periodontium

108)Why does a client use a mouth rinse prior to an alginate impression?

a. To raise the surface tension

b. To prevent gagging
c. To distract the client
d. To obtain a rougher alginate
e. a and c

109)When taking a mandibular impression, what position would a right handed

operator stand?

a. 4 o’clock
b. 6 o’clock
c. 8 o’clock
d. 11 o’clock

110)A CDA licensed in British Columbia is legally able to obtain which of the following?

a. Final impression
b. Irreversible hydrocolloid
c. Bite registration
d. b and c
e. None of the above

111)What MUST be considered when selecting a tray to take a maxillary impression?

a. Allow 1/2-inch clearance (12 millimetres)

b. Allow 1/4-inch clearance (6 millimetres)
c. Allow coverage for the retromolar area
d. Allow coverage of they mylohyoid ridge
112)When taking a maxillary alginate impression, what position is the client?

a. Slightly reclined position with the chin tilted upward

b. Upright position with head tilted forward
c. Upright position with head tilted back
d. Supine position

113)To ensure that the alginate impression material remains firmly attached in the tray during
removal from the mouth, what type of tray is used?

a. Water-cooled tray
b. Perforated rim-lock tray
c. Custom-made compound tray
d. Styrofoam disposable tray

114)Stimulation of client motivation stems from:

1. Educational needs
2. Client’s unawareness
3. Psychological needs
4. Social needs

a. 1, 2 ,3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4

115)According to Maslow’s theory, the need to develop to our fullest potentialities, capacity
and our desire for self-fulfillment is known as

a. esteem
b. safety and security
c. self-actualization
d. physiological need

116)According to Maslow’s theory, our need for self-worth, confidence, strength,

capability, adequacy and usefulness is known as

a. esteem
b. safety and security
c. love and belonging
d. self-actualization
117)When would you re-evaluate the Oral Hygiene Instruction methods given to the patient?

a. The following day

b. The following week
c. When the client feels the need
d. At the next recall appointment

118)A tofflemire matrix prepared for tooth 2-4, also can be used on teeth in which
other quadrant?

a. Maxillary left
b. Mandibular right
c. Maxillary right
d. Mandibular left

119)Plaque can be cariogenic since it harbors strain of streptococci.

a. True
b. False

120)Flour of pumice should be moist when used to polish tooth surfaces because

a. wet agents abrade faster than dry agents.

b. wet agents are more abrasive than dry agents.
c. wet agents cause less frictional heat than do dry agents.
d. wetting causes alteration of particle size.

121)What is the BEST method to evaluate the client’s daily procedures for plaque control?

a. Discuss the method used with the client

b. Have the client demonstrate the method practiced
c. Check the client’s teeth by use of a mouth mirror
d. Disclose and evaluate the amount of plaque present

122)What information SHOULD a 35-year-old client be given that has been free of
carious lesions and asks why plaque removal is necessary?

a. Older age is a factor, and the client will be more vulnerable to the effects of
plaque accumulation on tooth surfaces.
b. They probably have been lucky up until this time and he could be susceptible to
cemental caries.
c. The bacteria in the plaque mass are capable of causing infection in other areas of
the body.
d. Plaque irritates soft tissue and causes gingival irritation, which leads to
periodontal disease.
 123)A condition call will result if an alginate impression absorbs additional water by
being stored in water or in a very wet paper towel

a. imbibition
b. syneresis
c. hydrocolloid
d. polymerization

FOR QUESTIONS 124-125 READ THE FOLLOWING

Jillian is a 45-year-old woman who has been complaining of food "getting caught"
between her teeth. As she is speaking with you, she is pointing her finger towards
the molar area of her mouth and explains that she has been brushing regularly but has not
been flossing. You take a look in Jillian’s mouth and notice she has fixed bridgework
in the posterior area with indications of toothbrush scrubbing.

124)As a Dental Professional, what brushing self-care instructions WOULD be helpful

to Jillian?

a. Scrub brushing is the only method

b. Better tooth brushing technique
c. Change toothbrushes
d. Use a single-tuft brush

125)What SHOULD be used to clean under Jillian’s bridges?

a. Wooden stim-u-dent
b. End -tuft brush
c. Floss wand and floss
d. Floss threader and floss

126)Initial instruction for most new patients will be:

a. Toothbrushing methods
b. Personal biofilm removal
c. Flossing
d. All of the above

127)18. The two basic forms of periodontal disease are .

a. gingivitis and calculus

b. calculus and plaque
c. plaque and periodontitis
d. gingivitis and periodontitis
128)What factors are most frequently responsible for a client adopting good dental health
practices?

a. Logic
b. Rational explanations
c. Unconscious impulses
d. Acquisition of knowledge

129)Topical anesthetic is used EXCEPT:

a. Patients with strong gag reflex

b. For temporary numbing effect on the mucosa before local anesthetic
administration
c. Main pain control in dentistry
d. None of the above.

130)What type of anesthetic solution mainly used for topical anesthetic:

a. Amides
b. Amine
c. Ester
d. vasoconstrictor

131)Which of the following are characteristics of gingivitis?

a. difficult to treat and control

b. loss of connective tissue
c. loss of bone
d. inflammation of gingival tissue

132)What are the recommended servings for fruit and vegetables from The Canadian
Food Guide?

a. 1- 2
b. 3 - 5
c. 4 - 12
d. 6 - 10

133)The uses for the Periodontal Probe listed below is all true EXCEPT:

a. Measure 6 points around a tooth

b. In a walking motion
c. Calibrated in mm.
d. None of the above
134)Ascorbic Acid or Vitamin C can be found in

a. table salt.
b. citrus fruit.
c. meat.
d. yeast.

135)Which of the following are the four major signs of inflammation?

1. Redness
2. Edema
3. Bleeding
4. Heat
5. Pain

a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3,5
c) 1,2,4,5
d) 2,3,4,5

136)The best suited agent to reduce the amount of plaque and gingivitis is:

a. Chlorohexadine
b. Tetracycline
c. Ibuproferin
d. Antihistamine

137)Clamps should be ligated with:

a. Tape
b. Wax
c. Floss
d. The daisy chain

138) Calcium hydroxide stimulates the production of secondary dentin.

Dental varnish is contraindicated for tooth coloured restorations.

a. Both statements are true

b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
139)Jeremy presents himself in your office for a 6 month recall. Upon examination the doctor
notices that the gingiva is inflamed around the buccal molars with heavy deposits of
plaque. What SHOULD your advice be to Jeremy?

a. Removing the plaque will raise the Ph level

b. To change the type of toothbrush he uses
c. Plaque is full of bacteria and is an irritant to the gums
d. Surgery will be necessary to remove the plaque

140)A periodontal dressing is not needed if the dentist does a great job putting on the
suture. ZOE dressing is commonly used because it has fast setting time.

a. Both statements are true

b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true

141)The patient needs to schedule to return to have the sutures removed after approximately
five to seven days.
After the suture removal, the dental assistant should count the sutures that have been
removed, and compare the number with the number indicated on the patient’s chart.

a. Both statements are true

b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.

142)Gingival recession is one of the following potential side effects of bleaching agents
that may a patient experience.
The gingival tissue should be checked after whitening agents are used.

a. Both statements are true

b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true

143)Drying the topical anesthetic site using gauze allows the ointment to penetrate the
surface area better.
The effectiveness of topical anesthetic can last up to 3-5 hours.

a. Both statements are true

b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
d. The first statement is false and the second statement is true.
144)What astringent can be applied to a retraction cord to control bleeding?

a. hydrogen peroxide
b. hemodent
c. disinfectant
d. Coumadin

145)The major role of a Level II dental assistant in a preventive dentistry appointment is

a. client education.
b. occlusal equilibration.
c. clinical examination.
d. appointment setting.

146)When should the ligature be tied to the dental dam clamp?

a. Before trying in the patients mouth for selection

b. After trying in the patients mouth for selection but before the dam placement
c. Use of the ligature depends only on the operator’s preference
d. Use of the ligature depends only on the patient’s preference

147)The microorganism that plays the major role in caries development and progression is:

a. Actinomycetes
b. Lactobacilli
c. Stretptococcus mutans
d. Staphyloccocus mutans

148)Tofflemire retainer and wedges are used for a

a. class I restoration.
b. class II restoration.
c. class V restoration.
d. class VI restorations.

149)The following are indications for sealant placement EXCEPT:

a. low caries risk patients

b. patients undergoing radiation therapy
c. newly erupted teeth
d. pit and fissure is deep and irregular
 150)How far SHOULD the tofflemire band extend below the gingival margin?

a. 2.5 millimetres
b. 1.5 millimetres
c. 0.5 millimetres
d. 3.5 millimetres

151 Prior to a preliminary impression being transported to the lab to pour up what step
will have needed to be completed.

a) Left on a patient tray to dry completely.

b) Immersed in a disinfectant solution.
c) Placed in a rubber bowl filled with cold water
d) Rinsed, disinfected and wrapped in a moist paper towel and placed in a bag

152. Which matrix is used without a retainer for an amalgam restoration?

a) Strip
b) Shell
c) Tofflemire
d) Auto Matrix

153. Prior to sealant placement the surface must be etched for a minimum of 10 seconds,
but not longer than 60 seconds.

a) The first statement is true, the second is false

b) The first statement is false, the second is true
c) Both statements are true
d) Both statements are false

154. Which of the following is not among the most commonly used bleaching agents?

a) Sodium perobate
b) Sodium bicarbonate
c) Hydrogen peroxide
d) Carbamide peroxide

155. A high spot on a sealant can be adjusted by a dentist through the use of a:

a) Round cutting bur

b) Green stone
c) Finishing bur
d) Sandpaper disc
CASE STUDY: (Questions 156 - 159)

Mrs. Smith 75 years old who is complaining of a dry mouth. She had a heart transplant
eight months ago and is presently taking anti-rejection drugs. She is scheduled for restorative
work and a prophylaxis.

156. Which appointment should be scheduled first?

a) Restorative Appointment
b) Prophylaxis Appointment

157. The medication prescribed by the dentist prior to his prophylaxis appointment would be:

a) Nystatin
b) Penicillin
c) Corticosteroids
d) Aspirin

158. Why is a prescribed medication necessary for Mrs. Smith?

a) Prevention of gingivitis
b) Prevention of a fungal infection
c) Prevention of endocarditis
d) Prevention of hepatitis

159. The appropriate advice that a Level II dental assistant may provide to [Link] would
be:

1) Chlorhexidine rinse
2) Review his brushing & flossing technique
3) Suggest a saliva substitute
4) She could do a scaling to remove calculus
5) Review her diet

a) 2, 3, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) All of the above

160. All of the following statements are true regarding fluoride varnish EXCEPT:

a) Fluoride varnish are permanent because it retains longer

b) Fluoride varnish sets rapidly in the presence of saliva
c) Teeth will look yellow until varnish is thoroughly removed
d) Patients should avoid brushing teeth for at least 4 hours after application
161. Petroleum Jelly should not be used for lubricating the rubber dam because

a) It interferes with setting of certain dental materials

b) It breaks down the latex in the dam material
c) Prevents excessive salivation
d) Both a and b
e) All of the above

162. During a dietary counseling appointment, the client tells the dental assistant that her
gums are “weak” and bleeds easily. What dietary deficiency would most likely cause
this?

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin D
d) Calcium

CASE STUDY: (Questions 163 - 171)

Paula has just graduated from a dental assisting program and is beginning to job search. Paula’s
local newspaper presented the following advertisement.
“Dental Assistant wanted, must have professional attitude, be a team worker and willing to
learn. Experience an asset but not necessary. Please contact Dr. T. Jones, 555-5972.”
Paula prepares her resume and looks up Dr. Jones’ address in the “Yellow Pages” of
the telephone book. Dr. Jones has a general dentistry practice, but also does a great
deal of endodontics and orthodontics.

163. Paula’s first contact with Dr. Jones’ office should be

a) to mail her resume complete with a cover.

b) a telephone call.
c) an interview.
d) to present herself to the office requesting to see Dr. Jones.

164. During the interview, Dr. Jones states that he would like his new assistant to take on the
responsibility of the placement of gutta percha endodontic points in the canal. If Paula
accepts this as part of her job description, she would be violating the

a) Principles of due care.

b) Health and Welfare Canada Safety Code 30.
c) Acts of Omission.
d) Code of Ethics.
165. Dr. Jones explained that in his practice he treats many TMJ cases. He asked Paula if she
knew the names of the two bones that form this joint. Paula’s response should be

a) temporal and mandible.

b) temporalis and mandible.
c) temporal and maxilla.
d) temporalis and malleus

166. Dr. Jones uses amalgam to restore posterior teeth. He asks Paula how she would store
scrap amalgam. Paula’s response should be

a) in a 100% bleach solution.

b) under water in a tightly closed container.
c) in a well ventilated area.
d) in a glass container filled with developer solution.

167. Dr. Jones new client examination includes the recording of vital signs. When asked over
which artery is used for taking the pulse rate, Paula’s response should be

a) pulmonary artery.
b) carotid artery
c) radial artery
d) brachial artery

168. During the interview, Dr. Jones gave Paula a short list of names to organize using the
rules for alphabetical filing. Paula’s response should be

a) Cain, Edwin; Cain, E; McDonald, Sandra; McDonald, Susan; MacDonald, Susan;

Stanko, Patricia; St. Pierre, Alan.
b) Cain, E; Cain, Edwin; MacDonald, Susan; McDonald, Sandra; McDonald, Susan;
St. Pierre, Alan; Stanko, Patricia.
c) Cain, E; Cain, Edwin; MacDonald, Susan; McDonald, Susan; McDonald, Sandra;
Stanko, Patricia; St. Pierre, Alan.
d) Cain, E; Cain, Edwin; MacDonald, Susan; Mc Donald, Sandra; McDonald, Susan;
Stanko, Patricia; St. Pierre, Alan.

169. Dr. Jones stressed that he expected accuracy in the lab as well as in the operatory. He
told Paula that the three essential factors that one should pay strict attention to while
making diagnostic casts are

a) water temperature, temperature of gypsum and force of mixing.

b) water to powder ratio, mixing time and water temperature.
c) force of mixing, length of vibration and water temperature.
d) water to powder ratio, temperature of gypsum and force of mixing.
170. Dr. Jones expects his dental assistants to expose radiographs during endodontic
procedures. Proper criteria for quality endodontic radiographs are

1. the tooth is centered on the film.

2. at least 5 mm of bone beyond the apex of the tooth is visible.
3. The film is placed horizontally to accommodate the root.
4. The image is as anatomically correct as possible.

a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
c) 1, 2, and 4
d) 2, 3, and 4

171. Considering the nature of Dr. Jones’ practice, what types of radiographs would
Paula most likely be expected to handle?

a) Periapical
b) Panoramic and cephalometric
c) panoramic, periapical and cephalometric
d) periapical and tomograms

CASE STUDY: (Questions 172 - 176)

Abby calls the dental office concerned about sensitivity on tooth 3-3 that comes and goes. She
asks if the dentist, Dr Roger, missed a “cavity” at her last “check-up”. Following an
examination, Dr. Roger diagnoses the cause of Abby’s sensitivity to be gingival recession and
abrasion of the root surface. Abby is pleased that her new employer provides dental insurance
coverage.

172. Abby’s tooth sensitivity is most likely the result of

1. brushing with too abrasive a toothpaste.

2. brushing with too hard a toothbrush.
3. chewing and sucking hard candy for extended periods of time.
4. overuse of strong mouthwash.
5. trauma, such as a blow to the tooth.

a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
173. Abby’s discomfort on tooth 3-3 is due to exposed

a) dentogingival fibers
b) dentinal tubules
c) enamel rods
d) pulpal tubules

174. Home treatment for Abby may include the use of a

1) desensitizing toothpaste
2) hydrogen peroxide rinse
3) fluoride mouth rinse
4) soft bristled toothbrush

a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 2, 3, and 4

175. Regarding Abby’s dental insurance, the term CARRIER refers to

a) Abby.
b) Abby’s employer.
c) Abby’s insurance company.
d) Person to whom insurance payment is assigned.

176. Information regarding Abby’s treatment is confidential. This information may be

released only with

a) Abby’s insurance company’s written consent.

a) Abby’s written consent.
b) Abby’s previous dentist’s written consent.
c) Dr. Roger’s written consents.

CASE STUDY: (Questions 177 - 178)

Mr. Wong a 27 year old, seeking dental care, notes on the medical history as having hepatitis in
his teens. The dental assistant is not concerned about contacting hepatitis because she has had an
immunization.
177. The appropriate treatment for Mr. Wong is to

a) Limit dental treatment to emergency treatment only.

b) limit dental treatment to preventive treatment only.
c) provide no intraoral treatment until client has blood test.
d) proceed with treatment following current infection control guidelines.

178. The vaccine that the dental assistant received provides immunity for

a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis C
d) a and b
e) all of the above

CASE STUDY: (Questions 179 - 180)

A 24-year-old male client with poor oral hygiene and under emotional stress presents with
clinical signs of ulceration of the marginal gingiva and interdental papilla. He is a heavy smoker.

179. This condition is known as

a) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

b) acute herpetic gingivostomatitis
c) acute periodontal abscess
d) acute periocoronitis

180. Appropriate treatment for this client should include

a) improve home care through gentle brushing and mouth rinsing with warm
water or hydrogen peroxide
b) improve home care and plaque control through aggressive scaling and curettage
c) surgical removal of diseased tissue
d) instruction not to brush and floss until the gingiva has had time to heal

CASE STUDY: (Questions 181 - 186)

Darcy, age 7 years, falls down the stairs while playing at a friend’s house. He fractures tooth 1.1
and tooth 2.1 is knocked out completely. Darcy is immediately transported to the hospital dental
department for treatment. Clinical examination of Darcy’s injury reveals an extensive fracture to
tooth 1.1 with pulpal exposure.
181. A permanent tooth that is avulsed should be replanted immediately. Greatest success is
likely if replanted within

a) 30 minutes.
b) 45 minutes.
c) 60 minutes.
d) 90 minutes.

182. Fractures of anterior teeth are classified according to degree of severity. The injury to
tooth 1.1 would be classified as

a) Class I
b) Class II
c) Class III
d) Class IV

183. How should Darcy’s avulsed tooth be stored until replanted?

a) Wrap the tooth in dry, sterile gauze

b) Keep in oral fluids inside the cheek
c) Store in diluted sodium hypochlorite
d) Store in fluoridated mouth rinse

184. Tooth 2.1 is replanted and stabilized with the use of

a) a custom-fit mouth guard.

b) silicone occlusal registration material.
c) acrylic splint.
d) temporary cement.

185. A temporary restoration is placed on tooth 1.1 following treatment of the pulp. The
restoration of choice is . (Tooth is not fractured)

a) zinc oxide eugenol.

b) stainless steel crown.
c) acrylic temporary crown.
d) porcelain veneer.

186. The root of Darcy’s tooth 1.1 has an open apex, as the apical constriction is not complete.
The procedure of choice would be

a) pulpectomy.
b) apexogenesis.
c) root canal therapy.
d) apicoectomy.
CASE STUDY: (Questions 187 - 192)

Mr. Pender, age 75, calls the dental office with a dental emergency. He has fractured tooth 4.6.
Upon clinical examination, gingival recession, cervical abrasion and numerous root caries are
observed. While reviewing the medical history, Mary, the dental assistant records medical
conditions of rheumatoid arthritis and diabetes.

187. Due to Mr. Pender’s reduced manual dexterity, Mary may suggest the need for using a/an

a) waxed dental floss

b) wool for flossing
c) modified toothbrush handle
d) antimicrobial mouth rinse to replace brushing

188. Cervical abrasion and gingival recession are often problems that geriatric clients exhibit.
The recommended toothbrushing technique that concentrates on the cervical area is

a) Fones.
b) Bass sulcular.
c) Horizontal scrub.
d) Rolling stones.

189 While treating tooth 4.6, Mr. Pender becomes less responsive and loses consciousness.
Mary is unsure whether Mr. Pender is suffering from diabetic coma or insulin shock.
After calling for emergency help, Mary should

a) administer insulin to Mr. Pender.

b) place sugar inside Mr. Pender’s lower lip.
c) break an ampoule of ammonia spirits and waft gently under Mr. Pender’s nostrils.
d) offer 4 oz. of orange juice or sweetened soda drink to Mr. Pender.

190. Mr. Pender will be reappointed for a dental prophylaxis to remove the mineralized
deposit and restore the teeth and gingiva to a healthier state. This deposit is known as

a) acquired pellicle
b) materia alba
c) bacterial plaque
d) calculus
191. To assist with the oral hygiene instruction Mary will use a disclosing agent to identify
deposits on the teeth prior to brushing. The attached mass of bacteria and cellular debris
is called

a) acquired pellicle.
b) materia alba.
c) bacterial plaque.
d) calculus.

192. During Mr. Pender’s oral hygiene instruction, Mary stresses the importance of tooth
brushing to remove acid-producing bacterial deposits from the tooth surface. These
deposits attach to the naturally occurring colourless film called

a) acquired pellicle.
b) material alba.
c) bacterial plaque.
d) calculus.

CASE STUDY: (Questions 193 - 199)

Mr. Ivan has arrived for his 10:30 am bridge preparation appointment and the dental assistant
seats him in the treatment room. After the dentist has administered the local anesthetic, the
dental assistant takes an alginate impression of the lower left quadrant. Mr. Ivan’s teeth 3.4 and
3.7 are missing and his tooth 3.8 has drifted into the tooth 3.7 position. He is having a bridge
fabricated that will span from teeth 3.3 to 3.8 Mr. Ivan’s insurance company provides him with
80% benefit toward this treatment.

193. In which direction has Mr. Ivan’s tooth 3.8 drifted?

a) Distally
b) Mesially
c) Lingually
d) Labially

194. What type of temporary restoration is indicated in Mr. Ivan’s case?

a) ZOE
b) Preformed aluminum
c) Custom acrylic
d) Porcelain fused to metal
195. Mr. Ivan’s temporary bridge should be cemented with

a) polycarboxylate cement.
b) ZOE cement.
c) zinc phosphate cement.
d) glass ionomer cement.

196. How many units will Mr. Ivan’s bridge consist of?

a) 2 units
b) 3 units
c) 4 units
d) 5 units

197. The term used to describe Mr. Ivan’s final bridge is a

a) removable partial prosthesis.

b) fixed prosthesis.
c) provisional prosthesis.
d) removable complete prosthesis.

198. The 20% of the fee NOT covered by Mr. Ivan’s insurance company is termed

a) co-payment
b) deductible
c) coordination of benefits
d) exclusion

199. At what point in Mr. Ivan’s treatment schedule would financial arrangements be made?

a) Immediately following his preparation appointment

b) Just prior to his insert appointment
c) Prior to the preparation appointment
d) Immediately following completion of the treatment

200. Which one of the following sets of items must be included when a fixed prosthetic case
is sent to the dental lab?

a) Preliminary impressions, bite registration, lab prescription, articulator

b) Study models, bite registration, final impression, and lab prescription
c) Study models, final impression lab prescription, die
d) Study models, was bite, articulator, final impression