Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10

IBPS REGIONAL RURAL BANKS (RRBs)

CLERK XIII-Mains -MODEL TEST - 10
REASONING
Direction: (1-5) Study the given information carefully to answer the given

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questions.
Eight people - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a square table in
such a way that four of them are sitting at the four corners of the table and they
are facing outside of the table while remaining four persons are sitting in the
middle of each of the four sides of the table and they are facing insideof the table.
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Each of them likes different colours - Red, Yellow, Green, Orange, Blue, White,
Pink and Black.
The one who likes Blue is not facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre). U is

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sitting fifth to the left of the one who likes Blue. Only one person is sitting
between U and the one who likes orange. P is sitting third to the right of the one
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who likes Orange. Two persons are sitting between P and W. W doesn't like Orange.
Neither W nor P is an immediate neighbour of Q. The one who likes Yellow is
sitting third to the right of Q. R and T are the immediate neighbours. R is neither
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an immediate neighbour of W nor likes Orange. The one who likes White is an
immediate neighbour of S. S is sitting third to the left of R. The one who likes Red
is sitting second to the left of the one who likes Green. R likes neither Red nor
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Black.
1. Who sits exactly between the one who likes green and T?
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1) R 2) P 3) S 4) Q 5) W
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
does not belong to that group?
1) S 2) T 3) The one who likes Green
4) The one who likes White 5) P
3. What is the position of V with respect to U?
C
1) Third to the left 2) Immediate right
3) Second to the right 4) Third to the right 5) Immediate left
4. How many persons sit between W and the one who likes pink when counted from
the right of W?
1) One 2) Three 3) More than four 4) Four 5) Two
5. Who sits diagonally opposite to the one who likes orange?
1) The one who likes Blue 2) R 3) The one who likes Green
4) U 5) W
Direction: (6-10) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Nine friends – K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a row and all of them
are facing North direction. Each of them likes different cars – Ford, BMW, Audi,
Nissan, Honda, Suzuki, Volvo, KIA and Fiat.
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
S likes Suzuki and is not sitting at any of the extreme ends. K and M are
sitting adjacent to each other. R sits to the immediate left of Q. Q likes neither
KIA nor Fiat. The person who likes Honda sits second to the right of a person who
likes Fiat. Only two persons are sitting between L and N. N is sitting at one of the
extreme ends. The person who likes Audi sits to the right of the person who likes
Fiat. Only one person is sitting between the persons who like Nissan and Audi.
The person who likes Volvo is sitting at one of the extreme ends, but he is not an
immediate neighbour of the person who likes Suzuki. L, likes Honda sits second
to the left of S. P likes BMW and is a neighbour of both K and L. O does not like
Nissan.

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6. Which of the following car does Q like?
1) Audi 2) Nissan 3) Ford 4) Honda 5) Volvo
7. Which of the following combination is true as per the given arrangement?
1) L – Audi 2) M – Volvo 3) K – BMW 4) N – Nissan 5) P – Honda
8. How many persons are there between ‘O’ and the person who likes ‘KIA’?
1) Two
5) None
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2) Three 3) More than three 4) One

9. ____ sits second to the left of the one who likes Honda?
1) M

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2) The one who likes Audi
4) The one who likes Fiat
3) S
5) R
d
10. If M is related to Volvo and N is related to Audi in the same way K is related to
____.
1) Ford 2) Honda 3) KIA 4) BMW 5) Nissan
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Direction (11-13): In these questions, relationship between some elements is

shown in the statement (s). These statement(s) are followed by two conclusions.
Read the statements and given answer.
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11. Statements: D < J; D = B; J  K; A  B
Conclusions: I. J = B II. K > A
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1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true

3) Either conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
12. Statements: P  Q > M; N  Q > T
Conclusions: I. T > P II. N  P
1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
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3) Either conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
13. Statements: A = B < C; B > D; D > E
Conclusions: I. D < C II. A > E
1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
3) Either conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
Direction: (14-16) Study the given arrangement of symbol, letter and digits
carefully to answer the given questions.
HN4&TE3µ@5R1*JS2%9M6ALO#VU7!
14. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a letter?
1) None 2) One 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than three

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position, as per
the given arrangements and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
does not belong to that group?
1) 4T& 2) 51R 3) *SJ 4) 29M 5) OV#
16. Which of the following is the sixth element to the right of the twentieth element
from the right end?
1) J 2) S 3) 2 4) % 5) @
Direction: (17-21) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eleven persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, K, L and M are living in an eleven

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floor building where the lowermost floor is numbered as one, the one above that
is numbered as two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as eleven.
Only two persons live between F and G. Only four persons live between A
and G. E lives on one of the odd numbered floors but above the floor number five.
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Only one person lives between E and K. As many persons live below A as above C.
As many persons live between C and G as between B and L. B lives on one of the
floors above L. K lives immediately above G. M lives on one of the even numbered
floors above L. H lives on one of the floors above D but below A. K lives on one of
the floors below E.

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17. How many persons live between H and F?
1) Six 2) No one 3) Five 4) Seven 5) Four
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
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the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
does not belong to that group?
1) A 2) C 3) K 4) B 5) F
C
19. How many persons live above B?
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1) None 2) One 3) Three 4) Two 5) More than three

20. On which of the following floor does D live?
1) 4th floor 2) 6th floor 3) 3rd floor 4) 7th floor 5) 2nd floor
21. ____ lives immediately below E.
1) K 2) M 3) G 4) C 5) L
Direction (22-24): In each of the questions below are given three/four statements
followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true
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even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from
the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
22. Statements: Only a few pencils are pens
Some pens are erasers
No eraser is sharpener
Conclusions: I. All sharpeners can be pencils.
II. Some pens are sharpeners.
1) Only conclusion I is follows 2) Only conclusion II is follows
3) Either conclusion I or II is follows
4) Neither conclusion I nor II is follows
5) Both conclusions I and II are follow

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
23. Statements: No curd is amul Only a few amul is down
No down is rice
Conclusions: I. Some curd is rice. II. Some down is curd.
1) Only conclusion I is follows 2) Only conclusion II is follows
3) Either conclusion I or II is follows
4) Neither conclusion I nor II is follows
5) Both conclusions I and II are follow
24. Statements: Some liquids are juices Only a few juices are shakes
All shakes are fruits

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Conclusions: I. Some liquids are fruits.
II. All juices being shakes is a possibility.
1) Only conclusion I is follows 2) Only conclusion II is follows
3) Either conclusion I or II is follows
4) Neither conclusion I nor II is follows
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5) Both conclusions I and II are follow
Direction: (25-29) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:

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Eight persons of a family - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W were born in eight
different years – 1967, 1978, 1984, 1995, 2001, 2004, 2010 and 2017. Also, each
d
of them is of different weight. All the ages of the given persons have been calculated
on base year 2020 and all the persons are considered to be born on same date of
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same month.
P is 6 years younger than S. The one who is just heavier than P is the
youngest person of the family. U is the third lightest and third youngest member
of the family. The difference between the ages of P and W is 17 years and W is
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lighter than only one person. The difference between the ages of S and P is same
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as the difference between the ages of W and T. R is older than Q and also heavier
than Q and P. R is not the oldest person. The one who is the second oldest is the
lightest member of the family. S is not the lightest member and P is not the
fourth lightest person. V is heavier than S.
25. What is the sum of the ages of P and R (in years)?
1) 46 2) 55 3) 29 4) 35 5) 71
26. How many persons were born between W and the one who is the heaviest person?
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1) Three 2) Two 3) None 4) One 5) More than three
27. Who amongst the following person was born in 1995?
1) W 2) T 3) S 4) R 5) P
28. ____ was born immediately after the one who is the second lightest person.
1) P 2) U 3) T 4) V 5) W
29. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true as per the given arrangement?
I. Only three persons are heavier than P.
II. The difference between the ages of the lightest person and the heaviest person
is 32 years.
III. V was born immediately before S.
1) Only II 2) Only III 3) Only II and III
4) Only I 5) All I, II and III

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
Direction (30-32): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two
statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
30. Eight boxes are kept one above other in a stack. Which of the following box is kept
immediately above the box H?
Statement I: Three boxes are kept between box B and box F. Box F is kept
immediately above box L.
Statement II: Three boxes are kept between box L and box H. Box L is kept below
box H.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the

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data in statement II alone is not required to answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not required to answer the question
3) The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question
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4) The data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
5) The data in neither statement I nor in statement II is sufficient to answer the
question

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d
31. Among A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing centre. Who among the
following person sit immediate right of D?
Statement I: A faces B. Only one person sits between B and D.
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Statement II: D sits second to the right of A. A sits immediate left of C.

1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not required to answer the question
C
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not required to answer the question
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3) The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question
4) The data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
5) The data in neither statement I nor in statement II is sufficient to answer the
question
C
32. There are five persons in a family viz. P, Q, R, S and T. How is S related to P?
Statement I: T is the cousin of P and son of Q. Q is married to S.
Statement II: R is father of P and brother of S. Q is the wife of S.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not required to answer the question
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not required to answer the question
3) The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question
4) The data in either statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
5) The data in neither statement I nor in statement II is sufficient to answer the
question

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
Direction: (33-36) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Nine persons are selected in either of three different departments of a
company i.e. Marketing, HR and Finance. At least two but not more than four
persons are selected in the same department. (Note: If it is said that A select
with B means both A and B select in the same department). U selects only with
S, but not in marketing department. V and Q are selecting in the same department
but not with R. T selects in the marketing department. W and X select in the
same department. R neither selects in marketing nor HR. P does not select in
the same department as W. X selects neither in HR department nor with P.

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33. Who amongst the following person is selected in the same department as X?
1) P 2) Q 3) V 4) R 5) U
34. Which of the following statement is true about P as per the given arrangement?
1) P gets selected with R 2) P gets selected in Finance
3) P gets selected in Marketing 4) P gets selected with U

35.
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5) Either the option 2 or option 3
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and hence form a group. Which one of the following one
does not belong to that group?
1) P - X

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2) Q – T 3) R – S 4) U – V 5) W – T
d
36. How many persons are selected in marketing department?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three 4) Cannot be determined
5) Same number of persons as selected in finance department
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Direction: (37-40) Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F are living in a family of different heights
C
and ages. A is taller than only two persons. B is shorter than D but taller than F.
The one who is the shortest person among all is not the eldest one. C is elder
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than E. E is the tallest person. Only three persons are older than B. F is just
younger than D. A is younger than both E and B. F is just shorter than A.
37. How many persons are younger than C?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) None 5) More than three
38. Who amongst the following person is the shortest?
1) F 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) A
39. As many persons taller than A as shorter than _____.
C
1) F 2) B 3) E 4) C 5) D
40. Who amongst the following is the second eldest person?
1) C 2) F 3) D 4) B 5) E
COMPUTER AWARENESS
41. What contains the computer BIOS and maintains its data with the use of a battery
for periods when the system is powered down?
1) CMOS 2) RAM 3) DRAM 4) CPU 5) None of these
42. The ________file format is a method to encoding pictures on a computer.
1) HTML 2) JPEG 3) FTP 4) URL 5) DOC
43. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media
to the hard disk called?
1) Configuration 2) Download 3) Storage
4) Upload 5) Installation
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
44. The property that, when classes are arranged in a hierarchy, each class assumes
the attributes and methods of its ancestors is
1) Inheritance 2) Generalization 3) Encapsulation
4) Information hiding 5) None of these
45. A large space common in most of the Windows which is displayed at the background
of the Windows main icon screen, is called
1) Application view 2) Work area 3) Project view
4) Toolbar 5) None of these
46. Permanent instructions that the computer uses when it is turned on and that
cannot be changed by other instructions are contained in

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1) ROM 2) RAM 3) ALU 4) REM 5) None of these
47. Which output device is used for translating information from a computer into
pictorial form on paper?
1) Mouse 2) Plotter 3) Touch panel 4) Card punch 5) None of these
48. To make a notebook act as a desktop model, the notebook can be connected to a
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__________ which is connected to a monitor and other devices.
1) Bay 2) Docking station 3) Port 4) Network 5) None of these
49. What is the name of the process that is used to convert a series of instructions,

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or program, written in a high-level language into instructions (or a program) that
can be run on a computer?
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1) Assembling 2) Compiling 3) Translating 4) Uploading 5) None of these
50. You can use the _____________bar to type a URL and display a Web page, or type a
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keyword to display a list of related Web pages.

1) Menu 2) Title 3) Search 4) Web 5) Address
51. Press __________ to move the insertion point to the address box, or to highlight
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the URL in the address box.
1) Alt + D 2) Alt + A 3) Shift + Tab 4) Tab + Ctrl 5) None of these
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52. In MS WORD 365, Ctrl + E is the keyboard shortcut to __________

1) Right align the selected text 2) Display the file menu options
3) Centre align the selected text
4) Justify the selected text 5) Left align the selected text
53. __________ records everything you type on your PC in order to obtain your log-in
name, passwords and other sensitive information
C
1) Worms 2) Virus 3) Ransomware 4) Keyloggers 5) None of these
54. Which one of the following folders is used to store deleted emails?
1) Spam 2) Trash 3) Inbox 4) Drafts 5) Both 1 and 2
55. _______ is the bit rate of available or consumed information capacity expressed
typically in metric multiples of bits per second
1) Protocol 2) Speed 3) Frequency 4) Bandwidth 5) None of these
56. An impact printer creates characters by using...?
1) An inked ribbon and print head 2) Electrically charged ink
3) An ink pen
4) All of the above 5) None of these
57. Magnetic storage devices can represent binary 0 by the absence of...?
1) A magnetic field 2) Magnetic tape 3) Static electricity
4) All of the above 5) None of these

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
58. A disk storage medium in the form of an assembly containing a single rigid magnetic
disk permanently is
1) Fixed disk 2) Card reader 3) Card punch
4) Disk cartridge 5) None of these
59. _____terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex
inventory and sales computer systems.
1) Point-of-sale (POS) 2) Data 3) Sales
4) Query 5) None of these
60. Which of the following is not a LibreOffice Software suite program?
1) LibreOffice Excel 2) LibreOffice Impress 3) LibreOffice Writer

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4) LibreOffice Calc 5) None of these
61. Which of the following functions will you use to count the numbers in the dataset?
1) =COUNT (B5:F24) 2) =COUNTA (B5:F24)
3) =COUNTNUM (B5:F24) 4) =DCOUNT (B5:F24) 5) None of these
62.
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A characteristic of a file server is which of the following?
1) Acts as a fat client and is limited to one PC
2) Manages file operations and is limited to one PC

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3) Acts as a fat client and is shared on a network
4) Manages file operations and is shared on a network 5) None of these
d
63. Which Operating System doesn't support networking between computers?
1) Windows 95 2) Windows 3.1 3) Windows 2000
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4) Windows NT 5) None of the above

64. What is the purpose of inserting header and footer in document?
1) To enhance the overall appearance of the document
C
2) To mark the starting and ending of page
3) To make large document more readable
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4) To allow page headers and footers appear on document when printed

5) None of these
65. Pre-made sheet formats like Simple, Classic, Accounting, Colorful etc can be
applied from
1) From Format » Cells 2) From Format > > Auto format
3) From Table > > Auto format 4) All of these 5) None of these
C
66. Which of the following is a web browser created and developed by Microsoft?
1) Brave 2) Chrome 3) Edge 4) Opera 5) Firefox
67. _______ are set of wires, which carries a group of bits in parallel and has an
associated control scheme. It provides a communication path between two or
more devices of a computer system.
1) Buses 2) Register 3) Control Unit 4) Cache 5) None of these
68. You can embed a MS-Organization Chart in a slide by
1) Clicking the object command on the edit menu
2) Clicking the object command on the edit menu
3) Clicking the insert new slide button the standard toolbar, then double click the
organization chart button on the formatting toolbar
4) Clicking the MS Organization Chart button on the standard toolbar
5) None of these

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
69. ____ was the first browser to display images in line with text instead of displaying
images in a separate window.
1) Opera 2) Mosaic 3) Mozilla 4) Lynx 5) None of these
70. _______ holds address of the active memory location.
1) Memory Address Register 2) Instruction Register
3) Program Counter 4) Stack Pointer 5) Data Register
71. Which of the following statements is incorrect for input devices?
1) Optical Mark Reader is an input device
2) Input devices helps computer in receiving data
3) Input devices are also called as peripheral device
4) Input devices accepts user data 5) None of these

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72. _____ displays a list of utility configure the computer system and install software
and hardware.
1) Control Panel 2) Help and Support 3) Run
4) Task bar 5) None of these
73. Which among the following type of computer is also known as notebook?
1) Micro Computer
4) Laptop Computer
ha 2) Multi Core 3) Work station
5) Personal Computer
74. Which of the following should you use if you want all the slide in the presentation
to have the same "look"?

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1) The slide layout option
4) A presentation design template
2) Add a slide option 3) Outline view
5) None of these
d
75. Which among the following ports is also known as mouse port?
1) PS/2 2) Fire Wire 3) High Definition Media Interface
4) Video Graphic Array 5) None of these
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76. When we run a program in HTML coding, _______is used as backend and
______works as frontend.
1) Notepad, Msn messenger 2) Notepad-1, Internet Explorer
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3) MS Word, Internet Explorer
4) Both 1 and 2 5) None of these
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77. A ...... is a device that not only provides surge protection, but also furnishes your
computer with battery backup power during a power outage
1) Surge strip 2) USB 3) UPS 4) Battery strip 5) None of these
78. A family of polynomial block codes designed to correct burst errors is known as
1) Bar codes 2) Gray codes 3) Fire codes 4) Mnemonics codes 5) None
79. In processing cheques which of the following I/O techniques have banks
traditionally followed?
C
1) OCR 2) MICR 3) Barcode 4) VRT 5) None of these
80. A _____ is a networking device that filters network traffic while connecting multiple
computers or communicating devices.
1) Repeater 2) Router 3) Gateway 4) Switch 5) None of these
GENERAL AWARENESS
81. The Government’s Department of Pension & Pensioners' Welfare recently started
the Integrated Pensioners’ Portal in collaboration with which of the following
Banks?
1) State Bank of India 2) Canara Bank 3) Bank of Baroda
4) Indian Bank 5) Bank of India
82. The Indian men’s cricket team, led by Rohit Sharma, won the ________ ICC Men’s
T20 World Cup by defeating South Africa by 7 runs at Kensington Oval, Barbados
on 29 June 2024.
1) 9th 2) 10th 3) 8th 4) 6th 5) 12th
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
83. Kisan Credit Card is a government scheme to provide short-term credit loans to
farmers at very low-interest rates. The minimum KCC interest rate is 2% per
annum. It was floated in which year with the intent to save farmers from the
pangs of unauthorized money lenders?
1) 1992 2) 1995 3) 1996 4) 1998 5) 1990
84. Which country has recently unveiled its new “Deep Stand-off” long-range air
launched ballistic missile named “AIR LORA”?
1) Russia 2) China 3) Israel 4) Iran 5) India
85. Inflation in India’s wholesale prices rose to a 13-month high of 1.26% in April,
owing to an uptick in food inflation and a 1.4% year-on-year rise in fuel and

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power prices after several months of deflation. With reference to the Wholesale
Price Index (WPI), consider the following statements.
I) It measures the changes in the prices of goods and services sold and traded in
bulk by wholesale businesses to other businesses.
II) It is calculated and published by the Office of Economic Advisor in the Ministry
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of Commerce and Industry.
III) It is published quarterly and is used to measure the level of wholesale inflation
in both goods and services.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d
1) (I) only 2) (II) only 3) (III) only
4) (II) and (III) only 5) (I) and (II) only
86. The DAC is the highest decision-making body in the Defence Ministry for deciding
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on new policies and capital acquisitions for the three services (Army, Navy and
Air Force) and the Indian Coast Guard. Who among the following is the chairman
of the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC)?
C
1) Defence Secretary 2) Chief of Defence Staff
3) Minister of Defence
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4) Prime Minister 5) President of India

87. India recently attended Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF)
Ministerial meeting. Consider the following statements with respect to Indo-Pacific
Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF).
I) It aims to enhance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth,
equity and competitiveness among the members.
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II) It was launched by the USA with India being one of the founding members.
III) The IPEF ministerial meeting, 2024 was held at New Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) (I) and (II) only 2) (II) only 3) (III) only
4) (I), (II) and (III) 5) (II) and (III) only
88. Which bank, one of the country’s largest public sector banks, has issued a statement
confirming the hacking of its official X handle?
1) ICICI bank 2) Indian bank 3) Kotak Mahindra bank
4) Axis bank 5) Canara bank
89. As per the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) new
rules, the guaranteed surrender value under the revised regulations for non-
single premium products is _______ if the policy is surrendered in the third year.
1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 30% 4) 35% 5) 40%

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
90. In March 2024, which among the following has launched its most comprehensive
women's health insurance plan to meet the women's unique needs?
1) Trinity Reinsurance Brokers
2) Bajaj Allianz General Insurance
3) Birla Sun Life Insurance
4) Future Generali India Life Insurance 5) Protocol Solutions
91. In March 2024, the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development
(NaBFID) set a target to sanction Rs 3 trillion by March _________ (year) to support
the development of long-term non-recourse infrastructure financing.
1) 2025 2) 2027 3) 2026 4) 2028 5) 2029

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92. In which state, the Indian Air Force (IAF) has recently launched ‘Gagan Shakti2024’,
a 10-day war exercise?
1) Rajasthan 2) Maharashtra 3) Gujarat
4) Arunachal Pradesh 5) Uttarakhand
93. The International Day for Biological Diversity is observed every year on May 22.
ha
The theme for 2024 is__________________.
1) Our Solutions are in Nature
2) From Agreement to Action: Build Back Biodiversity

E
3) Building a shared future for all life
4) We're part of the solution #ForNature 5) Be part of the Plan
d
94. Recently, which ministry has introduced its first Standard Operating Procedures
(SOPs) for the seamless transport of human organs?
ee

1) Ministry of Home Affairs 2) Ministry of Science and Technology

3) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
4) Ministry of Rural Development 5) Ministry of Finance
95. In which state is the Coal to Synthetic Natural Gas (SNG) plant, established by a
C
joint venture between Coal India Limited (CIL) and GAIL (India) Limited, located?
Sr

1) Jharkhand 2) Odisha 3) Chhattisgarh 4) West Bengal 5) Gujarat

96. To improve the cyber defence skills in the country, recently, a Cyber Suraksha
Exercise was conducted by which agency?
1) Defence cyber agency 2) Defense Logistics Agency
3) Defense Counterintelligence and Security Agency
4) Defence Science and Technology Agency
5) Agency for Science, Technology and Research
C
97. Recently, Indian Army's Corps celebrated Saga Dawa festival commemorating
Lord Buddha's in which state?
1) Assam 2) Arunachal Pradesh 3) Sikkim
4) Manipur 5) Meghalaya
98. What is the maximum remittance amount per transaction that one can send to a
beneficiary residing in Nepal, given that the sender maintains an account with
any NEFT-enabled bank branch in India?
1) Rs. 1 lakh 2) Rs. 2 lakh 3) Rs. 5 lakh 4) Rs. 3 lakh 5) Rs. 10 lakh
99. PMI is an index of the prevailing direction of economic trends in the manufacturing
and service sectors. Hers, ‘PMI’ stands for _______.
1) Property Market Identification 2) Profit Market Information
3) Price Managers Index
4) Purchasing Managers Index 5) Personal Market Index

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
100. India participated in the 86th session of the Executive Committee of Codex
Alimentarius Commission, the 86th session of the Executive Committee of Codex
Alimentarius Commission is held at?
1) New York 2) Geneva 3) Rome 4) Paris 5) London
101. Which of the following statements about MASALA BONDS are correct?
I) Masala Bonds can be issued for three-, five, or seven-year maturities, with a
minimum maturity period of 3 years.
II) Maharashtra is the first Indian state to issue masala bonds.
III) A Masala Bond is a type of bond denominated in Indian Rupee and issued by
any company outside India.

r’s
Select the correct statements using the codes below:
1) Only (I) and (II) 2) Only (II) and (III) 3) Only (I)
4) only (III) 5) Only (I) and (III)
102. Which of the four Grand Slam courts is clay?
1) Australian Open 2) U.S. Open 3) French Open
4) Wimbledon
ha 5) Both (1) and (4)
103. Which company became a unicorn after raising approximately $120 million (?1,000
crores) in its most recent Series E investment round from WestBridge Capital?
1) Ola

E
2) Rapido 3) Swiggy 4) Zomato 5) CRED
104. What does Net Asset Value (NAV) represent in the context of mutual funds?
d
1) The total assets of the mutual fund scheme
2) The market value per share for a particular mutual fund
ee

3) The difference between total assets and total liabilities

4) The total liabilities of the mutual fund scheme
5) The annual management fee charged by the mutual fund company
105. The Reserve Bank of India’s Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) decided to keep
C
the repo rate unchanged at 6.5% in its August 2024 meeting for the ninth
Sr

consecutive time. The MPC had last changed the benchmark interest rate in
February 2023. What is the minimum number of meetings to be conducted by the
Monetary Policy Committee in a year?
1) Three 2) Two 3) Five 4) Six 5) Four
106. Recently, which of the following novel written by Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
was added to UNESCO's “Memory of the World” list?
1) Padmarag 2) God Gives, Man Robs
C
3) Abarodhbasini 4) Sultana's Dream 5) Kairos
107. Which Ministry has launched the myCGHS app to advance healthcare accessibility
for Central Government Health Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries?
1) Ministry of Home Affairs 2) Ministry of Finance
3) Ministry of Science and Technology
4) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
5) Ministry of Women & Child Development
108. What was the primary objective of NASA's Magellan Mission, recently seen in the
news?
1) To study the atmosphere of Mars 2) To study the asteroids
3) To explore the outer solar system
4) To map the surface of Venus
5) To Map the surface of Saturn

12
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
109. In May, which country has officially become the 99th member of the International
Solar Alliance (ISA), aiming to collaborate with other member countries to increase
the use of solar energy technologies and promote global energy transition?
1) Germany 2) Portugal 3) Brazil 4) Canada 5) Spain
110. In April 2024, The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has approved the
acquisition of Compulsorily Convertible Preference Shares (CCPS) in Northern
Arc Capital Limited (Northern Arc/Target) by which among the following financial
institution?
1) Muthoot Finance 2) Sundaram Finance
3) International Finance Corporation

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4) Shriram Transport Finance
5) Cholamandalam Investment & Finance
111. Recently, G7 energy ministers discussed a possible time frame for phasing out
coal-fired power plants. It is an intergovernmental organisation of leading
ha
industrialized nations formed in 1975. Consider the following:
I) Canada
II) Russia
III) Japan
IV) Germany

E
d
V) Australia
How many of the above are part of Group of Seven (G7)?
1) Only Two 2) Only Three 3) Only Four 4) Only One 5) All Five
ee

112. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is a statutory body set up by the
Government of India under section 3 of the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
Act, 1997. TRAI was founded on______.
C
1) 20th February 1996 2) 20th February 1995
Sr

3) 20th February 1997

4) 20th February 1992 5) 20th February 1999
113. A micro enterprise is an enterprise where the investment in plant and machinery
or equipment does not exceed Rs. _____ and turnover does not exceed Rs. ______.
1) 2 crore; 5 crore 2) 2 crore; 10 crore 3) 1 crore; 10 crore
4) 1 crore; 5 crore 5) 3 crore; 5 crore
114. Who has been appointed as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the
C
Small Industries Development Bank of India (Sidbi) by the Government of India?
1) Manoj Mittal 2) Rajesh Kumar 3) Anil Sharma
4) Vivek Gupta 5) Sanjay Gupta
115. Who has been given the sole privilege to operate the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana
Yojana (PMVVY), a scheme announced by the Government of India for citizens
aged 60 years and above?
1) State Bank of India 2) Reserve Bank of India
3) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
4) Securities and Exchange Board of India
5) Life Insurance Corporation of India
116. Recently, government has planned to launch two Artificial Intelligence anchors
named AI Krish and AI Bhoomi on which TV channel?
1) DD News 2) DD Bharti 3) DD National 4) DD Kisan 5) DD Saptagiri
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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
117. Hitachi Payment Services, one of leading names in payments and commerce
solutions, announced the launch of the "country’s first upgradable ATM." The
company said that the upgradable ATM can be transformed into a high-performance
cash recycling machine at any point in time. When was Hitachi payment services
started in India?
1) 2006 2) 2010 3) 2008 4) 2012 5) 2014
118. The maximum investment limit under the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate
(MSSC) scheme is set at ________.
1) Rs. 1 lakh 2) Rs. 3 lakh 3) Rs. 4 lakh 4) Rs. 6 lakh 5) Rs. 2 lakh
119. Consider the following statements regarding the Index of Industrial Production
(IIP).

r’s
I) It is an indicator that measures the changes in the volume of production of
industrial products during a given period.
II) It is compiled and published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation
(CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
III) The base year for IIP is 2009-2010.
ha
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)
4) Only (II) and (III) 5) Only (I) and (II)

E
120. In which location has the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board approved the "First
Approach to Criticality" for India's first Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR)?
d
1) Gujarat 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Karnataka 5) Kerala
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
ee

Directions (121-130): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
C
A trend that’s gaining momentum around the world is set to finally arrive in
Manhattan. It’s a tiny forest, to be planted on the southern end of Roosevelt
Sr

Island, in the East River, this spring. According to its creators, it would be the
first of its kind in the city and would consist of 1,000 native plants, trees and
shrubs, covering just 2,700 square feet.“We’re an island. We think about flooding,
we think about storm surge, and the best treatment is to plant a tree,” said
Christina Delfico, founder of iDig2Learn, a nonprofit group that works to reconnect
people with nature and that is helping to lead the project. “The roots will stabilize
the land. With good soil, there won’t be flooding. The concrete jungle needs pocket
C
forests.” Called the Manhattan Healing Forest, it will be planted using the Miyawaki
method, which was created by the Japanese botanist and plant ecologist Akira
Miyawaki, who received the Blue Planet Prize, a top environmental award, in
2006 for his work restoring forest ecosystems. First, the land is painstakingly
prepared, usually with compost and mulch. Then, native trees and shrubs are
planted close together, encouraging the flora to rapidly grow. According to
proponents, Miyawaki-style forests become self-sufficient within three years and
can achieve _________ within a few decades. Along the way, they provide habitat
for insects and wildlife, absorb carbon and clean the air. Mini-forests have been
planted by the thousands across the world, in cities in Europe, Africa, South
America, Asia, Russia and the Middle East. Many of the forests are barely the
size of tennis courts, yet their creators report a range of benefits, including a
cooling effect in warm weather, floodwater absorption, and even the return of
birds that local residents thought had vanished.
14
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
In the United States, Miyawaki-style forests have been planted in recent
years in Los Angeles, Washington State and Cambridge, Mass. One Cambridge
mini-forest was planted in Danehy Park, atop an old landfill, and was growing at
a rate that the city’s superintendent of urban forestry and landscapes described
as “phenomenal.”The Roosevelt Island mini-forest will be the 200th such forest
planted by SUGi, a foundation that plans to cover the costs, which generally
average about $200 per ten square feet. White oak, Virginia strawberry,
butternut,(A)/ New York fern and eastern white pine (B)/ will be between the
40 species planted, (C)/according to Elise van Middelem, SUGi’s founder.(D)/
The forest will be planted in Roosevelt Island’s Southpoint Park atop a large unused
garden bed, according to Ms. Delfico.“It was just waiting for this pocket forest,”

r’s
Ms. Delfico [Link] land is leased from the city by the Roosevelt Island Operating
Corporation, and the planting by community volunteers is scheduled for April 6.
121. According to the passage, what is the trend that’s gaining momentum around the
world ?
1) To form some nonprofit groups 2) To visit Roosevelt Island
3) A tiny forest
4) To cleaning the air
ha 5) None of the above
122. What is the uniqueness of tiny forest which is to be planted on the southern end
of Roosevelt Island, in the East River, this spring?

E
A) first of its kind in the city
B) it would consist of 1,000 native plants, trees and shrubs
d
C) whole forest covering is just 2,700 square feet
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) All A,B,C
ee

123. Choose the word which best expresses the similar meaning of the given word
spring as given in the passage.
1) Waterfall 2) Season 3) elastic body device
4) plant 5) bounce
C
124. According to the passage fill in the blank to make the sentence grammatically
Sr

and contextually meaningful. According to proponents, Miyawaki-style forests

become self-sufficient within three years and can achieve ___________within a
few decades.
1) maturity 2) growth 3) ripeness 4) completion 5) advancement
125. What is the purpose of planting a tiny forest on Roosevelt Island according to
Christina Delfico?
1) to make soil fertile
2) “the roots will stabilize the land. With good soil, there won’t be flooding.
C
3) so that their next generation can enjoy its fruits
4) to search the treasure hidden under trees
5) to give natural habitat to animals
126. What is the name of the organization leading the project to create the Manhattan
Healing Forest?
1) nonprofit group 2) Christina Delfico 3) Roosevelt Island
4) iDig2Learn 5) Miyawaki
127. According to the passage, choose a/the word/s which can replace the bold word
in the sentence, without changing the meaning of the sentence. Then, native
trees and shrubs are planted close together, encouraging the flora to rapidly
grow.
A. Quickly B. Sparsely C. Swiftly
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and C 5) Both A and B

15
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
128. What is the method used for preparing the land before planting a Miyawaki-style
forest?
A. Painstaking preparation with compost and mulch
B. Sowing seeds without fertilizers
C. pollination will be done by birds and plants
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) Both B and C
129. What is the estimated cost per square foot for planting Miyawaki-style forests?
1) About $400 2) About $300 3) About $200 4) About $100 5) About $500
130. Find the error in the bold sentence given in the passage.

r’s
1) White oak, Virginia strawberry, butternut,
2) New York fern and eastern white pine
3) will be between the 40 species planted,
4) according to Elise van Middelem, SUGi’s founder 5) No Error
Directions (131-135): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted
ha
by (A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether
there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the
sentence. That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”.

E
Ignore the errors of punctuation of any.
131. Banks which do not (A)/ meet its priority sector (B)/ targets are required to (C)/
d
pay high penalties.(D)/ No Error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
ee

132. In a quaint Parisian bakery, the master(A)/ baker skillful crafted a golden baguette,
its crust (B)/ crackling with promise, while nearby, a warm (C)/ croissant whispered
secrets of buttery delight.” (D)/ No Error (E)
C
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
133. when the guests entered (A)/ the room, they found him (B)/lying on the floor
Sr

with (C)/ the box in his right hand, (D)/ No Error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
134. There will be no more(A)/ supplies unless all arrears (B)/of payment were (C)/
cleared by next Thursday. (D)/ No Error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
135. Each faculty member as (A)/ well as most of the students (B)/ were of the view
C
that there should (C)/ be many more new courses.(D)/ No Error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
DIRECTION (136-140): In this question, words (A), (B), and (C) are given in bold.
If these words are interchanged, the sentence will be meaningful and
grammatically correct. Identify the correct order of the words which will make
the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct.
136. The fires in the Amazon, which reaches result (A) nine South American nations,
are the drought (B) of an extreme across (C) fueled by climate change.
1) CBA 2) ACB 3) BCA 4) CAB 5) ABC
137. During the breeding (A) season, the male indigo bunting sings in his territory
(B); each song lasts two or three seconds with a very short pause (C) between
songs.
1) CAB 2) BCA 3) ABC 4) BAC 5) CAB

16
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
138. The researchers made this discovery (A) by electrical (B) small areas of the
snout to extremely weak exposing (C) fields and recording the transmission of
resulting nervous activity to the brain.
1) ACB 2) BCA 3) CAB 4) BAC 5) CBA
139. Pictures were taken not only to needs (A) what should be show (B) but to reveal
what admired (C) to be confronted and fixed up.
1) CBA 2) BAC 3) ACB 4) BCA 5) CAB
140. But native tourists (A) that are changed by the someone (B) are not so different
from a city scandal that is corrected because ceremonies (C) photographs it.
1) CBA 2) ACB 3) BCA 4) CAB 5) ABC
Directions (141-145): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and

r’s
(E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions given below.
A. A record number of fires so far this year in the Amazon has also raised questions
about what may be in store for the world’s biggest tropical rainforest when the dry
season starts in June in the far larger southern part of the jungle.
ha
B. The fires have turned the end of the dry season in the northern part of the
giant rainforest into a crisis.
C. Instead, a punishing drought has kept the rains at bay, creating dry conditions
for fires that have engulfed hundreds of square miles of the rainforest that do not
usually burn.

E
D. By this time of the year, rain should be drenching large swaths of the Amazon
d
rainforest.
E. Firefighters have struggled to contain enormous blazes that have sent choking
smoke into cities across South America.
ee

141. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) C 4) B 5) D
142. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) E 3) C 4) B 5) D
C
143. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?
Sr

1) B 2) D 3) C 4) E 5) A
144. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) D 3) E 4) C 5) B
145. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
1) A 2) F 3) C 4) B 5) D
Directions (146-148): In each question, there is a statement followed by three
starters which are denoted by (I), (II) and (III). Each starter is a group of first few
words of the sentence which on proper completion, is supposed to convey the
C
same meaning of the original statement. Find out which one or more starters can
form grammatically correct sentence(s) to convey the same meaning of the original
statement.
146. (1) Mr. Debroy said that the only good way to obtain satisfactory jobs data is
through household surveys and that the previous National Sample Survey was
released in 2011, and the next one will release data only in 2018.
(2) He stressed that there is no good data regarding jobs, employment and
unemployment.
(I) Stressing that there is no…
(II) In defiance of good way to…
(III) To obtain satisfactory jobs…
1) Only (I) is correct 2) Only (III) is correct
3) Both (I) and (III) are correct 4) Both (II) and (III) are correct
5) All are correct
17
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
147. You can take great cues from these traditional marriage proposals. It is much
more important that you take cues from you hoped-for-fiancée.
I. during the traditional marriage......
II. While you can take great cues......
III. It is being more important.....
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)
4) Both (I) and (II) 5) Both (I) and (III)
148. Franklin restaurant has the best kitchen in the town. Their staff are quite rude
with visitors.
I. However ......

r’s
II. Even though.....
III. Having a best kitchen.......
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III) 4) All 5) Both (I) and (II)
Directions (149-151): In the question given below two statements are given.
Connect them by choosing the word given in options in the best possible way
ha
without changing the intended meaning.
149. (I) The detective examined the crime scene for any clues.
(II) He interviewed the witnesses afterwards.
1) nevertheless
4) All of these

E 2) hence
5) None of these
3) subsequently
d
150. (I) The teacher assigned a challenging project to her students.
(II) She provided them with detailed instructions.
ee

1) since 2) however 3) thereby 4) All of these 5) None of these

151. (I) The hiker reached the summit after hours of climbing.
(II) She took a moment to enjoy the breathtaking view.
C
1) hence 2) later 3) consequently 4) All of these 5) None of these
Directions (152-154): Choose the word which best expresses the similar meaning
Sr

of the given bold in a sentence.

152. This type of allergy can very occasionally be fatal.
1) terminal 2) deadly 3) trivial 4) predestined 5) vital
153. The sunken sailing-boat was a glimmer of white on the bottom.
1) hint 2) trace 3) sparkling 4) dull 5) scale
154. The new couple spent some money for the purchase of the furniture necessary
C
for their new house.
1) sell 2) release 3) dispose 4) procure 5) gain
Directions (155-158): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence fits the
blank in the given sentence, both grammatically and meaningfully.
155. The incident _________ when it was dark and raining heavily.
1) smoked 2) cooked 3) obtained 4) manifested 5) occurred
156. A brief search was made but they found nothing __________.
1) unpliable 2) vexatious 3) wild 4) untoward 5) inimical
157. She is so ________ about her achievements.
1) forward 2) reticent 3) extroverted 4) talkative 5) unreserved
158. She ___________ momentarily when she saw them.
1) drop 2) rise 3) paused 4) persist 5) continue

18
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
Directions (159-160): In the following questions, a word is given along with its
usage in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the
given word is contextually and grammatically correct.
159. VITALITY
A. The menace in that, as everyone knows, is that with system comes rationalization
and loss of vitality.
B. Obviously, without the interruption and relief of the contrasting arpeggio, the
accompaniment could never have kept its mordant vitality fresh.
C. The really scary part is that, while all these symptoms can clear up by
themselves, the disease can lie dormant in your system for decades before

r’s
damaging vitality such as your nervous system and heart. (vitals)
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) All A,B and C
160. STUNNED
A. At two state elections this month, Mrs Hanson stunned everyone by reappearing,
fielding candidates and causing havoc with the results.
ha
B. Frizzles class creates a unique smell that is bound to take first prize, but
Janet, determined to win herself, changes their smell to an odor only a stunned
could love. (stunk)

E
C. But when I first drilled that hand-made aluminium throttle pedal down to its
bump stop, I was absolutely stunned.
d
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both A and B 5) Both A and C
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
ee

Direction (161-165): Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.
The following table shows the marks of five students in Hindi and English. Some
values are missing in the table. Calculate the missing values from the information
provided and answer the questions.
C
Name Marks in Marks in
Sr

Hindi English
P 80 -
Q - -
R - 100
S 80 -
T - 50
C
Note: In Hindi, R got 60% of the marks he got in English. Marks got by S in
English is 40 less than the marks got by him in Hindi. Marks got by T in Hindi are
50% more than the marks got by R in Hindi. The marks got by P in English is
2
16 % more than the marks got by R in Hindi. The marks got by Q in Hindi is
3
1
33 % more than the marks got by T in Hindi and the total marks got by Q in both
3
the subject is 160.
161. Marks got by S in Hindi and English together are how much more or less than the
marks got by T in English?
1) 40 2) 50 3) 60 4) 70 5) 80

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Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
162. Marks got by P in English are what percent of the marks got by R in English?
1) 30% 2) 45% 3)70% 4) 55% 5) 62%
163. Marks got by Q in Hindi and S in English together is ‘x’ and marks got by P in
English and T in English together is ‘y’, then x:y is?
1) 1:2 2) 3:5 3) 4:3 4) 5:7 5) 7:9
164. What is the difference between the average marks got by all students in Hindi
and the average marks got by P, Q and R in English?
1) 16 2) 14 3) 12 4) 10 5) 8
165. If the maximum marks of each subject is 120, then what percentage of marks got
by R?

r’s
1) 45% 2) 51 2/3% 3) 62% 4) 75% 5) 66 2/3%
Direction (166-171): Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.
The bar graph shows the number of recruitments for various posts ( ALP, NTPC
and Group D) in different years.
Note: All values multiple of five hundred.
ha
9000
8000
7000

E
d
6000
ALP
5000
NTPC
ee

4000
Group D
3000
2000
C
1000
0
Sr

2018 2019 2020 2021 2022

The table shows the percentage of various categories (General, OBC, SC and ST)
for different posts in different years.

Year ALP NTPC Group D

C
Gen OBC SC ST Gen OBC SC ST Gen OBC SC ST
2018 54 23 18 5 48 32 12 8 45 35 15 5
2019 48 32 12 8 60 22 12 6 60 18 14 8
2020 51 30 15 4 55 27 12 6 58 23 14 5
2021 48 30 15 7 50 36 10 4 55 24 16 5
2022 58 23 14 5 52 26 16 6 42 36 14 8

166. What is the total number of candidates selected for Group D from the ST category
in 2018 and 2019?
1) 400 2) 550 3) 250 4) 680 5) 800

20
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
167. What is the difference between the number of candidates selected for the post of
ALP from the SC category in 2020 and 2022 and that for the post of NTPC from the
OBC category in 2020 and 2021?
1) 2340 2) 1590 3) 1110 4) 1220 5) 950
168. In which of the following years the number of SC candidates selected for the post
of ALP is the maximum?
1) 2019 2) 2018 3) 2020 4) 2021 5) 2022
169. In which of the following years the number of OBC candidates selected for Group
D is the minimum?

r’s
1) 2018 2) 2019 3) 2020 4) 2021 5) 2022
170. What is the ratio of General candidates to ST candidates selected for the post of
NTPC in 2018, 2019 and 2020?
1) 1837:232 2) 1234:237 3) 341:222 4) 456:2347 5) 298:1267
ha
[Link] number of OBC candidates selected during 2018-22 for the post of ALP is what
percent of the General candidates selected during 2018-22 for the post of NTPC?
1) 34.56 2) 46.67 3) 48.34 4) 75.34 5) 65.55

E
Directions (172 - 176): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
d
9
There are Nine classes. The number of students in class P is 7 % less than
13
ee

5
the number of students in class Q. Number of students in class X is 5 % more
19
C
1
than the number of students in class W. Number of students in class Q is 7 %
7
Sr

less than the number of students in class R. Number of students in class W is

5
5 % more than the number of students in class V. Number of students in class R
9
2
is 6 % less than the number of students in class S. Number of students in class
3
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15
V is 5 % more than number of students in class in U. Number of student in
17
1
class S is 6 % less than the number of students in class T. Number of students
4
1
in class U is 6 % more than the number of students in class T. Total number of
4
student in all classes together is 1440.
172. The ratio of boys to girls in class R is 5:2 and in class S is 2:3. Find the total
number of boys in these two classes is what percent of the total number of girls in
these two classes? (approximately)
1) 123% 2) 115% 3) 106% 4) 93% 5) 87%

21
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
173. If 70% and 52.5% of the students in classes W and X respectively are boys. Find
the total number of girls in the class W and X together?
1) 121 2) 152 3) 144 4) 89 5) 76
174. The average weight of all the students in class P is 49 kg and the average weight
of all the students in class Q is 53 kg. Find the average weight of all the students
in these two classes?
1) 51.08 2) 51.8 3) 62.6 4) 62.06 5) 45.5
175. Find the ratio between the total number of students in classes S and T together
to the total number of students in classes U and V together?

r’s
1) 31:35 2) 21:25 3) 35:31 4) 25:21 5) 37:43
176. Find the difference between the average number of students in classes P, R, T, V
and X together and the average number of students in classes Q, S, T, U and W
together?
1) 12 2) 0 3) 2 4) 6 5) 8
ha
177. P invested a certain amount in bank A for 2 years and Rs.14000 in bank B for ‘T’
years. Bank A offers 20% of the annual rate of compound interest and bank B
offers 15% of the simple rate of interest. If the ratio of interest amount received

E
from A to that from bank B is 22:21 respectively. If the amount he invested in
bank A, he will invest in bank B, then after ‘T’ years he will receive Rs.6750 as
d
interest, then what is the value of ‘T’?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 5 4) 7 5) None of these
ee

178. Mohan can complete the three-fifth part of the work in 9 days and Mohan and
Raju together can complete the whole work in 9 days. If Mohan, Raju and Kiran
together can complete the whole work in 15/2 days and they get paid the total
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wages Rs. 3900, then what is the share of the wage of Kiran?
1) Rs.430 2) Rs.550 3) Rs. 650 4) Rs.710 5) Rs.990
Sr

179. The sum of the age of K 4 years hence and age of M 5 years ago is 44. The ratio of
the present age of M to the present age of N is 3:4. The difference between the
present age of N and the age of L 10 years later is 10. The ratio of present age K to
the present age of L is 3:4. Find the difference between the present age of N and
the present age of K?
1) 10 2) 5 3) 15 4) 25 5) 20
180. A box contains 5 green balls, 3 yellow balls, 4 blue balls and 6 red balls. If three
C
balls are drawn randomly, then what is the probability that none are green balls?
143 133 123 113 103
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
408 408 408 408 408
181. Rail engine A crosses a 250 m long platform in 18 sec and also crosses train B
having 240 m length running in the same direction in 72 sec. If train B crosses a
220 m long tunnel in 36 sec and Rail engine A faster than train B, then find the
speed of the Rail engine A (in kmph)? (Approximately)
1) 61 2) 51 3) 41 4) 31 5) 21
182. A shopkeeper sold the watch at Rs.16800. If the ratio of the cost price of the watch
to the profit of the watch is 3:1 and the marked price of the watch is 60% above its
cost price, then find the marked price of the watch?
1) 20160 2) 20630 3) 20530 4) 20430 5) 20330

22
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
183. A branch has a manager, a clerk and a sub staff. The clerk and the sub staff
together get Rs 36000 per month. Each clerk gets Rs 12000 per month more than
the sub staff, then what is the salary of the sub staff?
1) 12000 2) 16000 3) 18000 4) 14000 5) 20000
3
184. The volume of a sphere is 310464 cm . If the radius of the sphere is 20% more
than the radius of the cylinder and the ratio of height and radius of the cylinder
is 7:5, then what is the volume of a cylinder?
1) 188650 cm2 2) 188640 cm2 3) 188630 cm24) 188620 cm2 5) 188610 cm2
185. 420 ml of apple cider was added to the bottle containing 300 ml of white vinegar.

r’s
360 ml of the resultant mixture was taken out and then some quantity of a
mixture of apple cider and white vinegar which is in the ratio of 3:2 was added to
the bottle. If the resultant ratio of apple cider and white vinegar in the bottle was
45:31, then what was the quantity of white vinegar added to the bottle?
1) 120 2) 100 3) 140 4) 180 5) 160
ha
186. Vandhebharat express leaves Vijayawada at 2 pm for Kerala. It maintains an
average speed of 180 km/h, it has five stoppages of 10 min each between Vijayawada
and Kerala and it covers 630 km before each stoppage, then at what time will it
reach Kerala?
1) 8:10 pm

E
2) 7:15 am 3) 12:00 pm 4) None of these
d
5) 8:10 am
[Link] pipes P and Q can separately fill a tank in 10 and 15 min respectively. A third
ee

pipe R can drain off 15 liters of water per minute. If all the pipes are opened, the
tank can be filled in 10 min, then what is the capacity of the tank?
1) 125 2) 200 3) 225 4) 400 5) 500
C
188. X and Y enter a partnership with an initial investment in the ratio of 6:7 and after
two months, Z joins them with an initial investment equal to 3/2 of the investment
Sr

of X. At the end of the year, the sum of share of profit of X and Z is Rs. 62991,
then what is the share of profit of Y?
1) 32662 2) 32657 3) 32458 4) 32123 5) 32865
189. The speed of a boat is 60 km/h in still water and the time taken by it to cover a
certain distance upstream is 3/2 times the time taken by it to cover the same
distance downstream, then what is the time taken by the boat to cover 288 km
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upstream?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 3 5) 5
190. Two numbers are in the ratio of 5:9. When the smaller number was increased by
114 and the larger number was increased by 20%, the larger number became
40% more than that of the smaller number, then what is the average of the
original numbers?
1) 125 2) 89 3) 210 4) 294 5) 178
Direction (191-195): In each of the following number series, a wrong number is
given. Find out the wrong number.
191. 20, 30, 54, 103, 224, 393
1) 20 2) 30 3) 54 4) 103 5) 224
192. 5,29,150,756,3787,18941
1) 29 2) 3787 3) 18941 4) 756 5) 150
23
Sreedhar's CCE IBPS-RRB CLERK Mains –XIII- MT-10
193. 7.5 20, 45 95 195 395.5
1) 20 2) 45 3) 95 4) 195 5) 395.5
194. 12 36 80 150 252 390
1) 80 2) 36 3) 390 4) 252 5) 150
195. 123 252 510 1024 2058 4122
1) 123 2) 252 3) 510 4) 1024 5) 2058
Direction (196-200): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)

r’s
196. 111.99×132.97÷48.98 + 3135.97 = ?2 – 0.992
1) 12 2) 15 3) 17 4) 19 5) 23
197. (2298.07 – 7755.98+6682.98)1/2÷ 80.98 ×54.99 + ? = 1.987
1) -43 2) -56 3) -85 4) -92 5) -68
ha
1 4 1 3.08 24.99
198. (1.99 +2.99 + 2.08 – )÷? =
4 5 5 3.99 3.98
1) 2 2) 3

E 3) 5 4) 7 5) 9
d
3 6 1 1
199. [ of 63.96 ÷ of 14.05 – (279.97÷14.02÷3.98)× ] ÷ = ?
4 7 4 3
ee

27 5 13 11 33
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
4 2 8 8 4
C
1
200. (?)2 – 255.99 – 143.97  111.99  2 = 5.992 + 624.98
Sr

1) 2 2) 5 3) 9 4) 13 5) 15

KEY
1.5 2.4 3.1 4.3 5.2 6.3 7.4 8.2 9.4 10.1 11.2 12.2 13.5
14.4 15.4 16.2 17.2 18.4 19.2 20.5 21.2 22.1 23.4 24.4 25.3 26.1
27.3 28.1 29.2 30.5 31.5 32.2 33.4 34.3 35.2 36.2 37.1 38.2 39.2
C
40.2 41.1 42.2 43.5 44.1 45.2 46.1 47.2 48.2 49.2 50.5 51.1 52.3
53.4 54.2 55.4 56.1 57.2 58.4 59.1 60.1 61.1 62.4
63.2 64.4 65.2 66.3 67.1 68.3 69.2 70.1 71.3 72.1 SCAN QR FOR
73.4 74.4 75.1 76.2 77.3 78.3 79.2 80.4 81.5 82.1 OUR RESULTS
83.4 84.3 85.5 86.3 87.1 88.5 89.4 90.4 91.3 92.1
93.5 94.3 95.4 96.1 97.3 98.2 99.4 100.3 101.5 102.3
103.2 104.2 105.5 106.4 107.4 108.4 109.5 110.3 111.2 112.3
113.4 114.1 115.5 116.4 117.3 118.5 119.3 120.2 121.3 122.5
123.2 124.1 125.2 126.4 127.4 128.1 129.3 130.3 131.2 132.2
133.1 134.3 135.3 136.4 137.3 138.1 139.4 140.4 141.5 142.4
143.4 144.4 145.1 146.3 147.2 148.2 149.3 150.3 151.2 152.2
153.3 154.4 155.5 156.4 157.2 158.3 159.4 160.5 161.4 162.3 163.3 164.1 165.5
166.5 167.2 168.2 169.2 170.1 171.2 172.1 173.2 174.1 175.1 176.2 177.2 178.3
179.4 180.1 181.1 182.1 183.1 184.1 185.5 186.5 187.3 188.1 189.3 190.4 191.2
192.3 193.5 194.3 195.4 196.4 197.3 198.2 199.5 200.3

24