P3-F

Compulsory Reading Pack

Student’s Copy

FALL 2024 / 2025

CDO

Text 1 EMILY
ROEBLING, CIVIL ENGINEER
1 Emily Roebling was born in 1843, a time when there were few
educational and professional opportunities for women. Despite being
advised that as a woman she did not need to study, she learned as much
math and science as her older brother would teach her. However, the laws
of the day prohibited her from entering university. In 1864, she traveled to
see an older brother at an army camp. During her visit, she met a young
officer named Washington Roebling, who immediately fell in love with
her. After eleven months of constant correspondence, she and Roebling
were married in 1865 just after the American Civil War ended.
2 Shortly after getting married, she traveled with her husband to
Europe so that they could research technical issues related to a project her
father-in-law, John Roebling, was planning: a bridge over New York’s
East River between Brooklyn and Manhattan. Two unfortunate events
caused Emily Roebling to take a lead role in this project. The building of
the bridge had just begun when her father-in-law’s foot was crushed when
a worker dropped a heavy object on it. A few weeks later he died of
tetanus. Two years later, her husband’s health failed because of working in
a caisson, a strong watertight and airtight chamber, or room, that can be
lowered deep into the water. Roebling had a hands-on approach to his
work, so he spent several hours a day for many weeks in a caisson,
following the project’s day-to-day progress. This caused him to get “a
caisson sickness”, a condition that can occur when the body must adjust
from a high-pressure environment such as a caisson to a normal one, and
had disastrous effects on his health. Due to his poor health, Washington
Roebling could do nothing but sit in his apartment and monitor the
construction of the Brooklyn Bridge through a telescope.
3 With Washington Roebling confined to his home, Emily Roebling
interviewed her husband and took extensive notes on what remained to be
done. She also began studies of her own on the technical issues, learning
about the strength of materials, stress analysis, and cable construction.
Every day, she went to the construction site to convey her husband’s
instructions to the workers and to answer questions. She kept records,
answered mail, and represented her husband at important meetings and
social functions.
4 Eventually she became so good at her work that many said she was
the remarkable mind behind this great project. Others, however, claimed
that it was preposterous that the greatest engineering achievement of the
age was the work of a woman. As the project faced delays and costs that
were much higher than expected, doubts about whether the bridge could
be completed by the Roeblings increased, and it was proposed that
Washington Roebling should be removed as chief engineer. Emily
Roebling wrote down her husband’s reasons why he should not be
replaced. She then delivered a speech before the American Society of
Civil Engineers, a brave move on her part, as women who spoke in public
in those days were usually not well-received. Her remarks, however, won
the respect of her critics, and the Roeblings were allowed to continue to
lead the project.
5 When the Brooklyn Bridge opened in 1883, it was Emily Roebling
who rode with President Chester Arthur across the bridge. At the opening
ceremony, a Roebling competitor, Abram Hewitt, said of her, “In New
York and beyond, the name of Emily Roebling will always be associated
with all that is excellent in human nature and all that is wonderful in the
world of art.” He called the bridge “a permanent reminder to the self-
sacrifice of a woman and of her capacity for higher education from which
she and other women have, unfortunately, been excluded for too long.”
Although Emily Roebling never had the chance to lead another major
project, she did complete a university degree in the 1890s.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. In paragraph 1, we learn that Emily Roebling’s education was
restricted because of ---.
A) the limited resources of her family
B) her brother's insufficient teaching abilities
C) rules governing universities of her day
D) a romantic relationship

2. The MAIN purpose of paragraph 2 is to explain ---.

A) how Emily Roebling came to play a major part in the building of the
Brooklyn Bridge
B) why Washington Roebling had to take over the project from his father
C) the process that led Washington Roebling to give up his role as chief
engineer
D) the methods that Washington Roebling used when leading the project

3. From paragraph 2, it can be understood that ---.

A) John Roebling’s death was due to his own carelessness when working
on the project
B) Emily Roebling was involved in the Brooklyn project at an early stage
C) Washington Roebling lost interest in the project when he could not be
actively involved
D) Washington Roebling’s illness was partly due to frustration over the
project progressing so slowly

4. According to paragraph 3, when Emily Roebling took an active role in

the project, she did all of the following EXCEPT ---.
A) gather as much information from her husband as she could
B) take messages from her husband to people working on the project
C) take her husband’s place at official events
D) hire people who had the technical skills needed for the project

5. The word “preposterous” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by --

-.
A) advantageous
B) ambitious
C) obvious
D) ridiculous

6. According to paragraph 4, Washington Roebling was going to be

removed as chief engineer ---.
A) but his wife’s speech convinced his critics to let him keep his position
B) and Emily Roebling was going to take his place as the head of the
project
C) as soon as it was clear where all the money for the project had been
spent
D) because people thought his health could get worse at any time

7. In paragraph 5, at the opening of the Brooklyn Bridge, Abram Hewitt -

--.
A) apologized for the way he had competed against the Roeblings
B) criticized the restrictions which women faced
C) questioned whether Emily Roebling should have been the leader of this
project
D) praised the city of New York for its many great works of art

8. It can be understood from the text that during the construction of the
Brooklyn Bridge, ---.
A) work was delayed because of the American Civil War
B) safer caissons were developed, reducing the effects of caisson sickness
C) significantly more money was spent than initially planned
D) the American Society of Civil Engineers started allowing women
members

Text 2 SPEED READING

1 According to an extensive study done by Dr. Keith Rayner at
University of Massachusetts, 95% of university-educated individuals read
at a rate between 200-400 words per minute. However, there exists a small
group of people who insist that they can read several times faster than this,
using various speed reading techniques. With very little searching, you’ll
also find many companies claiming that after going through their program
or using their app regularly, you can easily read even more than 1,000
words per minute. So, is any of this really possible?
2 When it comes to reading, comprehension is everything. Reading a
text twice as fast as someone else isn’t often very helpful if you don’t
understand most of what you read. And this is where most speed reading
programs break down. Studies have repeatedly shown that speed readers
almost always score significantly worse on reading comprehension tests
than people who consume the text at a more normal pace.
3 A series of studies were conducted by Dr. Ronald Carver, the author
of The Causes of High and Low Reading Achievement. He looked for the
best speed readers he could find. First, he chose top scoring university
students. Later, he included people whose jobs required exceptional
amounts of daily reading. And finally, he selected a few very prominent
individuals who built reputations on their speed reading abilities. He
wanted to see if they really had abilities much ahead of a normal
university-educated individual when they were tested in a scientifically
demanding way. It turns out, not one of these elite readers could achieve a
75% reading comprehension level while reading 600+ words per minute.
4 Dr. Keith Rayner says after 20 years of research, “Very few people
can read faster than 400 words per minute, and any gain would likely
come with an unacceptable loss of comprehension. You can probably push
yourself to get a little over 500 words per minute, but you’re limited by
the eyes and the anatomy of the retina.” Essentially, your brain needs that
time not just to see the word, but to understand its meaning. Your eyes and
your brain also have processing limitations. Once the words start getting
streamed into your brain too fast, your ability to comprehend their
meaning and retain anything from them sharply declines.
5 So, are there any legitimate speed readers out there? Yes. For
instance, Kim Peek, a so-called “human Google”, who served as the
inspiration for the film Rain Man, was one such well-known example. He
could effortlessly absorb all the information on a given page with
remarkable speed. He generally averaged about ten seconds a page and
then could recall it with almost perfect accuracy, even years later.
However, Peek’s abilities were believed to be the side effect of a serious
congenital birth defect known as Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum (ACC),
in which the white matter that connects the two hemispheres of the brain
doesn’t develop correctly. In his case, it didn’t develop at all, and his brain
compensated by making some rather unusual connections, leaving him
mentally and physically handicapped in many ways, while also giving him
his truly remarkable memory.
6 All in all, if you’re signing up for an expensive course or buying an
app that claims it will teach you to read 1000+ words per minute, you’re
going to be deeply disappointed at the actual results. Universally, these
courses are going to teach you advanced skimming skills, which means
learning to quickly recognize what to ignore and what to pay attention to
in a text. Being good at skimming can be an extremely valuable skill in
some circumstances, but don’t expect to get anywhere close to the level of
reading comprehension you get when reading at your normal pace. After a
certain point, the faster you go, the less you’ll understand or remember
later.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. In paragraph 1, the word “this” refers to ---.

A) an extensive study C) 95% of university educated
individuals
B) a small group of people D) 200-400 words per minute

2. It can be understood from paragraph 1 that ---.

A) Dr. Keith Rayner included a small group of insistent people in his
research on speed reading
B) a majority of university-educated people are not able to read more than
400 words per minute
C) many companies provide speed reading services such as programs and
apps, but few really work
D) in spite of various techniques used to improve reading speed, 1000
words per minute seems to be the ultimate limit

3. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that speed reading programs ---.

A) can enhance reading speed but not comprehension
B) are commonly used while preparing for comprehension tests
C) have a universal scoring system to measure comprehension
D) target an improvement in comprehension rather than pace

4. Which of the following is FALSE according to paragraph 3?

A) Dr. Carver conducted a study on fast readers including successful
university students.
B) Famous speed readers were also tested in Dr. Carver’s research.
C) Nobody could achieve complete comprehension at above average
speeds.
D) Dr. Carver’s aim was to show the benefits of speed reading.

5. According to paragraph 4, it is TRUE that ---.

A) seeing many words does not necessarily mean understanding them due
to limitations of one’s eyes and brain
B) Dr. Keith Rayner believes that reading less than 400 words per minute
is unacceptable for an average person
C) the brain can process information independently from the eyes; thus,
comprehension speed increases
D) 500 words per minute is the ultimate limit for comprehension although
eyes are capable of reading much faster

6. The word “legitimate” in paragraph 5 can best be replaced with ---.

A) discriminated B) generous C) real D)
subsequent

7. In paragraph 5, the word “it” refers to ---.

A) the side effect C) Agenesis of the Corpus Callosum
(ACC)
B) Kim Peek’s brain D) the white matter

8. It can be understood from paragraph 5 that Kim Peek ---.

A) is currently employed in the human resources department in Google
B) owes his memory as well as his disabilities to an illness known as ACC
C) starred in a famous Hollywood movie called Rain Man due to his
exceptional speed reading skills
D) has been specifically trained as a speed reader because of his
extraordinary abilities

9. It is implied in paragraph 6 that ---.

A) it is probable to feel disappointed at first, but you will definitely be an
elite reader in time if you try hard enough
B) you are limited with your normal reading pace; however,
comprehension can be improved much further
C) speed reading courses and apps are a waste of time and money if you
want to develop your comprehension level
D) reading more than 1000 words per minute can be achieved only
through expensive courses and apps

10. What is the MAIN idea of the text?

A) Gifted people who can easily read much faster and recall much more
than an average person are plentiful.
B) An average person with the right training can double his reading and
comprehension speed.
C) It is possible to learn how to read faster than average, but a certain loss
in comprehension must be expected.
D) Some courses and apps proved to be beneficial to double one’s reading
speed and comprehension level.

Text 3 DACHA: THE

RUSSIAN COTTAGE
1 Do you know anything about dachas? The Russian
word “dacha” is often translated into English as “summer
residence” or “cottage,” but these are not good enough
translations. This is because the dacha is truly a cultural
artifact specific to Russia with no direct counterpart in the West. The
dacha tradition goes back to the 18 century’s Tsarist Russia, when it
th
meant land which was given by the state to its faithful servants.
Sometimes, this act of generosity came with expectations: the favorites
were to improve the surrounding area, build roads, and produce attractive
residences. Nevertheless, the dacha idea was about leisure, enjoyment,
and pleasure.
2 During the Age of Enlightenment, Russian aristocrats used their
dachas for social gatherings. These were usually accompanied by dance
parties and fireworks displays. The coming of the Industrial Revolution to
Russia brought about a rapid growth in the urban population, and rich
urban residents increasingly desired to escape the heavily polluted cities,
at least temporarily.
3 Following the Russian Revolution in 1917, most dachas became the
property of the Soviet government. Some dachas were converted into
vacation homes for factory workers, while better quality ones were
distributed among prominent officials of the Communist Party and the
newly emerged cultural and scientific elite. Building new dachas required
permission from senior officials and was rarely allowed during the early
years of the Soviet Union. However, new dachas started to be built in
larger numbers during the 1930s, and dacha colonies for artists, or
soldiers, or various classes of government workers started to form.
A mansard roof
4 There were legal size restrictions
for dacha houses in the Soviet era. They
had to have no more than 25 m of living
2

area and be only one floor. For that

reason, they usually had a mansard roof, which was considered by
authorities to be just a large attic, not a second floor. Although dachas
were often ill-equipped and without indoor water systems, they were still
a solution for millions of working-class families to have their own form of
summer getaway. Having a piece of land also offered an opportunity for
city residents to busy themselves with growing their own fruits and
vegetables. The period after World War II saw moderate growth in dacha
development. Since there was no actual law which banned the
construction of dachas, people began occupying unused government land
near cities and towns and then building cottages that served as dachas. As
time passed, the number of illegal residents grew, and the government had
no choice but to officially recognize their ownership rights to their dachas.
5 The 1980s saw the peak number of dachas. Many affluent families
– over a third of families in urban areas who could easily afford them –
had a dacha of their own. Dacha houses which have been built since the
late 1980s are significantly larger than older ones because the legal size
restrictions were liberalized, and new dacha areas became fields of
relatively big houses on tiny pieces of land.
6 Due to the rapid increase in urbanization in modern Russia, many
village houses are currently being sold to be used as dachas. Many
Russian villages now have temporary residents who live in dachas. Some
villages have been fully transformed into dacha settlements, while some
older dacha settlements often look like more permanent residences. People
have been purchasing dachas in villages for their lower costs and greater
land area. Still, these dachas may have lower-quality utilities and less
security. Since they are mostly deserted during winter, many of them are
broken into and thieves may steal any valuables which have been left by
owners. Because of these frequent thefts, most owners take even the most
basic household items back to the city with them.
7 The dacha has played an important role in Russian history and
continues to be influential in its economy. A dacha can be a rich estate and
or a simple cottage. It can be a second home or a primary residence or a
rented cottage. However, despite the differences in definition, the dacha
has maintained its place in Russian society and the Russian vocabulary.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is FALSE about
dachas?
A) Dachas are unique to the Russian culture.
B) The word dacha has no direct equivalent in English.
C) The owners of the dachas were favored by the state.
D) Lands around the dachas were improved by the state.

2. The word “These” in paragraph 2 refers to ---.

A) Russian aristocrats’ dachas
B) urban residents
C) social gatherings
D) Russian aristocrats

3. According to paragraph 3, ---.

A) Soviet period dachas were all the same standard
B) constructing dachas was easy in the early Soviet period
C) the number of new dachas had risen significantly by 1930
D) dachas became available to people from different professions

4. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is FALSE?

A) Dacha owners were able to do gardening on their land.
B) Most dachas lacked space and basic housing facilities.
C) Dachas had to be built according to certain requirements.
D) The Soviet government promoted construction of more dachas.
5. The word “affluent” in paragraph 5 could best be replaced by ---.
A) wealthy
B) powerful
C) ambitious
D) sympathetic

6. It is stated in paragraph 6 that ---.

A) dachas have improved in safety
B) urbanization has caused old dachas to be renewed
C) reasonable prices have made village dachas popular
D) rural life conditions have led dachas to be abandoned

7. The text answers all of the following questions EXCEPT ---.

A) when dachas first appeared
B) where dachas had to be built
C) who could own dachas in the past
D) how dachas have changed over time

TEXT 4 GREEN TRANSPORT AND

CLEANER MOBILITY
1 Without urgent and major action in the transportation sector, no
scenario for limiting global warming is possible. This industry is
frequently ignored in the climate discussions, but it shouldn’t be.
Transport is something that impacts everyone globally, and it is currently
responsible for 20% of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and
rapidly increasing. The good news is that the necessary tools are already
available to reduce transportation-related emissions. Some of them are
already in use – such as improved public transportation options, active
mobility like cycling and walking, zero-emission vehicles, and green fuels.
Encouragingly between 2020 and 2021, the number of electric car sales
worldwide doubled to 6.6 million vehicles, which are nearly 9% of the
global auto market.
2 However, the bad news is that climate-friendly transport options are
still largely concentrated in the developed world. In developing markets
and poor nations, the trend is less noticeable. In addition, as automobile
ownership and the demand for better transportation are increasing, GHG
emissions from transportation in low- and middle-income countries have
more than doubled since 2000 and are likely to keep rising quickly. If this
continues, the world is at risk of enormous growth in transport-related
carbon emissions that could be disastrous for climate action efforts. Unless
this trend is changed and transport decarbonization* strategies are brought
to more developing countries, we also run the risk of creating a "green
divide", which means high-income countries benefit from the switch to
cleaner, greener, and more modern fuels and transportation options while
low-income countries are left behind.
3 One way to prevent the increase of this green transport difference is
to stop making developing countries a destination for old cars that are sent
from high-income countries. Between 2015 and 2018, 11 million used
vehicles were exported to developing countries from high-income
countries, and only 28 developing countries control the emissions or safety
standards of these broken-down cars. As a result, most used vehicles that
have been exported to African countries are between 16 to 20 years of
age and have been driven for more than 125,000 miles. This has risky
impacts for road safety and pollution. Without serious change, this
problem will worsen as in the next 15 to 20 years low- and middle-income
countries expect to increase the numbers of vehicles a lot more, mostly
with used, gas-powered cars.
4 Another solution is to guarantee that cities in developing countries
build transport systems that are efficient and safe from the very beginning
rather than trying to fix existing poor systems. Nevertheless, the World
Bank is actively collaborating with partner countries on both challenges as
one of its missions is to reduce the emissions from transport in developing
countries. 4A For instance, in Egypt, it worked with the government to
collect and recycle 45,000 aging taxis to improve travelling and reduce
emissions by 310,000 tons of CO2 over a four-year period. 4B Renewing
taxis in this way can bring decades of advantages by avoiding long-term
dependency on old-fashioned gas-powered systems. 4C For now, these
can be excellent solutions because they replace private vehicles that cause
pollution with cleaner public buses. 4D Moreover, these lines improve
connectivity, reduce commute times, and enable more people to gain
access to more jobs and critical services – like schools and hospitals – as
well. Besides, they connect with other climate-friendly modes of transport
that are prevalent in developing countries. For example, biking and
walking are often preferred as alternatives.
5 While green transport projects have proven effective in redefining
the standard for acceptable transportation, the challenge now is to
guarantee that there is enough funding to make changes like these
universal in developing countries. The World Bank has become the largest
provider of development financing for transport globally thanks to its $31
billion transportation projects, and 75% of them now include benefits for
climate. In other words, they directly contribute to lowering GHG
emissions of countries and promoting adaptation to climate change. To
encourage innovation and investment in climate-friendly smart solutions,
the World Bank has also established “the Global Facility to Decarbonize
Transport” in 2021. Transport, like climate change, is not going away.
These two areas of global concern are connected. Right now, more
participants are needed to encourage green transport systems. The goal is
to increase the number of people who bike, walk, and take public
transportation – not as an alternative or because they don’t own a car, but
because green transport is truly the safer, more efficient, and more
accessible option for these people.

decarbonization* (n): the process of stopping or reducing carbon

gases which are released into the atmosphere as the result of a process,
such as the burning of fossil fuels

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. The phrase “them” in paragraph 1 refers to the ---.
A) the good news C) public transportation options
B) the necessary tools D) transportation-related
emissions

2. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that ---.

A) climate-smart transport options have been in great use since the 2000s
in developing nations
B) transport decarbonization strategies have pushed all countries to have
greener options in transport
C) as the demand for better transportation has increased recently,
emissions from vehicles have decreased
D) while developed nations have become more eco-friendly, developing
ones have produced more and more gases

3. Which sentence best restates the essential information given in this

sentence from paragraph 3?
“As a result, most used vehicles that have been exported to African
countries are between 16 to 20 years of age and have been driven for
more than 125,000 miles. This has risky impacts for road safety and
pollution.”
A) Most of the vehicles which have been sent to African countries are not
only a danger for the environment but also a reason for car accidents.
B) Because of the negative effects on roads and air, African countries have
exported the cars which are too old and driven too much.
C) As all the vehicles which have been sent to Africa are not new enough,
driving them is unsafe for both traffic and environment.
D) The countries in Africa do not have safe roads and clean air, so they
mostly continue to take second-hand cars from other countries.

4. In paragraph 4, where could the following sentence be added?

“Also, in cities such as Lima, Abidjan, Dakar and Manila, the World
Bank is in cooperation with local authorities to create bus rapid
transit lines.”
A) 4A B) 4B C) 4C D) 4D
5. The word “prevalent” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ---.
A) dangerous B) widespread C) apparent D)
pricey

6. Which of the following is NOT a mission of the World Bank according

to paragraph 5?
A) Encouraging public transportation C) Encouraging the
current standards for transport
B) Creating resources for green transport D) Lowering the
dependency on gas-powered systems

7. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 5?

A) One difficulty in making transportation systems more climate-friendly
is to find enough money regularly.
B) One aim of the World Bank is to reduce the number of people who
prefer private cars.
C) Not all the transport projects of the World Bank are directly related
with green transport to reduce GHG emissions.
D) The main purpose of “the Global Facility to Decarbonize Transport” is
to find financial support to restore vehicles.

8. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the text?

A) The organization that gives the most funding for transport worldwide
has been the World Bank.
B) The benefit of collecting and recycling taxis in Egypt could last for
about four years.
C) A reduction in GHG emissions in developing nations has been
observed by exporting cars.
D) The World Bank only gives support to projects that build a new system
in travelling.

TEXT 5 VIRTUAL
INFLUENCERS
1 While humans are probably still many years away from walking
among robots on the street or dining next to them in restaurants, they can
find them online on social media. Nowadays, millions of people around
the world are taking to Instagram to follow and engage with a new wave
of online personalities: virtual influencers. These virtual influencers are
without fault – their hair and makeup are perfect, they can sing, dance, and
are free from career-ending scandals, but what exactly are they?

2 Virtual influencers are completely fictional and computer generated

“people” that are created and managed via software by companies across
the globe. They are unique and actually do the same thing as “normal
influencers”. They usually build a following through social media, where
they post about their “lives”, talk with their fans, and promote the latest
fashion trends. They can either be brand representatives to help promote a
company’s services or products, or they can collaborate with brands – like
human influencers. They are shaking up the world of influencer marketing
quite a bit with their online presence. More and more virtual influencers
are added to the current ones every week. At the same time, more and
more brands want to collaborate with this new online cult. This form of
futuristic marketing is hot and several brands want to be a part of it.

3 One good example of a virtual influencer is 19-year-old Miquela

Sousa, also known as Lil Miquela. She has collaborated with top fashion
brands Dior and Prada and worked with supermodel Bella Hadid for a
Calvin Klein campaign. She now has an Instagram following of over 3
million because she speaks out on social issues, chats with celebrities, and
collaborates with brands. Miquela's celebrity status is taking even bigger
forms. For example, she launched her own clothing and jewelry line,
released songs on Spotify, and was featured on the front cover of the New
York Times Magazine. Another promising virtual influencer is Imma with
406K Instagram followers. She was selected by Japan Economics
Entertainment for the “New 100 Talents to Watch”. Imma is the first
virtual fashion influencer and model who was created by the company
Aww Inc. in Tokyo, Japan. She is known for her short pink bob hair and
high fashion style, and she has collaborated with luxury brands such as
Nike, Puma, Dior, and Valentino.

4 There is nobody that needs to be more aware of this trend than

the brands who want to stay up-to-date. They use virtual influencers as
a new marketing solution to reach new audiences. Just like “human
influencers”, brands that choose to collaborate with these virtual faces will
access huge audiences and plenty of benefits. It is often the luxury fashion
houses that take the first step. Dior, Balenciaga and OUAI, for example,
have already entered into partnerships with upcoming virtual stars.
Innovative brands themselves are betting on virtual influencers by creating
one themselves. For instance, global automotive brand Renault have
created their very own virtual ambassador, Liv, who was introduced to us
in their latest television advert – a pioneering move that many are sure to
replicate themselves soon.

5 Companies love to collaborate with virtual influencers because they

can do anything, say anything, and go anywhere. While the collaboration
works similar to human influencers, their virtual rivals take far less time
and labor to produce content and will be forever young – with most of
them between the ages of 16 to mid-twenties. They also give brands more
control over their collaborations. For example, if a real-life influencer
makes a mistake, it can be difficult to resolve due to having to re-shoot,
and as a result, the campaign’s launch can become delayed. When it comes
to virtual influencers, the mistake can be erased or simply changed within
a matter of minutes. Also, virtual influencers show us that people can
generate sympathy for fictional persons because people also interact with
them. They talk about how they used to be bullied or share stories about
moments when they had a hard time. The bond between viewer and
influencer goes deep and is meaningful. People think that they possess
human characteristics. Thus, virtual influencers allow brands to connect
deeply with consumers while having complete control over the statements
the influencers make. That is not the case with unpredictable human
influencers.

6 All in all, virtual influencers are reaching and engaging people in

their own world, and obviously they will be appearing in more and more
of our favorite brands' marketing campaigns in the future.
Read the text and answer the questions below.
1. Which of the following statements is FALSE according to paragraph
1?
A) Real-world interaction with robots is still far from reality.
B) People can interact with robots in a virtual form on social media.
C) Virtual influencers can have various talents such as singing well.
D) Virtual influencers can also be involved in career-ending scandals.

2. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 2?

A) Virtual influencer marketing is a thing of the past.
B) Virtual influencers are becoming less popular among consumers.
C) More and more brands are eager to work with virtual influencers.
D) More and more virtual influencers are being replaced by human
influencers.

3. In paragraph 3, which one of the following is NOT mentioned?

A) What Imma is famous for
B) How Miquela has built a following
C) What inspired the creation of Imma
D) Which brands Miquela has worked with

4. Which sentence best restates the essential information given in this

sentence from paragraph 4?
“There is nobody that needs to be more aware of this trend than
the brands who want to stay up-to-date.”
A) This trend should be recognized by trendy brands that want to stay at
the top.
B) Brands which are aware of this trend and stay current are the
competitive ones.
C) It is important for brands to be aware of trends even if they don’t wish
to stay current.
D) Brands that want to keep up with what is happening should be
especially aware of this trend.

5. In paragraph 4, the word “one” refers to a/an ---.

A) automotive brand B) virtual influencer C) innovative
brand D) fashion house

6. From paragraph 4, which of the following CANNOT be inferred?

A) Virtual influencers are a rising trend in the marketing industry.
B) The use of virtual influencers is a priority for luxury fashion houses.
C) Renault has made an innovative move in the virtual influencer area.
D) Some luxury brands have already started collaborating with virtual
influencers.

7. In paragraph 5, the word “bond” is closest in meaning to ---.

A) relationship B) benefit C) consequence D)
notion

8. According to the text, which of the following is NOT mentioned as an

advantage that virtual influencers offer to brands?
A) They can be produced quickly and at a lower cost.
B) They make mistakes which can be corrected easily.
C) They can collaborate with top fashion brands and celebrities.
D) Their age and physical appearance do not change over time.

Text 6 The Inquisition

1 The Spanish Inquisition was just one of several inquisitions that
occurred between the 12th and 19th centuries. The word “inquisition”
refers to the court system used by the Catholic Church to punish heretics.
Heretics were baptized members of the Church who held opinions
contrary to the Catholic faith. By the Middle Ages, the Catholic Church
had significant religious and political power in Europe. To maintain its
authority, the Church suppressed heretics. The Inquisition officially began
with Pope Gregory XI. In 1231, he issued a bull, an official notice that set
up a court system to try heretics and punish them. The Portuguese
Inquisition began in 1536 and targeted Jews, as well as accused witches.
The Roman Inquisition, established during the 1540s, focused on the
heretical crimes of witchcraft and blasphemy. One of its most famous
cases was that of Galileo Galilei, who publicly supported the heliocentric
view, which placed the Sun at the center of the universe. In 1632, he was
tried by the Inquisition and found “suspect of heresy with false and
contrary information against the Bible”. The court tried to force Galileo to
recant his beliefs, and due to his refusal, he spent the rest of his life under
house arrest.
2 The inquisitions were like the usual type of trial where the judge (or
judges) tried the accused and passed judgment. However, these trials were
unique in several ways. The accused was required to testify, and s/he
wasn’t allowed to get a lawyer or any assistance. If s/he refused to testify,
the Inquisitor took this refusal as proof of his/her guilt. Anybody could
testify against him, and s/he wasn't told who his/her accusers were. The
accused usually didn't have any witnesses testify on his/her behalf because
they could also fall under suspicion of being a heretic.
3 In 1252, Pope Innocent IV officially allowed the use of torture to get
a confession in Inquisition courts. In the 16th century, the Spanish
inquisitors, who were already in favor of torture, took advantage of this
bull heavily. This task was often assigned to local authorities, but the
inquisitors themselves often participated in the torture as well. If the
accused confessed while being tortured, s/he had to confess again while
not under torture for the confession to be accepted as real.
4 Torture was used only to get a confession and wasn't meant to
actually punish the accused heretic for his/her crimes. 6A Some inquisitors
used starvation, forced the accused to consume and hold vast quantities of
water or other fluids, or put burning coals on parts of their body. 6B
Because these methods didn't always work fast enough for their liking,
they used many other tools for torture. 6C While the accused heretics were
on these instruments, inquisitors often applied other torture devices to
their bodies. These included heated metal pincers, thumbscrews, boots, or
other devices designed to burn, pinch or otherwise mutilate their hands
and feet. 6D Capital punishment did allow for burning at the stake.
5 The last inquisitorial act in Spain occurred in 1834, but the
Inquisitions continued to have a lasting impact on Catholicism,
Christianity, and the world as a whole. The inquisitorial system was
different from other court systems because the court actually took part in
the process of torturing the accused to make him/her accept the guilt.
Because of its association with torture and execution, the inquisition still
remains a controversial and difficult subject.
6 In 1998, when Pope John Paul II addressed the International
Symposium on the Inquisition and wanted the Inquisition period to be
examined truthfully, the Vatican opened its secret archives to researchers.
Six years later, the Symposium released a report of its findings and caused
debates and conflicts because according to the Symposium, most of the
torture and executions attributed to the Catholic Church during the various
inquisitions didn't occur at all. In addition, the total number of accused
heretics put to death during the Spanish Inquisition comprised 0.1 percent
of the more than 40,000 who were tried. The number of witches burned at
the stake by the inquisitions was 99, out of more than 125,000 trials.
However, these findings still remain doubtful and unrealistic to many
historians.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. Based on the information in paragraph 1, who would have been most
likely to be punished by the Inquisition between the 12th and 19th
centuries?
A) A person who accused Jews of witchcraft
B) A scientist who tried to discover new information about our solar
system
C) A Catholic historian who translated the Bible
D) A person who strongly supported Pope Gregory’s bull in 1231
2. The word “recant” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ---.
A) comment B) withdraw C) employ D)
demand
3. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 about the inquisition
trials EXCEPT ---.
A) the accused didn’t have a chance to be defended by lawyers
B) people avoided testifying on behalf of the accused since they could also
be punished
C) the accused was usually a man, not a woman
D) if the accused didn’t accept the guilt, this strengthened the belief that
he was actually guilty
4. Why does the author use the word However in paragraph 2?
A) To emphasize inquisitions were not different from other courts
B) To clarify the similarities between inquisition trials and other trials in
history
C) To demonstrate that inquisition trials had aspects different from other
trials
D) To indicate that inquisition trials were superior to other trials in history
5. From paragraph 3, it can be inferred that ---.
A) the Spanish Inquisition had been using torture before the 16th century
B) most Spanish Inquisitors were against the Pope’s 1252 bull
C) the accused were usually not forced to confirm their confession after
being tortured
D) after the Pope’s 1252 bull, torture must have been applied less
frequently in the Spanish Inquisition
6. In paragraph 4, where could the following sentence be added?
“For instance, “Strappado” and “the rack” were two unbelievably
painful torture tools.”
A) 6A B) 6B C) 6C D) 6D

7. In paragraph 5, the author’s primary purpose is to ---.

A) inform the reader about the last inquisitorial act in Spain
B) explain the causes and effects of using torture in courts
C) support that torture was an effective method in getting confessions in
Inquisition trials
D) highlight the use of torture in Inquisition courts and its
controversy
8. It can be inferred from paragraph 6 that Symposium’s findings ---.
A) claimed that the methods the Inquisition used didn’t include torture at
all
B) supported the fact that lots of innocent people were tried and
condemned to death in the Inquisition trials
C) contradicted with what had generally been known about the Inquisition
up to that time
D) didn’t offer any new information about the Inquisition to historians

Text 7 CULTURE AND

PSYCHOLOGY
1 The academic discipline of psychology was developed largely in
North America and Europe. Some would argue it’s been remarkably
successful in understanding what drives human behavior and mental
processes, which have long been thought to be universal. But in recent
decades, certain researchers have started questioning this approach as they
argue that many psychological phenomena are shaped by the cultures we
live in.
2 Experimental psychologists typically study behavior in a small
group of people, with the assumption that this can be generalized to the
wider human population. If the population is considered to be
homogeneous, then such inferences can indeed be made from a random
sample group. However, this isn’t in fact the case. Psychologists have long
disproportionately relied on undergraduate students as sample groups to
carry out their studies, simply because they are readily available to
researchers at universities. More dramatically still, more than 90% of
participants in psychological studies have come from countries that are
western, educated, industrialized, rich, and democratic (W.E.I.R.D).
Clearly, these countries are neither a random sample nor representative for
the entire human population. The problem with such a framework is
related to the absence of any attention to cultural differences.
3 Recent studies have shown that cultural differences in thinking
styles affect memory, attention, and perception. Consider which two of the
following objects go together: a panda, a monkey, and a banana.
Respondents from Western countries routinely group the monkey and the
panda together as both are animals. This is indicative of an analytic
thinking style, in which objects are largely perceived independently from
their context. In contrast, participants from Eastern countries will often
select the monkey and the banana because these objects belong in the
same environment and share a relationship (monkeys eat bananas). This is
a holistic thinking style, in which an object and its context are perceived to
be interrelated.
4 In a classic demonstration of cultural impact on thinking styles
through experimentation, participants from Japan and the USA were
presented with a series of animated scenes in a first task. Each scene lasted
about 20 seconds and showed various aquatic creatures, sea plants, and
rocks in an underwater setting. In the next one, which measured memory,
both groups of participants were equally likely to remember noticeable
objects, a larger fish for instance. However, Japanese participants were
better than American participants at recalling background information,
such as the color of the water. This is because the holistic thinking of
Eastern cultures focuses on background just as much as foreground.
5 Social psychologists have long claimed people are much more likely
to describe themselves and others in terms of stable personal
characteristics. However, the way people describe themselves seems to be
culturally bound. Individuals in the western world are indeed more likely
to view themselves as free, autonomous and unique individuals,
possessing a set of fixed characteristics. But in many other parts of the
world, people describe themselves primarily as a part of different social
relationships, strongly connected with others. This is quite common in
Asia, Africa, and Latin America.
6 The difference in the way people define themselves has even been
demonstrated at the brain level. In a brain-scanning study (fMRI), Chinese
and American participants were shown different adjectives and asked how
well these traits represented themselves. They were also asked to think
about their mother while being scanned. In American participants, there
was a clear difference in brain responses between thinking about oneself
and their mother in the “medial prefrontal cortex”, which is the region of
the brain which is typically associated with self-presentations. However, in
Chinese participants, there was little or no disparity between the self and
mother. This suggests that their self-presentation shared a large overlap
with the presentation of a close relative.
7 Another domain that was originally dominated by studies using
W.E.I.R.D. sample groups is mental health. However, culture can also
influence our understanding of mental health in different ways. Because of
the existence of cultural differences in behavior, the framework – which is
based on detecting deviant or abnormal behaviors – isn’t complete. Thus,
what may be seen as normal in one culture like modesty could be seen as
deviating from the norm in another and be considered social phobia.
8 Clearly, culture has a massive effect on how we view ourselves and
how we are perceived by others, but we have only begun scratching the
surface. The field now known as “cross-cultural psychology” is
increasingly being taught at universities across the world. The question
now is to what extent it will impact psychology as a discipline going
forward.
Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is FALSE about

psychology experiments?
A) It is a common practice among psychologists to conduct them in small
groups.
B) Participants are selected randomly whether the population is
homogeneous or not.
C) Undergraduate students make up a large portion of participants because
of their accessibility.
D) The majority of participants have backgrounds that represent the
human population inadequately.

2. According to paragraph 3, people from Western countries tend to pick

the monkey and the panda because they ---.
A) are likely to think about animals holistically
B) often look into the connection among objects
C) focus on individual objects and assign them to categories
D) analyze options in terms of the environment they are found in

3. The word “one” in paragraph 4 refers to ---.

A) task B) scene C) underwater setting D)
classic demonstration

4. According to paragraph 4, American participants ---.

A) remembered equally the color of the water and the larger fish
B) did better than Japanese ones in remembering noticeable objects
C) paid equal attention to background and foreground in animated scenes
D) were less likely than Japanese participants to remember the color of the
water

5. We can infer from paragraph 5 that if a man from India were asked to
describe himself, he would be more likely to say:
A) I love chicken curry.
B) I am intelligent and funny.
C) I am a father of three boys.
D) I am staying at my friend’s house.

6. The word “disparity” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ---.

A) configuration B) sensitivity C) utility D)
variation

7. The text includes information about all of the following EXCEPT ---.
A) the time length of the brain-scanning study (fMRI)
B) the name of the brain part examined in the study
C) an example of a behavior that could be seen abnormal
D) the primary places where the field of psychology originated

8. What is the text MAINLY about?

A) Theories describing mental health should take cultural differences into
account.
B) Human behavior was previously thought of as universal, particularly in
the Western world.
C) Most psychological experiments are conducted in what the writer calls
“W.E.I.R.D” countries.
D) The way culture affects how we understand the world is challenging
the foundations of psychology.

Text 8 FRENCH MUSEUM DISCOVERS MORE THAN

HALF ITS COLLECTION IS FORGED

1 A museum in Southern France has

discovered more than half its paintings,
most of which were thought to be by a well-
known local artist, are counterfeits.
Investigators then found that works in the
museum attributed to other regional artists
were also fakes. The French village of Elne
is the proud hometown of Catalan painter Étienne Terrus. He was a late-
19th-century artist who specialized in local landscapes and was friends
with painter Henri Matisse. After spending $365,000 to renovate the
building, the town was about to celebrate the reopening of its museum,
which is one of its main attractions. However, the atmosphere of the
reopening was not very celebratory when it was discovered that many
paintings in the museum's collection were actually fakes.
2 Mayor Yves Barniol announced that it
was art historian Eric Forcada who first suspected
there was a problem. Just prior to the reopening, he
raised doubts about the authenticity of some of the
paintings. “Following this, we nominated a group of
experts, who came to the conclusion that 82 of the
museum’s paintings were counterfeits,” Barniol
said. Forcada noticed buildings that appear in some
of the paintings didn't actually exist in Terrus’ time. In some cases, the
museum was easily fooled. “For example, there are some paintings that
were just signed at a later date with Terrus’ name. One counterfeit painting
portrays a building constructed in 1958, but Terrus died in 1922. Others
were made to resemble Terrus’ works, but the artist who made them was
not nearly as skilled as Terrus,” Forcada said.
3 Marthe-Marie Coderc, president of a local group called “Friends of
the Terrus Museum”, has dedicated years to raising money to buy
paintings for the collection. She said members like herself feel bad
because so many people donated to help improve the collection. In fact,
the museum spent an estimated $200,000 over 20 years acquiring the
works. “We should have been more careful and looked more closely at the
origins of these paintings,” Coderc says. The remaining 52 paintings in the
museum's decimated collection have since been authenticated. However,
with such a small collection of paintings, few people are expected to visit
the museum and museum ticket sales are the museum’s main source of
funding. The town has filed a formal complaint for forgery and hopes the
criminals who sold them the paintings will be caught. While police have
taken the Terrus fakes and opened an official investigation, they have few
clues from which to proceed.
4 Police guess the scam could have been the work of a large network
of criminals, and paintings attributed to other southern France artists could
also be fakes. They say these regional artists, like Pierre Brune and
Balbino Giner, are easier to fake than the famous masters because works
of the masters always go through a detailed authentication process before
being purchased. Art experts estimate that at least 20% of paintings owned
by institutions could actually be the work of someone other than the
original artist. “As art historians, we need to insist on distinguishing real
works from fakes for future generations,” Forcada said. “The Terrus case
enables us to take a first step in cleaning up a market where there is a lot
of crime.”
Read the text and answer the questions below.
1. The word “its” in paragraph 1 refers to the ---.
A) renovation
B) town
C) reopening
D) museum

2. In paragraph 1, it is mentioned that ---.

A) the museum has paintings which they thought were painted by local
artists but actually were not
B) one of Terrus’ most famous paintings is a portrait of the well-known
artist Henri Matisse
C) it cost the town of Elne $365,000 to buy paintings for the newly
renovated museum
D) the town of Elne decided to cancel the reopening after learning some of
their paintings were not originals
3. Paragraph 2 implies that when Eric Forcada suggested that some of the
paintings may be fakes, Barniol ---.
A) tried to find people who could prove him wrong
B) was angry with Forcada for the damage he did to the museum
C) suspected that Forcada had been part of counterfeiting paintings
D) took his suggestion seriously and acted on it

4. According to paragraph 2, which of the following was a factor in

causing the museum to buy fake paintings?
A) Its doubts about art historian Eric Forcada
B) Poor advice from a group of experts
C) Insufficient focus on the dates of the paintings
D) A lack of money to have paintings carefully inspected

5. The word “decimated” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by ---.

A) fairly expensive
B) greatly reduced
C) recently modernized
D) surprisingly valuable

6. From paragraph 3, the reader can infer that ---.

A) Marthe-Marie Coderc is thought to have profited from the money
which was raised to buy paintings
B) there was almost nothing the Friends of the Terrus Museum could have
done to avoid buying fake paintings
C) the future of the museum may be in doubt due to financial issues
D) the police are confident they can find the sellers of the fake paintings

7. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to paragraph 4?

A) Police believe some artists in Southern France may be cooperating with
the criminals selling fake art.
B) Police say that the reason why criminals copy local artists is that they
all have a similar style which is easy to imitate.
C) Art experts claim that although having fake paintings is widespread,
they usually are less than 20% of a museum’s collection.
D) Forcada thinks a positive outcome of the museum’s problems may be a
reduction in counterfeits of paintings.

8. The text MAINLY discusses ---.

A) the discovery of fake paintings in the Étienne Terrus Museum and the
effects this will have
B) how the Étienne Terrus Museum purchased fake paintings and what
will be done with these paintings
C) whether the paintings at the Étienne Terrus Museum are fakes or
originals
D) whether or not the Étienne Terrus Museum will continue after its
purchase of fake paintings

20
TEXT 9 CATS IN PRISON
1 Bangkwang Prison in Bangkok dates back to the 1930s, but the
generations of cats living there have called it home for longer than that,
and they apparently don't intend to leave. For decades, the prison officials
tried to send them away, but the cats kept returning. Eventually, the
officials had to take the opposite approach. They invited the cats in and
asked prisoners to adopt them. Surprisingly, informal studies have shown
that the cats have reduced not only the rat population but also anger and
aggression among the prisoners and have increased gentle behavior.
2 It's unclear when the cat adoption program first began at
Bangkwang, but it has spread to prisons worldwide as a form of therapy.
In 2018, 39 states in the U.S. had prison animal programs. Take, for
instance, the cat adoption program at the maximum-security Indiana State
Prison in Michigan City. The program has been in operation for more than
20 years, and today seventy-five cats live at the prison. Just like the
prisoners, each cat has its own ID with their cute names such as Socks,
Radar, and Ziggy. There’s an application and approval process for each
inmate who wants a cat. After adoption, the cats live in the prisoners' cells
for the duration of their stay. Prisoners buy the animals treats and toys and
build cat furniture for them. The cats are kept on leashes and go
everywhere with their owners.
3 The program is so popular that it now has a waiting list with very
strict requirements—and equally strict punishment for breaking the rules.
“To have a cat, the offender must have a job,” says Pam James, the public
information officer at Indiana State Prison. “He has to purchase all the
food and litter. If they get out on parole, the cat can go with them.
However, if there is a report of bad behavior, the cat is sent back to the
animal shelter or put up for adoption. Then, there is usually no way for
them to get the cat back”. With such high risks, prisoners with cats are
usually on their best behavior.
4 Prisoners tend to develop a deep bond with their cats. In maximum-
security HMP Shotts Prison in Scotland, for example, one prisoner said his
cat was the first thing he’d shown affection for in seven years. “The
prisoners see the pets as their children,” James says. “Having a cat is
soothing. It’s something that just loves them back. They have something
in their life that gives them unconditional love.” Moreover, it has also
been observed that there’s less violence and stress among prisoners and
guards in the cellblocks with cats, and wherever the prisoners take the cats
on prison grounds.
5 Dr. Stuart Bassman, who specializes in helping prisoners, believes
that the traditional idea of cats having nine lives helps prisoners mentally
and emotionally. “The cat can represent a new beginning,” he says. “When
prisoners think that they might have another life like the cat, they might be
able to ‘recycle’ themselves. This can be very hopeful and helpful.”
Perhaps it's this hope that keeps the animals safe in prisoners’ care.
According to Maleah Stringer, the executive director of the Animal
Protection League shelter (APL) in Anderson, the cats in prison aren’t at a
greater risk than those that live in normal houses. “The prisoners are aware
of the risk of losing the program. We’ve had more issues with mistreated
animals coming back from public adoptions than we ever do from the
prison program,” she says.
6 In the end, it’s a win-win. Shelter cats get loving homes, and
prisoners start on a path to reform. The APL have received letters from
current prisoners who thank them for the opportunity to adopt. One
prisoner wrote about his feline friend: “Ziggy is a constant joy to me, and
he’s brought me so much love and happiness. I’m not sure if I could have
found them without him.” After all, cat or human, everybody deserves a
second chance in life.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that ---.

A) cats are still a major problem in Bangkwang Prison
B) both the officials and prisoners wanted the cats to leave the prison
C) prisoners had adopted other animals as pets before welcoming cats
D) Bangkwang Prison had a more serious rat problem before welcoming
cats
2. According to paragraph 2, it is TRUE that ---.
A) other prisons in the world started prison animal programs because they
had similar cat problems
B) the officials of Indiana State Prison provide treats and toys but
prisoners build the furniture for cats
C) when a prisoner wants to adopt a cat, he has to get permission from the
authorities of the prison
D) cats cannot leave their owner’s cells because they may fight with other
cats in the prison

3. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT mentioned

as a necessity for cat adoption?
A) having a job in prison C) buying cat food and litter
B) following the rules of the prison D) bringing the cat back after
parole

4. In paragraph 4, the word “soothing” can be best replaced by ---.

A) problematic B) secure C) relaxing D)
surprising

5. What is the MAIN idea of paragraph 4?

A) Cats have a positive effect on prisoners and the prison atmosphere.
B) Prisoners do not love anybody except their cats.
C) Guards develop a deep bond with cats.
D) Authorities should use cats to avoid violence in prisons.

6. According to Dr. Stuart Bassman, how do cats help prisoners?

A) Prisoners are aware of the fact that they do not have nine lives.
B) Prisoners with cats try to break rules and cause trouble.
C) Taking care of a cat helps prisoners decrease their stress levels.
D) Cats are like a symbol for prisoners to renew themselves.

7. In paragraph 5, Maleah Stringer supports the idea that cats in prison

are not in greater danger by ---.
A) comparing the mistreated animal issues from public adoptions and the
prison program
B) explaining how the belief of cats’ nine lives is a symbol of second
chances
C) explaining how cats help prisoners to become better people after the
program
D) warning the prisoners that they may lose the program if they do not
obey the rules

8. What does the word “them” refer to in paragraph 6?

A) cats B) prisoners C) the APL D)
letters

9. The text mentions all of the following EXCEPT ---.

A) names of prisons with animal programs

B) number of prisoners who want to adopt a cat
C) names of some of the cats in the prison program
D) number of cats which live in one of the prisons

10. What is the MAIN idea of the text?

A) All the prisons should start animal therapy programs because they are
beneficial.
B) Welcoming cats in prisons has led to positive changes for cats,
prisoners, and prisons.
C) Prisoners can adopt cats because only cat programs have been proven
successful.
D) If you deal with it creatively, a problem can turn into an advantage.

20
Text 10 Bananas
1 The banana, also known as a plantain, is a giant plant native to the South Pacific. There are about fifty
recognized species of banana, all under the type of Musa. When the fruit develops, it forms an individual banana known
as a “finger.” Fingers grow in groups of up to twenty and are known as “hands”, and large groups of hands form a
“bunch” or a “banana stem”. Each finger contains an edible pulp surrounded by an epidermis that serves as protection for
the fruit. The epidermis, or “peel” is also edible; ripened desert bananas are often peeled and eaten raw, while unripe
bananas are cooked so that they become edible. The peel serves as a self-storage facility for the fruit, and the inner pulp is
often safe to eat even if the outer peel has been contaminated by the environment.
2 Though the fruit is thus protected from undesirable elements outside of the peel, the plant itself is quite
vulnerable to disease. Farmers must keep a continuous replanting cycle to ensure stable crop yields. Replanting of roots
after a series of fruiting cycles is important, as disease often builds up over a period of years and greatly diminishes the
amount of fruit produced by the plant. Given the lack of genetic variety among domesticated bananas, the plants are
especially at risk of various diseases, such as Panama Disease. Such a disease can be devastating to individual plants as
well as whole banana plantations. Indeed, the Gros Michel banana, which was a very large banana type, became
commercially extinct by the 1950s.
3 Domestic bananas offered a major nutritive advantage for early farmers. As a non-seasonal crop, bananas were
available year long and became a staple food for many tropical cultures. Bananas provide a main source of calories to
people in Africa, Asia, the Pacific Islands, and South and Central America. Though it varies with types, a banana that has
been cooked is roughly equivalent calorically and nutritionally to a potato. Bananas are rich sources of both simple and
complex carbohydrates, and of the vitamins ascorbic acid, B6, carotene, niacin, riboflavin, and thiamin. They are also
excellent sources of potassium. Moreover, bananas are easily digestible, offering access to food energy faster than apples,
milk, and meats. Though they are poor sources of protein and fat, and thus must be part of a supplemented diet, as
a staple food, bananas have been the main food of millions of people for thousands of years.
4 In addition to providing a staple crop for millions of people, by the mid-nineteenth century, bananas developed
into an important cash and variety crop for Americans and Europeans. Desert bananas are among the most popularly
consumed fruit in both the United States and Europe, and they have become one of the most important agricultural items
in global commerce, perhaps second in importance only to coffee. The economies of many Central American, South
American, and Caribbean nations are heavily reliant upon desert banana production and trade to the West.
5 Banana consumption is not limited to fruit. Bananas, or their derivatives, are also the source of other foodstuffs,
including banana flour, banana chips, and, in some areas, banana beer. 4A The heart of the banana plant can also be
harvested for certain dishes or be juiced for its liquid. 4B Fresh banana leaves serve as plates or, when they are wrapped,
they serve as containers for cooking. 4C When dried, the fronds are woven into roofing materials or other fabrics. Since
the 1200s, fibers from the banana plant have been used by the Japanese to create fabrics for textiles, including
clothing. 4D Bananas can also be used in paper production. Finally, banana plants are also becoming more popular in
regional gardens, adding variety of an ornamental nature to some home plots.
6 Also, bananas serve as sources of popular culture, including religious traditions, musical inspiration or allusion,
and as symbols of sex, race, and class. 6A Bananas have played an important role in the academic disciplines of
archeology and history for centuries. 6B Now, contemporary techniques for archeological exploration are being developed
around the physical and historical properties of the banana. 6C Thus, the banana’s cultural and material significance have
joined together in current archeological investigations. 6D Similarly, the banana’s material importance has fueled research
in agro-ecology, plant biology, plant pathology, and economics, stimulating both academic and professional studies.
Clearly, the banana has a unique importance in both historical and present-day explorations of commodities.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is FALSE about the banana?
A) A group of banana “fingers” is called a “hand”.
B) The epidermis is the outer layer of the banana.
C) Unripe bananas cannot be eaten unless they are cooked.
D) Eating the inside of a banana with an infected peel causes illness.

2. From paragraph 2, we can infer that the Gros Michel banana ---.
A) was the strongest type of banana against Panama Disease
B) disappeared from the market due to Panama Disease
C) disappeared from the market as people preferred smaller bananas
D) was the most profitable crop in the 1950s before it disappeared from the market

3. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in this sentence from paragraph 3?

“Though they are poor sources of protein and fat, and thus must be part of a supplemented diet, as a staple
food, bananas have been the main food of millions of people for thousands of years.”

A) Throughout history, bananas have been eaten as a supplementary food by millions despite the fact that they contain
high amounts of protein and fat.
B) Bananas lack protein and fat, so they cannot be people’s only source of food, but millions have eaten bananas as their
primary food for ages.
C) You might expect bananas to contain high amounts of protein and fat, but actually they lack fat and protein, which have
been present in the major food of millions throughout history.
D) For ages, bananas have been used as a supplementary food, which usually lacks protein and fat, but actually they are
rich sources of protein and fat and could be used as the main food of millions of people.

4. In paragraph 5, where could the following sentence be added?

“Beyond food, banana leaves provide important household materials, either freshly harvested or dried.”

A) 4A B) 4B C) 4C D) 4D
5. What is the MAIN idea of paragraph 6?
A) Bananas are important not only for their material value but also for their cultural significance.
B) The historical importance of bananas is still ignored by many cultures in the world.
C) Bananas should be used in archeological investigations more frequently.
D) The banana’s cultural and material importance has led to a dramatic increase in its price.

6. In paragraph 6, where could the following sentence be added?

“To illustrate, fossilized banana silica, known as phytoliths, is being used by present-day archeologists and
historians to “date” and determine the presence of the ancient human societies of Polynesia and Southeast
Asia.”

A) 6A B) 6B C) 6C D) 6D

EXTRA READING TEXTS

TEXT 1 RAIN FORESTS
1 Rain forests play an invaluable role in sustaining life, but every year,
large portions of them are cut down for various reasons. Thirty years ago,
a wide belt of rainforest circled the earth, covering much of Latin
America, south-east Asia and Africa. It is being rapidly replaced by huge
sections of palm oil trees and rubber plantations. The land is also being
cleared for cattle grazing, soybean farming, expanding cities, dams, and
logging.
2 Found in the tropical climate near the equator, rain forests make up
6 percent of the earth’s land surface but produce over 40 percent of its
oxygen. The rain forest is made up of four layers: the emergent, the upper
canopy, the understory, and the forest floor. Emergent trees grow far apart
and form the highest point of the forest. One layer below, the upper
canopy houses most of the rain forests’ animal species and forms a roof
that blocks most light from reaching the understory. The understory is
usually shaded and home to bushes and branches. The forest floor, the
bottom layer, is in complete shade, so there is little chance of plants
growing there, and it makes it easy to walk through the forest.
3 Recently, deforestation has caused the amount of rain forest present
around the globe to shrink. In Brazil, which houses about a third of the
remaining tropical rain forests on Earth, more than nineteen percent of the
Amazonian rain forests have been lost to deforestation since 1970.
Biologists worry about the long-term consequences such as drought, a
period of below-average precipitation in a given region, resulting in
prolonged shortages in the water supply, whether atmospheric, surface
water or ground water. Some rain forests, including the Amazon, began
experiencing drought in the 1990s, possibly due to deforestation and
global warming. Efforts to discourage deforestation, mainly through
sustainable-logging initiatives, are underway on a very limited basis and
have had very little impact so far.
4 The rain forest is nearly self-watering. Plants release water into the
atmosphere through a process called transpiration. In the tropics, each
canopy tree can release about 760 liters of water each year. The moisture
helps create the thick cloud cover that hangs over most rain forests. Even
when not raining, these clouds keep the rain forest humid and warm.
5 The environment of rain forests is ideal for plants. An estimated
two-thirds of the world’s plant species grow in the rain forest. Plants in the
rain forest grow very close together and there is constant threat of insect
predators. Plants produce chemicals to fight with these predators in order
to adapt. Researchers have found that these chemicals are also useful as
human medicines. Bioprospecting, or going into the rain forest in search
of plants that can be used in foods, cosmetics, and medicines, has become
big business during the past decade. In order to gain bioprospection rights,
big companies are competing with each other to sign agreements with
tropical countries.
6 The National Cancer Institute (the NCI) estimates that 70 percent of
the anti-cancer plants identified so far are rain forest plants. A new drug
under development by a private pharmaceutical company, possibly for
treating HIV, is Calanolide A, which is derived from a tree discovered in
Borneo, according to the NCI. Despite all their promise, only one percent
of tropical forest plant species and animal species have been examined for
their chemical compounds and medicinal value so far. Moreover, we are
losing Earth's greatest biological treasures just as we are beginning to
appreciate their true value. Rain forests once covered 14% of the earth's
land surface; now they cover a mere 6%, and experts estimate that the last
remaining rain forests could be consumed in less than 40 years. The
biodiversity of the tropical rain forest is really immense. When an acre of
tropical rainforest is lost, the effect on the number of plant and animal
species lost and their possible uses is really big. Scientists estimate that we
are losing more than 137 species of plants and animals every single day
because of rainforest deforestation.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. According to paragraph 1, what has caused the rain forest to be widely

lost in the past thirty years?
A) Lack of rain
B) Human activities
C) Natural disasters
D) Global warming

2. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is FALSE?

A) Rainforests produce almost half of the earth’s oxygen. C) The
upper canopy is above the emergent.
B) The understory is above the forest floor. D) The forest
floor is not covered with many plants.
3. The word “shrink” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ---.
A) continue B) perform C) decrease
D) announce

4. According to paragraph 3, what has been the effect of efforts to

discourage deforestation of the rain forest so far?
A) Drought has increased in certain areas as a result of them.
B) Local authorities are now more sensitive about
deforestation.
C) They increased the amount of the rain forest on earth.
D) They haven’t been really effective.
5. Which of the following is TRUE according to paragraph 3?
A) Deforestation of the Amazon began before the 1990s.
B) Global warming affected the Amazon negatively after the 1990
drought.
C) Drought is an immediate result of deforestation.
D) Deforestation of the Amazonian rain forests has started in the last
decade.

6. Based on the information in paragraphs 2 and 3, what percentage of

the earth’s land is covered by Amazonian rain forests in Brazil?
A) About 6 percent B) About 10 percent C) More than 19
percent D) About 2 percent

7. What is the purpose of paragraph 4?

A) To give information about the chemicals in the rain forest
B) To provide information about canopy trees
C) To show why the rain forest needs lots of rain
D) To explain how the rain forest produces its own water

8. According to paragraph 5, who does bioprospecting?

A) Medicine companies B) Only Brazilians C)
Plants D) Native people
9. What is the MAIN idea of paragraph 6?
A) As rainforest turns to farm, ranch and clear-cut, more than 137
rainforest-dwelling species, plants and animals, go extinct every single
day.
B) The abundant botanical resources of rain forests have already provided
many medical advances, but only 1 percent of the known plant and animal
species have been thoroughly examined for their medicinal potentials.
C) Although the rain forest provides a great source for the field of
medicine, and much of it is still undiscovered, humans are destroying the
rain forest rapidly.
D) Both environmentalists and health care advocates try to protect the
world’s remaining rainforests as storehouses for the medicines of the
future.

10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the text?

A) Culture of rain forest natives C) A new drug to
treat HIV
B) Transpiration D) Deforestation’s effect on
the rain forest
Text 2 AUSTRALIA’S LOST
GIANTS
1 Australia's wildlife is unique. The vast majority of the animals that
live there are not found anywhere else, and things were no different 1
million years ago during the Pleistocene, the age of the super-sized
mammal. Before humanity became Earth's undisputed superpower, giant
beasts of all shapes dominated every continent, from the mammoths of
Siberia to the ground sloths of South America. However, the Pleistocene
mammals of Australia were different since Australia was - and still is - the
heartland of the marsupials. Marsupials are animals that carry and feed
their offspring in a pocket of skin on the mother’s stomach unlike the
mammals on other continents.
2 Australia's Pleistocene marsupials were closely related to the fluffy
creatures such as kangaroos that still hop and run around today. But some
of them, called megafauna, could grow to the size of small cars, or they
possessed teeth longer than knife blades. None of these animals survive
today – although exactly why that's the case is a mystery. Humans, with
their advanced hunting techniques and use of fire to modify the landscape,
may have played a central role in the megafauna's disappearance, but this
idea is still a matter of heated debate.
3 One of these extinct animals was the largest of the
so-called short-faced kangaroos, procoptodon goliah,
which belongs to the same taxonomic family with
kangaroos. Standing 2m tall and weighing almost three
times as much as a red kangaroo, these huge marsupials
were a walking contradiction. An analysis of extinct
species has suggested that tendons of these monster kangaroos would not
have withstood the impact of the hopping motion unlike the kangaroos we
know and love today. Instead, they probably shuffled around on their large
feet, which is very unusual in the mammal world even though it is the way
we humans get around. As their name suggests, they possessed “short
faces” with eyes that were almost forward-facing, like our own. This,
combined with the kangaroos’ primate-like teeth, made them look like
apes, although it is fair to say any confusion with modern apes or indeed
humans is unlikely.
4 Another ancient creature was varanus priscus commonly known as
megalania. It was the largest terrestrial lizard the world has ever known.
Megalania was a goanna lizard, a relative of today’s infamous Komodo
dragon, and conservative estimates have predicted that it was at least 5.5m
long. 5A Early descriptions of megalania fossils by the paleontology
superstar Sir Richard Owen described a truly monstrous creature, more
like 7m in length, which sat unchallenged at the top of the food chain. 5B
However, even at “just” 5.5m, this giant lizard would have been one fierce
predator. 5C Like their relative, the Komodo dragon which also had
megalania teeth, megalania is thought to have had a deadly set of curved
teeth. 5D An investigation into the poorly understood predatory ecology of
Komodo dragons indicates that the dragons possess a venom delivery
system which consists of glands that produce poison to kill their prey.
Likewise, megalania may have done so too.
5 For anyone who doubts that these ancient animals died out due to
humans, the thylacine serves as a convincing example of humanity's
ability to annihilate species. Unlike most of Australia's megafauna, which
went extinct tens of thousands of years ago, these wolf-like marsupials
survived on the island of Tasmania well into the 20 century; long enough,
th

even, for film footage of them in captivity to exist. Though not as “mega”
as most megafauna, thylacine, also known as Tasmanian tigers, were
powerful predators capable of hunting other sizeable marsupials such as
kangaroos. This, ultimately, was their downfall, as European settlers in
Tasmania inferred from their predatory appearance that they were
responsible for attacks on sheep. The local government placed a bounty of
£1 per Tasmanian tiger head, and this, combined with increased habitat
degradation by humans and competition with settlers’ dogs, led to total
extinction by 1936. Though unconfirmed sightings continue to this day,
it seems unlikely that thylacine will ever rise from the ashes. As most
scientists believe it to be extinct, these sightings could be labeled a case of
misidentification.
6 The disappearance of Australia megafauna which included short-
faced kangaroos, thylacines, and megalanias, among others started soon
after the arrival of human beings, about 13,000 years ago. It true that while
we may lack a poison delivery system, predatory appearance, or teeth
longer than knife blades, it is humans that are the most lethal to all
megafauna.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. It can be understood from paragraph 1 that mammals in continents
other than Australia ---.
A) which used to live in harmony now face extinction due the spread of
humans
B) such as mammoths and ground sloths had to expand into new areas due
to giant beasts
C) differ from the ones in Australia in terms of the way they take care of
their young
D) aren’t as distinctive as Australian mammals, which dominate
Australia’s wildlife

2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2?

A) The factors that might have led to the extinction of Australia's
Pleistocene marsupials
B) Some physical features of extinct Australian marsupials and ancient
humans
C) Uncertainty over why Pleistocene marsupials in Australia died out
D) A method people used to change the environment

3. What does the author mean by saying, “Short-faced kangaroos were a

walking contradiction” in paragraph 3?
A) Contrary to what one might expect, they could not hop despite being
related to modern kangaroos.
B) The belief that they had a lot in common with red kangaroos
contradicts the analysis of extinct species.
C) Because they were unable to accelerate sufficiently due to their weight,
they had difficulty walking.
D) Their tendons were so weak that they had to hop constantly to move
around unlike other species.

4. It can be concluded from paragraph 3 that ---.

A) short-faced kangaroos’ walking style is not the only thing connecting
these kangaroos with humans
B) modern apes and humans cannot be confused with short-faced
kangaroos as their looks aren’t similar at all
C) monster kangaroos could be held responsible for the extinction of
short-faced kangaroos
D) short-faced kangaroos were characterized by their unique way of
moving around which was similar to that of apes

5. In paragraph 4, where could the following sentence be added?

“As palaeontologists have understood the importance of mammalian
predators such as the marsupial lion more fully, megalania's status
has decreased, along with its estimated size.”
A) 5A B) 5B C) 5C D)
5D

6. In paragraph 4, the phrase “done so” refers to ---.

A) consisted of glands C) possessed a poison
delivery system
B) described megalania fossils D) understood
predatory ecology

7. In paragraph 5, the word “annihilate” is in closest meaning to ---.

A) discover B) spread C) encounter D)
destroy

8. Which of the following statements CANNOT be inferred from

paragraph 5?
A) Tasmanian tigers could be observed both in the wild and captivity
before they died out.
B) Most large animals inhabiting Australia went extinct long before the
20 century.
th

C) Tasmanian tigers, which were blamed for killing sheep, were in fact too
small to attack sheep.
D) There were multiple factors which led to the extinction of Tasmanian
tigers.

9. Which sentence best expresses the essential information in this sentence

from paragraph 5?
“Though unconfirmed sightings continue to this day, it seems unlikely
that thylacine will ever rise from the ashes.”
A) Thylacine probably won’t be brought back to life despite the fact that
scientists could do this.
B) Even though it hasn’t been confirmed yet, a small population of
thylacine is believed to have survived.
C) Though they are unconfirmed, sightings of thylacine could help
reintegrate these animals into the wild.
D) It is unlikely that people will see a thylacine ever again although some
people still claim to have come across one.

Text 3 HUMAN SPECIES

ON EARTH

1 Once Earth was home to a host of human species, from

Neanderthals to hobbits. Some looked surprisingly similar to each other
while others had distinct, defining features. Our own species appeared
around 200,000 years ago, at a time when several others existed. Yet
today, only we remain. Why did we manage to survive when all our
closest relatives have died out?
2 There are some clues that reveal why some of our ancestors were
more successful than others. Several million years ago, when a great many
human species lived side-by-side, they mainly ate plants. As human
species moved from the forests to the drier open fields, they started to eat
meat. The problem was that the animals they hunted also had fewer plants
to eat, so overall there was less food. That competition drove some species
extinct. While the switch to meat-eating clearly took its toll, it did not
come close to leaving Earth a one-human planet. Until quite recently,
we still shared the planet with other early humans.
3 As well as modern humans, three other human species were around:
the Neanderthals in Europe, the Denisovans in Asia, and the hobbits from
the Indonesian island of Flores. However, we know a lot more about the
Neanderthals, simply because we have known about them for much longer
and have many fossils. So, to get at why we are the only human species
left standing, we must rely on figuring out why they disappeared. The
archaeological evidence strongly suggests the Neanderthals were
displaced very soon after modern humans arrived on their habitat, which
can't be a coincidence.
4 Neanderthals evolved long before us and lived in Europe well before
we arrived. By the time we got to Europe, just over 40,000 years ago, the
Neanderthals had been successfully living there for over 200,000 years,
enough time to adapt to the chilly climate. They made and wore clothes,
were skillful hunters and had sophisticated stone tools. But when Europe
began experiencing rapid climate change, some researchers argue, the
Neanderthals may have struggled. The warmer climate changed the
landscape they lived in, and they did not adapt their hunting style to suit it.
When Europe's climate began warming, the forests became more open,
becoming more like the drier open lands in Africa that modern humans
were used to. The forests, which provided most of Neanderthals' food,
dwindled and could no longer sustain them.
5 7A Tools, however, are not the only things modern humans made.
7B We created something else, which helped us outcompete every other
species on Earth: symbolic art. 7C When modern humans arrived in
Europe, their populations went up quickly. 7D As our numbers increased,
we began living in much more complex social units and needed more
sophisticated ways to communicate. By 40,000 years ago, humans in
Europe were making things any of us would recognize as art. One of the
most striking is a wooden carving of a lion-human statue, called the
Löwenmensch, found in a cave in Germany. Similar sculptures from the
same period have been found elsewhere in Europe. This suggests that we
were sharing information across cultural groups from different areas,
rather than keeping knowledge to ourselves. It seems art helped to bring
different groups together and help people organize their social and
economic affairs with one another. If that's true, it might be our creativity
that we should thank for our survival.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. It is stated in paragraph 2 that when early human species moved away

from forests, ---.
A) their eating habits changed considerably, which affected some species
adversely
B) the number of the animals in forests dropped and some even became
extinct
C) they had to share their habitat with other human species and live side-
by-side
D) they damaged the quality of the open fields, which threatened the plant
diversity

2. Which sentence best expresses the essential information in this sentence

from paragraph 2?
“While the switch to meat-eating clearly took its toll, it did not come
close to leaving Earth a one-human planet.”
A) The shift towards a meat-based diet had a clearly negative effect on the
extinction of other human species, but it didn’t make them all disappear.
B) Eating more meat was thought to have caused all other human species
to die out; however, it wasn’t one of the factors that led to their death.
C) Early humans consumed more meat while modern humans switched to
eating plants, which helped them
survive.
D) Although there is only one human species alive on Earth, there could
have been more if early humans had a meat-eating lifestyle.

3. In paragraph 3, the word “they” refers to ---.

A) the only human species C) the Neanderthals
B) many fossils D) the hobbits

4. Which of the following statements CANNOT be inferred according to

paragraph 3?
A) Our knowledge about the Denisovans and hobbits is limited.
B) The Neanderthals got extinct long before hobbits disappeared.
C) Humans and the Neanderthals inhabited Europe around the same time.
D) The remains of the Neanderthals that we have tell a lot about them.

5. The word “dwindled” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ---.

A) covered B) balanced C) threatened D)
declined

6. It can be inferred from paragraph 4 that the Neanderthals were better

adapted to --- than modern humans.
A) conditions in Africa C) hunting in the forests
B) living in a warmer climate D) rapid climate change

7. In paragraph 5, where could the following sentence be added?

“We know Neanderthal tools were remarkably efficient for the tasks
they used them for, but when we arrived in Europe, ours were better.”
A) 7A B) 7B C) 7C D)
7D

8. It is stated in paragraph 5 that symbolic art that modern humans

created ---.
A) might have helped them design better tools
B) usually involved wooden statues that represented cultural values of
their creators
C) couldn’t be copied by the Neanderthals due to their poor intellectual
skills
D) helped them communicate with other humans that lived across Europe

9. The article is MAINLY about ---.

A) the extinction of some species during their evolution
B) the reasons why modern humans still exist while other human species
died out
C) modern humans’ ability to make symbolic art and its benefits
D) some conflicting evidence to explain why there is only one species of
human

Text 4 PLANT DEFENSE MECHANISM

1 During the Ordovician Period some 450 million years ago, land
plants evolved from aquatic plants. Once on land, plants had to adapt or
die. One adaptation was a protective coating to reduce the damage to
tissues due to evaporation. Another was seeds that could survive dry
conditions. Such defense mechanisms ensured plant survival and
diversification. With such adaptation, plants were able to flourish. Yet
with the proliferation of plants came a sudden increase in plant-eating
insects. As a result, plants had to develop defense mechanisms against
herbivory while insects, in order to survive, had to develop ways to defeat
plant defense mechanisms. This process of reciprocal evolutionary change,
in which life forms influence each other's development, is called co-
evolution. Co-evolution is generally regarded as having led to the creation
of much of the Earth's biomass.
2 The defense mechanisms plants employ against herbivores and other
potential threats, such as fungus and bacteria, are either constitutive or
induced. Constitutive defense mechanisms are those defenses which a
plant has developed over time. For example, to prevent deer from eating it,
the raspberry plant has long stems which are covered with sharp thorns
while fruit trees produce gummosis, a sticky, sap-like material that traps
insects. One plant, the voodoo lily, protects itself by smelling like rotting
flesh. This unusual defense mechanism keeps herbivores away while
attracting carrion-eating insects that pollinate the lily, thus ensuring its
survival.
3 Another form of constitutive defense occurs at the molecular level.
These are toxins which the plant produces. If ingested, the results can be
fatal. One of the more famous examples is the Greek philosopher,
Socrates. Accused of corrupting the youth of Athens, Socrates was
condemned to death by drinking poison hemlock. Its cousin, water
hemlock, is considered the most toxic plant in North America. Many
common vegetables and fruits are also poisonous. The potato, for
example, is a member of the deadly nightshade family. The stems and
leaves of the potato plant contain a glycoalkaloid poison, a toxin that
manifests itself as a green color in old potatoes or potatoes exposed to
prolonged periods of light.
4 In contrast, induced defense mechanisms are those which a plant
develops and sends to the part of it which has been injured. Such
mechanisms occur at the molecular level and are produced by the plant
only when needed. For example, in an article by T. R. Green and C. A.
Ryan, when a potato plant is attacked by the Colorado potato beetle, the
action will induce in the potato plant the production of a proteinase
inhibitor which targets those parts of the potato plant that are exposed to
air due to wounding. Proteinase inhibitors are enzymes that break down
protein left behind at the wound by the potato beetle thus preventing
infection. Another induced defense mechanism occurs when an herbivore
eats part of a plant. 6A This, in turn, induces the release and activation of a
cyanogenic glycoside, a poison common in the leaves of many popular
fruit and nut trees, such as the cherry, the almond, the peach, and the
apple. 6B In an herbivore, these can cause extreme salivation,
gastroenteritis, and diarrhea. 6C An herbivore, having been afflicted this
way, will think twice the next time it approaches a tree or plant with such a
defense mechanism. 6D
5 Plants can also defend themselves from herbivores by changing
shape. This induced mechanism is called thigmonasty. Mimos pudica,
commonly known as the shy plant, is a salient example of such behavior.
When touched or shaken, the leaves of the shy plant fold inward and the
plant itself droops. Scientists speculate that this induced movement can
shake off harmful insects or frighten away other herbivores. Another
explanation is that by folding up and drooping, the shy plant is
pretending to be dead, thus presenting itself as unappetizing.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. In paragraph 1, the word “flourish” is closest in meaning to ---.

A) thrive B) weaken C) decay D) vanish

2. What constitutive defense mechanisms does the author compare and

contrast in paragraph 2?
A) raspberry gummosis, fruit tree thorns, voodoo lily smell
B) raspberry stems, fruit tree fungus, voodoo lily bacteria
C) voodoo lily smell, raspberry thorns, fruit tree traps
D) raspberry thorns, fruit tree gummosis, voodoo lily smell

3. In paragraph 3, why does the author use the example of Socrates?

A) To show how the early Greeks used plant medicine
B) To illustrate the effects of poison hemlock
C) To add to the classification of dangerous plants
D) To warn that hemlock is not fatal if ingested

4. In paragraph 3, the word “manifests” is closest in meaning to ---.

A) manipulates B) multiplies C) reveals D) relives

5. In paragraph 4, all of the following are TRUE EXCEPT ---.

A) proteinase inhibitors are enzymes
B) the potato plant uses proteinase inhibitors as a defense mechanism
C) proteinase inhibitors target exposed areas resulting from herbivory
D) proteinase inhibitors are constitutive defense mechanisms

6. In paragraph 4, where could the following sentence be added?

“By chewing a leaf, for example, enzymes in the herbivore’s saliva break
down the cell membranes.”
A) 6A B) 6B C) 6C D) 6D

7. In paragraph 4, the word “afflicted” is closest in meaning to ---.

A) taught B) depicted C) warned D) harmed

8. In paragraph 4, why does the author mention gastroenteritis?

A) To provide a reason for supporting the argument that cyanogenic
glycosides are the most effective form of induced plant defense
mechanism
B) To give an example of an effect resulting from consuming leaves
containing proteinase inhibitors
C) To give an example of an effect resulting from consuming leaves
containing cyanogenic glycoside
D) To illustrate an effect resulting from consuming leaves containing
toxins

9. Which sentence best expresses the essential information in this sentence

from paragraph 5?
“Another explanation is that by folding up and drooping, the shy
plant is pretending to be dead, thus presenting itself as unappetizing.”
A) By drooping over and folding up, the shy plant dies; thus, herbivores
will have no appetite for it.
B) The shy plant protects itself by convincing herbivores that it is not
alive, thus probably will not taste very good.
C) Herbivores are less interested in eating dead plants than living plants.
D) The reason why the shy plant pretends to be dead is because it cannot
protect itself from herbivores.

10. From the text, it can be inferred that ---.

A) through co-evolution, plants have developed ways to defend
themselves against herbivory
B) scientists have been able to identify how plants defend themselves from
environmental factors
C) by successfully defending against herbivory, plants one day will no
longer be threatened by herbivores, such as deer and insects
D) the evolutionary process of plants is little understood by scientists

Text 5 ORGANIZATIONAL
DOWNSIZING
1 In a business enterprise, downsizing refers to a company's decision
to reduce its workforce for reasons other than poor performance, criminal
conduct, or unethical behavior on the part of those being let go. Businesses
use several techniques in downsizing, including providing incentives to
take early retirement and transfer to subsidiary companies, but the most
common one is to simply terminate the employment of a certain number
of people. Few companies have escaped the necessity of downsizing. The
last three or four years have brought almost constant cuts in staffing, and
for many, downsizing has become an annual process.
2 When managers are faced with downsizing, they tend to focus on
the immediate and practical needs that emerge at the time when staff are
being laid off. Employees need to be selected and notified, which is one of
the most difficult tasks for any manager. Also, job responsibilities need to
be shuffled according to the skills of the ones who remain. Unfortunately,
there is a tendency for managers to focus on those that are leaving rather
than those that remain. This also holds true for training and consulting
agencies who are asked to support the laid-off employees with career
development help, counseling, and other supports. There is no question
that laid-off employees deserve and need these kinds of supports and
services. Unfortunately, managers shouldn’t forget that after the laid-off
workers are gone, the “survivors” could also be affected adversely, so they
need counselling and support from experts.
3 One of the most telling comments is often put forth by employees a
year or two after downsizing: “Sometimes I think that the ones who were
laid off are the lucky ones.” The employees that remain usually go on to
describe a workplace where they feel confusion about the priorities of
their organization, heavy workloads, a sense of betrayal by management, a
profound sense of distrust, and a sense of futility with respect to long-term
planning. In operational terms, there is a tendency to less risk-taking and
innovation, increased internal competition for resources, and individual
staff members devoting less effort to working together and more attention
to doing things that will protect themselves.
4 To counteract the long-term effects of downsizing, managers need to
understand how organizations slip into “down-cycles”. An organizational
down-cycle can be characterized as a long-term process where the
organization becomes progressively more depressed and confused. The
important thing to note is that this process occurs slowly and over a long
period of time. If this imperceptible process is allowed to continue
unchecked, it gets worse. The down-cycling organization loses its positive
momentum and enthusiasm. Bad feelings and depression become normal
rather than occasional, until, in extreme cases, the organization becomes
unable to move effectively, and the work climate can become intolerable
for everyone. Owing to the slow nature of the process, managers tend to
assume that the problems that occur early in the down-cycling will solve
themselves without attention. It is easy to assume that staff will “get over”
the effects of downsizing over time. However, this may be the fatal
mistake.
5 Proactive management activities are always required when
downsizing occurs. Managers should consider that the period immediately
after downsizing is critical. Action or inaction during this period will
determine whether the organization moves into a depressed down-cycle or
makes the commitment to move forward. One of the proactive
management activities managers need to apply is protecting the reputation
of the company. They must also consider the impact of the decision upon
those customers served by the facility to be downsized and those people
who are employed within it. Downsizing should be a time when the
managers dedicate themselves to the long-term health of the organization
by clarifying, supporting, and building trust. Above all, this is the time
when the managers’ prime responsibility is to plan everything in advance.
Looking ahead is a must when carrying out the termination of an
employee’s employment and keeping the remaining workforce motivated
after downsizing. Proactive long-term approaches should also be applied
by any agency involved in providing guidance to downsizing
organizations. Support should be offered to those that are displaced, but, in
the long term, help offered to ‘survivors’ will be much more important in
determining organizational health.
6 We are seeing more of the long-term effects of downsizing on
organizational health. When downsizing is under-managed, there is the
danger that an organizational down-cycle will be created, and its results
can be destructive to the organization and the individuals that work there.
It is far easier and far less costly to avoid or correct this cycle at the time
when downsizing occurs. It is important that downsizing is accompanied
by organizational proactive activities. If proactive action is missing, or is
ineffective, corrective actions down the road will require a long-term
commitment. Once an organization reaches the bottom of a down-cycle, it
will take considerable time to reverse the process.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. The word “one” in paragraph 1 refers to ---.
A) subsidiary company B) early retirement C) incentive
D) technique

2. It can be understood from paragraph 1 that ---.

A) when downsizing, companies do not necessarily fire their employees
B) one of the downsizing strategies that companies use is making new
hires at a lower salary
C) very few companies manage to minimize the negative effects of
downsizing they experience
D) many businesses make all their staff get involved in their downsizing
efforts

3. Which of the following statements is FALSE according to paragraph

2?
A) People who survive the downsizing process may suffer as much as
those who don't.
B) Managers usually need to reallocate tasks and responsibilities after
downsizing.
C) Downsizing companies offer assistance to laid-off employees for
professional development.
D) Managers cooperate with consulting agencies when notifying
employees of the layoff.

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the complaints of the survivors

of downsizing mentioned in paragraph 3?
A) increased work C) not being able to adapt to new duties
B) feeling deceived by managers D) confusion over company goals

5. The word “imperceptible” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ---.

A) valuable B) gradual C) regular D)
pointless

6. According to paragraph 4, organizations face “down-cycles” ---.

A) if the downsizing process is left unmanaged, which might cause staff to
become demoralized
B) which can easily be avoided if managers recover from depression and
boost their mood
C) when managers do not pay attention to the long-term effects of
downsizing and blame staff for the down-cycle
D) unless internal communication between managers and executives
develops

7. It is mentioned in paragraph 5 that a manager’s most important asset is

the ability to ---.
A) work very hard C) motivate staff
B) get prepared for the future D) make decisions based on facts

8. According to paragraph 5, the proactive management activities

suggested by the author ---.
A) do not involve protecting the image of the company
B) prioritize staff of the organization, not the customers
C) ought to be implemented by not only managers but also consulting
agencies
D) encourage managers to inform the survivors about the reasons for
downsizing

9. What is paragraph 6 MAINLY about?

A) The importance of downsizing and proactive approaches going
together
B) The effects of downsizing on business reputation
C) The necessity of dealing with the effects of downsizing on the
remaining staff
D) The danger of a lack of commitment to change

10. Which of the following sentences is TRUE according to the text?

A) Poor performance of the employees is one of the reasons why
companies downsize.
B) It is customary business practice to help people who lose their jobs
during downsizing.
C) Staff members who remain in a downsized organization are more likely
to cooperate with colleagues.
D) The effects of downsizing are usually minimal thanks to positive
momentum and enthusiasm.

TEXT 6 PHOTOGRAPHY AND

MEMORY
1 People worldwide upload more than one billion images a day,
preserving their memories to enjoy them in the future. However, it turns
out that photography may be preventing our memory from remembering
the events correctly or well. How does the need to capture the moment
change how we actually experience the moment, both in the
present and when we try to recall it later?
2 One of the major reasons we take photos is to remember important
moments such as the birth of a baby or a wedding long after they have
passed. In 2015, Manoush Zamarodi conducted a project in which she
challenged 20,000 people to detach from their smartphones in order to
increase their creativity. When she surveyed the participants about all the
reasons why they usually took photos, many said they used photos as a
“memory aid,” taking pictures of things like parking spots or the label of
something at a market to buy later. However, they didn’t know that every
time they snap a quick picture of something, they could in fact be harming
their memory of it.
3 Linda Henkel, a professor of psychology, studied how taking photos
impacts experience and memory by making an experiment using a group
of undergraduates on a guided tour of the university’s museum of art. The
students were asked to take photos of some objects that they looked at on
the tour and to simply observe others. The next day, she brought the
students into her research lab to test their memory of all the objects they
had seen on the tour. Whenever they remembered a piece of work, she
asked follow-up questions about specific visual details. The results were
clear: overall, people remembered fewer of the objects they had
photographed. They also couldn’t recall as many specific visual details of
the photographed art, compared to the art they had only observed.
4 “When you take a photo of something, you rely on the camera to
remember the experience for you,” Henkel said. “You’re basically saying,
‘Okay, I don’t need to think about this any further. The camera has
captured it.’ You don’t engage in any processing that really would help
you remember it.” In other words, if your camera captures the moment,
then your brain doesn’t. Henkel gave this situation a name: the photo-
taking-impairment effect. Of course, our brains are not capable of
remembering every detail, but isn’t that what photos are for: to help our
fallible memories?
5 Henkel agrees that the purpose of redistributing our memory to
devices can free up our brains to do other cognitive processing. According
to her, the problem is that people constantly go from one thing to the next.
Therefore, instead of having energy to focus their attention on more
important tasks, they have the constant stream of the next thing, and never
fully feel any of the experiences they actually have. Nonetheless, Henkel
and her student Katelyn Parisi ran another study to see what happens to
memory when people have photos to remind them of a moment or object.
They found that “In the real world, we are so busy capturing photos that
afterwards we don’t actually look at them.”
6 However, there was one way in which taking pictures did not erode
people’s memories in Henkel’s experiments. In the art museum study,
“When participants zoomed in to photograph a specific part of the object,
their detail memory was not affected badly; moreover, they remembered
each detail about the object in addition to the zoomed part,” the
professor wrote. “This suggests that the additional attention and cognitive
processes engaged by this focused activity can eliminate the photo-taking-
impairment effect.”
7 How taking photos affects our understanding of ourselves and of the
things we are photographing is still a big question mark. But as a result of
her experiments, there is one thing Henkel is sure of. “Cameras, as
amazing as they are, can’t compare to what the brain is capable of with
input from the eyes and the ears,” she said. Maybe, you can look around
and enjoy the moment instead of taking a photograph.

Read the text and answer the questions below.

1. What is the text MAINLY about?
A) What can be done to prevent the adverse effects of photographing the
moment
B) How photography can help people remember the objects they observe
better
C) How photographing the moment affects the way we remember the
things negatively
D) What the negative effects of photography are on social life

2. According to paragraph 2, in Manoush Zamarodi’s project, ---.

A) the participants were asked to use their phone only for creative
activities
B) the researcher asked the participants about their main reason for using
smartphones
C) remembering important things later was the reason why many
participants took photos
D) many participants used a photo application called memory aid to
remember important things later

3. Which of the following is FALSE according to paragraph 3?

A) Linda Henkel studied a group of students to understand the effects of
taking photos on experience and memory.
B) The students took photos of objects that were observed by other people
on a guided tour in the university’s museum of art.
C) Linda Henkel tested the memory of students by asking them questions
about the objects they had seen the previous day.
D) The students were able to remember fewer specific details of the
objects they had photographed than the ones they had only looked at.

4. In paragraph 4, the word “this” refers to ---.

A) a photo of something
B) the camera
C) any processing
D) experience

5. In paragraph 4, the word “fallible” is closest in meaning to -----.

A) imperfect
B) trustworthy
C) accurate
D) personal

6. Which of the following CANNOT be understood from paragraph 5?

A) People usually forget to look at the photos they have taken before.
B) Taking photos all the time prevents people from living the moment they
are in.
C) Henkel thinks using devices helps our brains to do other mental
processing.
D) Photos remind people of the moments they experienced afterwards
even if they don’t look at them again.

7. In paragraph 6, the word “erode” could best be replaced by ---.

A) neglect
B) fix
C) preserve
D) reduce

8. Which of the following is TRUE according to the text?

A) The project conducted by Manoush Zamarodi aimed to develop
creativity by decreasing cell phone use.
B) Linda Henkel used the term “photo-impairment-effect” to show the
help of photograph on memory.
C) If a specific part of an object is zoomed, students can only remember
details of the zoomed part.
D) The writer advises readers to use the cameras more frequently as they
are amazing in some ways compared to the brain.

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