Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

SSC CGL (Ti er -I I ) M ODEL TEST - 74207

MATHEMATICAL ABILITIES

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1. The internet usage of a family of 4 is 560 MB per day on an average in May and
June. From July to October, the average usage per day decreases by 15%. What
should be the average usage in the last 2 months, so that the average usage per
day is 415 MB for 8 months?
1) 200 MB/day 2) 250 MB/day 3) 147 MB/day 4) 323 MB/day
2.
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In an examination paper of five questions, 5% of the candidates answered all of
them and 5% answered none. Of the rest, 25% candidates answered only one
question and 20% answered 4 question. If 396 candidates answered either 2
questions or 3 questions, the number of candidates that appeared for the
examination?
1) 1000 2) 850

E 3) 900 4) 800
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3. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh states have a rectangular field of area 16200 sq.
m. the two states decided to divide it into two equal parts by dividing it with a
single straight line. Telangana state wanted to fence its land immediately, so it
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incurred total expenses for the fencing all the four sides alone at Rs.2.75 per
metre. What is the minimum cost that Telangana state had to incur?
1) Rs. 800 2) Rs. 990 3) Rs. 1080 4) Rs. 880
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4. A train can cross a pole in 25.2 seconds while it can cross a platform of length 200
metres less than that of train in 36 seconds, then what is the length of the
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platform?
1) 150 meters 2) 350 meters 3) 200 meters 4) 250 meters
5. The range of data 21, 25, 10, 35, 45, 23, 87, 63, 43, 61, 99, 87, 69, 73, 39 and 41
is:
1) 87 2) 89 3) 99 4) 75
6. Five marks are to be deducted from each subject due to shortage of attendance.
The net average of the mean, median and mode of the marks obtained is:
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Sub jec ts Mark s ob tain ed o ut of 75

G e neral E ngli sh 55

G enera l Aw arene ss 60

Q ua nti tati ve Ap ti tude 45

Com p ute r A wa ren ess 50

R ea so ning Ab il ity 60

1) 56.33 2) 57.75 3) 56.66 4) 54.33

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

2sin  1  cos   sin 

7. If x = 1  cos   sin  , then the value of
  1  sin   is:
1 2
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4)
2 1 2
8. A milk vendor has 42 litres of cow milk, 84 litres of toned milk and 126 litres o f
double toned milk, if he wants to pack them in cans so that each can contains
same litres of milk and does not want to mix any two kinds of milk in a can, then
the least number of cans required?

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1) 9 2) 6 3) 14 4) 12
9. PQR is an isosceles triangle in which PQ = QR. QD is an angle bisector of
MN and ZX are two perpendicular on PR where MN = ZX. If QD = 27 cm, DX = 11
cm, XR = 9 cm, then find the area of shape QMNXZ?
1) 430.65 cm2 2) 461.32 cm2 3) 502.65 cm2 4) 411.35 cm2
10.
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On a boat ear bud brand, the discount is 25% and on JBL ear bud brand the
discount is 40%. The price of JBL ear bud brand after discount is Rs.6,390 more
than the price of the boat ear bud brand after discount. What is the marked price
of the boat ear bud brand (in Rs.), marked price of JBL ear bud brand is Rs.52,000.

11.
1) Rs.41,800

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2) Rs.33,080 3) Rs.37,800 4) Rs.41,350
Let x = 444133+831616–4630  3416-24662, then what is the unit digit of x?
d
1) 0 2) 5 3) 8 4) 2
12. A pole is on the top of tower. The angle of depression from the pole and tower t o
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the ground is 60o and 30o respectively at point P. if the distance between the point
P and tower is 260 3 m, then find the height of pole.
1) 120 m 2) 520 m 3) 360 m 4) 480 m
C
13. Sum of the income of A, B and C is Rs.1,51,200, ratio of their’s saving are 17:12:4
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respectively. If A, B and C expenditures are 80%, 85 % and 63 % from their

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income respectively. Then find the difference between A and C income?
1) Rs.77,700 2) Rs.58,800 3) Rs.62,160 4) Rs.82,880
14. Find the equation of a line having slope – 6 and an intercept of 10 units on
y- axis?
1) 6x – y – 10 = 0 2) 6x + y -10 = 0 3) 6x + y + 10 = 0 4) 6x – y + 10 = 0
9
C
15. A ship is 88 km away from the shore, springs a leak which admits ton of water
4
in every 5.5 min. an outlet tank can throughout 12 tons of water per hour. Find at
what speed it should move such that when it begins to sink a rescue ship move
with 6 kmph. Escapes the passengers of the ship if 69 ton of water enough to
sink?
1) 10 kmph 2) 8 kmph 3) 7 kmph 4) 5 kmph

tan A  tan B  tan C

16. Find the value of if A + B + C = 0
sin 2 A  sin 2 B  sin 2C
1 1
1) sec A cos B cosec C 2) cos A cos B cos C
2 2
1 1
3) sec A sec B sec C 4) sec A sec B sec C
2 4

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

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17. The average age of 100 employees in an office is 42 years, where employees
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are males and the remaining employees are females, and also the ratio of the
average age of male employees to female employees is 3 : 5. Find the average age
of male employees?
1) 45 2) 30 3) 27 4) 54
18. Study the given table and answer the question that follow:
The table shows the classification of 100 students based on the marks obtained
by them in statistics and mathematics in an examination out of 50.

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Subject 40 and 30 and 20 and 10 and 0 and
above above above above above
Mathematics 8 33 90 82 100
Statistics 5 22 60 87 100
If at least 60% marks in mathematics are required for pursuing higher studies in
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mathematics, then how many students will be eligible to pursue higher studies
in mathematics
1) 27 2) 90 3) 10 4) 33

19.

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Two water taps together can fill a tank in hr. The tap of larger diameter
d
takes 10 hours less than the smaller one to fill the tank separately. Find the
time in which each tap can separately fill the tank?
ee

1) 20 hr, 10 hr 2) 17 hr, 7 hr 3) 25 hr, 15 hr 4) 23 hr, 13 hr

20. Find the area of  XYZ, in which M, N, O are the mid points of the sides XY, YZ
and XZ and the coordinates of M, N, O are (4, 5), (-2, -3) and (5, -2)
1) 150 2) 75 3) 100 4) 200
C
21. The daily wages of a worker are Rs.120. Six workers can do a work in 12 days. If
you pay Rs. 20 more daily, they agree to do 20% more work daily. If the proposal is
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accepted, then the total amount that could be saved is:

1) Rs. 200 2) Rs. 240 3) Rs. 250 4) Rs. 300

 abc 
22. If(a+b-c-19) +(b+c-a+15) +(c+a-b-47) =0 ,then 3 
2 2 2  -2=?
 15 
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1 9 4
1) 2 2) - 3) 4) 3
5 5 5
23. P and Q started a business by investing Rs.20,000 and Rs.30,000 respectively.
3
After 4 months P withdrawal of his investment. After 5 months form the
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withdrawal, P again invested of its original investment. If the total earned profit
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at the end of the year is Rs. 86,265, then who will get moremoney as a share of
profit and how much?
1) P, Rs.14,245 2) Q, Rs.12,450 3) P, Rs.17,253 4) Q, Rs.10,935

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

24. If a trapezium ABCD, and , AB CD, AD = 22 cm, CD=11 3

cm. Find the area of trapezium?
1)131 3 (2- 3 ) cm2 2) 121 3 (2+ 3 ) cm2

3) 121 3 (2+ 5 ) cm2 4) 131 3 (-2+ 3 ) cm2

25. The probability that a boy will hit a target in shooting practice is 0.4. If the boy
shoots 12 times, then the probability that he hits the target is:
1) (0.6)12 2) 1-(0.6)12 3) 1 4) (0.4)12
26. Find the distance between the point (-3, 4) and the intersection of 3x – 2y = 31

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and 7x + 5y + 5 = 0?
1) 16 2) 3) 14 4)
27. A vessel is full of 114 litres milk, 19 litres milk is taken out and replaced by water
and again this process is repeated three times. Find the amount of milk left after
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fourth replacement? (Approximately)
1) 62.31 litres 2) 49.68 litres 3) 54.97 litres 4) 31.61 litres
28. If the difference between CI and SI on a certain sum for three years is Rs.7,130.382
at 7% per annum. Find the principal? (in Rs.)

29.
1) 6,32,000

E
2) 4,74,000 3) 4,16,000 4) 4,78,000
The base of a conical tent is 12 m in diameter and the height of its vertex is 3.2
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m. the area of the canvas required to put up such a tent (in m2) is nearly?
1) 132.33 2) 122.11 3) 142.44 4) 128.22
ee

30. A man travels a certain distance from his room at a constant speed. If his speed
was 3 kmph faster than he would takes 9 hours less than the scheduled time. If
he was 2 kmph slow, he would take 7 hours more than the scheduled time. Find
the distance covered by him?
C
1) 3370 km 2) 3382 km 3) 3360 km 4)3334 km
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REASONING AND GENERAL INTELLIGENCE

31. ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A – B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A × B’ means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’,
The relationship P + Q – R × S ÷ T shows that
1) P, Q, R, S are children of T
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2) P, Q, R, T are children of S
3) P, Q, R are children of T and S
4) P, Q, R, S, T are all siblings
32. In this question given below consists of a statement, followed by arguments I and
II. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are strong and weak arguments
and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each
question.
Statement: Should India immediately stop digging coal from its mines?
Arguments:
I. Yes. The present stock of coal will not last long if we continue mining at the
present rate.
II. No. We do not have alternate energy source of sufficient quantity.
1) Only argument I is strong 2) Only argument II is strong
3) Both arguments I and II are strong 4) Neither argument I nor II is strong

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

33. Seven students A, B, C, D, E, F and G take a series of tests. No two students get
similar marks. G always scores more than A. A always scores more than B. Each
time either C scores the highest and E gets the least or D scores the highest and
F or B scores the least. If G is ranked fifth, which of these must be true?
1) D scores the highest 2) C is ranked second
3) E is ranked third 4) B is ranked fourth
34. The sheet of paper shown in the figure (A) given on the left hand side is folded to
form a box. Choose from amongst the alternatives a, b, c, d the boxes that are
similar to the box that will be formed.

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1) a and b only
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2) a, b and c only 3) a and c only 4) All a, b, c, d
35. Given below are three statements numbered I, II and III followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III and IV. Identify which of the conclusions follow the given
statements.
Statements:

E
I. Some cakes are bikes. II. Some bikes are hills.
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III. All laptops are bikes.
Conclusions: I. All laptops are hills.
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II. Some laptops are cakes.

III. Some cakes are hills.
IV. Some laptops are not cakes.
1) Only III follows 2) Only either II or IV follows.
C
3) Both III and IV follows. 4) Only I, II and III follows.
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36. If ‘AMAN’ is coded as ‘3’ and ‘BANANA’ is coded as ‘5’ and ‘KNIFE’ is coded as ‘4’,
then ‘PARTNERSHIP’ is coded as____
1) 9 2) 10 3) 11 4) 12
37. In this question, a statement is followed by two courses of actions, numbered I
and II. You must assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis
of the information given in the statement, decide which of the course of action/s
logically follow for pursuing.
C
Statement: It has been observed that commercial banks refrain from giving loans
to people from poor backgrounds because they cannot provide assets for security.
Courses of Action:
I. The finance ministry must look into the matter immediately.
II. The finance minister should initiate an enquiry into the matter.
1) Only II follows 2) Both I and II follow
3) Only I follows 4) Neither I nor II follows
38. In a certain code language ‘PARAMPARA’ is written as ‘RAPPMAARA’. How is
‘REJUVENATION’ coded in that language?
1) ERJEVUTANNOI 2) ERJEVUTANION 3) JEREVUTANNOI 4) JEREUVATNNOI
39. Vandana walks 4km towards the north, turns right and walks 5 km. Then she
turns towards south and walks 2km. Again she takes a turn towards west walks 3
km and stops for a while. Then she further walks 2 km. What is her distance from
the starting point?
1) 3 km 2) 16 km 3) 2 km 4) 4 km

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

40. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.
9, 31, 73, 141, ?
1) 280 2) 164 3) 239 4) 241
41. Select the option that represents the letters that, when placed from left to right
in the following blanks, will complete the letter-series.
ane_ba _ ebb_neb_an_bb
1) ebbab 2) bnabe 3) bbabe 4) bbaeb
42. A statement is given followed by I and II assumptions. You have to consider the
statement to be true even if it seems variance with commonly known facts. You

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have to decide which of the given assumptions follow from the given statement.
Statement:
Most rural folks are uneducated and therefore superstitious.
Assumptions:
I. Education increases rational thinking.
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II. Rural folks don’t go to school.
1) Either I or II is implicit 2) Only I is implicit 3) Only II implicit4) None is implicit
43. Figures A and B are related in a particular manner. Establish the same relationship

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between figures C and D by choosing a figure from amongst the alternatives,
which would replace the question mark (?).
d
ee
C
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1) 2) 3) 4)

44. What will come in place of the (?) in the given alphanumeric series.
J2Z, K4X, I7V, ?, H16R, I22P
C
1) J11T 2) G11S 3) L12S 4) G11U
45. If ‘a’ means ‘+’, ‘b’ means ‘–’, ‘c’ means ‘×’ and ‘d’ means ‘÷’, what will be the value
of the following expression?
(8 c 7) c (7 a 5) b (6 d 3) d (3 b 2)
1) 650 2) 375 3) 670 4) none of these
46. Given below is a question followed by two statements I and II. Read both statements
carefully to decide which one of them is sufficient to answer the question (?).
Question:
Which village is to the north-east of village A?
Statements:
I. Village B is to the north of village A, villages C and D are to the east and west of
village B respectively.
II. Village Q is to the south of village A and village E is to the east of village Q,
village K is to the north of village Q.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

1) Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in

statement I is not.
2) Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in
statement II is not.
3) Data in statements either I or II are sufficient to answer the question.
4) Data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
47. If ‘+’ implies ‘–’, ‘–’ implies ‘÷’, ‘×’ implies ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ implies ‘+’, then insert the proper
signs between the numbers in the given equation.
12 _ 8 _ 4 _ 2 _ 1 = 5

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1) ÷, –, +, × 2) ÷, ×, –, + 3) –, +, ÷, × 4) +, –, ×, ÷
48. In the following question, a related pair of figures (real pairs) is followed by four
pairs of figures. Out of these four, three have relationship similar to that in the
real pair. Only one pair of figures does not have similar relation. Select that pair
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of figures which does not have a relationship similar to that in the original pair.
The number of that pair is your answer.

E
d
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1) 2) 3) 4)
C
49. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the
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numbers of the following set. (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the

whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.
E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding /deleting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical
operations on 1 and 3 is NOT allowed)
(22, 36, 29)
(16, 46, 31)
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1) (76, 84, 80) 2) (48, 74, 31) 3) (28, 196, 119) 4) (14, 26, 21)
50. Information given below represents the number codes for the given letters. Select
the combination of numbers so that the letters arranged accordingly will form a
meaningful word.
K=1 E=2 I=3 T=4 S=5 R=7
1) 2473157 2) 5473127 3) 5471237 4) 5743217
51. Study the given pattern carefully and select the number that can replace the
question mark (?) in it.
First row : 56 13 ?
Second row : 32 52 35
Third row : 14 63 45
1) 52 2) 36 3) 62 4) 44

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

52. A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given in Figure. Find out from
amongst the alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent
sheet is folded at the dotted line.

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1) 2) 3) 4)

53. Three of the following words are alike in some manner and hence form a group.
Which word does NOT belong to that group? (The words must be considered as
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meaningful English words and must not be grouped based on the number of letters/
number of consonants/vowels in the word)
1) Cockroach 2) Roundworm 3) Amoeba 4) Frog
54.

E
given below is a question followed by two statements I and II. Read both statements
carefully to decide which one of them is sufficient to answer the question.
d
Question:
Among S, U, A, E and C, who is third from the top when arranged in the descending
order of their weights?
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Statements:
I. A is heavier than S and C and is less heavier than U who is not the heaviest.
II. C is heavier than only S.
1) Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in
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statement I is not.
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2) Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in

statement II is not.
3) Data in statements either I or II are sufficient to answer the question.
4) Data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
55. Three of the following four pairs are alike in a certain way as they are formed by
performing same mathematical operations among themselves and thus form a
group. Which pair does NOT belong to that group?
1) 25 – 49 2) 121 – 169 3) 289 – 361 4) 529 – 843
C
56. Select the figure that will replace the question mark (?) in the following figure
series.

1) 2) 3) 4)

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

57. In this question, the statements is followed by two conclusions. Which of the two
conclusion(s) is/are true?
Statements: V = Z  Q > R; C  F < Z > W
Conclusions: I. F < R II. V > W
1) Either conclusion I or II is true. 2) Only conclusion I is true.
3) Only conclusion II is true. 4) Both conclusions I and II are true.
58. Select the correct mirror image from the following options, when the mirror is
placed on the right side of the given figure.

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1) 2)

E 3) 4)
d
59. Seven children P, B, Q, D, R, F and S are standing in a line. S is to the right of D
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and to the left of B. P is on the right of Q. P and D have one child between them.
R and B have two children between them. D and F have two children between
them. Who is on the extreme right?
1) R 2) B 3) S 4) F
C
60. In this question, an assertion is given first followed by a reason. You are supposed
to first judge whether the assertion (A) is true and then decide on whether the
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reason (R) is true and in case both A and R are true then we need to see whether
the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion (A): India is a country of diverse cultures, customs and languages.
Reason (R): What we now call India is the modern version of Bharat.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false. 4) A is false but R is true.
C
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND COMPREHENSION
61. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences
in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
A. She won the 200m at the 2015 Beijing Worlds and repeated the victory two
years later in London, she also won silver in the 100m at the Beijing Worlds.
B. Inbetween her two world titles, Schippers won an Olympic silver in 200m at
the 2016 Rio Games.
C. Two-time World champion sprinter Dafne Schippers is retiring from track and
field aged 31.
D. Schippers, a Dutch woman who won back-to-back 200m World titles, transformed
herself from a heptathlete who won a bronze in the event at the 2013. Worlds in
Moscow to a sprinter.
1) CDAB 2) DABC 3) BCDA 4) CADB

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

62. Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.

“Let’s sit down here and talk the matter over, said Vinay to Pramod.
1)Vinay suggested Pramod that he should sit down there and talk over the matter.
2) Pramod suggested Vinay that they should sit down there and talk over the
matter.
3)Vinay suggested Pramod that they should sit down here and talk over the matter.
4) Vinay suggested Pramod that they should sit down there and talk over the
matter.
63. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
The Central Board of Secondary Education has launched a new helpline for
students.

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1) A new helpline for students has been launched by the Central Board of
Secondary Education.
2) A new helpline for students will be launched by the Central Board of Secondary
Education.
3) A new helpline for students had been launched by the Central Board of Secondary
Education.
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4) A new helpline for students is launched by the Central Board of Secondary
Education.
64.

E
In the given sentence, one word may have been incorrectly spelt. Select the
correctly spelt word from the given alternatives. If there is no error, select ‘No
d
error’ as your answer.
Badminton Association of India (BAI) has sent a 16-member squad for the
prestigeous tournament which will conclude on October 8.
ee

1) tournament 2) Association 3) prestigeous 4) No error

65. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word ‘MAGNIFICENT’ from the given
sentence.
The Canadian PM has away of coming out with these modest allegations without
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any supporting proof.
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1) allegations 2) modest 3) supporting 4) coming out

66. Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
Mahesh delivered the packet at the address given by Rakesh.
1) The packet was being delivered by Maheshat the address given by Rakesh.
2) Rakesh delivered the packet at the address given by Mahesh.
3) The packet had been delivered at the address given by Mahesh.
4) The packet was delivered by Mahesh at the address given by Rakesh.
67. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
C
Global climate continues to change at a __________ speed.
1) violating 2) assembling 3) frightening 4) separating
68. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
A gentleman at large
1) is held in high esteem 2) is respected by everybody
3) has no serious occupation 4) is living comfortably
69. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment
in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution
required’.
The drug maker added that it had successfully complete several drone deliveries
in the HimalayanState, covering approximately 50 km distance inless than 25
minutes.
1) had successfulcompleted 2) had successfully completed
3) have successfullycompleted 4) No substitution required

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70. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Reimburse
1) damage 2) deprive 3) penalize 4) refund
71. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the
given sentence.
India was confidentthat it would be propelled forward by its talent andcreativity.
1) mobilize 2) dissuade 3) hinder 4) emerge
72. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment
that contains a grammatical error.
The amended rule brings in more clarity for both investor and investee, basis
which an appropriate valuation method can be adopt, reducing thechances of

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anyfuture litigation.
1) The amended rule brings in more
2) reducing the chances of any future litigation
3) basis which an appropriate valuation method can be adopt
4) clarity forboth investor and investee
73.
1) assasinate
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Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.
2) interference 3) exceptional 4) divergence
74. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
A dime a dozen
1)something uncommon
3) something presumable

E 2) something common
4) something different
d
75. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment
in the given sentence.
The High Court had held that profanities cannot be portrayed to the world as if
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this was the language of our nation.

1) illustrated 2) obscured 3) suspended 4) corrupted
76. We hope your family and my family can ___________ for a celebration like last
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year.
1) got together 2) gets together 3) get together 4) getting together
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77. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment
in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution
required’.
Contrary to some opinions, mothers don’t passed their micro biomes to their
children at birth.
1) don’tpass its 2) don’t pass their 3) don’tpassestheir
4) No substitution required
78. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
C
Speculate
1) wonder 2) ruminate 3) consider 4) disregard
79. Select the sentence with the inappropriate use of conjunction.
1)The report provides a framework for further research.
2) A thief is a thief, weather he steals a diamond or a cucumber.
3)Though she's almost 40, she still plans to compete.
4)God could not be everywhere and therefore he made mothers.
80. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group
of words.
Easily annoyed or angered and likely to argue
1)truculent 2)reverence 3) stupor 4) inference
81. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the given word.
Fortify
1) neglect 2) offensive 3) reinforce 4) sanction

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

82. Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the
sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
P. Now, healthcare professionals in the United Kingdom are gearing up for a
potential new pandemic ‘Disease X’.
Q. The World Health Organization (WHO) has dubbed the anticipated next pandemic
as ‘Disease X’, stating that it might already be “on its way”.
R. After over three years of small and big waves, coronavirus has now drastically
reduced and become a familiar health concern.
S. According to experts, the new virus may be deadlier than Covid-19 which has
claimed nearly seven million lives and may have a similar impact as the Spanish

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Flu.
1) SRPQ 2) RPQS 3) RPSQ 4) QSRP
83. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment
in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution
required’.
ha
Between October and January every year, a goodnumber of NRIs come to part
take in the festivities.
1) come too partake 2) come to take part
3) coming to partake 4) No substitution required
84.

E
The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment
that contains a grammatical error. If there is no error, select ‘No error’ as your
d
answer.
Nearly 95% of the components used in the rockets, including those used in
ee

Chandrayaan-3 mission, were made in India and were a result of several years of
development involving the Indian Space Research Organization.
1) several years of development involving the Indian Space Research Organization
2) used inChandrayaan-3 mission,were made in India andwere a result of
C
3) Nearly 95% of the components used in the rockets,including those
4) No error
Sr

85. For the four-sentence (S1 to S4) paragraph below, sentences S1 and S4 are given.
From the options P, Q, R and S select the appropriate sentences for S2 and S3,
respectively.
(S1) The Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI)has decided to water down
regulations that forced large corporates to mandatorily tap the bond market for
part of their borrowing needs.
(S2)
C
(S3)
(S4) From FY20, all listedcompanies with long-term borrowings of ?100 croreor
more and a credit rating of AA and above wereasked to source 25 per cent of their
incremental debtneeds through the market.
P. The next day, several shops and business establishments remained closed in
Mandya.
Q. The panel met representatives ofvarious State governments, Union Ministries,
higher education institutions and other stakeholders to prepare the report.
R. The decision is pragmatic, as a number of companies impacted by these rules
have found them impossible to comply with.
S. It was at the behest of the Centre that SEBI ushered in the ‘large corporate
borrowing framework’ in end­2018.
1) Q, S 2) P, R 3) Q, R 4) R, S

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

86. Select the most appropriate meaning of the highlighted idiom.

Don’t be so grumpy and pessimistic every cloud has a silver lining.
1) every bad situation has some good aspect
2)not to take something too seriously
3) overwhelmed by what is happening in the moment
4) an obvious problem that people avoid discussing
87. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group
of words.
A political leader who seeks support by appealing to popular desires and prejudices
1) agnostic 2) meticulous 3) demagogue 4) vindictive
88. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain
an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you
don’t find any error, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

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Insurance companiesmay be advised to considerand accept the Transgender
Certificate issued by the appropriately authority for document verification
purposes.
1) and accept the Transgender Certificate issued bythe
2) appropriately authority for document verification purposes
3) Insurance companies may be advised to consider
89.
4) No error
ha
Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences
in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.
P. Despite not waking up past its lifetime, the Chandrayaan-3 mission remains

E
an overwhelming success.
Q. After Chandrayaan-3 completed its science objective, ISRO tried to lengthen
d
the lifespan of the mission by shutting down all operations of the instruments
before lunar sunset and putting them into “sleep mode.”
R. The mission was designed to function for one lunar day or about 14 days here
on Earth.
ee

S. The idea was that the lander and rover might wake up once they got enough
sunlight as the sun rose again near the lunar south pole where they are.
1) SPQR 2) QSPR 3) PQRS 4) QRSP
90. Select the option that expresses the given sentence in passive voice.“Sushmita
C
has written a story which fascinates everyone.
1) A story has been written by Sushmita which fascinates every one.
Sr

2) Everyone is fascinated by the story which has been written by Sushmita.

3) Every one fascinates the story which is written by Sushmita.
4) Story written by Sushmita fascinates everyone.
Comprehension: In the following passage, some words have been deleted. Read
the passage carefully
and select the most appropriate option to fill in each blank.
After the COVID-19 period,as children returned toschool and face-
tofaceteachingrecommenced, there wasan upswing in the use of the Internet for
(1) ______. A recent survey byLocalCircles (2) ______ that urbanIndian youngsters
C
spend more andmore time listening to music, viewing clips, maintaining social
connections, and playing games onthe Internet. This trend has given rise to a
growing addiction to electronic gadgets among children aged 9 to 18. This addiction,
insome (3) ______, has manifested asimpatience, aggression, concentration
problems, memory issues,headaches, eye and back discomfort, stress,
communication difficulties, lethargy, and (4) ______depression. In many cases,
parents reported that they are unaware ofthe apps that their children [Link]
nationwide survey aimed to(5) ______the primary concerns parents had regarding
their children’s prolonged usage of socialmedia, OTT, and online gaming platforms.
Additionally, it sought parents’ views on the necessity ofparental permission for
accessingthese platforms.
91. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 1.
1) concern 2) leisure 3) preserve 4) acquire
92. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 2.
1) schemes 2) becomes 3) pieces 4) indicates
93. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 3.
1) declares 2) homeless 3) instances 4) violates
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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

94. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 4.

1) undo 2) even 3) about 4) uneven
95. Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank number 5.
1) taken 2) points 3) strange 4) grasp
Direction(96-100): Read the following passage and answer the questions given
after it.
When catastrophe strikes, analysts typically blame some combination of
powerful mechanisms. An earthquake is traced to an immense instability along a
fault line; a stock market crash is blamed on the destabilizing effect of computer
trading. These explanations may well be correct. But systems as large and
complicated as the Earth’s crust or the stock market can break down not only

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under the force of a mighty blow but also at the drop of a pin. In a large interactive
system, a minorevent can start a chain reaction that leads to a catastrophe.
Traditionally, investigators have analyzed large interactive systems in the same
way they analyze small orderly systems, mainly because the methods developed
for small systems have proved so successful. They believed they could predict the
behavior of a large interactive system by studying its elements separately and by
ha
analyzing its component mechanisms individually. For lack of a better theory,
they assumed that in large interactive systems the response to a disturbance is
proportional to that disturbance. During the past few decades, however, it has

E
become increasingly apparent that many large complicated systems do not yield
to traditional analysis. Consequently, theorists have proposed a “theory of self-
d
organized criticality”: many large interactive systems evolve naturally to a critical
state in which a minor event starts a chain reaction that can affect any number
of elements in the system. Although such systems produce more minor events
ee

than catastrophes, the mechanism that leads to minor events is the same one
that leads to major events. A deceptively simple system serves as a paradigm for
self-organized criticality: a pile of sand. As sand is poured one grain at a time
onto a flat disk, the grains at first stay close to the position where they land. Soon
C
they rest on top of one another, creating a pile that has a gentle slope. Now and
then, when the slope becomes too steep, the grains slide down, causing a small
Sr

avalanche. The system reaches its critical state when the amount of sand added
is balanced, on average, by the amount falling off the edge of the disk. Now when
a grain of sand is added, it can start an avalanche of any size, including a
“catastrophic” event. Most of the time the grain will fall so that no avalanche
occurs. By studying a specific area of the pile, one can even predict whether
avalanches will occur there in the near future. To such a local observer, however,
large avalanches would remain unpredictable because they are a consequence of
the total history of the entire pile. No matter what the local dynamics are,
C
catastrophic avalanches would persist at a relative frequency that cannot be
altered: Criticality is a global property of the sandpile.
96. The passage provides support for all of the following generalizations about large
interactive systems except:
1) They can evolve to a critical state
2) They do not always yield to traditional analysis
3) They make it impossible for observers to make any predictions about them
4) They are subject to the effects of chain reactions
97. According to the passage, the criticality of a sandpile is determined by the
1) number of grains of sand the sandpile contains
2) rate at which sand is added to the sandpile
3) shape of the surface on which the sandpile rests
4) ba lance between the amount of sand added to and the amount lost from the
sandpile

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

98. It can be inferred from the passage that the theory employed by the
investigators mentioned in the second paragraph would lead one to predict that
which one of the following would result from the addition of a grain of sand to a
sandpile?
1) The grain of sand would never cause anything more than a minor disturbance
2)The grain of sand would usually cause a minor disturbance, but would
occasionally cause a small avalanche
3) The grain of sand would usually cause either minor disturbance or a small a
valanche, but would occasionally cause a catastrophic event
4) The grain of sand would usually cause a catastrophic event, but would occasionally
cause only a small avalanche or an event more minor disturbance

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99. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true?
[Link] and then, when the slope becomes too steep, the grains slide down, causing
a small avalanche.
II. An earthquake is traced to an immense instability along a fault line; a stock
market crash is blamed on the destabilizing effect of computer trading.
ha
[Link] the past few decades, however, it has become increasingly apparent
that many large complicated systems yield to traditional analysis.
1) Only III 2)Both I and II 3) Only II 4) All of the above

E
100. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with
1) arguing against the abandonment of a traditional approach
d
2) describing the evolution of a radical theory
3) reconciling conflicting points of view
4) illustrating the superiority of a new theoretical approach
ee

Direction(101-105):Read the following passage and answer the questions given

after it.
In most developed countries, men have higher salaries, on average, than
women. Much of the salary differential results from the tendency of women to be
C
in lower paying occupations. The question of whether this occupational employment
Sr

pattern can be attributed to sex discrimination is a complex one. In fact, wage

differentials among occupations are the norm rather than the exception. Successful
athletes commonly earn more than Nobel Prize-winning academics; gifted artists
often cannot earn enough to survive, while mediocre investment bankers prosper.
Given such differences, the question naturally arises: talent and ability being
equal, why does anyoneman or womanenter a low-paying occupation? One obvious
answers personal choice. An individual may prefer, for example, to teach math at
a modest salary rather than to become a more highly paid electrical engineer.
C
Some people argue that personal choice also explains sex-related wage
differentials. According to this explanation, many women, because they place a
high priority on parenting and performing household services, choose certain
careers in which they are free to enter and leave the work force with minimum
penalty. They may choose to acquire skills, such as typing and salesclerking, that
do not depreciate rapidly with temporary absences from the work force. They may
avoid occupational specialties that require extensive training periods, long and
unpredictable hours, and willingness to relocate, all of which make specialization
in domestic activities problematic. By choosing to invest less in developing their
career potential and to expend less effort outside the home, women must, according
to this explanation, pay a price in the form of lower salaries. But women cannot
be considered the victims of discrimination because they prefer the lower-paying
occupations to higher-paying ones. An alternative explanation for sex-related wage

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

differentials is that women do not voluntarily choose lower-paying occupations

but are forced into them by employers and social prejudices. According to
proponents of this view, employers who discriminate may refuse to hire qualified
women for relatively highpaying occupations.
More generally, subtle society-wide prejudices may induce women to avoid
certain occupations in favor of others that are considered more suitable. Indeed,
the “choice” of women to specialize in parenting and performing household services
may itself result from these subtle prejudices. Whether the discrimination is by
employers in a particular occupation or by society as a whole is irrelevant; the
effect will be the same. Further, if such discrimination does occur, women excluded

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from certain occupations will flood others, and this increase in supply will have a
depressing effect on wages in occupations dominated by women.
101. Read the statements given below.
A. But women cannot be considered the victims of discrimination.
B. In most developed countries, women have higher salaries, on average, than
men.
ha
1) Both A and B are true but B is not the correct reason for A
2) Both A and B are true and B is the correct reason for A
3) A is false and B is true

102.

E
4) A is true and B is false
Which one of the following is the best little for the passage?
d
1) Wage Differentials Between Men and Women
2) Women in Low-Paying Occupations: Do They Have a Choice?
ee

3) Sex Discrimination in the Workplace

4) The Role of Social Prejudice in Women’s Careers
103. Which one of the following cases is least likely to involve sex discrimination,
as it is described in the passage?
C
1) An employer hires a man rather than an equally qualified woman
2) A woman chooses to enter a high-paying occupation that uses her talent
Sr

and ability
3) A woman chooses an occupation that is already dominated by women
4) A woman chooses a low-paying job that allows her to devote more time to her
family
104. Which one of the following statements is the best completion of the last
paragraph of the passage?
1) Wage differentials will become more exaggerated and economic parity
C
between men and women less and less possible
2) Finally, women will be automatically placed in the same salary range as
unskilled laborers
3) The question is: how long will women allow themselves to be excluded from
male-dominated occupations?
4) In the last analysis, women may need to ask themselves if they can really
afford to allow sex discrimination to continue
105. The author’s attitude toward sex discrimination as an explanation for wage
differentials can best be characterized as
1) critical of society’s acceptance of discrimination
2) skeptical that discrimination is a factor
3) convinced that the problem will get worse
4) neutral with respect to its validity

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

GENERAL AWARENESS
106. Neeraj Chopra won the Silver Medal in the men’s javelin throw event with a best
throw of 89.45 meters at the Paris Olympics and Pakistan’s Arshad Nadeem won
gold with a throw of ________.
1) 92.77 meters 2) 92.87 meters 3) 92.97 meters 4) 92.57 meters
107. Which is NOT correct about the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1) It can hear ordinary dispute of commercial nature between the Government of
India and the states
2) It can hear any dispute between the Government of India and one or more
states.

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3) It can hear any dispute between the Government of India and any state or
states on one side and one or more states on the other.
4) It can hear any dispute between two or more states
108. Who addressed the Congress as President in 1887 thus - "This Congress is
composed
ha
of the representatives, not of any one class or community of India, but of all the
different communities of India"?
1) Surendranath Banerjee 2) Badruddin Tyabji
3) Gopal Krishna Gokhale 4) Dadabhai Naoroji

E
109. Identify whether the following statements are correct or incorrect.
Statement 1: According to the Census of India-2011, among the Seven Sister
d
States,
Mizoram has the highest literacy rate.
ee

Statement 2: According to the Census of India-2011, Bihar has the lowest literacy
rate.
1) Only statement 2 is correct 2) Both the statements are incorrect
3) Both the statements are correct 4) Only statement 1 is correct
C
110. Select the correct statement from the given options.
1) The wind blowing in the Western Ghats in winters is known as Loo.
Sr

2) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as Trade winds.
3) The wind blowing in the coastal areas in winters is known as Loo.
4) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as Loo.
111. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Aves (birds) class of animals?
1) The skin is dry without glands except the oil gland at the base of the tail.
2) They possess beak.
3) The hind limbs are modified into wings.
C
4) The presence of feathers and most of them can fly except flightless birds.
112. Identify which of the following statements are correct.
[Link] headquarter of ICAR-Directorate of Groundnut Research is located in
Junagarh.
[Link] headquarter of ICAR-Directorate of Rapeseed & Mustard Research is located
in Bharatpur.
[Link] headquarter of ICAR-Directorate of Soybean Research is located in Indore.
1) 1. 2 and 3 only 2) 1, 2 and 3 3) 1 and 2 only 4) 1 and 3 only
113. Below are few statements given about afforestation.
A. Afforestation could prevent flooding.
B. Afforestation can balance our ecosystem.
Which of above statements is/are correct?
1) Both A & B are incorrect 2) Only B
3) Both A & B 4) Only A

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

114. What is the correct order of radiations in descending order of frequencies?

1) Infrared > Microwaves > Radio waves > X-rays
2) Radio waves > X-rays > Microwaves > Infrared
3) X-rays > Infrared > Microwaves > Radio waves
4) Infrared > Microwaves > X-rays > Radio waves
115. Consider the following points about the Cruise Bharat Mission that the Indian
government recently launched-
(i) Narendra Modi has inaugurated the Cruise Bharat Mission at Mumbai port on
the cruise ship ‘Empress’.
(ii) The goal is to triple cruise passenger traffic by 2029.

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(iii) The Union Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways is the nodal ministry for
implementing the Cruise Bharat Mission.
(iv) The Cruise Bharat Mission will be implemented from 1 October 2024 up to 31
March 2029 in five phases.
How many of the given point(s) is/are CORRECT?
1) only one 2) only two 3) only three 4) all are correct
ha
116. Which is NOT correct about the Election Commission of India?
1) They hold a six-year term or continue till the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
2) They are appointed by the President of India

E
3) The CEC enjoys more powers than the other two Election Commissioners.
4) The Election Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a Chief Election
d
Commissioner and two other Election Commissioners.
117. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?
1) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
ee

2) Resident Indian citizens only

3) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification
by the respective State Governments.
C
4) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the
services on or after 1st April, 2004.
Sr

118. Match List-I with List-II :

List-I (Disease) List-II (Cause)
A. Rickets 1. Vitamin D
B. Beri-beri 2. Vitamin B1
C. Nyctalopia 3. Vitamin A
D. Scurvy 4. Vitamin C
Select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
C
1) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4 2) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
3) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 4) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1
119. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Magadha Empire ?
1) The Brahmaputra River and its tributaries provided cheap and convenient means
of communication.
2) Iron mines were accessible and provided resources for equipment and weapons.
3) Agriculture used to be productive.
4) Elephants, an important part of the army, were found in the forests of the
region.
120. Why do atoms and non-polar molecules have no dipole moment?
1) Because their electronic charge cloud is asymmetrically distributed
2) Because their electronic charge cloud is missing
3) Because their electronic charge cloud is symmetrically distributed
4) Because their electronic charge cloud is scattered

18
Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

121. Which of the following concepts implies that sustainable development should take
a holistic approach towards notions of progress and give equal importance to non-
economic aspects of wellbeing?
1) Gross Domestic Product 2) Gross National Product
3) Gross National Happiness 4) Net National Product
122. According to which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India are
members
of either House of the Parliament entitled to receive salaries and allowances?
1) Article 134 2) Article 302 3) Article 298 4) Article 106
123. What is an indicator of self-reliance?
1) Increase in imports of the goods which could be produced in the country.

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2) Avoiding imports of the goods which could be produced in the country.
3) Increase in exports of the goods which could not be produced in the country.
4) Avoiding exports of the goods which could be produced in the country
124. Match the columns.
Column-A Column-B
i. Electric current
ha a. Henry
ii. Potential difference b. Farad
iii. Capacitance c. Volt
iv. Inductance

E
1) i-a, ii -b, iii-c, iv-d
d. Ampere
2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
d
3) i-d, ii-c, iii -b, iv-a 4) i -a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
125. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECT with reference to paintings in India?
1) Phad Paintings – Rajasthan 2) Saura Paintings – Odisha
ee

3) Bagh Paintings – Madhya Pradesh 4) Guler Paintings – Karnataka

126. Which among the following is NOT true about a solution and the solute concerned?
1) The particles of the solute do not scatter a beam of light.
2) A solution is a homogeneous mixture.
C
3) The particles of the solute settle down at the bottom when the solution is kept
Sr

undisturbed.
4) The particles of the solute cannot be seen with unaided eyes.
127. Recently, which city has been renamed as “Shri Vijayapuram”?
1) Daman and Diu 2) Port Blair
3) Kavaratti 4) Pamban Island
128. Who among the following has the power to nominate some members in the
Legislative
Council of a state?
C
1) The Governor of the concerned state
2) The Prime Minister of India
3) The Chief Minister of the concerned state
4) The Chairman of the Legislative Council of the concerned state
129. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements
is correct?
1) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10
times of that received at the poles.
2) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
3) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in
the lower atmosphere.
4) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar
radiation.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

130. Which state has become the first state in India to establish a chapter of NITI
Aayog’s Women Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP), an initiative aimed at promoting
and supporting women entrepreneurs across various sectors?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Telangana 3) Kerala 4) Tamil Nadu
COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MODULE
131. The Internet service that provides a multimedia interface to available resources
is called ________.
1) FTP 2) World Wide Web 3) Telnet
4) Gopher
132. The ____________ layer is responsible for resolving access to the shared media or

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resources.
1) Physical 2) Mac sub-layer 3) Network 4) Transport
133. The primary function of the ______________ is to set up the hardware and load
and start an operating system.
1) Memory 2) BIOS 3) CPU 4) System Programs
ha
134. Which web browser was the first web browser from the following?
1) Safari 2) Opera 3) Mosaic 4) MSIE
135. Which company is nicknamed “Big Blue”?
1) Microsoft 2) TCS 3) Wipro 4) IBM

E
136. Which of the following is the primary function of an input device?
1) It processes the data provided by the user into meaningful information desired
d
by the user.
2) It displays information so that the user can decide whether to save or print.
ee

3) It takes data and instructions from the user, converts them into a binary form
acceptable to the computer, and sends them to the primary memory for further
processing.
4) It performs arithmetic operations.
C
137. The term Pentium is related to which of the following parts:
Sr

1) Random Access Memory 2) Microprocessor 3) Hard disk drive 4) ROM

138. The first electronic computer ENIVAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and
computer) was designed by:
1) Von Neumann 2) Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly
3) John Napier 4) Charles Babbage
139. Which of the following technology or component was used in second generation
computers?
C
1) Transistors 2) Vacuum tubes 3) Integrated circuits
4) Semi conductors
140. When we press a key on the keyboard, the computer system uses which of the
following standards to convert the keystrokes into corresponding bits?
1) ANSI 2) ANSII 3) ISO 4) EBCDIC
141. SMPS stands for
1) Switched mode power supply 2) Start mode power supply
3) Store mode power supply 4) Single mode power supply
142. Which among the following is responsible for allocating IP addresses and managing
the domain name system?
1) Domain name warehousing
2) Internet Corporation For Assigned Names and Numbers
3) Internet Assigned Numbers Authority
4) Internet protocol

20
Sreedhar’s CCE SSC CGL (Ti er -I I )- M T –74207

143. In order to save word document as a web page you need to?
1) Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document
2) Save the document in simple text format
3) Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL 4) Save as HTML
144. The maximum Zoom percentage in MS PowerPoint is________
1) 100% 2) 300% 3) 500% 4) 400%
145. The technique that extends storage capacities of main memory beyond the actual
size of the main memory is called _____

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1) Virtual storage 2) Multitasking
3) Switching 4) Multiprocessing
146. What characteristic of read-only memory (ROM) makes it useful?
1) ROM information can be easily updated.
ha
2) Data in ROM is non-volatile, that is, it remains there even without electrical
power.
3) ROM provides very large amounts of inexpensive data storage.

E
4) ROM chips are easily swapped between different brands of computers.
147. In which type of computer, data are represented as discrete signals.
d
1) Analog computer 2) Digital computer
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Hybrid Computer
ee

148. .......... are set of rules and procedures to control the data transmission over the
internet
1) IP address 2) Domains 3) Protocol 4) Gateway
C
149. ............... are system software to facilitate editing of text and data
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1) MS Word 2) Editors 3) PowerPoint 4) MS publisher

150. NOS stand for
1) Node operating system 2) Non-open software
3) Network Operating system 4) Non-operating software

KEY
C
1.3 2.4 3.2 4.1 5.2 6.1 7.4 8.2 9.1 10.2
11.3 12.2 13.3 14.2 15.1 16.4 17.2 18.4 19.2 20.3
21.2 22.2 23.4 24.2 25.2 26.4 27.3 28.2 29.4 30.3
31.2 32.2 33.1 34.2 35.2 36.2 37.2 38.3 39.3 40.4 SCAN QR FOR
41.2 42.2 43.4 44.1 45.3 46.2 47.2 48.4 49.1 50.2 OUR RESULTS
51.4 52.4 53.3 54.2 55.4 56.2 57.3 58.4 59.4 60.2
61.1 62.4 63.1 64.3 65.2 66.4 67.3 68.3 69.2 70.4
71.1 72.3 73.1 74.2 75.1 76.3 77.2 78.4 79.2 80.1
81.3 82.2 83.2 84.4 85.4 86.1 87.3 88.2 89.4 90.1
91.2 92.4 93.3 94.2 95.4 96.3 97.4 98.1 99.2 100.4
101.4 102.2 103.2 104.1 105.4 106.3 107.1 108.2 109.3 110.4
111.3 112.2 113.3 114.3 115.1 116.3 117.3 118.3 119.4 120.3
121.3 122.4 123.2 124.3 125.4 126.3 127.2 128.1 129.3 130.2
131.2 132.2 133.2 134.3 135.4 136.3 137.2 138.2 139.2 140.2
141.1 142.1 143.3 144.4 145.1 146.2 147.2 148.3 149.2 150.3

21