Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 1 of 30

D 1. Ammoniated mercury is also known as:

a. calomel b. corrosive sublimate c. lunar caustic d. white precipitate

C 2. The rays which have no mass and no charge but of very high energy and excellent penetrating
power:
a. alpha b. beta c. gamma d. x-ray

D 3. Antacids that cause “rebound” hyperacidity are:

a. Mg(OH)2 & Al(OH)2 b. Na2CO3 c. NA2S2O3 & MgSO4 d. NaHCO3 & CaCO3

A 4. Evolves a gas with a fruity odor when treated with concentrated sulfuric acid and ethanol:
a. acetate b. chlorate c. sulfate d. silicate

A 5. A buffer system that has been modified to include NaCl to make it isotonic with physiologic
fluid:
a. Sorensen phosphate buffer c. Feldman’s buffer
b. Gifford’s buffer d. Atkin & Pentin buffer

B 6. An orange-red sulfide insoluble in NH3 but soluble in excess (NH4)2S:

a. CdS b. Sb2S3 c. HgS d. MnS

B 7. “Artificial Air” is used therapeutically to alleviate difficult respiration and contains:

a. 60% oxygen & 40% helium c. 20% helium & 80% oxygen
b. 20% oxygen & 80% helium d. 40% helium & 60% oxygen

B 8. A mixture composed chiefly of potassium polysulfide and potassium thiosulfate:

a. sulfur lac b. sulfurated potash c. sublimed sulfur d. washed sulfur

C 9. The energy required to remove an electron from a neutral atom is:

a. electron affinity b. kinetic energy c. ionization potential d. electrical energy

A 10. These elements form basic anhydrides except one:

a. S b. Na c. Mg d. Ca

B 11. Simethicone-containing antacids contain simethicone as:

a. antacid b. antiflatulent c. antifoaming agent d. protective

A 12. This element is used as a glucose tolerance factor:

a. Cr b. Si c. Mg d. Mn

C 13. The first element produced artificially is:

a. Rn b. Ta c. Tc d. Pt

A 14. The reason why BaSO4 can be used or taken internally without causing any toxicity is that:
a. it does not dissociate in the GIT c. the GI fluids can neutralize it
b. it is soluble in the GIT d. it does not reach the GIT since it is a powerful emetic

D 15. Acids have the following properties except:

a. sour taste b. donor of protons c. neutralize bases d. pH above 7

B 16. Drug of choice to combat systemic acidosis:

a. KHCO3 b. NaHCO3 c. Na2CO3 d. K2CO3

B 17. This metal, in the form of thin foil, is used as a protective for burn treatment due to its property of conserving fluids
and of stimulating tissue growth;
a. Sn b. Al c. Zn d. Pd

B 18. Both iron and copper are found in which respiratory enzyme:
a. trisinase b. cytochrome oxidase c. peroxide d. oxidase

E 19. Plaster of Paris is chemically:

a. CaO c. CaSO4.1 1/2H2O e. (CaSO4)2 H2O
b. CaSO4 d. CaSO4.2 H2O f. (CaSO4)2.H2O

E 20. The gas considered officially as pharmaceutical inhalant:

a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide e. all of the above
b. nitrous oxide d. a & b only

D 21. Also known as salt-forming group of elements are the:

a. alkali metals c. chalcogen e. coinage metals
b. alkaline earth metals d. halogens
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 2 of 30
B 22. The major side effect from the use of barium sulfate suspension as radiopaque is:
a. diarrhea b. constipation c. vomiting d. dizziness

C 23. The alum silicate which is antidiarrheal:

a. pumice b. bentonite c. kaolin d. attapulgite e. calamine

C 24. Fehling’s & Benedict’s reagent, used to determine the presence of reducing sugars contain which salt:
a. CaSO4 b. NiSO4 c. CuSO4 d. MgSO4 e. SrSO4

B 25. Substance added to glass to improve its coefficient of expansion:

a. MnO2 b. B c. K d. Pb

D 26. Which vitamin enhance the physiological utilization of Ca in the body?

a. Vitamin B12 b. Vitamin C c. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D e. Vitamin E

B 27. A thyroid disorder known as goiter is caused by the lack of:

a. calcium b. iodine c. sodium d. potassium

A 28. Salts of these alkaline metals are used as sedative depressant in psychiatry:
a. lithium b. iridium c. potassium d. calcium

C 29. The element present in hemoglobin of the blood which plays an important role in red blood
cell-oxygen transport is:
a. Ca b. Mg c. Fe d. P

A 30. Besides activated charcoal and tannic acid, the other component of universal antidote is:
a. MgO b. MgCO3 c. Mg3(PO4)2 d. MgCl2 e. Mg(OH)2

B 31. In the form of its salt, this ion is essential to life being the structural basis of skeleton, an important factor in blood
coagulation:
a. Mg b. Ca c. Zn d. PO4

D 32. This element is present in insulin:

a. Cu b. Fe c. Mg d. Zn e. Co

D 33. Oxygen and ozone are:

a. isotopes b. isobars c. polymorphs d. allotropes

C 34. Softest mineral known:

a. calamine b. kaolin c. talc d. bentonite e. silica

A 35. A 10 volume hydrogen peroxide is equivalent to ______% H 2O2:

a. 3% b. 9% c. 20% d. 30%

B 36. Mineral chameleon is the synonym of the powerful oxidizing agent:

a. NaI b. KMnO4 c. MnO2 d. KNO3

B 37. This ion is used very effectively as astringent, protective and antiperspirant:
a. Mg b. Al c. Zn d. Cu

C 38. Strong iodine solution contains KI for the purpose of:

a. preservation b. reducing agent c. preventing precipitation d. none of the above

D 39. Prepared chalk or precipitated chalk is chemically known as:

a. MgCO3 b. Na2CO3 c. Ca3(PO4)2 d. CaCO3

B 40. Rochelle salt which is used as a cathartic and also as sequestering agent is:
a. KHC4H4O6 b. NaKC4H4O6 c. KSbOC4H4O6 d. Na2C4H4O6

C 41. A metal which is unaffected by body fluids and attaches itself to bones, is now used in surgical repairs of bones,
nerves and muscles:
a. aluminum b. iron c. tantalum d. tin

D 42. Blue vitriol, an effective astringent and emetic is chemically:

a. FeSO4-7H2O b. CaCl2 c. CU(C2H3O2)2 d. CuSO4 5H2O

B 43. All of the following ions are present in the intracellular fluids except:
a. K+ b. Na+ c. Mg 2+ d. HPO4-3

C 44. Bordeaux mixture used as fungicide contains:

a. selenium sulfide b. magnesium sulfate c. cupric sulfate d. silver nitrate
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 3 of 30
A 45. Calomel is:
a. HgCl b. HgCl2 c. stannous fluoride d. ZnCl

D 46. Amalgams are alloys of

a. iron b. zinc c. copper d. mercury

D 47. The most electronegative element in the periodic table is:

a. sulfur b. oxygen c. chlorine d. fluorine

C 48. White vitriol is referred to:

a. CuSO4-5H2O b. FeSO4-7H2O c. ZnSO4-7H2O d. H2SO4

D 49. Saltpeter, a meat preservative is the synonym for:

a. KNO2 b. NaNO3 c. NaNO2 d. KNO3

A 50. Most abundant and essential of all elements:

a. oxygen b. silicon c. hydrogen d. nitrogen

B 51. The following are aluminum salts except:

a. alum b. borax c. kaolin d. pumice

D 52. Electrolyte replenisher in dehydration:

a. sodium iodide c. sodium bromide e. sodium sulfate
b. potassium iodide d. sodium chloride

A 53. Cream of tartar is:

a. potassium bitartrate b. sodium bitartrate c. KCl d. sodium carbonate

C 54. Employed topically as astringent and protectant in ointment:

a. HgS b. CdO c. ZnO d. HgO

D 55. A substance which takes up water or moisture but does not dissolve is:
a. dehydrating agent b. deliquescent c. efflorescent d. hygroscopic

D 56. Ammonia is used as:

a. anesthetic b. expectorant c. respiratory depressant d. respiratory stimulant

D 57. To kill microorganism in inanimate objects we simply used:

a. antiseptic b. corrosive c. disinfectant d. sterilization

A 58. Laughing gas is a:

a. general anesthetic b. caustic c. disinfectant d. local anesthetic

C 59. Increases osmotic load of the GIT:

a. bulk-forming laxative b. emollient laxative c. saline cathartic d. stimulant laxative

C 60. Inert gas with anesthetic properties:

a. argon b. helium c. krypton d. neon

A 61. The ion that gives a Turnbulls’ blue precipitate with potassium ferricyanide:
a. ferrous b. ferric c. cobalt d. nickel

B 62. It forms white precipitate with HCl but blackens upon addition of ammonium hydroxide:
a. cupric b. mercurous c. plumbous d. silver

D 63. The ion that gives a purple solution with sodium bismuthate:
a. cobalt b. ferrous c. ferric d. manganese

A 64. Which of the following is a native of hydrous magnesium silicate:

a. talc b. pumice c. kaolin d. bentonite

A 65. The ion that gives a Prussian blue precipitate with potassium ferrocyanide:
a. ferric b. ferrous c. cobalt d. nickel

B 66. The mechanism of action in the use of carbon as anti-diarrheal is:

a. absorption b. adsorption c. precipitation d. oxidation

A 67. Physiologically inert substances added to the main component of the tablet so it will be convenient to swallow are
termed as:
a. diluent b. lubricant c. surfactants d. thickening agent

D 68. Some of the uses of astringent are:

a. anti-perspirant b. caustic c. styptic d. all of these
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 4 of 30
D 69. Best radiopharmaceutical agent for bone imaging:
a. Tc99m IDA b. Tc99m albumin colloid c. Tc99m Ferpentate d. Tc99m etidronate

C 70. All of the following are mechanisms of anti-microbial action, except:

a. oxidation b. halogenation c. hydrolysis d. precipitation

A 71. The ion that gives a white precipitate with HCl which is soluble in excess ammonium hydroxide but reprecipitated
upon addition of nitric acid:
a. silver b. plumbous c. mercurous d. cupric

D 72. The ion that gives positive result to Rinman’s Green Test:
a. aluminum b. chromium c. manganese d. zinc

C 73. According to this law, the rate of the reaction is proportional to the product of the concentrate of the reactants to the
power of its coefficient in a balanced equation:
a. Law of Conservation of Mass c. Law of Mass Action
b. Law of Definite Proportion d. Le Chatelier’s Principle

B 74. An agent that loses one or more electrons in a redox reaction:

a. oxidizing agent b. reducing agent c. catalyst d. inhibitor

C 75. Nickel ion in solution is colored:

a. colorless b. blue c. green d. yellow

A 76. Describes a process or reaction that absorbs heat:

a. endothermic b. exothermic c. miscible d. immiscible

B 77. Aluminum reagent is chemically known as:

a. aluminum salt of carboxylic acid c. aluminum salt of tricarboxylic acid
b. aluminum salt of aurintricarboxylic acid d. none of the above

B 78. The ion that produces an intense blue colored solution with an excess ammonia and a reddish brown precipitate with
potassium ferrocyanide:
a. cuprous b. cupric c. cadmium d. zinc

A 79. The ion that gives positive result to Thenard’s Blue Test:
a. aluminum b. chromium c. manganese d. zinc

B 80. The ion that gives a yellow precipitate with NaOH and scarlet red precipitate with an excess KI:
a. mercurous b. mercuric c. plumbous d. bismuth

A 81. The following can cause a shift of equilibrium except:

a. catalyst b. concentration c. pressure d. temperature

A 82. They are called the “soluble group”:

a. alkali metals b. alkaline earth metals c. aluminum-iron group d. silver group

A 83. In the cation analysis, group I ions are often called:

a. insoluble chloride group c. soluble sulfide group
b. soluble chloride group d. insoluble sulfide group

B 84. In semi-micro procedures, the process of filtration is replaced by the use of:
a. vacuum b. centrifuge c. buchner funnel d. all of the above

A 85. It shows a similar properties to that of sodium and potassium:

a. ammonium b. barium c. calcium d. magnesium

A 86. A state in which the rate of forward and reverse reactions are the same:
a. chemical equilibrium b. equilibrium c. bond length d. bond order

B 87. A rule that states that when a stress is applied to a system in equilibrium, the equilibrium shifts to relieve the stress:
a. Law of Mass Action c. Law of Conservation of mass
b. Le Chatelier’s Principle d. Law of Definite Proportion

A 88. Blood red colorization with CNS but a blue precipitate with hexacyanoferrate(II):
a. ferric b. calcium c. magnesium d. cobalt

A 89. A measure of a solution’s acid strength, the negative common log of the [H3O+]:
a. pH b. pOH c. Ka d. Kb

A 90. The isotope used in the determination of the volume of red blood cells and total blood volume:
a. Cr-51 b. Co-58 c. Fe-59 d. Ra-226
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 5 of 30
A 91. The amphoteric property of this compound prevents systemic alkalosis:
a. Al(OH)3 b. Ca(OH)2 c. Mg(OH)2 d. Pb(OH)2

A 92. Radiopharmaceutical agent for thyroid function

a. sodium iodide 1-125 b. Tc-99m-Entidronate c. Tc-99m-Phytate d. Tc-99
A 93. Substance that shows strong conductivity property and a high degree of ionization:
a. Strong electrolyte b. Non-electrolyte c. weak electrolyte d. buffer

C 94. The chemical properties of the elements depend upon the extent to which their electrons are:
a. replaced b. completed c. lost d. redistributed

B 95. It gives the spatial orientation of the electron cloud with respect to the three areas in space:
a. Spin quantum number c. Principal quantum number
b. Magnetic quantum number d. Azimuthal

C 96. An acid which is a proton donor yield a:

a. base b. salt c. conjugate base d. conjugate acid

A 97. Substances that absorb moisture from the atmosphere and dissolve in it is said to be:
a. deliquescent b. efflorescent c. hydrolysis d. none of the above

B 98. This compound when mixed with the hemoglobin of the blood, results in asphyxial death:
a. carbon dioxide b. carbon monoxide c. nitrogen oxide d. sulfur dioxide

B 99. The following are oxidizing agents, except:

a. K2Cr2O7 b. Na2C2O4 c. I2 d. KMnO4

D 100. The sum of the number of protons and neutrons of an atom:

a. atomic weight b. isotopes c. atomic number d. mass number

C 101. All are iodine-containing preparations, except:

a. Betadine b. Iodine tincture c. Formol d. Lugol’s solution

B 102. The _______ of any liquid is the temperature at which the liquid phase and the solid phase are in equilibrium under a
pressure of one atmosphere:
a. vapor pressure b. freezing point c. evaporating point d. boiling point

A 103. Epsom salt is synonymous to:

a. Magnesium sulfate b. Calcium sulfate c. Cadmium sulfate d. Zinc sulfate

B 104. A preparation made by incorporating a solution of lead subacetate with an ointment base consisting of wool fat, white
wax, white petroleum and camphor:
a. white lead b. Goulard’s cerate c. sugar of lead d. Goulard’s extract

C 105. The smallest particle of matter which enters into a chemical combination
a. molecule b. element c. atom d. compound

D 106. Halogen used as a common water disinfectant

a. iodine b. bromine c. fluorine d. chlorine

C 107. Transfer of solvent molecules thru a semi permeable membrane

a. diffusion b. distillation c. osmosis d. condensation

A 108. Weight of a solute in a given quantity of water is known as ________ of solution:

a. concentration b. weight c. volume d. dissolution

C 109. The chloride of this metal is an astringent, antiperspirant and deodorant:

a. Mn b. Ga c. Al d. Ca

A 110. Copper imparts a characteristic _________ color to a nonluminous flame

a. emerald green b. scarlet c. blue d. golden yellow

C 111. Weak electrolytes are:

a. unstable solution c. poor conductors of electricity
b. strong conductor of electricity d. non-conductors of electricity

D 112. Examples of protective from inorganic compounds except:

a. Kaolin b. Calamine c. Zinc oxide d. Glycerol

B 113. Laughing gas is for _________ preparation

a. sedative b. anesthetic c. protective d. antacid
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 6 of 30
B 114. Heavy water is:
a. H2O2 b. D2O c. T3O d. H2O

B 115. Element common to all acids:

a. oxygen b. hydrogen c. chlorine d. all of the above

A 116. For treatment of mental ailments:

a. Li2CO3 b. Na2CO3 c. CaCO3 d. K2CO3

B 117. Cinnabar is chemically:

a. HgCl b. HgS c. Zn d. ZnSO4

C 118. Oxides of typically non-metallic elements are:

a. neutral b. basic c. acidic d. ampheteric

D 119. The law that expresses the relationship between pressure, volume and temperature of gases in the equation, PV =
nRT, where n = no. of moles of gas and R is constant which is the same for all gases that behave ideally is known as:
a. Gay-Lussac’s Law b. Boyle’s Law c. Charles’ Law d. Ideal Gas Law

A 120. Most active of metallic elements:

a. alkali metals b. oxidizing agent c. base metals d. solubilizing agent

C 121. Attractive forces created by the polarizability of molecules and are exerted when two uncharged atoms approach very
closely:
a. carbon bond b. protein binding c. Van der Waals Forces d. covalent bond

D 122. This element is poisonous even in free metal form:

a. magnesium b. silver c. aluminum d. mercury

A 123. These are salts of chlorine except:

a. salt peter b. rock salt c. bleaching powder d. calomel

C 124. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which is rendered inactive in the presence of:
a. organic cid b. gram negative organism c. soaps (anion agents) d. inorganic salts

C 125. It is the gas liberated upon the action of water on acids or metals whenever phosphorus is present as a contaminant:
a. hydrogen sulfide b. methane c. phosphine d. carbon tetrachloride e. formaldehyde

B 126. The technique used to detect the presence of trace amounts of metal contaminants:
a. mass spectroscopy c. NMR spectrophotometry
b. atomic absorption spectroscopy d. UV-visible spectrophotometry

C 127. Dimercaprol (BAL) acts as an antidote by a process called:

a. oxidation b. reduction c. chelation d. absorption e. adsorption

A 128. A solution made up of a weak base and its salt which resist changes in pH is called:
a. buffer solution b. isotonic solution c. neutral solution d. normal solution

D 129. Calcium absorption and distribution are under a complex hormonal control of:
a. parathyroid hormone b. calcitonin c. thyrocalcitonin d. all of the above

B 130. Potassium supplements are administered in all of the following manners except:
a. IV infusion c. elixir p.o. e. slow release p.o
b. rapid IV injection d. effervescent salts

B 131. After oral administration, the greatest amount of iron absorption occurs in the:
a. duodenum c. sigmoid portion of the large intestine
b. stomach d. ascending portion of the large intestine

C 132. Copper imparts a characteristics ____ color to a nonluminous flame:

a. blue b. scarlet c. green d. emerald green

D 133. A specific antidote for the treatment of poisoning due to oral ingestion of silver nitrate would be the oral
administration of:
a. KMnO4 solution c. acetic acid solution e. sodium bicarbonate
b. vegetable oil d. normal saline

B 134. The following will react with water to form basic solution:
a. sulfur trioxide b. ammonia c. nitrogen dioxide d. carbon dioxide

A 135. An ion that often shows expectorant action is:

a. iodide b. phosphate c. fluoride d. iodate e. perchlorate
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 7 of 30
A 136. Which of the following reduces iodine?
a. sodium thiosulfate c. sodium hydroxide e. none of the above
b. potassium chloride d. magnesium sulfate

B 137. Radioisotopes decay:

a. at the same rate b. randomly c. rapidly d. slowly e. only when catalyzed

D 138. Lugol’s solution contains this element as its active component:

a. fluorine b. chlorine c. bromine d. iodine e. potassium

A 139. The composition of aqua regia is:

a. 3HCL and HNO3 b. 2HNO3 and 2HCl c. 2HNO3 and 1HCl d. 1HNO3 and 2H2SO4

A 140. Index of protective power of colloids:

a. zigmondy b. nuggets c. dolomite d. none of the above

D 141. This halogen is employed in the prevention of dental caries:

a. chlorine b. bromine c. iodine d. fluorine

A 142. Burrows solution is also known as:

a. aluminum acetate solution b. lead acetate c. sodium borate d. none of the given choices

D 143. Densest element in the periodic table:

a. rubefacient b. Pb c. Pd d. Os

D 144. This instrument used to measure sodium and potassium in quantitatively:

a. polarimeter b. spectrophotometer c. refractometer d. flame photometer

C 145. Hard water does not lather with soap. This is due to:
a. K b. Al and O c. Mg and Ca d. Zn and Pb

C 146. The acid found in the stomach is:

a. lactic b. acetic c. hydrochloric d. citric

B 147. Occurs when either the salts of various organic acids or organic substituted ammonium salts are added to aqueous
solutions of non-electrolytes:
a. clathrate formation b. salting out c. solid-in-solid complex d. salting in

C 148. The major physiological ions include the following except for:
a. sodium b. potassium c. manganese d. phosphorus e. calcium

C 149. The following are photometric methods of analysis, except:

a. turbidimetry b. spectrophotometry c. chromatography d. flame photometry

D 150. Science that deals with the methods of extracting the metal from their ores:
a. thermochemistry b. mineralogy c. electrochemistry d. metallurgy

B 151. Universal antidote includes:

a. sodium bicarbonate b. activated charcoal c. magnesium hydroxide d. none of the above

A 152. Sulfate of this metal is an emetic:

a. calcium b. gold c. copper d. silver

D 153. A homogenous molecular dispersion of two or more substances:

a. suspension b. emulsion c. gel d. solution

B 154. Group of elements which is considered to be the most reactive of all metallic elements:
a. Group O b. Group I-A c. Group I-B d. Group II

D 155. A powerful reducing agent used in medicinal preparation:

a. oxygen b. hydrogen peroxide c. nitrogen d. hypophosphorous acid

B 156. Irritative phenomenon to the skin and mucus membrane exhibited by rashes and headaches when excessive amount
of Iodine is administered:
a. Hyperiodism c. Hypoiodism e. none of the above
b. Iodism d. any of the given

A 157. Salts are formed as a result of the reaction between except:

a. inorganic acid and as inorganic base c. water and non-metallic element
b. water and a metal d. an organic acid and an inorganic base
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 8 of 30
D 158. Epsom salt is used as:
a. antiphlogistic b. anticonvulsant c. cathartic d. any of these

D 159. The following are official combinations of electrolyte infusions except:

a. Oral Electrolyte Solutions c. Ringer’s Injection USP XX
b. Lactated Ringer’s Injection d. Dextrose 5% Injection

B 160. Antidote for Wilson’s disease:

a. deferoxamine mesylate b. penicillamine c. dimercaprol d. physostigmine

B 161. Which of the following Group O elements is recovered form the radioactive decay of radium:
a. helium b. radon c. krypton d. argon

B 162. Nitrogen
a. respirable air b. mephitic air c. St. Elmos Fire d. dephlogisticated air

A 163. An organic compound which may either be a weak acid or a weak base that can change color at a definite pH value.
a. indicator b. catalyst c. buffers d. tablets

C 164. Sodium citrate

a. germicidal b. solubilizer of iodine c. reduce blood clotting time d. acidifier

D 165. These ions are cathartic in action except:

a. phosphate b. Sulfate c. tartrate d. acetate e. magnesium

D 166. Chemical name of Green Vitriol:

a. Copper Sulfate c. Sodium Sulfate e. None of the above
b. Magnesium Sulfate d. Ferrous Sulfate

D 167. Chemical name of Caustic soda:

a. Potassium Hydroxide c. Calcium Hydroxide e. None of the above
b. Magnesium Hydroxide d. Sodium Hydroxide

E 168. Commercial preparations of Simethicone containing antacids:

a. Di-gel c. Simeco e. all of the above
b. Mylanta d. a and c only

C 169. Official water used for the extemporaneous compounding of the parenterals for either IV or IM injection is:
a. water for injection c. sterile water for injection
b. bacteriostatic water for injection d. none of these

D 170. An aqueous solution of this acid will color turmeric paper brownish red:
a. sulfuric acid b. hydrochloric acid c. nitric acid d. boric acid

C 171. Which of the following is a coinage metal:

a. barium b. magnesium c. copper d. strontium

A 172. Gas responsible for the oxidative changes in fats, paints and oil:
a. oxygen b. carbon monoxide c. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen

E 173. Reasons for controlling pH within certain specified limits are:

a. chemically stability c. patient’s comfort e. all of the above
b. solubility of the drug d. a and c only

D 174. Chemical name of China Clay:

a. Lead acetate c. Magnesium Trisilicate e. none of the above
b. Copper sulfate d. Kaolin

E 175. Pharmaceutic aid used to displace air to increase the shelf life of an oxidizable product:
a. oxygen b. carbon dioxide c. helium d. nitrous oxide e. nitrogen

B 176. A measure of the acidity of a solution

a. pOH b. pH c. buffer d. density

C 177. Preparations used for brain scanning to determine the presence and location of neo-plastic lesions:
a. Gold Au 198 Injection c. Technetium Tc99 Injection
b. Chlormerodrin Hg 197 Injection d. Sodium Phosphate P32 Solution

B 178. Tartar emetic

a. syphilis b. schistosomiasis c. scabicide d. all of these
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 9 of 30
A 179. It is used as an inhalant in all pathological conditions accompanied by cyanosis and dyspnea:
a. oxygen b. carbon dioxide c. helium d. nitrous oxide e. nitrogen

D 180. Produced by filling an orbital by an electron which is not removed from its atom but is held mutually or “shared” by
2 atoms concerned:
a. coordinate bond b. chemical bonds c. hydrogen bond d. covalent bond

C 181. Which of the following elements imparts a characteristics violet color to non-luminous flame:
a. sodium b. ferric c. potassium d. copper

D 182. Generic term referring to vitreous material:

a. plastic b. tin c. vitriol d. glass e. none of the above

A 183. The syllable “bi” in sodium bicarbonate and sodium bi-phosphate indicates that they are:
a. acids salts c. neutral salts
b. compounds composed of two elements d. basic salts

B 184. They are chemical compounds containing elements of high atomic numbers which will stop the passage of x-rays:
a. roentgen rays b. radiopaque contrast media c. radiopharmaceuticals d. isotopes

A 185. Brand name of Al(OH)3

a. amphogel b. phosphagel c. alum d. all of these

A 186. Are compounds which have the capability of functioning chemically as reducing agents:
a. antioxidants b. buffers c. preservatives d. both a and c e. none of the above

A 187. They are preparations containing radioisotopes which are used internally for therapeutic and diagnostic purposes:
a. radiopharmaceuticals b. roentgen rays c. radiopaque contrast media d. isotopes

A 188. Which of the following ions is colored blue in solution?

a. cupric b. cuprous c. ferric d. ferrous

C 189. The formation of dental caries is distributed to the action of acids, mostly _____, obtained from oral bacterial
metabolism of dietary carbohydrates:
a. narcotic acid b. citric acid c. lactic acid d. malic acid

B 190. When too much fluoride is present in the tissue fluid, it can develop condition known as “dental fluorosis” which is
also known as:
a. mottled teeth b. mottled enamel c. mottled dentin d. dental caries

D 191. Compound responsible for the pink color of Calamine USP 24:
a. Talc b. Zinc oxide c. zinc stearate d. Ferric oxide e. FD and C Red

B 192. It is administered in an ice-cold condition to lessen its disagreeable bitter taste; parenterally used as an
anticonvulsant:
a. Rochelle salt b. Epsom salt c. Glauber’s salt d. Purgative lemonade

B 193. Pharmaceutical ingredient of Calamine USP 24:

a. Talc b. Zinc oxide c. Zinc stearate d. Ferric oxide

C 194. Which of the following are examples of covalent bonds?

a. The bond that hold water molecules together
b. The bonds that hold the two strands of a double-stranded DNA molecules together
c. Peptide bonds and glycosidic bond
d. The bonds that hold Na and Cl together in molecules of table salt

E 195. The equilibrium constant for the dissociation of a weak acid of the type, HA=H+ + A- , would be:
a. [A-][HA] c. [HA]/[[H+][A-] e. [H+][A-]/[HA]
- -
b. [HA][A ]/[HA+] d. [H+][A ]

D 196. An anti-microbial used in the preparation of white lotion:

a. ammoniated mercury c .precipitated sulfur e. selenium sulfide
b. sublimed sulfur d. sulfurated potash

D 197. The cation/s that cause/s this group of antacids to have constipating property:
a. Al +3 b. Mg+2 c. Ca+2 d. a ad c e. none of them

C 198. An antacid with a very rapid onset of action but relatively short duration; can cause belching and flatulence due to
the production of gas:
a. magnesium hydroxide b. aluminum hydroxide c. sodium bicarbonate d. calcium phosphate
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 10 of 30
A 199. It is the basis of smelling salts and occasionally used as leavening agent hence the name of “Baker’s Ammonia”:
a. Ammonium Carbonate c. Ammonium Chloride e. All of them
b. Aromatic Spt. of Ammonia d. Ammonium Hydroxide

C 200. An anti-microbial agent that may be used to disinfect drinking water in 3 drops per quart; will kill amoeba and
bacteria in 15 mins:
a. Pot. Permanganate b. Sod. Hypochlorite c. iodine d. hydrogen e. all of them

B 201. Used as respiratory stimulant by inhaling the vapors:

a. ammonium carbonate c. ammonium chloride e. all of them
b. aromatic spt. Of ammonia d. ammonium hydroxide

A 202. A compound added to some antacids to serve as defoaming agent to prevent flatulence
a. simethicone b. magaldrate c. alginic acid d. sodium bicarbonate

A 203. The molarity of a solution is:

a. The number of moles of solute per liter of solution
b. The number of moles of solute dissolved in kg solvent
c. The number of equivalent weights per liter of solution
d. The number of moles of solvent per kg of solution
e. The weight in g of solute per 100 ml of a solution

E 204. The form of water most commonly used as a solvent during the manufacture of parenterals is:
a. Bacteriostatic water for injection USP c. Distilled water e. Water for injection
b. Deionized water d. Sterile water of injection USP

A 205. This is used to describe the approximate measure of the sized of the electron cloud
a. principal quantum number c. magnetic quantum number e. all of the above
b. azimuthal quantum number d. spin quantum number

B 206. If the ion product is less than Ksp, the solution is:
a. saturated b. unsaturated c. supersaturated d. concentrated e. diluted

D 207. Which of the following acid/conjugate base pairs would function best as a buffer at physiological pH?
a. lactic acid / lactate ion, -pKa = 3.86
b. carbonic acid / bicarbonate ion, -pKa = 6.37
c. bicarbonate ion / carbonate ion, -pKa = 10.25
d. dihydrogen phosphate / monhydrogen phosphate ion. –pKa = 6.86
e. acetic acid / acetate ion, -pKa = 4.76

B 208. A type or structure of complex where the interactant is a surfactant, a molecule possessing both a non-polar and a
polar portion:
a. self-associated aggregate b. micelle c. inclusion complex d. inclusion complex

D 209. The method of preparation must be indicated on labels for:

a. bacteriostatic water for injection, USP c. Sterile water for injection, USP e. Water for injection USP
b. Milk of Magnesia d. Purified water, USP

A 210. Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly determined by which of the following analytical method?
a. nuclear magnetic resonance c. pKa determination e. mass specrtrophotometry
b. optical rotation d. biological assay

D 211. Which of the following is an example of triprotic acid?

a. acetic acid c. sulfuric acid e. sulfuric acid
b. carbonic acid d. phosphoric acid

C 212. Elements that are found as diatomic molecules include all except:
a. oxygen c. potassium e. hydrogen
b. fluorine d. iodine

D 213. The Henderson-Hasselbach equation allows us to

a. Calcualte the pKa of an acid from the pH of a solution of an acid
b. Calculate the pH of the solution of an acid from the pKa of the acid
c. Calculate the molar ratio of an acid from the pKa of its conjugate base
d. Calculate the molar ratio of an acid and its conjugate base from the pKa of the acid and the pH of the solution of the
acid
e. Calculate the pH of the solution of a base from the pKa of its conjugate acid

C 214. Atoms in which two outermost electron shells are incomplete refer to:
a. nobel or inert gases c. transition elements e. actinide series
b. representative elements d. lanthanide series
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 11 of 30
E 215. If HCl is added to water until the solution contains 1 x 10 -4 mole/L of the H+ ion, the concentration of OH- ions is:
a. 1 x 10-14 mole/L c. 1 x 10-11 mole/L e. 1 x 10-10 mole/L
-4 -6
b. 1 x 10 mole/L d. 1 x 10 mole/L

E 216. The following are properties of soft bases. Which does not belong to these bases?
a. with low electronegativities c. easily oxidized e. none of the above
b. have empty low-lying orbitals d. with high polarizabilities

A 217. It is equal to the product of the ionic concentrations (in moles per liter of saturated solution), with each concentration
raised to the power indicated by the number of ions in the formula:
a. Ksp b. Ke c. Kw d. Ki e. any of the above

E 218. The degree of dissociation of acids is often expressed in terms of pKa. pka then is
a. directly measured by titration of the acid with sodium hydroxide
b. calculated by determining the acid’s buffer capacity
c. directly determined by conductivity measurement
d. the natural log of the acid’s dissociation constant
e. the reciprocal log of the dissociation constant

E 219. The solubility of a chemical in a given solvent is influenced by many factors. Which of the following
physicochemical constants may not be useful in predicting the solubility of a chemical?
a. pH of a solution c. pKa of the chemical e. valence of the chemical
b. dielectric constants d. solubility parameters

A 220. Which of the following glass types does not contain soda lime?
a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV or NP e. all of the above

C 221. The shrinkage occurring between the mixture of alcohol and purified water is primarily due to
a. van der Waals forces c. hydrogen bonding e. temperature changes
b. covalent bonding d. ionic bonding

A 222. Calculate the pH of a 0.08F solution of HCN. Ka is 7.2 x 10 -10

a. 5.12 b. 6.00 c. 7.60 d. 7.26 e. none of the above

B 223. A disease found in Japan caused by drinking water contaminated with cadmium:
a. Minamata disease c. Crohn’s disease e. none of the above
b. Itai-itai disease d. Addison’s disease

E 224. Which of the following is not a factor in influencing equilibrium of a chemical reaction?
a. nature of reactant c. temperature changes e. none of the above
b. changes in pressure d. concentration changes

B 225. It contains iron in solution or in suspension and are characterized by a ferruginous taste.
a. carbonated water c. saline water e. siliceous water
b. chalybeate water d. Lithia water

B 226. Which of the following glass types makes use of water attack test type?
a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV or NP e. none of the above

B 227. This refers to an electrically neutral unit formed when two or more atoms are joined together by covalent bond:
a. ion b. molecule c. compound d. element e. mixture

E 228. Which of the following is not an action of sulfur?

a. cathartic b. parasiticide c. fumigation d. depilatories e. Reye’s syndrome

A 229. This compound is primarily used in the preparation of Vleminck’s solution

a. sublimed sulfur c. zinc oxide e. chlorine dioxide
b. milk of sulfur d. lithium carbonate

E 230. Iron sorbitex is a chemical complex of:

a. iron b. sorbitol c. citric acid d. dextrin e. all of the above

D 231. The following are constituents of Ladd’s paste, except:

a. aluminum powder c. zinc oxide e. none of the above
b. liquid petrolatum d. silver nitrate

A 232. Which of the following is not an indication of hypophosphatemia?

a. hypervitaminosis D c. lack of phosphate reabsorption e. none of the above
b. hyperparathyroidism d. all of the above
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 12 of 30
C 233. This formula can be determined given the percent composition by mass of the compound
a. molecular formula b. structural formula c. empirical formula d. electronic formula

B 234. The unit for molar mass of carbon-12 is

a. mole b. gram c. atomic mass unit d. gram/mL

B 235. If enthalpy is positive, the reaction is:

a. exothermic b. endothermic c. spontaneous d. reversible

B 236. The color of the flame produced by lithium

a. yellow green b. crimson red c. brick red d. violet e. intense yellow

A 237. Hyperphosphatemia may be found in

a. hypoparathyroidism c. hyperparathyroidism e. all of the above
b. rickets d. possible long term use of aluminum hydroxide gel antacid

A 238. It is an official antidote for phosphorous poisoning

a. blue vitriol b. white vitriol c. green vitriol d. oil vitriol e. all of the above

B 239. Which of the following elements acts as a catalyst for the storage and release of iron?
a. chromium b. copper c. magnesium d. iodine e. manganese

D 240. Which of the following minerals is important in the antioxidant capabilities of vitamin E?
a.. iron b. zinc c. chromium d. selenium e. silicon

C 241. In a REDOX reaction, the oxidizing agent

a. is oxidized b. loses electrons c. is reduced d. increased in oxidation state

D 242. Radioactive substances are characterized by:

a. unstable nucleus b. emitting radiation c. low proton-neuron ratio d. all of the above

A 243. The rate of decay of radioactive substance is expressed in terms of:

a. half-life b. angstrom c. curie d. amu

D 244. Crystallization in a supersaturated solution may be induced by:

a. stirring the solution c. scratching the inside wall of the test tube
b. seeding d. all of the above

D 245. Different nuclides having the same mass number:

a. isotopes b. isotones c. isomer d. isobars

C 246. Principle which states that it is impossible to accurately determine simultaneously the position and motion of an
electron
a. Pauli’s Exclusion Principle c. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle
b. Aufbau Principle d. Planck’s Exclusion Principle

D 247. Which is not a colligative property?

a. freezing point depression c. vapor pressure lowering
b. boiling point elevation d. melting point

C 248. When orbitals are of the same energy, electrons distribute themselves one to each orbital before pairing according to:
a. Aufbau Principle b. Pauli’s principle c. Hund’s rule d. building principle

D 249. The following underlined elements has +5 oxidation state, except:

a. IF5 b. H3SbO4 c. Bi(NO3)3 d. Na2Sn4O6

D 250. If one mole of oxygen molecule weighs 32 grams, how many molecules are present in one mole of O2?
a. 8 b. 16 c. 32 d. 6.02 x 10 23

D 251. A reducing agent

a. gains electrons b. decreases in oxidation number c. is reduced d. is oxidized

A 252. Anode is an electrode

a. where oxidation takes place c. where displacement takes place
b. where reduction takes place d. where decomposition takes place

A 253. No two electrons in an atom can have all four quantum numbers the same.
a. Pauli’s exclusion principlke c. Hund’s rule
b. Planck’s exclusion principle d. Aufbau principle
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 13 of 30
C 254. These are physical properties except:
a. malleability of metals c. oxidation of iron
b. volatility of alcohols d. solubility of sugar

A 255. A system in which two opposing reactions are proceeding at the same rate:
a. chemical equilibrium c. chemical constant
b. chemical reaction d. chemical kinetics

D 256. Going across a period from left to right and from bottom to top a group in the periodic table, which of the following
periodicity laws decreases?
a. electron affinity b. electronegativity c. ionization energy d. atomic size

B 257. The most abundant metal and the third most abundant element in the earth’s crust:
a. sodium b. aluminum c. carbon d. copper

A 258. Which of the following is a polyatomic molecule and a compound?

a. O2 b. CO2 c. CO d. Co3 –2

B 259. Which of the following statements is true of a 2 M HA, a weak acid at equilibrium:
a. pH=2 b. [H+]=[A-] c. [H+]>[A-] d. HA = 2 M

D 260. Which of the following body fluids is least acidic?

a. gastric juice = pH 1.2 b. urine = pH 5.5 c. saliva = pH 6.5 d. tears = pH 7.4
B 261. What is the effect of adding NH4Cl to a solution of NH4OH?
a. increased [OH-] conc. c. decreased NH4OH conc.
b. decreased [OH-] conc. d. conc. of NH4OH remains the same

D 262. Which hydroxide is not amphoteric?

a. Al(OH)3 b. Zn(OH)2 c. Cr(OH)3 d. Mn(OH)2

B 263. Which of the following is not yellow?

a. CdS b. Ag2CrO4 c. Ag3PO4 d. Ag3AsO3

B 264. Nessler’s reagent is used to identify

a. K+ b. NH4+ c. Na+ d. Al3+

C 265. Used in the treatment of cystitis with methenamine

a. sodium phosphate b. sodium sulfate c. sodium bipophosphate d. sodium bicarbonate

A 266. Prolonged use of silver nitrate may lead to this undesirable discoloration of the skin
a. argyria b. silverism c. Wilson’s disease d. hydrargyrism

D 267. This ion produces violet color to the non-luminous flame

a. calcium b. sodium c. barium d. potassium

C 268. Radioisotopes can be produced from the following except:

a. nuclear pile b. cyclotron c. x-ray machine d. radioisotope cow

B 269. The radiopharmaceutical which is used as a diagnostic aid to determine blood plasma volume and cardiac output
a. Chlormerodrin Hg 197 c. Sodium chromate 51
b. I131 Serum Albumin [Human] d. Gold 198

C 270. Which of the following salts has a pH>7?

a. Na2SO4 b. NH4CH3COO c. CaC2O4 d. C2H5NHCl

B 271. Oxidation is a half-reaction

a. that involves a gain of electrons c. takes place in the cathode
b. that involves a loss of electrons d. where element decreases in oxidation no.

A 272. The ionization constant of the strongest acid is

a. HA Ka = 7.2 x 10-4 c. HC Ka = 7.5 x 10-5
b. HB Ka = 8.5 x 10-8 d. HD Ka = 6.5 x 10-10

B 273. Used for kidney imaging or determining renal function

a. Technetium 99m-phytate c. Technetium 99 HIDA
b. Technetium 99 Heptagluconate d. Technetium 99 Etidronate

C 274. The following oxides are acidic with water except:

a. Cl2O7 b. N2O3 c. FeO d. SO2

D 275. A mixture containing 30% ZnS and 70% BaS:

a. hausemonite b. braunite c. copperas d. lithopone
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 14 of 30
D 276. Sb+ in the presence of HCl gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye
a. dimethyl glyoxime c. aluminum reagent
b. p-nitorbenzene azoresorcinol d. rhodamine B

D 277. Method of sterilizing sodium bicarbonate for parenteral use:

a. autoclaving c. bacteriological filtration
b. heating in an open vessel & re-saturating with sterile CO2 d. all of the above

B 278. The following are non-systemic antacids except:

a. aluminum hydroxide c. dihydroxy aluminum sodium carbonate
b. sodium bicarbonate d. calcium carbonate

C 279. NH4Cl is contraindicated in patients with

a. diabetes mellitus b. diabetes insipidus c. impaired hepatic function d. alkalosis

D 280. The radiopharmaceutical used for the hepatobiliary studies

a. sodium iodophippurate I-131 c. Tc-99m-ascorbic acid complex
b. Tc-99m DTPA d. Tc-99m-HIDA

D 281. The indicator used for the USP limit test for arsenic
a. methyl orange c. eriochrome black
b. silver sulfadiazine d. Ag diethyldithiocarbamate

D 282. Povidone-Iodine, a water soluble, non-toxic, non-staining and a slow releasing antiseptic is a complex of iodine with:
a. EDTA b. Silver c. potassium d. polyvinyl pyrolidone

B 283. Zinc deficiency characterized by thickened scaly inflammed skin is known as:
a. seborrheic dermatitis b. parakeratosis c. skin ulcer d. none of the above

B 284. Primary HCO3- excess

a. metabolic acidosis c. respiratory acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis d. respiratory alkalosis

A 285. Dehydration and decreased renal blood flow are conditions of:
a. hyperchloremia b. hypochloremia c. hyperkalemia d. hypokalemia

A 286. The following are respiratory stimulants except:

a. soda lime b. carbon dioxide c. ammonium carbonate d. aromatic ammonia spirit

D 287. Anemia due to decreased blood formation can be caused by deficiencies of key materials
a. cobalamin b. folic acid c. pyridoxine d. all

D 288. Used as wet dressing for persons suffering from third degree burns
a. H2O2 b. NaOCl c. AgNO3 d. KMnO4

C 289. A dentrifice which contains formalin and reduces the sensitivity of teeth to heat and cold
a. Sensodyne b. pumice c. Thermodent d. none of the above

A 290. A halogen characterized as a dark, reddish brown, fuming liquid with suffocating odor :
a. bromine b. iodine c. chlorine d. fluorine

B 291. Tartar emetic, known to be an effective antischistosomal agent is:

a. KHC4H4O6 b. KSbOC4H4O6 c. NaKC4H4O6 d. KHC4H4O6

D 292. Use of sodium bisulfite

a. protective b. cleansing agent c. dentrifice d. anti-oxidant

D 293. Slaked lime is

a. CaO b. CaSO4 c CaCO3 d. Ca(OH)2

D 294. Mechanism of antibacterial action of potassium permanganate solutions

a. protein precipitation b. astringent c. halogenation d. oxidation

C 295. He discovered oxygen and called it empyreal air

a. Priestly b. Beckerel c. Scheele d. Cavendish

C 296. MgNH4PO4 is the only __________ phosphate.

a. yellow b. orange c. white d. blue

B 297. White precipitate is also known as:

a. calomel b. ammoniated mercury c. calcium oxide d. zinc sulfide
Inorganic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 15 of 30
A 298. It acts as antacid in small doses, and as a laxative in large doses.
a. magnesium b. manganese c. aluminum d. iron e. copper

D 299. This compound is used as carbon dioxide absorber.

a. ammonium carbonate b. potassium iodide c. barium hydroxide d. soda lime

C 300. The radiopharmaceutical that is used for kidney imaging or determining renal function.
a. I-131-NaI b. I-131-Human Serum Albumin c. Tc-99m-Heptagluconate d. Tc-99m-Phytate
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 16 of 30
B 1. The ratio of disinfectant to the dilution of phenol required to kill a given strain of the bacterium Salmonella
typhi:
a. Phenol number b. Phenol coefficient c. Phenol value d. None of the above

C 2. The generic name of Nizoral:

a. Meconazole b. Clotrimazole c. Ketoconazole d. Potassium sorbate

C 3. Sulfonamides used for burn therapy:

a. Mafenide b. Silver sulfadiazine c. both a and b d. none of the preceeding

A 4. The following are preservatives except:

a. undecylenic acid b. Methyl paraben c. benzoic acid d. potassium sorbate

C 5. The combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is also known as:

a. clotrimazole b. miconazole c. co-trimoxazole d. cotrimazine

B 6. A polyene anti-fungal antibiotic:

a. Griseofulvin b. Nystatin c. Salicylic acid d. Econazole

A 7. Benzyl penicillin is also known as:

a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V c. Oxacillin d. Ampicillin

D 8. First generation urinary tract anti-infective:

a. salicylic acid b. Griseofulvin c. Norfloxacin d. Nalidixic acid

A 9. A fluoroquinolone:
a. Norfloxacin b. Pipemedic acid c. Methenamine d. none of the above

D 10. Combination therapy in the treatment of tuberculosis contain the following drugs, except:
a. Ethambutol b. Rifampin c. Isoniazid d. Streptomycin

B 11. These drugs are used in treatment of amoebic dysentery, except:

a. Tinidazole b. Chloroquine c. Etofamide d. Metronidazole

B 12. A fourth generation cephalosphorins:

a. Cefaloxin b. Cefepime c. Cefamandole d. Cefuroxime

C 13. This drug is used in the treatment of chicken pox:

a. Zidovudine b. Chloroquine c. Acyclovir d. Metronidazole

A 14. The drug of choice for typhoid fever:

a. Chloramphenicol b. Lincomycin c. Penicillin d. Cephalosporins

D 15. The generic name of Dalacin C which is often used to treat pimples:
a. Erythromycin b. Tetracycline c. Lincomycin d. Clindamycin

B 16. The study of chemical agents which are selectively more toxic to the invading organisms than the host:
a. therapeutics b. chemotherapy c. organic chemistry d. biochemistry

C 17. Compounds that kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms when applied to living tissues:
a. disinfectant b. fungicides c. antiseptics d. systemic anti-infectives

A 18. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with iodine:

a. Povidone-Ioduine b. Strong I2 solution c. Iodine Tincture d. I2 in KI solution

D 19. The generic name of new Merthiolate is:

a. Chorhexidine gluconate c. Mexachlorophene
b. Thimerosal d. Benzalkonium chloride

B 20. Mechanism of action of quinolones:

a. injury to plasma membrane c. protein synthesis inhibition
b. inhibition of DNA gyrase d. production of toxic free radicals

B 21. Prodrugs of active anti-malarial metabolites, the dihydrotriazines:

a. quinolines b. biguanides c. beta-lactams d. quinolones

A 22. 7 chloro-7-deoxy lincomycin:

a. clindamycin b. roxithromycin c. spectinomycin d. ilotycin

D 23. The drug is effective against both exoerythrocytic and erythrocytic forms of malaria:
a. chloroquine b. quinine c. amodiaquine d. cycloguanil
B 24. Newest and most potent quinoline derivative for malaria:
a. amodiaquine b. mefloquine c. atabrine d. daraprim
B 25. An aromatic diamide derivative used for sleeping sickness:
a. suramin b. pentamidine c. efflornithine d. stibophen
A 26. Methylated erythromycin:
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 17 of 30
a. clarithromycin b. azithromycin c. lincomycin d. ilotycin

B 27. A semi-synthetic aminoglycoside whose structural prototype is kanamycin:

a. Kantrex b. Amikin c. Garamycin d. Nebcin

A 28. Structural congener of Symmetrel which is used for viral influenza:

a. ribavirin b. rimantadine c. gancyclovir d. foscarnet

A 29. More potent optical isomer of ofloxacin:

a. levo b. dextro c. cis isomer d. trans isomer

B 30. These group of drugs share the same mechanism of action as that of sulfanilamide but are less effective:
a. trimethoprim b. sulfones c. quinolones d. none of the above

B 31. Mechanism of action of thiabendazole:

a. paralysis due to GABA receptor occupation c. phagocytic attack on worms
b. inhibition of cell division d. decreased glucose uptake

B 32. This anti-burn therapy causes systemic acidosis:

a. silvadene b. sulfamylon c. whitfield d. vandol

C 33. Drug of choice for filarial infections:

a. ivermectin c. diethylcarbamazine
b. praziquantel d. Stibophen

B 34. Active form of the sulfonamide:

a. non-ionized b. ionized c. amphoteric d. oxo ring

B 35. Use of crotamiton:

a. pediculicide b. scabicide [Link] d. antibacterial

C 36. Mechanism of action of mebendazole:

a. paralysis due to excessive loss of calcium c. decreased glucose uptake
b. unknown mechanism of action d. phagocytic attack on worms

D 37. A sympathomimetic agent that bind to alpha receptors found centrally that cause suppression of appetite:
a. Xenical b. Gas-X c. Apokinon d. Adifax

B 38. An example of a glycine conjugation pathway:

a. phenol to phenolsulfate c. noradrenaline to epinephrine
b. benzoic acid to hippuric acid d. antabuse to dithiocarbamic acid

B 39. The following are characteristics of active transport, except:

a. follow saturation kinetics c. carrier mediated
b. expenditure of energy d. higher to lower concentration gradient

B 40. These anti-diarrheals tend to decrease pore sizes of GIT epithelial to prevent formation of watery stools:
a. adsorbents b. astringents c. anti-motility d. oresols

C 41. This anti-histamine possesses the same indications as that of diphenhydramine:

a. meclizine b. hyoscine c. dimenhydrinate d. celestamine

A 42. The metabolism of warfarin is induced by the following except:

a. tolbutamide b. haloperidol c. nitroglycerine d. DDT

C 43. Fertility vitamins:

a. retinoic acid b. riboflavin c. alpha tocopherol d. biotin

C 44. Calcitriol, a hormone responsible for enhanced absorption of calcium from the intestines, is synthesized from:
a. calcitonin b. vitamin D2 c. vitamin D3 d. caltrate

A 45. A metabolite of chloral hydrate:

a. trichloroacetic acid b. acetaldehyde c. carbapenem ring d. phenacetone

A 46. A sample drug excreted via the saliva:

a. lidocaine b. sulfonamide c. sulfonamide d. thiamine

B 47. A vitamin A derivative used in the management of psoriasis:

a. Retin-A b. Tegison c. Accutane d. Oilatum

B 48. Structurally specific drugs are those whose activity depends on:
a. physical characteristics c. both a and c
b. ability to bind on a specific receptor d. none of the above

A 49. The most potent anti-bacterial alcohol:

a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary
A 50. Product of acid hydrolysis of penicillins:
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 18 of 30
a. penicillenic acid b. penicilloic acid c. penicilloate Cl d. pinecillic acid

B 51. Cidex:
a. gammabenzenehexachloride b. glutarol c. hexachlorophene d. carbamoyl phosphate

B 52. Presence of electron withdrawing groups attached to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins
render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

D 53. Attachment of bulky groups to the alpha carbon of the amide side chain in penicillins render:
a. activity against Pseudomonas c. activity against Gram (-) bacteria
b. acid stability d. penicillinase resistance

B 54. A glycopeptide antibiotic:

a. beta-lactam b. vancomycin c. polymyxin d. probenecid

C 55. A tumor is benign if:

a. metastasis is evident
b. cell originating from the tumor may invade other tissues and cause damage
c. tumor mass may be removed by surgery and regression of remaining cells occur
d. cause damage to surrounding structures

B 56. 1 gram mass of tumor is equivalent to:

a. 100,000 cancer cells b. 1 billion cancer cells c. 1 million cancer cells d. none of the above

C 57. The following are mucolytics, except:

a. bromhexine b. acetylcysteine c. caramiphen d. none of the above

C 58. The side effects of steroids used for asthma are minimized when the drug is given:
a. orally b. intravenously c. via inhalation d. rectally

B 59. A progesterone derivative which is used for the treatment of endometrial cancer:
a. tamoxifen b. depo-provera c. flutamide d. goserelin

B 60. Drug of choice for absence seizures:

a. carbamazepine b. ethosuximide c. phenytoin d. primidone

C 61. An anti-oxidant added in food products which are potent carcinogens:

a. aspartame b. PCP c. BHT d. EDTA

A 62. Pentavalent antimony in the presence hydrochloric acid gives a violet precipitate with this pink dye:
a. rhodomine B b. aluminum reagent c. p-nitrobenzene azo-resorcinol d. dimethylglyoxime

C 63. Expectorant obtained from the phenol volatile oil of Fagus grandiflora:
a. potassium iodide b. tyloxapol c. guaiafenesin d. emetine

B 64. Mescaline is a _________ derivative:

a. indolethylamine b. phenylethylamine c. steroidal d. xanthine

D 65. Anesthetic of choice for labor:

a. halothane b. enflurance c. nitrous oxide d. methoxyflurane

B 66. The drug of choice for the acute attack of migraine:

a. Codeine b. Avamigran c. Litec d. Inderal

C 67. Anesthetic of choice for patients with asthma:

a. ketamine b. thiopental c. enflurane d. none of the above

D 68. Propionic acid derivative:

a. paracetamol b. dipyrone c. piroxicam d. naproxen

B 69. An example of iodophor:

a. iodine tincture b. povidone-iodine c. Lugol’s solution d. all of the above

B 70. Phenylmethanol:
a. chloretone b. benzyl alcohol c. phenylalcohol d. carvacrol

A 71. A characteristic of cancer cells:

a. lack of normal growth controls c. G0 phase is the resting phase for all cell types
b. synthesis of DNA occurs in the M phase d. None of the above

A 72. Carcinogenic substances obtained from paper products:

a. polychlorinated biphenyls c. butylatedhydroxyanisole
b. acesulfame d. none of the above
C 73. Prostaglandins are also known as:
a. saturated fats b. compound lipids c. eicosanoids d. all of the above
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 19 of 30

C 74. Which of the following functional groups is the most basic?

a. imide b. amide c. amine d. aniline

A 75. Derivatives of benzylsulfonylureas are:

a. oral hypoglycemics b. diuretics c. anti-inflammatory d. spasmolytic

D 76. A necessary precursor of visual pigment is:

a. tocopherol b. retinal c. ergosterol d. retinal

C 77. Paracetamol is a/an:

a. salicylate b. pyrazolone c. aniline derivative d. azocine derivative

B 78. All of the following are progestins except:

a. norethindrone b. testosterone c. ethynodiol diacetate d. progesterone

C 79. Aspirin is to salicylic acid as morphine is to:

a. codeine b. methadone c. heroin d. pentazocine

A 80. The functional group in pyridoxine is:

a. alcohol b. amine c. carboxylic acid d. ketone

A 81. Ascorbic acid and tetracycline are:

a. enols b. esters c. ethers d. amines

C 82. MAO is classified as a/an:

a. protein inhibitor b. complexing agent c. enzyme d. hormone

C 83. When used in pharmaceutic preparations, the purpose of hydroquinone, lecithin and alpha tocopherol is:
a. humectant c. oil soluble antioxidant
b. demelanizing agent d. emulsifying agent

D 84. Naturally occurring alkaloids, derivatives of tropane are:

a. nasal decongestants b. analgesic c. vasoconstrictor d. bronchodilator

A 85. Local anesthetics that is not a derivative of benzoic acid is:

a. lidocaine b. procaine c. dibucaine d. bupivacaine

C 86. All of the following are macrolide antibiotics, except:

a. erythromycin b. oleandomycin c. vancomycin d. spiramycin

B 87. Ativan has this generic name:

a. triazolam b. lorazepam c. flurazepam d. tranexamic acid

B 88. Plasil is:

a. acyclovir b. metoclopramide c. diclofenac sodium d. tranexamic acid

C 89. The principal hydrolytic degradation product of aspirin is:

a. methyl salicylate b. acetyl chloride c. salicylic acid d. salicylamide

D 90. Barbiturates containing a sulfur atom are usually:

a. short acting b. intermediate acting c. long acting d. ultra short acting

D 91. Although the prostaglandins are hormone-like, they may closely resemble which of the following
chemically?
a. enzymes b. porphyrins c. proteins d. lipids

A 92. The onset and duration of barbiturate action is mainly a function of its:
a. lipid solubility c. plasma binding
b. renal excretion d. method of administration

B 93. The prototype narcotic antagonist is:

a. nalorphine b. naloxone c. levallorphan d. meperidine

D 94. Lysergic acid diethylamide is:

a. derived from mushroom c. histamine analog
b. a parasympathetic drug d. ergot derivative

B 95. Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is:

a. acetic acid b. salicylic acid c. oxalic acid d. citric acid

B 96. Diamox has a generic name of:

a. allopurinol b. acetazolamide c. dimethylxanthine d. theophylline

C 97. Diphenoxylate is a structural analog of:

a. dilantin b. codeine c. meperidine d. naloxone
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 20 of 30
B 98. Cevitamic acid is:
a. folic acid b. ascorbic acid c. nicotinic acid d. glacial acetic acid

B 99. Chloroquine is the generic name of:

a. atabrine b. artane c. aralen d. akineton

D 100. Kantrex belongs to this type of antibiotics:

a. penicillins b. cephalosphorins c. macrolides d.. aminoglycosides

B 101. Epinephrine is also known as:

a. tocopherol b. adrenalin c. emetine d. levarterenol

C 102. 1,3-dimethylxanthine is:

a. caffeine b. theobromine c. theophylline d. aminophylline

C 103. Of the following penicillin congeners, the one with the broadest spectrum of action is:
a. pen V b. methicillin c. carbenicillin d. oxacillin

C 104. Zantac is:

a. cimetidine b. famotidine c. ranitidine d. nizatidine

B 105. Cytotec is:

a. sucralfate b. misoprostol c. omeprazole d. pirenzepine

B 106. Ma huang is a/an:

a. imidazole alkaloid b. alkaloidal amine c. purine d. steroidal alkaloid

B 107. Procaine is a/an:

a. amine b. ester c. alcohol d. ketone

D 108. The functional group found in codeine and scopolamine is a/an:

a. amine b. alcohol c. ester d. ether

C 109. Aureomycin is:

a. kanamycin b. erythromycin c. chlortetracycline d. oxytetracycline

A 110. Bonamine is:

a. meclizine b. dramamine c. scopolamine d. aspirin

C 111. Polyene antibiotics include:

I. nystatin II . amphotericin B III. Griseofulvin
a. I only b. III only c. I and II d. II and III

A 112. Among the three xanthines, it is drug of choice for obtaining a stimulating effect of the CNS.
a. caffeine b. theophylline c. theobromine d. all of the above

D 113. A polysaccharide that is used as plasma expander is:

a. starch b. insulin c. dextrose d. dextran

B 114. The combination type oral contraceptive pill contains:

a. an androgen and a progestin c. an androgen and an estrogen
b. an estrogen and progestin d. FSH and LH

B 115. Simethicone is chemically classified as a/an:

a. wax b. silicone c. sulfur d. ketone

C 116. An acidifying agent employed in effervescent salts and refrigerant drinks:

a. acetic acid b. lactic acid c. tartaric acid d. citric acid

D 117. This is an analgesic agent that is used to lessen severity of labor pains in obstetrics:
a. colchicines b. codeine c. apomorphine d. Demerol

B 118. Benzaldehyde is synthetic:

a. cinnamon oil b. bitter almond oil c. corn oil d. rose oil

B 119. The ring common among penicillins and cephalosphorins:

a. benzene ring b. B-lactam ring c. thiazole ring d. phenothiazone

C 120. Retin-A is:

a. alltoin b. adapalene c. tretinoin d. benzoyl peroxide

A 121. Barbiturates with an intermediate duration of action:

a. amorbital b. Phenobarbital c. pentobarbital d. secobarbital
B 122. Vitamin C is extremely important in wound healing. Its principal effect is on the:
a. maturation of osteoblast c. reduction of inflammation
b. collagen formation d. epithelial proliferation
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 21 of 30
E 123. CNS depressants with skeletal muscular relaxant property, except:
a. Methacarbamol, USP c. Baclofen e. Meprobamate
b. Carisoprodol, USP d. Buspirone

C 124. The drug of choice for the treatment of genital herpes being potent against DNA formation:
a. Symmetrel b. Herplex c. Acyclovir d. Vidarabine

A 125. The drug most effective against malarial parasites in the liver but not effective against parasites within
erythrocytes:
a. primaquine b. pyrimethamine c. quinacrine d. chloroquine

B 126. Feldene is:

a. sulindac b. piroxicam c. indomethacin d. ketoprofen

C 127. Voltaren is:

a. acemetacin b. ibuprofen c. diclofenac d. naproxen

C 128. Depo-Provera is:

a. cyproterone acetate c. medroxyprogesterone acetate
b. nandrolene decanoate d. leuproreline acetate

B 129. Which of the following actions of histamine is not blocked by H1 antagonist:

a. increase in salivary excretion c. vasodilation
b. increase in gastric secretions d. itchiness

A 130. Opium is an example of:

a. narcotic analgesic c. antipyretic analgesic
b. non-steroidal analgesic d. anti-inflammatory analgesic

D 131. Which of the following penicillin derivatives is both acid-stable and resistant to penicillinase?
a. methicillin c. ampicillin e. phenoxymethyl penicillin
b. disodium carbenicillin d. oxacillin

B 132. A diuretic that will manifest a competitive inhibition of the action of aldosterone:
a. Triamterene b. Spirinolactone c. Furosemide d. Chlorothiazide

A 133. Sulfonamides are metabolized by humans principally by:

a. acetylation c. oxidation e. methylation
c. deamination d. conjugation

A 134. Streptomycin and other aminoglycoside antibiotics are:

a. ototoxic c. hyperglycemic e. goiterogenic
b. carcinogenic d. hepatotoxic

D 135. Benzalkonium chloride is a germicidal surfactant which rendered inactive in the presence of:
a. organic acid c. cationic surfactants e. inorganic salts
b. gram-negative organisms d. soaps

B 136. Acetazolamide (Diamox) is rarely the drug of choice for diuretic therapy because it:
a. is too potent
b. causes systemic acidosis and alkaline urine
c. is habit forming
d. does not exhibit tachyphylaxis
e. induces enzymes, especially carbonic anhydrases

C 137. The antipsychotic drug loxapine succinate (Loxitane) is a _____ compound:

a. phenothiazine c. dibenzoxazepine e. butyrophenone
b. benzodiazepine d. thioxanthene

B 138. Diphenoxylate (Lomotil) is an agent useful in the treatment of diarrhea. It is structurally similar to:
a. kaolin c. diphenhydantoin e. oxalic acid
b. meperidine d. pectin

A 139. Which of the following is classified as a broad-spectrum antibiotic?

a. ampicillin c. sodium methicillin e. potassium phenethicillin
b. penicillin G d. sodium cloxacillin

B 140. An antimanic agent:

a. haloperidol b. lithium salts c. LSD d. phenol

A 141. Liquefied phenol, USP:

a. phenol containing 10% water c. carbol-fuchsin solution
b. phenol as surgical antiseptic d. treatment of tinea infection

B 142. Castellani’s paint:

a. phenol containing 10% water c. phenol as surgical antiseptic
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 22 of 30
b. carbol-fuchsin solution d. antibacterial dye

A 143. This is an effective antidote for the treatment of poisoning by copper:

a. penicillamine b. dimercaprol c. lugol’s solution d. castellani’s paint

B 144. Tetracycline is:

a. an intermediate spectrum, bactericidal c. a broad spectrum, bactericidal
b. a broad spectrum, bacteriostatic d. an intermediate spectrum, bacteriostatic

B 145. Which of the following is not soluble in or miscible with alcohol, USP?
a. ether b. acacia c. methanol d. Phenobarbital e. water

D 146. The drug used in all types of tuberculosis is:

a. ethambutol c. streptomycin e. p-aminosalicylic acid
b. cycloserine d. isoniazid

B 147. Levarterenol (Levophed) is:

a. L-epinephrine c. Isoproterenol e. L-ephedrine
b. L-norepinephrine d. L-dopa

A 148. The most active aminoglycoside against Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:

a. streptomycin c. neomycin e. kanamycin
b. amikacin d. tobramycin

B 149. The most effective agent in the treatment of Rickettsia, Mycoplasma and Chlamydia infection is:
a. penicillin G c. vancomycin e. bacitracin
b. tetracycline d. gentamicin

E 150. Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents?
a. Isoniazid c. Phenoxymethyl penicillin e. Tetracycline
b. Chloramphenicol d. Erythromycin

C 151. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?

a. Polymyxin B c. Dicloxacillin e. Streptomycin
b. Penicillin G d. Carbenicillin

B 152. The quinolone derivative effective against P. Aeruginosa is:

a. norfloxacin c. ofloxacin e. lomefloxacin
b. ciprofloxacin d. enoxacin

B 153. Which of the following penicillins is resistant to penicillinase?

a. Ampicillin c. Carbenicillin e. Mezlocillin
b. Oxacillin d. Ticarticillin

C 154. Rancidity of fats may be due to:

a. reduction to alcohols c. oxidation of double bonds e. hydrogenation
b. impurities d. saponification

A 155. A thiazide diuretic can:

a. enhance action of amphetamines d. enhance action of oral hypoglycemics
b. antagonize action of guanethidine e. antagonize action of tricyclic antidepressants
c. antagonize action of digitalis drugs

E 156. Surfactants are characterized by:

a. the presence of water-solubilizing groups d. the presence of fat-solubilizing groups
b. negative charges e. the presence of water-solubilizing and fat-solubilizing
c. positive charges groups in the same molecule

A 157. Piperazine citrate (Antepar), gentian violet, pyrivinium pamoate (Povan) and thiabendazole (Mintezol) are
all:
a. anthelmintics c. antiseptics e. anticholinergics
b. dyes d. scabicides

B 158. AZT or Azidothymidine is used in the treatment of:

a. Koch’s infection b. HIV or AIDS c. carbuncle d. ringworm

A 159. Is a folate-reductase inhibitor:

a. Trimethoprim b. Sulfonamides c. Penicillin d. Tetracycline
B 160. The structure of this class of antibiotic has a beta-lactam ring and a thiazolidine ring.
a. Tazobactam b. Penicillin c. Cephalosporins d. Monobactam

C 161. The generic name of Duracef:

a. Cephradine b. Cephazoline c. Cephadroxil d. Cephalexin
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 23 of 30

D 162. The preparation is used as pediculicide:

a. Ultralan cream b. Trimycin ointment c. Betronavate ointment d. Kwell lotion

B 163. An antibiotic that is obtained from Streptomyces noursei:

a. Amphotericin B b. Nystatin c. Griseofulvin d. Clindamycin

B 164. The plant containing the anticancer drug, vincristine and vnblastine:
a. Mayapple b. Periwinkle c. European year d. Datura alba

A 165. A very common adverse reaction of alkylating agents used in the treatment of cancer:
a. alopecia b. miosis c. mydriasis d. ataxia

C 166. These are calcium channel blockers, except:

a. Verapamil b. Nifedipine c. Atenolol d. Diltiazem

A 167. The generic name of the brand Diabinese:

a. Chlorpropramide b. Glibenclamide c. Metformin d. Acetohexamide

A 168. A loop or high-ceiling diuretic:

a. Furosemide b. Sorbitol c. Spirinolactone d. Hydrochlorothiazide

A 169. This drug is used as an osmotic diuretic:

a. Mannitol b. Ethanol c. Isopropanol d. Glycitol

D 170. These drugs are narcotic analgesics, except:

a. morphine b. codeine c. nalbuphine d. mefenamic acid

C 171. This is used as an inhalation anesthetic:

a. droperidol b. thiopental c. halothane d. midazolam

B 172. Levodopa is used in the treatment of:

a. leukemia b. Parkinson’s disease c. Alzheimer’s disease d. Tay Sach’s disease

A 173. The generic name of Nubain:

a. Nalbuphine b. Naloxone c. Pentazocine d. Methadone

D 174. Methenamine is also called:

a. Uridine b. Uracil c. Uric acid d. Urothropin

B 175. Neurotoxicity caused by Isoniazid can be treated with:

a. thiamine b. pyridoxine c. menaquinone d. ergocalciferol

D 176. A broad-spectrum anthelmintic that is effective against a variety of nematode infestations and is the generic
name of Antiox:
a. Piperazine b. Thiabendazole c. Pyrantel pamoate d. Mebendazole

B 177. A common agent in smoking cessation programs providing patches:

a. lobeline b. nicotine c. emetine d. coal tar

C 178. Thiabendazole (Mintezol), a benzimidazole derivative, is an anthelmintic drug used primarily to treat
infections caused by:
a. Ascaris c. Strongyloides e. Taenia saginata (flatworm)
b. Necator americanus (hookworm) d. Enterobios vermicularis

B 179. One of the reasons why aminoglycosides are frequently combined with other antibiotics in treating certain
infections is to:
a. prevent drug infections d. increase oral absorption
b. prevent drug emergence of resistant bacteria e. decrease systemic toxicities
c. increase renal excretion

D 180. Angiotensin-converting enzymes (ACE) inhibitors are associated with a high incidence of which of the
following adverse reactions?
a. hepatitis c. agranulocytosis e. hirsutism
b. hypokalemia d. proteinuria

D 181. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents has a good penetrability into the cerebrospinal fluid?
a. streptomycin c. tobramycin e. cephalexin
b. gentamicin d. chloramphenicol

C 182. The scientist who can lay claim to the title of Father of Chemotherapy:
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 24 of 30
a. Robert Koch c. Paul Ehrlich e. Giuseppe Brotzu
b. Joseph Lister d. Alexander Fleming

A 183. Effective administration routes of nitroglycerin for angina pectoris include all of the following, except:
a. oral b. inravenous c. transdermal d. sublingual

A 184. This group is responsible for the bone marrow toxicity of chloramphenicol:
a. NO2 group c. OH group e. benzene group
b. NH2 group d. COOH group

D 185. Diazepam is used in the treatment of all of the following, except:

a. anxiety c. skeletal muscle spasm e. preoperative sedation
b. status epilepticus d. analgesia

E 186. Which is not true regarding ceftriaxone:

a. a 3rd generation cephalosporin c. administered parenterally e. resistant to acid
b. resistant to B-lactamase d. once daily dosing

B 187. All of the following substances are present in opium, except:

a. thebaine c. codeine e. papaverine
b. methadone d. morphine

B 188. An antipyretic aniline derivative with weak anti-inflammatory activity:

a. acetylsalicylic acid c. mefenamic acid e. sulindac
b. acetaminophen d. indomethacin

A 189. The most potent of the inhalation anesthetic agents:

a. methoxyflurane c. enflurane e. isoflurane
b. halothane d. nitrous oxide

C 190. Which of the following antineoplastics is not considered an antimetabolite?

a. methotrexate c. etoposide e. cytarabine
b. thioguanine d. fluorouracil

E 191. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the aminoglycoside antibiotics?
a. they are highly ionized in solution d. they are ototoxic and nephrotoxic
b. they are bactericidal e. they are easily absorbed after oral administration
c. they are more effective in alkaline medium

A 192. Baclofen, a derivative of GABA is used in:

a. spasticity in patients with multiple sclerosis c. management of spasticity in rheumatic disorders
b. parkinsonism d. spasticity of cerebral palsy

C 193. Long term use of tetracyclines in pregnant women should be avoided due to several reasons. Which of these
is not true?
a. they chelate calcium ions
b. they may predispose to discoloration of deciduous teeth in the infant
c. they are toxic to the fetus and may cause abortion
d. they can cause yellow atrophy of the liver in the mother
e. they get deposited in growing bones

A 194. All of the following antibiotics produce neuromuscular blockade, except:

a. ampicillin c. streptomycin e. amikacin
b. kanamycin d. neomycin

B 195. For the treatment of systemic mycosis, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
intravenous route?
a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol

C 196. Which of the following agents is not used for local candidiasis?
a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. clotrimazole
b. gentian violet d. miconazole

B 197. All of the following are effective and clinically useful against worm infestation caused by Ascaris
Lumbricoides, except:
a. piperazine c. mebendazole e. thiabendazole
b. niridazole d. pyrantel pamoate
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 25 of 30
C 198. A good local anesthetic should have all of the following properties, except:
a. systemic toxicity should be low
b. effective at body fluid pH
c. onset of anesthesia should be gradual and short duration of action to avoid toxicity
d. must be effective regardless of the site of application
e. not irritant to the tissue and should not cause any permanent structural damage to nerves

D 199. From the list given below, identify the drug possessing “triad of features” which includes antiamebic.
antigiardiasis, and antitrichomonal:
a. iodoquinol c. emetine e. piperazine
b. chloroquine d. metronidazole

A 200. Heparin is a/an:

a. extract of animal tissue c. metal e. enzyme
b. extract of plant d. hormone

B 201. Amongst the following, the drug of choice for acute attack of Plasmodium vivax malaria is:
a. amodiaquine c. primaquine e. mefloquine
b. chloroquine d. quinine

B 202. Drugs which act on erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite:

a. will be effective for radical cure c. will not be clinically effective
b. will be effective for suppressive prophylaxis d. will both be effective for prophylaxis and radical use

B 203. All statements regarding antipyretic analgesics are false, except:

a. produce fall in blood pressure c. develop drug dependence e. produce general CNS depression
b. raise the pain threshold d. relieve visceral pain

C 204. Drug of choice for ringworm infection is:

a. nystatin c. griseofulvin e. amphotericin B
b. ketoconazole d. neomycin

A 205. Acetaminophen is preferred over aspirin in following conditions, except:

a. rheumatic disease d. children with influenza
b. patients with peptic ulcer e. children with chicken pox
c. patients with bronchial asthma

A 206. Oral neomycin and streptomycin are used for sterilization of bowel and for dysentery because:
a. they are at least absorbed from oral route
b. the peak concentration in blood is achieved quickly
c. they are least toxic to GIT
d. they are destroyed by the gastric juice

D 207. Which of the following is the most appropriate statement about indomethacin?
a. it is a powerful analgesic only
b. it is a power anti-inflammatory only
c. it is only analgesic and anti-inflammatory without antipyretic effect
d. it is a powerful analgesic and anti-inflammatory agent with antipyretic and uricosuric actions
e. it is powerful antipyretic only

B 208. Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation?

a. phenoxymethylpenicillin c. benzyl penicillin e. methicillin
b. benzathine penicillin d. cloxacillin

B 209. All of the following drugs interfere with platelet activity, except:
a. aspirin c. protamine e. anisindione
b. dimercaprol d. warfarin

C 210. 6-aminopenicillanic acid is:

a. major metabolite of penicillin
b. responsible for development of penicillin resistance
c. the common nucleus of all penicillins
d. a long-acting penicillin
e. minor metabolite of penicillin

A 211. Diphenoxylate, an effective antidiarrheal drug is:

a. related to meperidine c. a narcotic antagonist e. anticholinergic action
b. atropine-like drug d. a ganglion-blocking drug

E 212. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs result in decrease in heart rate of the accelerated heart and usually reduce the
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 26 of 30
rate of conduction of cardiac impulse. They include the following, except:
[Link] c. disopyramide e. amiodarone
b. procainamide d. phenytoin

B 213. Which of the following drugs does not reduce blood cholesterol level?
a. clofibrate c. destrothyroxine e. colestipol
b. epinephrine d. cholestyramine

D 214. Which of the following is the longest-acting nitrate?

a. glyceryl trinitrate c. erythritol tetranitrate e. isosorbide dinitrate
b. amyl nitrite d. pentaerythritol tetranitrate

A 215. Which of the following is considered a primary drug for the treatment of all seizure types except absence?
a. carbamazepine c. valproic acid e. phenobarbital
b. ethosuximide d. diazepam

C 216. Which of the following penicillins is acid stable and therefore orally effective:
a. benzathine penicillin c. cloxacillin e. piperacillin
b. procaine penicillin d. tricarcillin

D 217. A monoamine oxidase inhibitor used as an antidepressant drug:

a. amitryptiline c. clozapine e. fluoxetine
b. thioridazine d. tranylcypromine

D 218. Which of the following is not used for topical application on external surfaces?
a. mafenide c. sodium sulfacetamide e. resorcinol
b. silver sulfadiazine d. sulfisoxazole

B 219. All of the following benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of anxiety, except:
a. chlordiazepoxide c. alprazolam e. diazepam
b. clonazepam d. lorazepam

D 220. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents is not bactericidal?

a. carbenicillin c. cefuroxime e. vancomycin
b. gentamicin d. erythromycin

D 221. All of the following statements are true concerning the penicillins, except:
a. this class of antibacterials acts by damaging the cell walls of bacteria
b. piperacillin and ticarcillin have activity against Pseudomonas species
c. use of any penicillin is contraindicated in a patient who has had an allergic reaction to any one penicillin
d. they are obtained from the genus of Streptomyces
e. the addition of clavulanic acid to amoxicillin preparations protects the drug from penicillinase

B 222. In choosing a specific benzodiazepine for the treatment of insomnia, all of the following are considerations,
except:
a. age of the patient c. the half life of the drug
b. mental status of the patient d. the absorption of the drug
c. the underlying sleep disorder being treated

D 223. An antibiotic most commonly used in topical preparations:

a. clotrimazole c. griseofulvin e. foscarnet
b. vidarabine d. bacitracin

D 224. The preferred agent for hypertensive emergencies:

a. propranolol c. captopril e. sodium nitroprusside
b. clonidine d. diazoxide

C 225. Superior to acyclovir in the treatment of herpes viruses in the CNS in neonates:
a. idoxuridine c. vidarabine e. zidovudine
b. ribavirin d. amantadine

D 226. Which of the following bases is most susceptible to alkylating agents?

a. adenosine c. thymidine e. uridine
b. cytosine d. guanine

A 227. Vincristine is used primarily in the treatment of which of the following?

a. Hodgkin’s disease c. liver cancer e. prostate cancer
b. lung cancer d. melanoma

B 228. For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the following antifungal agents can be administered by
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 27 of 30
intravenous route?
a. miconazole c. ketoconazole e. nystatin
b. amphotericin B d. clioquinol
E 229. Penicillin is the drug of choice for the following infective conditions, except:
a. gonococcal infection d. streptococcal infection
b. pneumococcal infection e. pseudomonal infection
c. treponema pallidum infection

B 230. All of the following drugs act as prodrugs and need to be converted in the body to active compound, except:
a. levodopa c. prednisone e. cyclophosphamide
b. salbutamol d. bacampicillin

C 231. Amongst the following the drug of choice for scabies is:
a. sulfur c. benzyl benzoate e. tannic acid
b. crotamiton d. amodiaquine

D 232. Sensitivity of gram negative bacilli to amoxicillin is due to its:

a. carboxyl group c. hydroxyl group e. carbonyl group
b. nitro group d. amino group

A 233. Bone marrow depression resulting in pancytopenia is the characteristic toxic effect of all the following
drugs, except:
a. oxytetracycline c. methotrexate e. dactinomycin
b. chloramphenicol d. mitomycin

C 234. The following antibiotic possess clinically useful antimalignant property, except:
a. mitomycin c. streptomycin e. plicamycin
b. bleomycin d. daunorubicin

A 235. This is the process utilized by Florey and Chain in isolating penicillin:
a. freeze-drying c. chromatography e. distillation
b. extraction d. x-ray

C 236. The metabolite of the red dye, prontosil, responsible for its antimicrobial property:
a. sulfisoxazole c. sulfanilamide e. sulfapyridine
b. sulfamethoxazole d. sulfacetamide

B 237. Which of the following antiviral agents is not useful for the treatment of herpes virus infection?
a. vidarabine c. trifluridine e. idoxuridine
b. interferon d. acyclovir

B 238. All of the following chemotherapeutic agents are useful for prophylaxis against infections caused by
specific microorganisms, except:
a. amantadine against influenza A virus d. tetracycline against rickettsial infection
b. chloramphenicol against typhoid fever e. pyrimethamine against malaria in endemic areas
c. isoniazid against tubercular infection

E 239. The therapeutic uses of amphetamines does not include which of the following:
a. in hyperkinetic children c. obesity e. hypertension
b. narcolepsy d. parkinsonism

B 240. Nitrous oxide, a general anesthetic agent, is characterized by all of the features of which of the following
groups?
a. high potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
b. low potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
c. high potency, poor analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation
d. high potency, good analgesia, poor skeletal muscle relaxation
e. low potency, good analgesia, good skeletal muscle relaxation

D 241. A drug receptor may be all of the following, except:

a. isolable enzyme c. protein or a nucleic acid
b. functional component of a cell membrane d. chelates

B 242. Mechanism of action of trimethoprim:

a. competitive inhibitor for the incorporation of PABA c. inhibits protein synthesis
b. folate reductase inhibitor d. destruction of bacterial cell wall

A 243. A drug molecule which possesses both intrinsic activity and affinity:
a. agonist b. antagonist c. poison d. none of the above

C 244. Chelating agent that is an effective antidote foe copper poisoning and used in the treatment of Wilson’s
disease:
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 28 of 30
a. deferoxamine mesylate b. dimercaprol c. penicillamine d. EDTA

A 245. Which is not a chelating agent?

a. 8-Methoxyquinoline b. 8-Mercaptoquinoline c. 8-Hydroxyquinoline d. 4-AZA-Oxime

C 246. Dimercaprol is also known as:

a. BAL b. Dithioglycerol c. both a & b d. none of the above

A 247. Synthesized from dry hydrogen chloride and carbon monoxide at 300 degrees and 200 atm pressure:
a. tetrachloroethylene b. piperazine c. both d. none

B 248. Passive diffusion includes what drug?

a. Lipid soluble b. Lipid insoluble c. Amphoteric d. Hydrophilic

D 249. It is the tendency of the drug to combine with the receptor:

a. Efficacy b. Intrinsic activity c. Bonding d. Affinity

B 250. Brand name of Bisacodyl:

a. Gelusin MPX b. Dulcolax c. Haloperidol d. Fleet

B 251. Penicillin G
a. Methicillin b. Benzyl penicillin c. both d. none

A 252. Organo-Silicon polymers containing O and Si atoms with a substituent organic groups:
a. silicons b. alkynes c. esters d. ethers

D 253. A phenol primarily obtained from clove oil:

a. resorcinol b. cresol c. hexylresorcinol d. eugenol

D 254. Which of the following is used in the treatment of pernicious anemia?

a. thiamine b. niacin c. riboflavin d. cyanocobalamin

A 255. Classified as a macrolide antibiotic, except:

a. Bacitracin b. Erythromycin c. Spiramycin d. Oleandomycin

C 256. A macrolide antibiotic which was found in the soil of Iloilo:

a. Achromycin b. Albamycin c. Erythromycin d. Viomycin

D 257. The following antimalarials are synthetic drugs, except:

a. Atabrine b. Aralen c. Camoquin d. Quinine

A 258. Polyene antibiotics for fungi:

a. amphotericin B c. ketoconazole e. both b & c
b. miconazole d. both a & b

C 259. Also known as solvent shift:

a. facilitated transport c. bulk transport e. none of the above
b. ion-pair transport d. passive diffusion

D 260. Externally, ethyl alcohol is employed as:

a. refrigerant b. rubefacient c. astringent d. all of the above

C 261. Carbonic acid gas:

a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide e. helium
b. nitrogen d. ammonia

A 262. For patients allergic to penicillins, this drug is used as alternative:

a. erythromycin c. aureomycin e. none of the above
b. spectinomycin d. lincomycin

A 263. These anti-diarrheals trap the toxins and flushes them out of your system:
a. adsorbents b. anti-motility agents c. astringents d. oral rehydration salts

A 264. Drug of choice for urinary tract infections:

a. co-trimoxazole b. gentamicin c. naprofen d. all of the above

C 265. Voltaren:
a. tolmetin b. sulindac c. diclofenac d. piroxicam

C 266. The chemical name of Phenethicillin:

a. Benzyl penicillin c. Phenoxyethyl penicillin
Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 29 of 30
b. Phenoxymethyl penicillin d. Phenoxypropyl penicillin

C 267. The following are the uses of methylene blue, except:

a. antidote for cyanide poisoning c. antidote for barbiturate poisoning
b. antidote for nitrate poisoning d. none of the above

B 268. Mechanism of action of this anti-tubercular agent is to inhibit protein synthesis:

a. PZA b. Streptomycin c. INH d. Ethambutol

A 269. Compounds that result from a combination of electron donors with a metal ion to form a ring structure:
a. chelates b. ligands c. both d. none

A 270. Transport of drug molecules from the site of administration to the systemic circulation:
a. absorption c. metabolism e. toxicology
b. adsorption d. excretion

D 271. Methylsalicylate is also known as :

a. toothache drop b. oil of Jasmine c. oil of rose d. oil of wintergreen

B 272. Agents that facilitate the evacuation of bowels:

a. anti-motility agents c. astringents e. none of the above
b. cathartics d. antacids

C 273. Absolute alcohol is commercially prepared by:

a. direct distillation b. fermentation c. azeotropic distillations d. none

B 274. Nubain:
a. meperidine c. methadone e. pentazocine
b. nalbuphine d. fentanyl

D 275. Kaopectate:
a. activated charcoal c. Oresol e. atropine sulfate
b. attaulgite d. kaolin + pectin

A 276. The least stable of all vitamins:

a. ascorbic acid c. thiamine e. menadione
b. folic acid d. retinoic acid

C 277. A change in structure of isoniazid causes:

a. an increase in the potency of the drug c. decrease in the potency of the drug
b. an increase in the duration of drug action d. none of the above

C 278. The most toxic vitamin:

a. folic acid c. retinoic acid e. pyridoxine
b. pantothenic acid d. thiamine

B 279. Major organ for excretion:

a. liver c. skin e. none of the above
b. kidney d. small intestines

B 280. Generic name of Benadryl AH:

a. guaiafenesin b. diphenhydramine c. apomorphine d. benzonatate

A 281. A bright red dye that was found to create remarkable cures of streptococcal infections:
a. prontosil b. methyl red c. both d. none

C 282. Halazone is a/an:

a. iodophor d. oxidizing agent
b. mercury containing anti-infective e. none of the above
c. chlorine containing anti-infective
E 283. Drug of choice for leprosy:
a. rifampicin c. prothionamide e. dapsone
b. ethonamide d. clofazimine

B 284. The metabolic function of niacin:

a. decarboxylation c. differentiation of epithelial tissues
b. redox reactions d. maturation of erythrocytes

B 285. Sunshine vitamin:

a. A b. D c. E d. K

B 286. The following are fat-soluble vitamins, except:

Organic Pharmaceutical Chemistry Page 30 of 30
a. A b. B2 c. D d. E e. K

C 287. In terms of pH, aspirin is absorbed in the:

a. mouth c. stomach e. rectum
b. small intestines d. large intestines

B 288. Therapeutic gas used as a gas diluent/carrier:

a. oxygen b. helium c. nitrogen d. carbon dioxide

D 289. The following drugs are extensively metabolized in the liver, except:
a. Isoproterenol b. Propranolol c. Lidocaine d. Paracetamol

C 290. A dye used in vital nerve staining:

a. malachite green b. gentian violet c. methylene blue d. basic fuchsin

D 291. The excretion of weakly basic drug will be more rapid in acidic urine than in basic urine because:
a. all drugs are excreted more rapidly in acidic urine
b. the drug will exist primarily in the unionized form, which cannot easily be reabsorbed
c. weak bases cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules
d. the drug will exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed

A 292. Superinfection is common with:

a. antibiotics which are given parenterally c. those which suppress the normal bacterial flora
b. those which are used for prolonged period d. those which are given as a depot preparation

A 293. A potentially fatal aplastic anemia is a toxicity associated with:

a. chloramphenicol b. nitrofurantoin c. clindamycin d. cephalothin

C 294. Which is not true for cephalosporins?

a. broad spectrum b. bactericidal c. affected by penicillinases d. acid-stable

D 295. Bactrim and Septrim are trade names for a fixed-dose combination of:
a. sulfamethizole and trimethoxazole c. sulfamethoxazole and phenazopyridine
b. sulfisoxazole and methenamine d. sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

C 296. Which of the following is most likely to cause tinnitus and hearing loss in high doses?
a. ibuprofen b. phenylbutazone c. acetylsalicylic acid d. indomethacin

B 297. Pharmacologic effects of the classic antihistamines include all of the following, except:
a. sedation with low doses c. an antipruritic effect
b. inhibition of gastric acid secretion d. drying of salivary and bronchial secretion

A 298. An example of a commercial product that is pro-drug:

a. Lasix b. Geocillin c. Morphine d. Valium

B 299. All of the following statements are correct, except:

a. sulfonamides increase the risk of neonatal kernicterus
b. ketoconazole penetrates into the CSF
c. metronidazole is effective against Enterobacter histolytica
d. mebendazole is the drug of choice in the treatment of whipworm infections

B 300. Large overdose of acetaminophen are likely to cause:

a. tinnitus b. hepatic necrosis c. agranulocytosis d. renal tubular acidosis