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Diabetes Management Strategies and Cases

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
50 views3 pages

Diabetes Management Strategies and Cases

Uploaded by

Mohammed Hassen
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

1-A 64-year-old African American woman has had a 12-kg (27 lb) weight increase during the past

year, primarily because of inactivity and a poor diet. Her BMI is 44 kg/m2. Her mother and sister
both have T2D. Her fasting glucose concentration today is 212 mg/dL. Which is the best course of
action?

A. Diagnose T2D and begin treatment.

B. Diagnose T1D and begin treatment.

C. Obtain another glucose concentration today.

D. Obtain an A1C today in addition to the OGTT.

OGTT

(a) Plasma glucose concentration obtained 2 hours after a 75-g oral glucose ingestion

(b) 200 mg/dL or greater

(c)More sensitive and specific than FPG but more cumbersome to perform A1C (glycated
hemoglobin)

HgA1C

(a) 6.5% or greater

(b) May be less sensitive than FPG in identifying mild diabetes, but does not require fasting

and has less variability from day to day

(c) A1C values may be inaccurate in patients with anaemia, chronic malaria, sickle cell anaemia,

Pregnancy or significant blood loss or recent blood transfusion.

2- A 21-year-old patient (weight 80 kg) is given a diagnosis of T1D after the discovery of elevated
glucose concentrations (average 326 mg/dL), and the patient has signs and symptoms of
hyperglycemia. Which is the most appropriate initial dose of rapid-acting insulin before breakfast for
this patient? (Assume a TDI regimen of 0.5 unit/kg/day.)

A. 2 units.

B. 4 units.

C. 7 units.

D. 14 units.

Basal requirements are approximately 50% of total daily (20 unit) usually divided equally into three
doses initially, taken with each meal (i.e., breakfast, lunch, and dinner), and then each pre-meal dose

is individually adjusted based on BG reading.


3-A 66-year-old man has had T2D for 4 years. His A1C today is 7.7%. He has altered his diet and
states that he has been exercising regularly for months. He takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily.
Which would best help optimize his glycemic control?

A. Continue current medications and counsel to improve his diet and exercise.

B. Discontinue metformin and initiate exenatide 5 mcg twice daily.

C. Add bromocriptine 0.8 mg at bedtime.

D. Add sitagliptin 100 mg once daily to his metformin therapy

Metformin remains the initial drug of choice, unless contraindicated or adverse effects preclude its
use or if improvements in exercise and diet early after diagnosis fail to control hyperglycaemia.
(Consider combination therapy of metformin with the medications listed in the text that follows if
baseline A1C is 1.5% or greater above personal goal A1C.)

If metformin monotherapy fails to allow the patient to attain or maintain glycemic control, adding
other agents is based on several criteria and weighs the advantages and disadvantages of the various
oral and injectable agents.

[Link] in lowering A1C (also focus on ability to lower fasting or postprandial glucose concentra-

tions or both)

b. Existing comorbidities

i. Cardiovascular disease: Consider GLP-1 agonist or SGLT-2 inhibitor

ii. Heart failure or chronic kidney disease: Consider SGLT-2 inhibitor

c. Risk of hypoglycemia

d. Effects on weight

e. Adverse effect profile

f. Cost

g. Oral or injection patient preference

: R.P. is a 43-year-old woman visiting a primary care clinic to obtain a routine physical examination
for her new job. Her past medical history is significant for GDM. She was told during her two
pregnancies (last child born 3 years ago) that she had “borderline diabetes,” which resolved each
time after giving birth. Her family history is significant for type 2 diabetes (mother, maternal
grandmother, older first cousin), hypertension, and CVD. She appears black and when asked
identifies herself as African American. She denies tobacco or alcohol use. She states she tries to walk
15 minutes twice a week. Physical examination is significant for moderate central obesity (5 feet 4
inches;160 pounds; BMI, 30.2 kg/m2) and blood pressure (BP) 145/85 mm Hg. R.P. denies any
symptoms of polyphagia, polyuria, or lethargy. On checking her electronic medical record, she has
documented hypertension and an FPG value of 119 mg/dL, measured 2 months prior.

1-What features of R.P.’s history and examination are consistent with an increased risk of
developing type 2 diabetes?
Age, ethnicity, weight, family history of diabetes, history of GDM, family history of hypertension and
CVD may indicate that she is pre-disposed to insulin resistance.

2- the physician order A1C for R.P. Which was 8.5% what is your comment?

R.P. is a DM type 2 patient.

3- what is the proper treatment for R.P.?

Non pharmacological treatment: diet ,exercise

Pharmacological treatment

Metformin Initial: 500 mg once or twice daily (once daily with extended-release formulation)

Small initial dosage and slow titration secondary to GI disturbances

4- what possible R.P. side-effect might have?

Common questions

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The most appropriate initial treatment plan for this patient is to diagnose type 2 diabetes (T2D) and begin treatment, as her fasting glucose concentration is above the diagnostic threshold of 126 mg/dL. This decision is supported by the presence of significant risk factors such as obesity, family history, and inactive lifestyle .

For a newly diagnosed T1D patient, the initial insulin dosing regimen is typically determined by body weight, the total daily insulin (TDI) requirement per kg, and the need for basal and bolus (meal-time) dose distribution. For instance, a TDI of 0.5 units/kg/day is common, with approximately half for basal needs and the remainder divided for meal boluses .

Potential side effects of metformin, particularly in new users, include gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea and diarrhea. These can often be mitigated by starting with a low dose and gradually titrating up. Extended-release formulations may also help reduce these side effects .

A1C values might be inaccurate in populations with conditions affecting red blood cell turnover, such as anemia, chronic malaria, sickle cell anemia, and recent blood loss. Misleading A1C levels can lead to incorrect diabetes diagnosis or assessment, necessitating alternative diagnostic measures, like plasma glucose tests, especially in these populations .

An OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test) is preferred over an FPG (Fasting Plasma Glucose) when a more specific assessment is required, as it is more sensitive in diagnosing diabetes than FPG alone. This is particularly important in borderline cases or when verifying FPG results, despite being more cumbersome to perform .

Comorbidities such as cardiovascular disease or chronic kidney disease influence diabetes medication choices, as certain drugs may offer cardiovascular or renal benefits. For example, SGLT-2 inhibitors may be preferred in such cases to reduce cardiovascular risk. Also, minimizing the risk of hypoglycemia is crucial, hence agents like GLP-1 agonists or DPP-4 inhibitors, which have a lower hypoglycemia risk, are favored in suitable contexts .

Adding sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, to the existing metformin therapy is considered because it can help optimize glycemic control by lowering A1C. Sitagliptin targets postprandial glucose concentrations, and this combination can be effective when metformin monotherapy is insufficient in achieving glycemic targets .

Women with a history of gestational diabetes often require more aggressive monitoring and lifestyle interventions postpartum, as they are at increased risk for type 2 diabetes. Management may involve regular glucose tolerance tests and, if needed, medication like metformin to maintain glucose control, focusing on preventing progression to full-blown diabetes .

Metformin monotherapy is beneficial as an initial diabetes treatment due to its efficacy, low cost, weight neutrality, and safety profile. However, if glycemic targets are not met, combination therapy can be more effective by targeting different pathways, although it may increase the complexity, cost, and risk of side effects. Clinicians must balance these factors to tailor therapy to individual patient needs and clinical circumstances .

Clinical features indicating increased type 2 diabetes risk include obesity (BMI over 30 kg/m2), ethnicity (being African American), sedentary lifestyle, history of gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. These factors suggest a predisposition to insulin resistance and potential type 2 diabetes development .

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