CHAPTER PG

12: Solutions 2
13: Electrochemistry 30
14: Chemical Kinetics 57
15: p Block Elements (Group 15-18) 85
16: d and f Block Elements 107
17: Coordination Compounds 126
18: Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 149
19: Alcohols Phenols and Ethers 190
20: Aldehydes and Ketones 229
21: Carboxylic Acid Derivatives 266
22: Amines 306
23: Biomolecules 245
Marks Premium DPPs - Chemistry (12th)

Solutions

Easy Questions

Question 1

Which of the following 0. 1 M aqueous solution will have lowest freezing point?

A. A) Potassium sulphate
B. B) Sodium chloride
C. C) Urea
D. D) Glucose

Question 2

Which of the following statement is NOT correct about solution?

A. A) The three states of matter solid, liquid and gas may play the role of either solute or
solvent.
B. B) The component of solution which constitute smaller part is called solute.
C. C) When water is solvent, the process of solvation is known as hydration.
D. D) True solution is a heterogenous mixture of two or more substances with fixed
composition.

Question 3

van't Hoff factors of equimolal solutions of sodium chloride, barium chloride and glucose in
water are

A. A) 2, 3, 0 respectively
B. B) 2, 3, 6 respectively
C. C) 2, 3, 4 respectively
D. D) 2, 3, 1 respectively

Question 4

Which of the following is correct order of their increasing boiling points?

A. A) 10 −4 MNaCl > 10 −3 MMgCl 2 > 10 −2 MNaCl > 10 −4 M urea.

B. B) 10 −2 MNaCl > 10 −3 MMgCl 2 > 10 −4 MNaCl > 10 −4 M urea.
C. C) 10 −4 M urea > 10 −4 MNaCl > 10 −3 MMgCl 2 > 10 −2 MNaCl.
D. D) 10 −2 MNaCl > 10 −3 MMgCl 2 > 10 −4 MNaCl > 10 −4 M urea.

Question 5

A mixture of two miscible liquids A and B is distilled under equilibrium conditions at 1 atm
pressure. The mole fraction of A in solution and vapour phase are 0.30 and 0.60 respectively.
Assuming ideal behaviour of the solution and the vapour, calculate the ratio of the vapour
pressure of pure A to that of pure B

A. A) 4.0
B. B) 3.5
C. C) 2.5
D. D) 1.85

Question 6

Deep sea divers used to respirate a mixture of

A. A) Oxygen and argon

B. B) Oxygen and helium
C. C) Oxygen and nitrogen
D. D) Oxygen and hydrogen

Question 7

The vapour pressure of two pure liquids A and B that form an ideal solution, are 400 and
800 mm of Hg respectivelyat a temperature t ∘ C. The mole fraction of A in a solution of A and
B whose boiling point is t ∘ C will be
A. A) 0.4
B. B) 0.8
C. C) 0.1
D. D) 0.2

Question 8

Which of the following does not affect solubility of a gas in liquid?

A. A) Nature of gas and liquid

B. B) Pressure
C. C) Concentration
D. D) Temperature

Question 9

Which one of the following represents the graph between log p (on Y -axis) and T1 (on X-
axis)? ( p = vapour pressure of a liquid, T = absolute temperature)

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 10
Assertion : The solubility of a gas in a liquid increases with increase of [Link] : The
solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 11

If p ∘ and p are the vapour pressure of the pure solvent and solution and n 1 and n 2 are the
moles of solute and solvent respectively in the solution then the correct relation between p and
p ∘ is

A. A) p ∘ = ρ [ n1n+n
1
2
]

B. B) D ∘ = p [ n1 +n
n
2
2
]

C. C) p = p ∘ [ n1 +n
n2
2
]

D. D) p = p ∘ [ n n+n
1
]
1 2

Question 12

Which of the following compounds have the same value of van't Hoff s factor (i) as that of
Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 ?
A. A) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
B. B) NaCl
C. C) Al(NO 3 ) 3
D. D) Na 2 SO 4

Question 13

Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25 C. The fraction of
total pressure exerted by hydrogen is

A. A) 1: 2
B. B) 1: 1
C. C) 01:16
D. D) 15:16

Question 14
Which of the following solutions will have highest boiling point?

A. A) 0.1MFeCl 3
B. B) 0.1MBaCl 2
C. C) 0.1MNaCl
D. D) 0.1M urea (NH 2 CONH 2 )

Question 15

Which one of the statements given below concerning properties of solutions, describes a
colligative effect?

A. A) Boiling point of pure water decreases by the addition of ethanol.

B. B) Vapour pressure of pure water decreases by the addition of nitric acid.
C. C) Vapour pressure of pure benzene decreases by the addition of naphthalene.
D. D) Boiling point of pure benzene increases by the addition of toluene.

Question 16

If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is

not related to adsorption process?

A. A) m
x
= f(T ) at constant p
B. B) p = f(T ) at constant ( m
x
)
C. C) m
x
=p×T
D. D) m
x
= f(p) at constant T

Question 17

A one molal solution of sodium chloride in water has the same boiling point as

A. A) 1 m solution of magnesium sulphate

B. B) 1 m solution of magnesium chloride
C. C) 1 m solution of aluminium sulphate
D. D) 1 m solution of aluminium chloride

Question 18

Which one of the following statements is false?

A. A) The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.01 M aqueous solution of each compound is
BaCl 2 > KCl > CH 3 COOH > sucrose.
B. B) The osmotic pressure (π) of a solution is given by the equation π = MRT, where M is
the molarity of the solution.
C. C) Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a component over a solution is
proportional to its mole fraction.
D. D) Two sucrose solutions of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the same
freezing point depression.

Question 19

A solution contains non-volatile solute of molecular mass M 2 . Which of the following can be
used to calculate the molecular mass of the solute in terms of the osmotic pressure? Note: m 2
is the mass of the solute, V is the volume of the solution and π is the osmotic pressure.

A. A) M 2 = ( π2 )VRT
m

B. B) M 2 = ( mV2 ) RT
π
C. C) M 2 = ( V2 )πRT
m

D. D) M 2 = ( V2 ) RT
m π

Question 20

The freezing point of a solution composed of 10.0 gof KCl in 100 g of water is 4.5 ∘ C.
Calculate the van't Hoff factor, i for this solution.

A. A) 2.50
B. B) 1.8
C. C) 1.2
D. D) 1.3

Question 21

The weight in grams of a non-volatile solute (mol. wt. 60) to be dissolved in 90 g of water to
produce a relative lowering of vapour pressure of 0.02 is

A. A) 4
B. B) 8
C. C) 6
D. D) 10

Question 22

Which of the following sets of components form homogeneous mixture?

A. A) Phenol + Water
B. B) Sugar + Benzene
C. C) Silver chloride + Water
D. D) Ethyl alcohol + Water

Question 23

A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because

A. A) boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased

B. B) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
C. C) cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature
D. D) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space

Question 24

Which of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit highest boiling point?

A. A) 0.01M urea
B. B) 0.01MKNO 3
C. C) 0.01MNa 2 SO 4
D. D) 0.015MC 6 H 12 O 6

Question 25

450mg of glucose is dissolved in 100 g of solvent. What is the molality of solution?

A. A) 0.0025 m
B. B) 0.025 m
C. C) 0.25 m
D. D) 2.5 m

Question 26

In mixture A and B component show -ve deviation as

A. A) ΔV mix > 0
B. B) ΔH mix < 0
C. C) A - B interaction is weaker than A - A and B - B interaction
D. D) A - B interaction is stronger than A - A and B - B interaction

Question 27

For a dilute solution, Raoult's law states that

A. A) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution
B. B) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
C. C) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute
D. D) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solvent.

Question 28

A solution of acetone in ethanol:

A. A) obeys Raoult's law

B. B) shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law
C. C) shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law
D. D) behaves like a near ideal solution

Question 29

If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10 g of solute (mol. wt = 100) in 100 g of water
is ΔT b, the ebullioscopic constant of water is

A. A) 10 b
ΔT

B. B) ΔT b
C. C) 10ΔT b
D. D) 100ΔT b

Question 30

The volume of 10 N and 4 NHCl required to make 1 L of 7 NHCl are

A. A) 0.50 L of 10 NHCl and 0.50 L of 4 NHCl

B. B) 0.60 L of 10 NHCl and 0.40 L of 4 NHCl
C. C) 0.80 L of 10 NHCl and 0.20 L of 4 NHCl
D. D) 0.75 L of 10 NHCl and 0.25 L of 4 NHCl

Moderate Questions

Question 31

X is a non-volatile solute and Y is a volatile solvent. The following vapour pressures are
observed by dissolving X in Y .
The correct order of vapour pressures is

A. A) p 1 < p 2 < p 3
B. B) p 3 < p 2 < p 1
C. C) p 3 < p 1 < p 2
D. D) p 2 < p 1 < p 3

Question 32

Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range. At 350 K, the vapor
pressures of pure A and pure B are 7 × 10 3 Pa and 12 × 10 3 Pa, respectively. The
composition of the vapour is in equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mole percent of A at
this temperature is:

A. A) x A = 0.37; x B = 0.63
B. B) x A = 0.28; x B = 0.72
C. C) x A = 0.4; x B = 0.6
D. D) x A = 0.76; x B = 0.24

Question 33

The measured freezing point depression for a 0.1m aqueous CH 3 COOH solution is 0.19 ∘ C.
The acid dissociation constant K a at this concentration will be (Given, K f the molal cryoscopic
constant = 1.86K kgmol −1 )

A. A) 4.76 × 10 −5
B. B) 4 × 10 −5
C. C) 8 × 10 −5
D. D) 2 × 10 −5

Question 34

The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO 3 ) 2 in dilute aq. solution containing 7.0 g of salt per
100 g of water at 100 ∘ C is 70%. If vapour pressure of water at 100 ∘ C is 760 mmHg. The
vapour pressure of solution is

A. A) 735
B. B) 730
C. C) 760
D. D) 746

Question 35

18 gram glucose (Molar mass = 180) is dissolved in 100 mol of water at 300 K. If R = 3
0.0821 L − atm mol −1 K −1 what is the osmotic pressure of solution?
A. A) 2.463 atm
B. B) 24.63 atm
C. C) 8.21 atm
D. D) 0.821 atm

Question 36

The degree of ionization of 0.10M lactic acid is 4.0%

The value of K c is

A. A) 1.66 × 10 −5
B. B) 1.66 × 10 −4
C. C) 1.66 × 10 −3
D. D) 1.66 × 10 −2

Question 37

If the Vant Hoff factor for 0.1MBa(NO 3 ) 2 solution is 2.74, the degree of dissociation is

A. A) 0.87
B. B) 0.74
C. C) 0.91
D. D) 87

Question 38

Highest osmotic pressure is shown by a solution of

A. A) 0.1M aluminium sulphate

B. B) 0.1M potassium nitrate
C. C) 0.1M magnesium chloride
D. D) 0.1M barium chloride

Question 39

The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is CH 2 O. A solution containing 3 g of the compound

exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05M glucose solution. The molecular formula of
the compound is

A. A) CH 2 O
B. B) C 2 H 4 O 2
C. C) C 4 H 8 O 4
D. D) C 3 H 6 O 3

Question 40

A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH 3 ) 5 (NO 2 )Cl freezes at

−0.00732 ∘ C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mol of ionic compound produces on being
dissolved in water will be (k f = −1.86 ∘ C/m)

A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 4
D. D) 1

Question 41

When 25 g of a non-volatile solute is dissolved in 100 g of water, the vapour pressure is

lowered by 2.25 × 10 −1 mm. If the vapour pressure of water at 20 ∘ C is 17.5 mm, what is the
molecular weight of the solute?

A. A) 206
B. B) 302
C. C) 350
D. D) 276

Question 42

A 5% solution (by mass) of cane sugar in water has freezing point of 271 K and freezing point
of pure water is 273.15 K. The freezing point of a 5% solution (by mass) of glucose in water is

A. A) 271 K
B. B) 273.15 K
C. C) 269.07 K
D. D) 277.23 K.

Question 43

A 0.1 molal solution of an acid is 4.5% ionized. Calculate freezing point. (molecular weight of
the acid is 300). K f = 1.86 K mol −1 kg.
A. A) −0.194 ∘ C
B. B) 2.00 ∘ C
C. C) 0 ∘ C
D. D) −0.269 ∘ C

Question 44

18 g of glucose (C 6 H 12 O 6 ) is added to 178.2 g of water. The vapour pressure of water for this
aqueous solution at 100 ∘ C is

A. A) 759.00 Torr
B. B) 7.60 Torr
C. C) 76.00 Torr
D. D) 752.40 Torr

Question 45

Pick the correct statement.

A. A) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is independent of T.

B. B) Osmotic pressure always depends on the nature of solute.
C. C) Elevation of boiling point is independent of nature of the solvent.
D. D) Lowering of freezing point is proportional to the molar concentration of solute.

Question 46

A metallic oxide reacts with water to form its hydroxide, hydrogen peroxide and also liberates
oxygen. The metallic oxide could be

A. A) OKO 2
B. B) Na 2 O 2
C. C) CaO
D. D) Li 2 O

Question 47

Relationship between van’t Hoff’s factor (i) and degree of dissociation (α) is

A. A) i = n'−1
α−1

B. B) i = 1−n'
α−1

C. C) α = n'−1
1−i

D. D) α = n'−1
i−1
Question 48

Boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.8 g of non-volatile solute is dissolved in 90 g of

benzene. Then boiling point is raised to 354.11 K. Given K b (benzene) = 2.53 kg mol −1 .
The molecular mass of non-volatile substance is

A. A) 58 g mol −1
B. B) 120 g mol −1
C. C) 116 g mol −1
D. D) 60 g mol −1

Question 49

The average osmotic pressure of human blood is 7.8 bar at 37 ∘ C. What is the concentration of
an aqueous NaCl solution that could be used in the blood stream?

A. A) 0.16 mol/L
B. B) 0.32 mol/L
C. C) 0.60 mol/L
D. D) 0.45 mol/L

Question 50

Out of the compounds below the vapour pressure of (B) at a particular temperature is

A. A) higher than that of (A)

B. B) lower than that of (A)
C. C) higher or lower than (A), depending on the size of the vessel
D. D) same as that of (A)

Question 51

The mass of a non-volatile solute of molar mass 60 g mol −1 that should be dissolved in 126 g
of water to reduce its vapour pressure to 99% will be

A. A) 2.8 g
B. B) 5.6 g
C. C) 8.4 g
D. D) 4.2 g

Question 52

Osmotic pressure observed when benzoic acid is dissolved in benzene is less than that
expected from theoretical considerations. This is because

A. A) benzoic acid is an organic solute

B. B) benzoic acid has higher molar mass than benzene
C. C) benzoic acid gets associated in benzene
D. D) benzoic acid gets dissociated in benzene

Question 53

A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressures of the pure
hydrocarbons at 20 ∘ C are 440 mmHg for pentane and 120 mmHg for hexane. the mole
fraction of pentane in the vapour phase would be:

A. A) 0.200
B. B) 0.549
C. C) 0.786
D. D) 0.478

Question 54

The vapour pressure of water at 23 ∘ C is 19.8 mm, 0.1 mole of glucose is dissolved in 178.2 g
of water. What is the vapour pressure (in mm ) of the resultant solution?

A. A) 19.0
B. B) 19.602
C. C) 19.402
D. D) 19.202

Question 55

After adding non-volatile solute freezing point of water decreases to −0.186 ∘ C. Calculate
ΔT b if K f = 1.86K kg mol −1 and K b = 0.521K kg mol −1
A. A) 0.521 K
B. B) 0.0521 K
C. C) 1.86 K
D. D) 0.0186 K

Question 56

If the solubility of MX 2 type electrolyte is 0.5 × 10 −4 mol L −1 , then, find out K sp of the
electrolyte.

A. A) 5 × 10 −12
B. B) 25 × 10 −10
C. C) 1 × 10 −13
D. D) 5 × 10 −13

Question 57

The vapour pressure of two liquids P and Q are 80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour
pressure of solution obtained by mixing 3 mole of P and 2 mol of Q would be:

A. A) 72 torr
B. B) 140 torr
C. C) 68 torr
D. D) 20 torr

Question 58

The mass of glucose that should be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce the same
lowering of vapour pressure as is produced by dissolving lg of urea in the same quantity of
water is

A. A) 1 g
B. B) 3 g
C. C) 6 g
D. D) 18 g

Question 59

58.4g of NaCl and 180g of glucose were separately dissolved in 1000mL of water. Identify
the correct statement regarding the elevation of boiling point (b.p) of the resulting solutions.

A. A) NaCl solution will show higher elevation of boiling point

B. B) Glucose solution will show higher elevation of boiling point
C. C) Both the solutions will show equal elevation of boiling point
D. D) The boiling point elevation will be shown by neither of the solutions
Question 60

The vapour pressure of benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm of Hg. A non-volatile and
non-electrolyte solid weighing 2.175 g is added to 39.08 g of benzene. If the vapour pressure
of the solution is 600 mm of Hg, what is the molecular weight of solid substance?

A. A) 49.50
B. B) 59.60
C. C) 69.60
D. D) 79.82

Hard Questions

Question 61

Pure water freezes at 273 K and 1 bar pressure. The addition of 34. 5 g of ethanol to 500 g of
water changes the freezing point of the solution. Use the freezing point depression constant of
water as 2 K kg mol −1 . The figures shown below represent the plots of vapour pressure (
V. P.) versus temperature (T). [Molecular weight of ethanol is 46 g 46 g mol −1 ]
Among the following, the option representing a change in the freezing point is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 62

The Henry's law constant for the solubility of N 2 gas in water at 298 K is 1 × 10 +5 atm. The
mole fraction of air is 0.8 . The number of moles of N 2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water at
298 K and 5 atm pressure is
A. A) 4 × 10 −5
B. B) 4 × 10 −4
C. C) 5 × 10 −4
D. D) 4 × 10 −6

Question 63

Pure water freezes at 273 K and 1 bar. The addition of 34.5 g of ethanol to 500 g of water
changes the freezing point of the solution. Use the freezing point depression constant of water
as 2 K kg mol −1 . The figures shown below represent plots of vapour pressure (V.P.) versus
temperature (T). [molecular weight of ethanol is 46 g mol −1 ]

Among the following, the option representing change in the freezing point is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 64

Formation of a solution from two components can be considered as: (i) Pure solvent →
separated solvent molecules ΔH 1 (ii) Pure solute → separated solute molecules, ΔH 2 (iii)
Separated solvent and solute molecules → solution, ΔH 3 Solution so formed will be ideal of:

A. A) ΔH soln = ΔH 1 + ΔH 2 + ΔH 3
B. B) ΔH soln = ΔH 1 + ΔH 2 − ΔH 3
C. C) ΔH soln = ΔH 1 − ΔH 2 − ΔH 3
D. D) AH soln = AH 3 − AH 1 − AH 2

Question 65

Which one of the following represents the graph between log p (on Y -axis) and T1 (on X-
axis)? ( p = vapour pressure of a liquid, T = absolute temperature)

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 66

For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute in 100 g of water,
the elevation in boiling point at 1 atm pressure is 2 ∘ C. Assuming concentration of solute is
much lower than the concentration of solvent, the vapour pressure ( mm of Hg ) of the solution
is (take K b = 0.76 K kg mol −1 )

A. A) 724
B. B) 740
C. C) 736
D. D) 718

Question 67

When 2. 44 grams of benzoic acid (C 6 H 5 COOH) dissolved in 25 grams of benzene, it shows

depression of freezing point equal to 2. 2 K. Molal depression constant of benzene is
5. 0 K kg mol −1 . What is the percentage association of acid, if it forms dimer in solution?
A. A) 50%
B. B) 90%
C. C) 95%
D. D) 77%

Question 68

If the freezing point of a 0.01 molal aqueous solution of a cobalt (III) chloride-ammonia complex
(which behaves as a strong electrolyte) is −0.0558 o C , the number of chloride(s) in the
coordination sphere of the complex is
[K f of water = 1.86 K kg mol −1 ]

Question 69

Liquids A and B form an ideal solution. At 30 ∘ C, the total vapour pressure of a solution
containing 1 mol of A and 2 mol of B is 250 mmHg. The total vapour pressure becomes
300 mmHg when 1 more mol of A is added to the first solution. The vapour pressures of pure
A and B at the same temperature are
A. A) 150, 450mmHg
B. B) 125, 150 mmHg
C. C) 450, 150 mmHg
D. D) 250, 300 mmHg

Question 70

The vapour pressure of a non-ideal tw component solution is given below

Identify the correct T − X curve for the same mixture,

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 71

A camphor sample melts at 176 ∘ C. K f for camphor is 40 K kg mol −1 . A solution of 0.02 g of

a hydrocarbon in 0.8 g of camphor melts at 156.77 ∘ C. The hydrocarbon is made up of 92.3%
of carbon. What is the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon?

A. A) C 6 H 6
B. B) C 12 H 12
C. C) C 4 H 4
D. D) C 8 H 8

Question 72

Which of the following represents correctly the changes in thermodynamic properties during the
formation of an ideal binary solution:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 73

When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C 11 H 8 O 2 ) is dissolved in 50 g of benzene

(K f = 1.72 K kg mol −1 ), a freezing point depression of 2 K is observed. The van't Hoff
factor (i) is

A. A) 0.5
B. B) 1
C. C) 2
D. D) 3

Question 74

A mixture of 3.0 moles of Na 2 O and 1.5 mol of KO 2 is dissolved in 1000 mL of water. The
vapour pressure of the solution in Torr, at 100 ∘ C is

A. A) 740
B. B) 760
C. C) 580
D. D) 608

Question 75

Calculate the depression in the freezing point of a solution containing 0.1 g of K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] in
100 g of H 2 O ? (molecular weight of K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] = 329; K f = 1.86 K kg mol 1 )
A. A) 0
B. B) 1.223
C. C) 0.0226
D. D) 0.226

Question 76

An electrolyte of a polymer-salt complex of poly (ethylene oxide) - LiCF 3 SO 3 is shaped into a

free standing circular film of 20 mm diameter and a thickness of 20μ[Link] it is sandwiched
between 2 stainless steel circular electrodes of the same diameter, this cell exhibits a
conductance of 314
5 [Link] is the specific conductivity of the electrolyte?

A. A) 4 mS cm −1
B. B) 0. 4S cm −1
C. C) 40 mS cm −1
D. D) 0. 004 S cm −1

Question 77

Match the following.

Ebullioscopic
A I Depression of freezing point
constant
Cryoscopic Total pressure is the sum of partial
B II
constant pressures of the components
C Henry's law III Elevation of boiling point
D Dalton's law IV Solubility of a gas in liquid

The correct match is

A. A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

B. B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
C. C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
D. D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

Question 78

The freezing point (in ∘ C ) of solution containing 0.1 g of K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] (molecular weight 329
) in 100 g of water (K f = 1.86 K kg mol −1 ) is
A. A) −2.3 × 10 −2
B. B) −5.7 × 10 −2
C. C) −5.7 × 10 −3
D. D) −1.2 × 10 −2

Question 79
The freezing point of a solution containing 0.2 g of acetic acid in 20.0 g benzene is lowered by
0.45 ∘ C. The degree of association of acetic acid in benzene is (Assume acetic acid dimerises
in benzene and K f for benzene = 5.12 K kg mol −1 ) M observed of acetic acid = 113.78

A. A) 94.5%
B. B) 54.9%
C. C) 78.2%
D. D) 100%

Question 80

A solution of 17.1 w\% of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol 1 ) is isotonic with a x w\% solution
of oxalic acid (molar mass = 90 g mol 1 ). Assume the degree of dissociation of oxalic acid as
0.01 . What is x ?

A. A) 9
B. B) 0.45
C. C) 4.41
D. D) 0.90

Question 81

75.2 g of C 6 H 5 OH (phenol) is dissolved in a solvent of K f = 14. If the depression in freezing

point is 7 K, then find the % of phenol that dimerises.

Question 82

The Henry's law constant for the solubility of N 2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 × 105 atm. The
mole fraction of N 2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N 2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of
water of 298 K and 5 atm pressure is

A. A) 4 × 10 −4
B. B) 4.0 × 10 −5
C. C) 5.0 × 10 −4
D. D) 4.0 × 10 −6

Question 83

A solution containing 10 g per dm 3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol −1 ) is isotonic with a

5% solution of a nonvolatile solute. The molecular mass of this nonvolatile solution is:
A. A) 250 g mol −1
B. B) 300 g mol −1
C. C) 350 g mol −1
D. D) 200 g mol −1

Question 84

Paragraph: Properties such as boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure of a pure
solvent change when solute molecules are added to get homogeneous solution. These are
called colligative properties. Applications of colligative properties are very useful in day-to-day
life. One of its examples is the use of ethylene glycol and water mixture as anti-freezing liquid in
the radiator automobiles. A solution M is prepared by mixing ethanol and water. The mole
fraction of ethanol in the mixtrue is 0.9 Given Freezing point depression constant of water
(k water ) = 1.86 K kg mol −1 Freezing point depression constant of ethanol
(k ethanol
f ) = 2.0Kkgmol −1 Boiling point elevation constant of water
(k water
b ) = 0.52Kkgmol −1 Boiling point elevation constant of ethanol
(k ethanol
b ) = 1.2Kkgmol −1 Standard freezing point of water = 273 K Standard freezing
point of ethanol = 155.7 K Standard boiling point of water = 373 K Standard boiling point of
ethanol = 351.5 K Vapour pressure of pure water = 328 mm of Hg Vapour pressure of pure
ethanol = 40 mm of Hg Molecular weight of water = 18 g mol −1 Molecular weight of ethanol
= 46 g mol −1 In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to be ideal dilute
solutions and solutes to be non-volatile and [Link]: The vapour pressure of
the solution M is

A. A) 39.3 mmHg
B. B) 36.0 mmHg
C. C) 29.5 mmHg
D. D) 28.8 mmHg

Question 85

The plot of total vapour pressure as a function of mole fraction of the components of an ideal
solution formed by mixing liquids X and Y is

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 86

An ideal mixture of two liquids A and B is put in a cylinder containing piston. Piston is pulled out
isothermally so that the volume of liquid decreases but that of vapours increases. Negligibly
small amount of liquid was left and mole-fraction of A in vapour is 0.4. If P ∘A = 0.4 and
P ∘B = 1.2 atm at the experimental temperature, which of the following is the total pressure at
which the liquid is almost evaporated?

A. A) 0.22 atm
B. B) 0.431 atm
C. C) 0.667 atm
D. D) 1 atm

Question 87

The variation of solubility of four different gases (G1, G2, etc.) in a given solvent with pressure
at a constant temperature is shown in the plot.
The gas with the highest value of Henry's law constant is
A. A) G4
B. B) G2
C. C) G3
D. D) G1

Question 88

Paragraph: Properties such as boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure of a pure
solvent change when solute molecules are added to get homogeneous solution. These are
called colligative properties. Applications of colligative properties are very useful in day-to-day
life. One of its examples is the use of ethylene glycol and water mixture as anti-freezing liquid in
the radiator automobiles. A solution M is prepared by mixing ethanol and water. The mole
fraction of ethanol in the mixtrue is 0.9 Given Freezing point depression constant of water
(k water ) = 1.86 K kg mol −1 Freezing point depression constant of ethanol
(k ethanol
f ) = 2.0Kkgmol −1 Boiling point elevation constant of water
(k water
b ) = 0.52Kkgmol −1 Boiling point elevation constant of ethanol
(k ethanol
b ) = 1.2Kkgmol −1 Standard freezing point of water = 273 K Standard freezing
point of ethanol = 155.7 K Standard boiling point of water = 373 K Standard boiling point of
ethanol = 351.5 K Vapour pressure of pure water = 328 mm of Hg Vapour pressure of pure
ethanol = 40 mm of Hg Molecular weight of water = 18 g mol −1 Molecular weight of ethanol
= 46 g mol −1 In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to be ideal dilute
solutions and solutes to be non-volatile and [Link]: Water is added to the
solution M such that the mole fraction of water in the solution becomes 0.9 The boiling point of
this solutions is

A. A) 380.4 K
B. B) 376.2 K
C. C) 375.5 K
D. D) 354.7 K

Question 89

Choose the correct statement with respect to the vapour pressure of a liquid among the
following :
A. A) Increases non-linearly with increasing temperature
B. B) Decreases non-linearly with increasing temperature
C. C) Decreases linearly with increasing temperature
D. D) Increases linearly with increasing temperature

Question 90

Paragraph: Properties such as boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure of a pure
solvent change when solute molecules are added to get homogeneous solution. These are
called colligative properties. Applications of colligative properties are very useful in day-to-day
life. One of its examples is the use of ethylene glycol and water mixture as anti-freezing liquid in
the radiator automobiles. A solution M is prepared by mixing ethanol and water. The mole
fraction of ethanol in the mixtrue is 0.9 Given Freezing point depression constant of water
(k water ) = 1.86 K kg mol −1 Freezing point depression constant of ethanol
(k ethanol
f ) = 2.0Kkgmol −1 Boiling point elevation constant of water
(k water
b ) = 0.52Kkgmol −1 Boiling point elevation constant of ethanol
(k ethanol
b ) = 1.2Kkgmol −1 Standard freezing point of water = 273 K Standard freezing
point of ethanol = 155.7 K Standard boiling point of water = 373 K Standard boiling point of
ethanol = 351.5 K Vapour pressure of pure water = 328 mm of Hg Vapour pressure of pure
ethanol = 40 mm of Hg Molecular weight of water = 18 g mol −1 Molecular weight of ethanol
= 46 g mol −1 In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to be ideal dilute
solutions and solutes to be non-volatile and [Link]: The freezing point of
the solution M is

A. A) 268.7 K
B. B) 268.5 K
C. C) 234.2 K
D. D) 150.9 K

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q31 - D Q61 - D
Q2 - D Q32 - B Q62 - B
Q3 - D Q33 - B Q63 - A
Q4 - B Q34 - D Q64 - A
Q5 - B Q35 - B Q65 - C
Q6 - B Q36 - B Q66 - A
Q7 - C Q37 - A Q67 - B
Q8 - C Q38 - A Q68 - 1 (Num)
 Q9 - C Q39 - B Q69 - C
Q10 - A Q40 - A Q70 - A
Q11 - C Q41 - C Q71 - C
Q12 - A Q42 - C Q72 - C
Q13 - D Q43 - A Q73 - A
Q14 - A Q44 - D Q74 - D
Q15 - D Q45 - A Q75 - C
Q16 - C Q46 - A Q76 - C
Q17 - A Q47 - D Q77 - C
Q18 - D Q48 - A Q78 - A
Q19 - B Q49 - B Q79 - A
Q20 - B Q50 - A Q80 - C
Q21 - C Q51 - D Q81 - 35 (Num)
Q22 - A Q52 - C Q82 - A
Q23 - A Q53 - D Q83 - C
Q24 - C Q54 - B Q84 - B
Q25 - B Q55 - B Q85 - B
Q26 - B Q56 - D Q86 - C
Q27 - B Q57 - A Q87 - D
Q28 - C Q58 - B Q88 - B
Q29 - B Q59 - A Q89 - A
Q30 - A Q60 - C Q90 - D

Electrochemistry

Easy Questions

Question 1

Upon dipping a copper rod, the aqueous solution of the salt that can turn blue is:-

A. A) Ca (NO 3 ) 2
B. B) Mg (NO 3 ) 2
C. C) Zn (NO 3 ) 2
D. D) AgNO 3
Question 2

If the values of Λ ∞ of NH 4 Cl, NaOH and NaCl are 130, 217 and 109ohm −1 cm 2 equiv −1
respectively, the Λ ∞ of NH 4 OH in ohm −1 cm 2 equiv −1 is

A. A) 238
B. B) 196
C. C) 22
D. D) 456

Question 3

The equilibrium constant for the disproportionation reaction

2Cu + (aq) ⟶ Cu(s) + Cu 2+ (ag) at 25 ∘ C
(E ∘ Cu + /Cu = 0.52 V, E ∘ Cu 2+ /Cu = 0.16 V) is
A. A) 6 × 10 4
B. B) 6 × 10 6
C. C) 1.2 × 10 6
D. D) 1.2 × 10 −6

Question 4

For a reaction, A + B 2+ ⟶ B + A 2+ , at 25 0 C E 0 = 0. 2955V. The value of K eq is

A. A) 10
B. B) 10 10
C. C) −10
D. D) 10 −10

Question 5

What is the standard cell potential for the reaction with K = 1 (equilibrium constant)

A. A) One
B. B) Zero
C. C) 2.303
D. D) Infinity

Question 6

How many electrons would be required to deposit 6.35 g of copper at the cathode during the
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of copper sulphate? (Atomic mass of copper
= 63.5u, N A = Avogadro's constant):
A. A) 20A
N

B. B) 10A
N

C. C) N5A
D. D) N2A

Question 7

Mark out the correct statement among the following.

A. A) Aqueous AgNO 3 solution can be stored in a copper bowl.

B. B) Aqueous CuSO 4 solution can be stored in a silver bowl.
C. C) Cu , Ag can release hydrogen gas from dil HCl .
D. D) H 2 cannot reduce Cu 2+ and Ag + in the form of metals.

Question 8

One ampere of current is passed for 9650 seconds through molten AlCl 3 . What is the weight in
grams of Al deposited at cathode? (atomic weight of Al = 27 )

A. A) 0.9
B. B) 9.0
C. C) 0.09
D. D) 90.0

Question 9

A solution of copper sulphate (CuSO 4 ) is electrolysed for 10 minutes with a current of 1.5
amperes. The mass of copper deposited at the cathode (at. mass of Cu = 63u ) is :

A. A) 0.3892 g
B. B) 0.2938 g
C. C) 0.2398 g
D. D) 0.3928 g

Question 10

Which of the following expressions correctly represents the equivalent conductance at infinite
dilution of Al 2 (SO 4 ) 3 . Given that Λ ∘Al3+ and Λ ∘SO2− are the equivalent conductances at infinite
4

dilution of the respective ions?

A. A) 2Λ ∘Al3+ + 3Λ ∘SO2−
4

B. B) Λ ∘Al3+ + Λ ∘SO2−
4
C. C) (Λ ∘Al∘+ + 3Λ ∘SO2− ) × 6
4

D. D) 1
3 Λ ∘Al3+ + 1
2 Λ ∘SO2−
4

Question 11

Kohlrausch's law states that at

A. A) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an

electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
B. B) Finite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an
electrolyte, whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
C. C) Infinite dilution each ion makes definite contribution to equivalent conductance of an
electrolyte depending on the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte
D. D) Infinite dilution, each ion makes definite contribution to conductance of an electrolyte
whatever be the nature of the other ion of the electrolyte

Question 12

What will happen when a block of copper metal is dropped into a beaker containing a solution of
1 M ZnSO 4 ?
A. A) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of oxygen gas.
B. B) The copper metal will dissolve with evolution of hydrogen gas.
C. C) No reaction will occur.
D. D) The copper metal will dissolve and zinc metal will be deposited.

Question 13

Which of the following ion is expected to have highest value of molar conductivity at infinite
dilution in the aqueous solution?

A. A) Na +
B. B) K +
C. C) Ca 2+
D. D) H +

Question 14

What is the reduction electrode potential (in volts) of copper electrode when [Cu 2+ ] = 0.01M
is in a solution at 25 ∘ C ? (E ∘ of Cu 2+ /Cu electrode is +0.34 V)

A. A) 0.3991
B. B) 0.2809
C. C) 0.3105
D. D) 0.3695

Question 15

Daniel cell is a electrochemical cell, which of the following statement is true about it?

A. A) Cations move toward zinc electrode

B. B) Current flows from zinc electrode to copper electrode
C. C) Cations move toward copper electrode which is cathode
D. D) Electrons flow from copper electrode to zinc electrode

Question 16

1 mol each of AgNO 3 , CuSO 4 and AlCl 3 is electrolysed, Then ratio of number of faraday's
required are.

A. A) 1 : 1 : 1
B. B) 1 : 2 : 3
C. C) 3 : 2 : 1
D. D) 1 : 3 : 1

Question 17

The number of coulombs required for the deposition of 108 g of silver is

A. A) 96500
B. B) 48250
C. C) 193000
D. D) 10000

Question 18

Calculate the emf of the cell Cu(s) Cu 2+ (aq) Ag + (aq) Ag(s) Given
0 0
E Cu 2+
/Cu
= +0.34 V, E Ag +
/Ag
= 0.80 V

A. A) +0.46 V
B. B) +1.14 V
C. C) +0.57 V
D. D) −0.46 V

Question 19
The standard reduction potentials for Zn 2+ /Zn, Ni 2+ /Ni, and Fe 2+ /Fe are −0.76, −0.23
and −0.44 V respectively. The reaction X + Y 2+ → X 2+ + Y will be spontaneous when:

A. A) X = Ni, Y = F e
B. B) X = Ni, Y = Zn
C. C) X = F e, Y = Zn
D. D) X = Zn, Y = Ni

Question 20

When 0.1 mol MnO 2−

4 is oxidized the quantity of electricity required to completely MnO 4 to
2−

4 is
MnO −
A. A) 96500 C
B. B) 2 × 96500 C
C. C) 9650 C
D. D) 96.50 C

Question 21

When X amperes of current is passed through molten AlCl 3 for 96.5 s, 0.09 g of aluminium is
deposited. What is the value of X ?

A. A) 10 ampere
B. B) 20 ampere
C. C) 30 ampere
D. D) 40 ampere

Question 22

Using electrolytic method, the cost of production of 5L of oxygen at STP , is Rs X , the cost of
production of same volume of hydrogen at STP , will be

A. A) 2X
B. B) X
2
C. C) 8X
D. D) X
8

Question 23

Which of the following correctly represents Nernst equation? [ P = products, R = reactants ]

A. A) ΔG = ΔG ∘ + 2.303RT log [P ]
[R]
B. B) ΔG = ΔG ∘ − 2.303RT log [R]
[P ]

C. C) ΔG ∘ = ΔG + 2.303RT log [P ]
[R]

D. D) ΔG ∘ = ΔG − 2.303RT log [P ]
[R]

Question 24

A solution of concentration Cg equiv/L has a specific resistance R. The equivalent conductance

of the solution is

A. A) R
C
B. B) C
R
C. C) 1000
RC
D. D) 1000R
C

Question 25

The mass of the substance deposited when one Faraday of charge is passed through its
solution is equal to

A. A) relative equivalent weight

B. B) gram equivalent weight
C. C) specific equivalent weight
D. D) None of the above

Question 26

During electrolysis of water the volume of O 2 liberated is 2.24 dm 3 . The volume of hydrogen
liberated, under same conditions will be

A. A) 2.24 dm 3
B. B) 1.12 dm 3
C. C) 4.48 dm 3
D. D) 0.56 dm 3

Question 27

Which of the following is not a non-electrolyte

A. A) Acetic acid
B. B) Glucose
C. C) Ethanol
D. D) Urea
Question 28

Copper sulphate solution does not react with

A. A) Zinc
B. B) Iron
C. C) Silver
D. D) All of these

Question 29

Zn Zn 2+ (C 1 ) Zn 2+ (C 2 ) Zn . For this cell ΔG is negative if

A. A) C 1 = C 2
B. B) C 1 > C 2
C. C) C 2 > C 1
D. D) None of these

Question 30

The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al 2 O 3 at 500 C is as follows :

2
3
Al 2 O 3 → Al + O 2 , Δ r G = +940 kJ mol −1 The potential difference needed for the
4
3
electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide at 500 ∘ C should be at least :

A. A) 4.5 V
B. B) 3.0 V
C. C) 5.0 V
D. D) 2.5 V

∣
Moderate Questions

Question 31

The standard e.m.f of a cell, involving one electron change is found to be 0.591 V at 25 ∘ C.
The equilibrium constant of the reaction is (F = 96, 500Cmol −1 : R = 8.314JK −1 mol −1 )

A. A) 1.0 × 10 1
B. B) 1.0 × 10 30
C. C) 1.0 × 10 10
D. D) 1.0 × 10 5

Question 32
Assertion (A) : A current of 96.5 A is passed into aqueous AgNO 3 solution for 100 s. The
weight of silver deposited is 10.8 g (At. wt. of Ag = 108)Reason (R) : The mass of a
substance deposited during the electrolysis of an electrolyte is inversely proportional to the
quantity of electricity passing through the electrolyte. The correct answer is :

A. A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. C) (A) is true but (R) is false
D. D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Question 33

In a cell that utilises the reaction Zn(s) + 2H + (aq) → Zn 2+ (aq) + H 2 ( g) addition of

H 2 SO 4 to cathode compartment, will
A. A) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the right.
B. B) lower the E and shift equilibrium to the right.
C. C) lower the E and shift equlibrium to the left.
D. D) increase the E and shift equilibrium to the left.

Question 34

If ' A ' is the reactant and ' P ' is the product, which one of the following is the correct form of
Nernst equation?

A. A) [P ] = exp ( RT
[A] ∘
nF (E − E ))

B. B) [P ] = exp ( RT
[A] nF
(E − E ∘ ))
C. C) [P ] = exp (− RT
[A] nF
(E − E ∘ ))
D. D) E = E ∘ − RT
[A]
nF
ln [P ]

Question 35

Silver electrode acts as anode and E cell

∘
is −0.34 V

A. A) Copper electrode acts as anode and E cell

∘
is +0.46 V
B. B) Copper electrode acts as anode and E cell
∘
is +0.46 V
C. C) Silver electrode acts as a cathode and E cell
∘
is −0.34 V.
D. D) Copper electrode acts as cathode and E cell
∘
is +0.46 V

Question 36

The correct order of molar conductivity at infinite dilution of LiCl, NaCl and KCl is
A. A) LiCl > KCl > NaCl
B. B) KCl > NaCl > LiCl
C. C) LiCl > NaCl > KCl
D. D) NaCl > KCl > LiCl

Question 37

The current needed to reduce 26.6 g of nitrobenzene to aniline in acidic medium, is

A. A) 0.4 F
B. B) 0.6 F
C. C) 0.8 F
D. D) 1.2 F

Question 38

For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the standard e.m.f. of the cell is found to be
0.295 V at 25 ∘ C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25 ∘ C will be
A. A) 29.5 × 10 −2
B. B) 10
C. C) 1 × 10 10
D. D) 1 × 10 −10

Question 39

For the following cell reaction, $

Ag Ag + AgCl Cl ⊖ Cl 2 , Pt
ΔG ∘f (AgCl) = −109 kJ/mol
ΔG ∘f (Cl ⊖ ) = −129 kJ/mol
ΔG ∘f (Ag + ) = 78 kJ/mol

$ E ∘ of the cell is

A. A) –0.60 V
B. B) 0.60 V
C. C) 6.0 V
D. D) None of these

Question 40

The efficiency of fuel cell is given by the expression, η is

A. A) η = − ΔHcell × 100
nFE

B. B) η = − ΔScell × 100
nFE

C. C) η = − nFE cell
ΔA × 100
D. D) None of the above

Question 41

Electrolysis of a solution of HSO −

4 ions produces S 2 O 8 . Assuming 75% current efficiency,
2−

what current should be employed to achieve a production rate of 1 mol of S 2 O 8 per hour ?
2−

A. A) 71.50 A
B. B) 35.70 A
C. C) 142.96 A
D. D) 285.93 A

Question 42

The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of Al 2 O 3 at 500 ∘ C is as follows : \frac{2}{3}

\mathrm{Al}_2 \mathrm{O}_3 \rightarrow \frac{4}{3} \mathrm{Al}+\mathrm{O}_2,
\Delta_{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{G}=+966 \mathrm{~kJ} \mathrm{~mol}^{-1} The potential
difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al 2 O 3 at 500 ∘ C is at least

A. A) 4.5 V
B. B) 3.0 V
C. C) 2.5 V
D. D) 5.0 V

Question 43

The cell, Zn Zn 2+ (1M)∥Cu 2+ (1M) Cu (E 0cell = 1.10 V), was allowed to be completely
[Zn 2+ ]
discharged at 298 K. The relative concentration of Zn 2+ to Cu 2+ [ ] is
[Cu 2+ ]

A. A) antilog (24.08)
B. B) 37.3
C. C) 10 37.3
D. D) 9.65 × 10 4

Question 44

Electrode potential data given below

Cl 2 + 2H 2 O → 2ClO − + 4H + + 2e − ; E°= −1.61volt
ClO − + 2H 2 O → ClO − + −
3 + 4H + 4e ; E°= −0.50volt
Based on these data which is the spontaneous reaction.

A. A) Cl 2 + ClO − + ClO −
3
B. B) ClO − → Cl 2 + ClO −
3
C. C) ClO −
3 → Cl 2 + ClO
−

D. D) ClO − + Cl 2 → ClO −
3

Question 45

Given the data at 25 ∘ C,

Ag + I − ⟶ AgI + e − ; E ∘ = 0.152 V
Ag ⟶ Ag + + e − ; E ∘ = −0.800 V

What is the value of log K sp for AgI ? \left(2.303 \frac{R T}{F}=0.059 \mathrm{~V}\right)

A. A) −8.12
B. B) +8.612
C. C) −37.83
D. D) −16.13

Question 46

Cu +aq is unstable in solution and undergoes simultaneous oxidation and reduction according to
the reaction : 2Cu (aq) ⇌ Cu (aq) + Cu(s) choose correct E ∘ for above reaction if
+ 2+

E ∘ Cu 2+ = 0.34 V and E ∘ Cu 2+ = 0.15 V

A. A) −0.38 V
B. B) +0.49 V
C. C) +0.38 V
D. D) −0.19 V

Question 47

0. 5F of electricity is passed through 500 mL of copper sulphate solution. The amount of

copper which can be deposited will be

A. A) 63. 5 g
B. B) 31. 75 g
C. C) 15. 80 g
D. D) unpredictable
Question 48

At 25 ∘ C, the molar conductances at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl
and BaCl 2 are 248 × 10 −4 , 126 × 10 −4 and 280 × 10 −4 Sm 2 mol −1 respectively,
λ ∘m Ba(OH) 2 in Sm 2 mol −1 is
A. A) 52.4 × 10 −4
B. B) 524 × 10 −4
C. C) 402 × 10 −4
D. D) 262 × 10 −4

Question 49

Electrode potentials (E ∘ ) are given below : $

Cu + /Cu = +0.52 V,
Fe 3+ /Fe 2+ = +0.77 V,
1
I 2 ( s)/I − = +0.54 V,
2
Ag + /Ag = +0.88 V.

$ Based on the above potentials, strongest oxidizing agent will be :

A. A) Cu
+

B. B) Fe 3+
C. C) Ag
+

D. D) I 2

Question 50

Two half cells have reduction potentials –0.76 V and – 0.13 V respectively. A galvanic cell is
made from these two half cells. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A) Electrode of half-cell potential –0.76 V acts as cathode

B. B) Electrode of half-cell potential –0.76 V acts as anode
C. C) Electrode of half-cell potential –0.13 V acts as anode
D. D) Electrode of half-cell potential – 0.76 V acts as positive electrode and –0.13 V as
negative electrode

Question 51

For the electrochemical cell shown below

Pt |H 2 (p = 1 atm)|H + (aq. , xM)| Cu 2+ (aq, 1. 0 M) Cu(s)

The potential is 0. 49 V at 298 K. The pH of the solution is closest to [ Given, standard
reduction potential, E° for Cu / Cu is 0. 34 VGas constant, R is 8. 31 J K −1 mol −1
2+

Faraday constant, F is 9. 65 × 10 4 JV −1 mol −1 ]

A. A) 1. 2
B. B) 8. 3
C. C) 2. 5
D. D) 3. 2

Question 52

The limiting molar conductivities Λ ∘ for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126,152 and
150 S cm 2 mol −1 respectively. The Λ ∘ for NaBr is
A. A) 128 S cm 2 mol −1
B. B) 302 S cm 2 mol −1
C. C) 278 S cm 2 mol −1
D. D) 176 S cm 2 mol −1

Question 53

Electrolysis of dilute aq. NaCl solution was carried out by passing 10 mA current. The time
required to liberate 0.01 mole of H 2 gas at the cathode is (1 Faraday = 96500Cmol −1 )

A. A) 9.65 × 10 4 s
B. B) 19.3 × 10 4 s
C. C) 28.95 × 10 4 s
D. D) 38.6 × 10 4 s

Question 54

For the redox reaction Zn(s) + Cu 2+ (0.1M) → Zn 2+ (1M) + Cu(s) taking place in a cell,
E 0cell is 1.10 volt. E ∘ for the cell will be (2.303 RT
F = 0.0591)

A. A) 1.80 volt
B. B) 1.07 volt
C. C) 0.82 volt
D. D) 2.14 volt

Question 55

What is the approximate standard free energy change per mole of Zn (in kJmol −1 ) for a
Daniel cell at 298 K ?
A. A) -212.3
B. B) 230.0
C. C) 0.0
D. D) -1.10

Question 56

Consider the following E ∘ values

E ∘Fe3+ /Fe2+ = 0.77 V

E ∘Sn2+ /Sn = −0.14 V

Under standard conditions the potential for the reaction

Sn(s) + 2Fe 3+ (aq) ⟶ 2Fe 2+ (aq) + Sn 2+ (aq) is
A. A) 1.68 V
B. B) 0.63 V
C. C) 0.91 V
D. D) 1.40 V

Question 57

Molar conductivity of a solution of an electrolyte AB 3 is 150 Scm 2 mol −1 . If it ionizes as

AB 3 → A 3+ + 3B − , its equivalent conductivity will be
A. A) 150(in Scm 2 eq −1 )
B. B) 75(in Scm 2 eq −1 )
C. C) 50(in Scm 2 eq −1 )
D. D) 80(in Scm 2 eq −1 )

Question 58

The conductivity of a weak acid HA of concentration 0.001 mol L −1 is 2.0 × 10 −5 S cm −1 .

If Λ ∘m (HA) = 190 S cm 2 mol −1 , the ionization constant (K a ) of HA is equal to _______ x
10 −6 .
A. A) 24
B. B) 48
C. C) 12
D. D) 45

Question 59
Given E ∘Cr3 +/Cr = −0.72 V, E ∘Fe2+//Fe = −0.42 V. The potential for the cell
Cr Cr 3+ (0.1M) Fe 2+ (0.01M) Fe is
A. A) 0.26 V
B. B) 0.399 V
C. C) −0.339 V
D. D) −0.26 V

Question 60

Suppose that gold is being plated on to another metal in an electrolytic cell. The half-cell
reaction producing the Au(s) is AuCl −
4 +3e → Au(s) + 4Cl . If a 0.30 A current runs for
− −

15.00 minute, what mass of Au(s) will be plated, assume all the electrons are used in the
reduction of AuCl −
4 ? The Faraday constant is 96485 C/mol and molar mass of Au is 197.

A. A) 0.184 g
B. B) 0.551 g
C. C) 1.84 g
D. D) 0.613 g

∣
Hard Questions

Question 61

Salts of A (atomic weight 8), B (atomic weight 18) and C (atomic weight 50) were electrolysed
under identical conditions using the same quantity of electricity. It was found that 2. 4 g of A
was deposited, the weight of B and C deposited are 1. 8 g and 7. 5g respectively. The
valences of A, B and C are, respectively,

A. A) 3, 1 and 2
B. B) 1, 2 and 3
C. C) 1, 3 and 2
D. D) 3, 2 and 1

Question 62

The extent of charge of lead accumulator is determined by

A. A) amount of PbSO 4 in the battery

B. B) amount of PbO 2 in the battery
C. C) specific gravity of H 2 SO 4 of the battery
D. D) amount of Pb in the battery
Question 63

Which of the following graph correctly represents the variation of molar conductance (Δ m ) with
dilution for a strong electrolyte?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 64

The molar conductivities of HCl, NaCl, CH 3 COOH, and CH 3 COONa at infinite dilution
follow the order

A. A) HCl > CH 3 COOH > NaCl > CH 3 COONa

B. B) CH 3 COONa > HCl > NaCl > CH 3 COOH
C. C) HCl > NaCl > CH 3 COOH > CH 3 COONa
D. D) CH 3 COOH > CH 3 COONa > HCl > NaCl

Question 65

Which one of the following is correct plot of Λ m ( in scm 2 mol −1 ) and √C (in mol/L 1/2 ) for
KCl solution? (y = Λ m ; x − √C)

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 66
Which one of the following graphs between molar conductivity (Λ m ) versus √C is correct?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 67

When an aqueous solution of CuCl 2 is electrolysed using Pt inert electrodes, the reaction at
cathode and anode respectively are
+4a −
A. A) 4H 2 O(f) ⟶ 2H 2 (g) + 4OH 2 (aq); 2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) \stackrel{-4
\mathrm{a}^{-}}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{O}_2(g)+4 \mathrm{H}^{+}(\mathrm{aq})
+se −
B. B) 2Cu 2∗ (aq) ⟶ 2Cu(s); 2 \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}(l) \stackrel{-4 \mathrm{~s}^{-}}
{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{O}_2(g)+4 \mathrm{H}^*(a q)
+2a − −2a −
C. C) Cu 2∗ (aq) ⟶, Cu(s); 2Cl − (aq) ⟶ Cl 2 ( g)
 +2a −
D. D) 2H 2 O(f) ⟶ H 2 (g) + 2OH(aq); 2 \mathrm{Cl}^{-}(a q) \stackrel{-2 \mathrm{an}^{-}}
–

{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{Cl}_2(g)

Question 68

Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω. The specific conductance of the solution

is 1.4 S m −1 . The resistance of 0.5 M solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω. The molar
conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in S m 2 mol −1 is :

A. A) 5 × 10 −4
B. B) 5 × 10 −3
C. C) 5 × 10 3
D. D) 5 × 10 2

Question 69

Which of the following plots represent correct variation of equivalent conductance (Λ) with
dilution for a strong electrolyte?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 70

Salts of A (atomic mass 15), B (atomic mass 27) and C (atomic mass 48) were electrolysed
using same amount of charge. It was found that when 4.5 g of A was deposited, the masses of
B and C deposited were 2.7 g and 9.6 g. The valencies of A, B and C were respectively

A. A) 1, 3 and 2
B. B) 3, 1 and 3
C. C) 3, 1 and 2
D. D) 2, 3 and 2

Question 71

E 0cell of the reaction Mg (s) + 2Ag + (0.0001M) ⇌ Mg 2+ (0.01M) + 2Ag (s) is 3.17 V. The
E cell of the reaction and its cell notation respectively are :
A. A) 2.993 V, Ag Ag + (0.0001M)∥Mg 2 + (0.01M) Mg
B. B) 3.993 V, Mg Mg 2+ (0.0001M)∥Ag (0.01M) Ag
+

C. C) 2.993 V, Mg Mg 2+ (0.01M)∥Ag (0.0001M) Ag

+

D. D) 3.993 V, Ag| Ag + (0.01M)∥Mg 2+ (0.0001M) ∣ Mg

Question 72

Electrode potential data are given below:

Fe +3 (aq) + e − ⟶ Fe +2 (aq); E ∘ = +0.77 V
Al 3+ (aq) + 3e − ⟶ Al (s) ; E ∘ = −1.66 V
Br 2 (aq) + 2e − ⟶ 2Br − (aq); E ∘ = +1.08 V
Based on the data, the reducing power of Fe 2+ , Al and Br − will increase in the order

A. A) Br − < Fe 2+ < Al
B. B) Fe 2+ < Al < Br −
C. C) Al < Br − < Fe 2+
D. D) Al < Fe 2+ < Br −

Question 73

Paragraph: Tollen's reagent is used for the detection of aldehyde when a solution of AgNO 3 is
added to glucose with NH 4 OH then gluconic acid is formed
 Ag + + e − → Ag ∘
E red = 0.8 V
C 6 H 12 O 6 + H 2 O → Gluconic acid (C 6 H 12 O 7 ) + 2H + + 2e − ; −E red
∘
= −0.05 V
Ag(NH 3 ) + −
2 + e → Ag(s) + 2NH 3 ;
∘
E red = 0.337 V
[Use 2.303 × F = 0.0592 and RT = 38.92 at 298 K ]Question:
RT F

2Ag + + C 6 H 12 O 6 + H 2 O → 2Ag(s) + C 6 H 12 O 4 + 2H + . Find ln K of this reaction.

A. A) 66.13
B. B) 58.38
C. C) 28.30
D. D) 46.29

Question 74

The limiting molar conductivities of the given electrolytes at 298 K follow the order

[λ 0 ( K + ) = 73.5, λ 0 (Cl − ) = 76.3

λ 0 (Ca 2+ ) = 119.0, λ 0 (SO 2− 2 −1
4 ) = 160.0 S cm mol ]

A. A) KCl < CaCl 2 < K 2 SO 4

B. B) KCl < K 2 SO 4 < CaCl 2
C. C) K 2 SO 4 < CaCl 2 < KCl
D. D) CaCl 2 < K 2 SO 4 < KCl

Question 75

In a fuel cell methanol is used as fuel and oxygen gas is used as an oxidizer. The reaction is
CH 3 OH(ℓ) + 32 O 2 ( g) → CO 2 ( g) + 2H 2 O(ℓ) At 298 K standard Gibb's energies of
formation for CH 3 OH(ℓ), H 2 O(ℓ) and CO 2 ( g) are −166.2, −237.2 and −394.4 kJ mol −1
respectively. If standard enthalpy of combustion of methanol is −726 kJ mol −1 , efficiency of
the fuel cell will be

A. A) 80%
B. B) 87%
C. C) 90%
D. D) 97%

Question 76

Among the following, the plot that correctly represents the conductometric titration of 0. 05 M
H 2 SO 4 with 0. 1 M NH 4 OH is
A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 77

Match the following

A. A) option (a) is correct

B. B) option (b) is correct
C. C) option (c) is correct
D. D) option (d) is correct

Question 78

For the following cell reaction, $

Ag Ag + AgCl Cl ⊖ Cl 2 , Pt
ΔG ∘f (AgCl) = −109 kJ/mol
ΔG ∘f (Cl ⊖ ) = −129 kJ/mol
ΔG ∘f (Ag + ) = 78 kJ/mol

$ E ∘ of the cell is

A. A) –0.60 V
B. B) 0.60 V
C. C) 6.0 V
D. D) None of these

Question 79

Consider the following recuction processes

Zn 2+ + 2e − → Zn(s); E°= −0.76V
Ca 2+ + 2e − → Ca(s); E°= −2.87V
Mg 2+ + 2e − → Mg(s); E°= −2.36V
Ni 2+ + 2e − → Ni(s); E°= −0.25V

A. A) Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni

B. B) Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca
C. C) Zn > Mg < Ni < Ca
D. D) Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni

Question 80

∣
The reduction power of the metals increases in the order

At 25 ∘ C, the molar conductances at infinite dilution for the strong electrolytes NaOH, NaCl
and BaCl 2 are 248 × 10 −4

λ ∘m Ba(OH) 2 in Sm 2 mol −1 is
A. A) 52.4 × 10 −4
B. B) 524 × 10 −4
C. C) 402 × 10 −4
D. D) 262 × 10 −4
, 126 × 10 −4 and 280 × 10 −4 Sm 2 mol −1 respectively,
Question 81

Consider the following standard electrode potentials (E o in volts) in aqueous solution:

Element M 3+ /M M + /M

Al −1.66 +0.55
Tl +1.26 −0.34
Based on these data, which of the following statements is correct?

A. A) Tl + is more stable than Al 3+

B. B) Al + is more stable than Al 3+
C. C) Tl 3+ is more stable than Al 3+
D. D) Tl + is more stable than Al +

Question 82

The standard electrode potentials of

Zn 2+ Zn , Cu 2+ Cu and Ag + Ag are respectively - 0.76, 0.34 and 0.8 V. The following

cells were constructed

I - Zn Zn 2+ Cu 2+ Cu

II - Zn Zn 2+ Ag + Ag

III - Cu Cu 2+ Ag + Ag

°
What is the correct order of E cell of these cells?

A. A) II > III > I

B. B) II > I > III
C. C) I > II > III
D. D) III > I > II

Question 83

E 1 , E 2 and E 3 are the emf of the following three galvanic cells respectively
(i) Zn(s) Zn 2+ (0. 1 M) Cu 2+ (1 M) Cu(s)

(ii) Zn(s) Zn 2+ (1 M) Cu 2+ (1 M) Cu(s)

(iii) Zn(s) Zn 2+ (1 M) Cu 2+ (0. 1 M) Cu(s)

Which of the following is true?

A. A) E 2 > E 1 > E 3
B. B) E 1 > E 2 > E 3
C. C) E 3 > E 1 > E 2
D. D) E 3 > E 2 > E 1

Question 84

The standard reduction potentials of Zn 2+ Zn, Cu 2+ Cu and Ag + ∣ Cu and Ag + ∣ Ag are

respectively −0.76, 0.34 and 0.8 V. The following cells were constructed : (1)
Zn Zn 2+ Cu 2+ Cu (2) Zn Zn 2+ Ag + Ag (3) Cu Cu 2+ ∥Ag + Ag What is the correct
order of E cell
∘
of these cells?

A. A) 2 > 3 > 1
B. B) 2 > 1 > 3
C. C) 1 > 2 > 3
D. D) 3 > 1 > 2

Question 85

For electroplating, 1.5 amp current is passed for 250 s through 250mI. of 0.15M solution of
MSO 4 . Only 85% of the current was utilized for electrolysis. The molarity of MSO 4 solution
after electrolysis is closest to [Assume that the volume of the solution remained constant]

A. A) 0.14
B. B) 0.014

∣
C. C) 0.07
D. D) 0.035

Question 86

In the electrochemical cell

Zn|ZnSO 4 (0.01M)||CuSO 4 (1.0M)|Cu, the emf of this Daniel cell is E 1 . When the
concentration of ZnSO 4 is changed to 1.0M and that of CuSO 4 changed to 0.01M, the emf
changes to E 2 . From the followings, which one is the relationship between E 1 and E 2 ?
(Given, RT
F
= 0.059 )
A. A) E 1 < E 2
B. B) E 1 > E 2
C. C) E 2 = 0 ≠ E 1
D. D) E 1 = E 2

Question 87
An aqueous solution containing 1 M each of Au 3+ , Cu 2+ , Ag + , Li + is being electrolysed by
using inert electrodes. The value of standard potentials are
E oAg+ /Ag = 0.80V, E oCu+ /Cu = 0.34V and E oAu3+ /Au = 1.50V, E oLi+ /Li = −3.03V
with increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be

A. A) Li, Cu, Ag, Au

B. B) Cu, Ag, Au
C. C) Au, Ag, Cu
D. D) Au, Ag, Cu, Li

Question 88

The photoelectric current from Na (work function, w 0 = 2. 3 eV) is stopped by the output
voltage of the cell

Pt(s)∥H 2 (g, 1 bar)| HCl(aq⋅, pH = 1)| AgCl(s) ∣ Ag(s)

the pH of aq. HCl required to stop the photoelectric current from K(w 0 = 2. 25 eV), all other
conditions remaining the same, is … … … . ×10 −2 (to the nearest integer).

Given 2. 303 RT 0
F = 0. 06V; E AgCl / Ag /Cl = 0. 22V

Question 89

Electrolysis of concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl results in

A. A) increase in pH of the solution

B. B) decrease in pH of the solution
C. C) O 2 liberation at the cathode
D. D) H 2 liberation at the anode

Question 90

At a certain temperature and at infinite dilution, the equivalent conductances of sodium

benzoate, hydrochloric acid and sodium chloride are 240, 349 and 229ohm −1 cm 2 equiv −1
respectively. The equivalent conductance of benzoic acid in ohm −1 cm 2 equiv −1 at the same
conditions is

A. A) 80
B. B) 328
C. C) 360
D. D) 408

Correct Answers for this Chapter

 Q1 - D Q31 - C Q61 - C
Q2 - A Q32 - C Q62 - C
Q3 - C Q33 - A Q63 - B
Q4 - B Q34 - B Q64 - A
Q5 - B Q35 - B Q65 - B
Q6 - C Q36 - B Q66 - C
Q7 - B Q37 - D Q67 - C
Q8 - A Q38 - D Q68 - A
Q9 - B Q39 - A Q69 - B
Q10 - B Q40 - A Q70 - C
Q11 - A Q41 - A Q71 - C
Q12 - C Q42 - C Q72 - A
Q13 - D Q43 - C Q73 - B
Q14 - B Q44 - B Q74 - A
Q15 - C Q45 - D Q75 - D
Q16 - B Q46 - C Q76 - B
Q17 - A Q47 - C Q77 - C
Q18 - A Q48 - B Q78 - A
Q19 - D Q49 - C Q79 - B
Q20 - C Q50 - B Q80 - B
Q21 - A Q51 - C Q81 - D
Q22 - B Q52 - A Q82 - B
Q23 - A Q53 - B Q83 - B
Q24 - C Q54 - B Q84 - B
Q25 - B Q55 - A Q85 - A
Q26 - C Q56 - C Q86 - B
Q27 - A Q57 - C Q87 - C
Q28 - C Q58 - C Q88 - 142 (Num)
Q29 - C Q59 - A Q89 - A
Q30 - B Q60 - A Q90 - C

Chemical Kinetics

Easy Questions
Question 1

Two substances R and S decompose in solution independently, both following first order
kinetics. The rate constant of R is twice that of S. In an experiment, the solution initially
contained 0.5 millimoles of R and 0.25 of S. The molarities of R and S will be equal just at the
end of time equal to

A. A) twice the half life of R

B. B) twice the half life of S
C. C) the half life of S
D. D) the half life of R

Question 2

The following graph shows how T 1/2 (half-life) of a reactant R changes with the initial reactant
concentration a 0 .
The order of the reaction will be :

A. A) 0
B. B) 1
C. C) 2
D. D) 3

Question 3

The reduction of peroxydisulphate ion by I ion is expressed by S 2 O 2−8 + 3I → 2SO 4 + I 3 .

− 2− −

If rate of disappearance of I − is 9/2 × 10 −3 mol lit −1 s −1 , what is the rate of formation of

4 during same time?
2SO 2−
A. A) 3 × 10 −3 molLit −1 s −1
B. B) 2 × 10 −3 molLit −1 s −1
C. C) 10 −3 molLit −1 s −1
D. D) 4 × 10 −3 molLit −1 s −1

Question 4

A certain nuclide has a half-life period of 30 min. If a sample containing 600 atoms is allowed to
decay for 90 min, how many atoms will remain ?
A. A) 200 atoms
B. B) 450 atoms
C. C) 75 atoms
D. D) 150 atoms

Question 5

For the reaction : H 2 + I 2 ⟶ 2HI, the differential rate law is

A. A) − dt2 = − dt2 = 2 dt
d[H ] d[I ] d[HI]

B. B) − dt2 = −2 dt2 =
d[H ] d[I ] d[HI]
dt

C. C) − dt2 = − dt2 =
d[H ] d[I ] d[HI]
dt

D. D) − dt2 = − dt2 =
d[H ] d[I ] d[HI]
dt

Question 6

In the hydrolysis of an organic chloride in presence of large excess of water;

RCI + H 2 O → ROH + HCl
A. A) Molecularity and order of reaction both are 2
B. B) Molecularity is 2 but order of reaction is 1
C. C) Molecularity is 1 but order of reaction is 2
D. D) Molecularity is 1 and order of reaction is also 1

Question 7

2 g of a radioactive sample having half-life of 15 days was synthesised on 1st Jan 2009. The
amount of the sample left behind on 1st March, 2009 (including both the days) is

A. A) 0 g
B. B) 0.125 g
C. C) 1 g
D. D) 0.5 g

Question 8

Temperature coefficient of a reaction is 2. When temperature is increased from 30 ∘ C to 100 ∘ C,

rate of the reaction increases by

A. A) 128 times
B. B) 100 times
C. C) 500 times
D. D) 250 times

Question 9

The time taken for 10% completion of a first order reactin is 20 mins. Then, for 19%
completion, the reaction will take

A. A) 40mins
B. B) 60 mins
C. C) 30mins
D. D) 50 mins

Question 10

The number of α and β-particles emitted during the transformation of 90 Th 232 to 82 Pb 208 are
respectively

A. A) 4, 2
B. B) 2, 2
C. C) 8, 6
D. D) 6, 4

Question 11

For the reaction, 2A+B → C+D, the order of reaction is

A. A) One with respect [B]

B. B) Two with respect to [A]
C. C) Three
D. D) Cannot be predicted

Question 12

The radiosotope tritium ( 31 H) has a lalf life of 12.3 years. If the initial amount of tritium is 32mg,
how many milligrams of it would remain after 49.2 years

A. A) 1mg
B. B) 2mg
C. C) 4mg
D. D) 8mg

Question 13
16 g of a radio active substance is reduced to 0.5 g after 1 hour. The half life of the radioactive
substance in minutes is

Question 14

For a chemical reaction A → B, the rate of the reaction is 2 × 10 −3 moldm −3 s −1 , when the
initial concentration is 0.05 moldm −3 . The rate of the same reaction is
1.6 × 10 −2 moldm −3 s −1 when the initial concentration is 0.1 moldm −3 . The order of the
reaction is

A. A) 2
B. B) 0
C. C) 3
D. D) 1

Question 15

Decomposition of NH 3 on the surface of platinum has a rate constant of

2.5 × 10 −4 moldm −3 s −1 at 350K . The order of the reaction is
A. A) 0
B. B) 1
C. C) 1/2
D. D) 2

Question 16

X-rays are emitted during

A. A) α, n reaction
B. B) K -capture
C. C) n, α reaction
D. D) β-emission.

Question 17

The half life period of a first order reaction is 1 min 40 secs. Calculate its rate constant.

A. A) 6.93 × 10 −3 min −1
B. B) 6.93 × 10 −3 sec −1
C. C) 6.93 × 10 −3 sec
D. D) 6.93 × 10 3 sec
Question 18

For which order reaction, the unit of rate constant is time −1 ?

A. A) Zero order
B. B) First order
C. C) Second order
D. D) Third order

Question 19

Acid hydrolysis of sucrose is a

A. A) pseudo first order reaction

B. B) zero order reaction
C. C) second order reaction
D. D) unimolecular reaction.

Question 20

The rate constants k 1 and k 2 for two different reactions are 10 16 ⋅ e −2000/T and
10 15 ⋅ e −1000/T respectively. The temperature at which k 1 = k 2 is
A. A) 2.303
1000
K
B. B) 1000 K
C. C) 2.303
2000
K
D. D) 2000 K

Question 21

The activation energy for a simple chemical reaction A → B is E a in forward direction. The
activation energy for reverse reaction:

A. A) is negative of E a
B. B) is always less than E a
C. C) can be less than or more E a
D. D) is always double of E a

Question 22

The order of the reaction N 2 O 5 → N 2 O 4 ( g) + 12 O 2 ( g)is

A. A) 3
B. B) 2
C. C) 1
D. D) 0

Question 23

A radioactive isotope having t 1/2 = 3 days was read after 12 days. If 3g of isotope is contained
in container, the initial weight of isotope was

A. A) 12 g
B. B) 24 g
C. C) 36 g
D. D) 48 g

Question 24

A 0.0020M aqueous solution of an ionic compound Co(NH 3 ) 5 (NO 2 )Cl freezes at

−0.00732 ∘ C. Number of moles of ions which 1 mole of ionic compound produces on being
dissolved in water will be : (k f = 1.86 ∘ C/m) -

A. A) 1
B. B) 2
C. C) 3
D. D) 4

Question 25

For reaction aA → xP , when [A] = 2.2mM, the rate was found to be 2.4mMs. On reducing
concentration of A to half, the rate changes to 0.6mMs −1 . The order of reaction with respect to
A is
A. A) 1.5
B. B) 2.0
C. C) 2.5
D. D) 3.0

Question 26

A given sample of milk turns sour at room temperature (27 ∘ C) in 5 h. In a refrigerator at −3 ∘ C

, it can be stored 10 times longer. The energy of activation for the souring of milk is

A. A) 2.303 × 5RkJ ⋅ mol −1

B. B) 2.303 × 3RkJ ⋅ mol −1
C. C) 2.303 × 2.7RkJ −1 mol −1
D. D) 2.303 × 10RkJ ⋅ mol −1

Question 27

For the reaction, 2 N 2 O 5 → 4NO 2 + O 2 rate of reaction is

A. A) 12 dt
d
[ N2 O5 ]
B. B) 2 dt
d
[ N2 O5 ]
C. C) 14 dt
d
[NO 2 ]
D. D) 4 dt
d
[NO 2 ]

Question 28

For the decomposition of a compound AB at 600 K, the following data were obtained

The order for the decomposition of AB is

A. A) 1.5
B. B) 0
C. C) 1
D. D) 2

Question 29

Following is the graph between log t 1 and log a (a = initial concentration of reactant) for a
2

given reaction at 27 C. Hence, order of the reaction is

o

(Here, t 1/2 is half-life)

A. A) 0
B. B) 1
C. C) 2
D. D) 3

Question 30

Velocity constant of a reaction at 290 K was found to be 3.2 × 10 −3 . At 300 K it will be

A. A) 1.28 × 10 −2
B. B) 9.6 × 10 −3
C. C) 6.4 × 10 −3
D. D) 3.2 × 10 −4

Moderate Questions

Question 31

A graph is plotted between log K versus T

1
for calculation of activation energy (E a ). The
correct plot is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 32

⟶ 82 Pb 208 . The number of α and β -particles emitted during the above reaction is
A. A) 8α and 4β
B. B) 8α and 16β
C. C) 4α and 2β
D. D) 6α and 4β

Question 33

The reaction 2 A → 2 B + C has a rate constant of 1.2 × 10 −2 s −1 . Which of the following is

correct?

A. A) Plot of [A] vs ′′ 1t " will be straight line

B. B) Plot of [ 1A] vs t 2 will be a straight line

C. C) Plot of ln[A] vs t will be a straight line

D. D) Plot of [A] vs t 2 will be a straight line

Question 34

Heat of combustion ΔH ∘ for C(s), H 2 (g) and CH 4 (g) are −94, −68 and −213kcal mol −1 ,
then, ΔH ∘ for C(s) + 2H 2 (g) → CH 4 (g) is:

A. A) −17kcal
B. B) −111kcal
C. C) −170kcal
D. D) −85kcal

Question 35

The reaction of hydrogen and iodine monochloride is given as:

H 2(g) + 2ICl (g) → 2HCl (g) + I 2(g) This reaction is of first order with respect to H 2(g) and
lCl (g)+ following mechanisms were proposed Mechanism A:
H 2(g) + 2ICl (g) → 2HCl (g) + H 2(g) Mechanism B: $
 H 2(g) + ICl (g) → HCl (g) + HI (g) :slow
Hl (g) + lCl (g) → HCl (g) + l 2(g) ; fast

$ Which of the above mechanism(s) can be consistent with the given information about the
reaction?

A. A) A and B both
B. B) neither A nor B
C. C) A only
D. D) B only

Question 36

For a first order reaction at 27 ∘ C, the ratio of time required for 75% completion to 25%
completion of reaction is

A. A) 3.0
B. B) 2.303
C. C) 4.8
D. D) 0.477

Question 37

For a first order reaction, the half-life period is

A. A) dependent on the square of the initial concentration

B. B) dependent on first power of initial concentration
C. C) dependent on the square root of initial concentration
D. D) independent on initial concentration

Question 38

The chemical reaction 2O 3 ⟶ 3O 2 proceeds as follows:

rate law expression should be:

A. A) r = k[O 3 ]
2

B. B) r = k[O 3 ] [O 2 ]
2 −1

C. C) r = k[O 3 ] [O 2 ]
2 2

D. D) r = k [O 3 ][O 2 ]
2

Question 39
Find the rate law that corresponds to the data shown for the following reaction?

Experiment [Al 0 = M [B] 0 = M Initial rate

1 0. 012 0. 035 0. 10
2 0. 024 0. 070 0. 80
3 0. 024 0. 035 0. 10
4 0. 012 0. 070 0. 80

A. A) Rate = k[A] 0 [B] 3

B. B) Rate= k[B] 4
C. C) Rate = k[A][B] 3
D. D) Rate = k[A 2 ][B] 2

Question 40

Radioactivity of a sample ( z = 22 ) decreases 90% after 10 years. What will be the half life of
the sample?

A. A) 5 years
B. B) 2 years
C. C) 3 years
D. D) 10 years

Question 41

For a first order gas phase reaction- A_{(g)} \rightarrow 2 B_{(g)}+C_{(g)} P 0 be initial pressure
of A and P t the total pressure at time ' t '. Integrated rate equation is

A. A) 2.303
P0
t log ( P 0 −P t )

B. B) 2.303
2P 0
t log ( 3P 0 −P t )

C. C) 2.303
P0
t log ( 2P 0 −P t )

D. D) 2.303
t
log ( 2P2P−P
0
)
0 t

Question 42

A wooden box excavated from Indus valley had an activity of 1.18 × 10 13 disintegration per
minute per g of carbon. What is the approximate age of this civilisation?

A. A) 4000 years
B. B) 5700 years
C. C) 8100 years
D. D) 6000 years

Question 43

The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5× 10 −2 mol L −1 min −1 at 0.5M concentration of the
reactant. The half life of the reaction is:

A. A) 0.383 min
B. B) 23.1 min
C. C) 8.73 min
D. D) 7.53 min

Question 44

After how many seconds will the concentration of the reactant in a first order reaction be halved
if the rate constant is 1.155 × 10 −3 s −1 ?

A. A) 600
B. B) 100
C. C) 60
D. D) 10

Question 45

If ' a ' stands for the edge length of the cubic systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and
face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively,

A. A) 12 a : 43 a : √
√ 1
a
2 2
B. B) 12 a : √3a : √1 a
2

C. C) 12 a : 23 a : 22 a
√ √

D. D) 1a : √3a : √2a

Question 46

Decomposition of H 2 O 2 follows a first order reaction. In fifty minutes the concentration of

H 2 O 2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such decomposition. When the concentration of
H 2 O 2 reaches 0.05 M , the rate of formation of O 2 will be:
A. A) 2.66 Lmin −1 at STP
B. B) 1.34 × 10 −2 mol min −1
C. C) 6.93 × 10 −2 mol min −1
D. D) 6.93 × 10 −4 mol min −1

Question 47

In a chemical reaction i.e., A + 2B ⟶ products, when concentration of A is doubled, rate of

the reaction increases 4 times and when concentration of B alone is doubled rate continues to
be the same. The order of the reaction is

A. A) 1
B. B) 2
C. C) 3
D. D) 4

Question 48

The time required for 100% completion of a zero order reaction is

A. A) ak
B. B) 2k
a

C. C) ak
D. D) 2k
a

Question 49

At the point of intersection of the two curves shown, the concentration of B is given
by________, for the first reaction A →nB.

A. A)
nA 0
2
B. B)
A0
n-1
C. C)
nA 0
n+1
D. D) ( n−1
n+1 ) A0

Question 50

A negative catalyst will

A. A) lower the activation energy of the reaction
B. B) does not alter the activation energy of the reaction
C. C) provide a new and easy path to the reaction
D. D) increases the activation energy of the reaction

Question 51

Assertion : The position of an element in periodic table after emission of one α and two β-
particles remains unchanged. Reason : Emission of one α and two β-particles give isotope of
the element which acquires same position in periodic table.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 52

For a reaction X ⟶ Y , the graph of the product concentration (x) versus time (t) came out
to be a straight line passing through the origin. Hence the graph of and time would be
−d[X]
dt

A. A) straight line with a negative slope and an intercept on y-axis

B. B) straight line with a positive slope and an intercept on y-axis
C. C) a straight line parallel to x-axis
D. D) a hyperbola.

Question 53

For a reaction, A + B → products, the rate of the reaction at various concentrations are given
below

The rate law for the above reaction is

A. A) r = k[A][B] 2
B. B) r = k[A] 3 [B]
C. C) r = k[A] 2 [ B] 2
D. D) r = k[A] 2 [B]
Question 54

The rate of decomposition for methyl nitrite and ethyl nitrite can be given in terms of rate
constant k1 and k2 respectively. The energy of activation for the two reactions are
152.30 kJ mol −1 and 157.7 kJ mol −1 as well as frequency factors are 10 13 and 10 14
respectively for the decomposition of methyl and ethyl nitrite. Calculate the temperature at
which rate constant will be same for the two reactions.

A. A) 256 K
B. B) 354 K
C. C) 282 K
D. D) 674 K

Question 55

The rate equation of a gaseous reaction is given by r = k[A][B]. If the volume of the reaction
vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/2 of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to the original
rate will be

A. A) 14
B. B) 4
C. C) 12
D. D) 2

Question 56

The temperature dependence of rate constant (k) of a chemical reaction is written in terms of
Arrhenius equation, k = A ⋅ e −Ea/RT . Activation energy (E a ) of the reaction can be calculated
by ploting:

A. A) k vs T
B. B) k vs log1 T

C. C) log k vs T
1

D. D) log k vs log1 T

Question 57

In the reaction, P + Q ⟶?R + S The time taken for 75% reaction of P is twice the time
taken for 50% reaction of P. The concentration of Q varies with reaction time as shown in the
figure. The overall order of the reaction is
A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 0
D. D) 1

Question 58

According to Arrhenius equation, the rate constant (k) is related to temperature (T) as

A. A) In kk21 = ERa [ T1 1 − T1 2 ]

B. B) In k21 = − Ra [ T1 1 − T1 2 ]
k E

C. C) In k21 = Ra [ T1 1 + T1 2 ]
k E

D. D) In k21 = − Ra [ T1 1 + T1 2 ]
k E

Question 59

The half-life for decay of 14 C, by β -emission is 5730yr. The fraction of 14 C decays, in a

sample that is 22920 yr old, would be

A. A) 18
B. B) 16
1

C. C) 78
D. D) 15
16

Question 60

An endothermic reaction with high activation energy for the forward reaction is given by the
diagram

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Hard Questions

Question 61

The following data are for the decomposition of ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution :
The order of reaction is:

A. A) Zero
B. B) One
C. C) Two
D. D) Three

Question 62

For the reaction A (g) ⟶ B (g) + C (g) , the rate constant is given as (P i is initial pressure and
P t is pressure at time t )
A. A) k = 2.303
Pi
t log P t
B. B) k = 2.303
Pi
t log (2P i −P t )

C. C) k = 2.303
t
log 2PPi −Pt i

D. D) k = 2.303 P i −P t
t log 2P i

Question 63

Paragraph: Carbon-14 is used to determine the age of organic material. The procedure is
based on the formation of 14 C by neutron capture in the upper atmosphere. { }_7^{14}
\mathrm{~N}+{ }_0^1 n \longrightarrow{ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}+{ }_1 n^1 14 C is absorbed by
living organisms during photosynthesis. The 14 C content is constant in living organism once the
plant or animal dies, the uptake of carbon dioxide by it ceases and the level of 14 C in the dead
being, falls to the decay which 14 C undergoes. { }_6^{14} \mathrm{C} \longrightarrow{ }_7^{14}
\mathrm{~N}+\beta^{-} The half life period of 14 C is 5770 years. The decay constant (λ) can
be calculated by using the following formula λ = 0.693 t 1/2 . The comparison of the β activity of the
−

dead matter with that of the carbon still in circulation enables measurement of the period of the
isolation of the material from the living cycle. The method however, ceases to be accurate over
periods longer than 30,000 years. The proportion of 14 C to 12 C in living matter is 1 : 10 12
.Question: Which of the following option is correct?

A. A) In living organisms, circulation of 14 C from atmosphere is high so the carbon content is

constant in organism.
B. B) Carbon dating can be used to find out the age of earth crust and rocks.
C. C) Radioactive absorption due to cosmic radiation is equal to the rate of radioactive decay,
hence the carbon content remains constant in living organisms.
D. D) Carbon dating can not be used to determine concentration of 14 C in dead beings.

Question 64

Assertion : According to transition state theory, for the formation of an activated complex, one of
the vibrational degrees of freedom is converted into a translational degree of freedom. Reason :
Energy of the activated complex is higher than the energy of reactant molecules.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true, but reason is false
D. D) Both assertion and reason are false statements.

Question 65
For an endothermic reaction, where ΔH represent the enthalpy of reaction in kJ mol −1 , the
minimum value for energy of activation (for forward reaction) will be

A. A) less than ΔH
B. B) zero
C. C) more than ΔH
D. D) equal to ΔH

Question 66

A positron is emitted from 23

11 Na. The ratio of the atomic mass and atomic number of the
resulting nuclide is

A. A) 22/10
B. B) 22/11
C. C) 23/10
D. D) 23/12

Question 67

Paragraph: Carbon-14 is used to determine the age of organic material. The procedure is
based on the formation of 14 C by neutron capture in the upper atmosphere. { }_7^{14}
\mathrm{~N}+{ }_0^1 n \longrightarrow{ }_6^{14} \mathrm{C}+{ }_1 n^1 14 C is absorbed by
living organisms during photosynthesis. The 14 C content is constant in living organism once the
plant or animal dies, the uptake of carbon dioxide by it ceases and the level of 14 C in the dead
being, falls to the decay which 14 C undergoes. { }_6^{14} \mathrm{C} \longrightarrow{ }_7^{14}
\mathrm{~N}+\beta^{-} The half life period of 14 C is 5770 years. The decay constant (λ) can
be calculated by using the following formula λ = 0.693 t 1/2
. The comparison of the β − activity of the
dead matter with that of the carbon still in circulation enables measurement of the period of the
isolation of the material from the living cycle. The method however, ceases to be accurate over
periods longer than 30,000 years. The proportion of 14 C to 12 C in living matter is 1 : 10 12
.Question: A nuclear explosion has taken place leading to increase in concentration of C 14 in
nearby areas. C 14 concentration is C 1 in nearby areas and C 2 in areas far away. If the age of
the fossil is determined to be T 1 and T 2 at the places respectively then

A. A) The age of the fossil will increase at the place where explosion has taken and T_1-
T_2=\frac{1}{\lambda} \ln \frac{C_1}{C_2}
B. B) The age of the fossil will decrease at the place where explosion has taken place and
1 C1
T1 − T2 = λ ln C2
C. C) The age of fossil will be determined to be same
D. D) TT1 = C
C2
1
2
Question 68

The Arrhenius plots of two reactions, I and II are shown graphically :

The graph suggests that

A. A) E 1 > E ∥ and A 1 > A 11

B. B) E 11
′
> E 1 and A ∥ > A ′′
C. C) E 1′′ > E ∥ and A ′′∥ > A

D. D) E ∥′ > E 1′′ and A n1 > A 1

Question 69

Reaction A → B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6
mole of B is 1 hour. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.9 mole of A to produce 0.675
mole of B ?

A. A) 1 hour
B. B) 0.5 hour
C. C) 0.25 hour
D. D) 2 hour

Question 70

The decomposition of O 3 (g) follows first order kinetics and is given by \mathrm{O}_3(9)
\longrightarrow \mathrm{O}_2(9)+\mathrm{O}(9) The rate constant for this reaction is
1.0 × 10 −3 s −1 . The initial pressure of O 3 (g) is 100 atm. What will be the partial pressure (in
atm) of O 3 , O 2 , O respectively after 38.38 minutes?

A. A) 95, 5, 5
B. B) 10, 90, 0
C. C) 10, 90, 90
D. D) 10, 0, 90

Question 71
The specific rate constant of decomposition of a compound is given by ln k = 5.0 − 12000
T .
The activation energy of decomposition for this compound at 300 K is

A. A) 24kcalmol −1
B. B) 12kcalmol −1
C. C) 24calmol −1
D. D) 12calmol −1

Question 72

For a first order reaction (A → B), the temperature (T ) dependent rate constant (k) in s −1
was found to follow the equation : log k = (− 20
T ) + 4. The activation energy (E a ) and pre-
exponential factor (A) respectively, are

A. A) 46.06calmol −1 and 10 −4 s −1
B. B) 92.12calmol −1 and 10 4 s −1
C. C) 46.06calmol −1 and 10 4 s −1
D. D) 9.212calmol −1 and 10 −4 s −1

Question 73

Consider a reaction aG + bH → products. When concentration of both the reactants G and H

is doubled, the rate increases by eight times. However, when concentration of G is doubled
keeping the concentration of H fixed, the rate is doubled. The overall order of the reaction is

A. A) 0
B. B) 1
C. C) 2
D. D) 3

Question 74

The enthalpy (H) of an elementary exothermic reaction A ⇌ B is schematically plotted against

the reaction coordinate. The plots in the presence and absence of a catalyst are shown in
dashed and solid lines, respectively. Identify the correct plot for the reaction.

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 75

The decay profiles of three radioactive species A, B and C are given below :
These profiles imply that the decay constants k A , k B and k C follow the order

A. A) k A > k B > k C
B. B) k A > k C > k B
C. C) k B > k A > k C
D. D) k C > k B > k A

Question 76

Calculate the activation energy of a reaction, whose rate constant doubles on raising the
temperature from 300 K to 600 K.

A. A) 3. 45 kJ / mol
B. B) 6. 90 kJ / mol
C. C) 9. 68 kJ / mol
D. D) 19. 6 kJ / mol

Question 77

For a reaction A + B ⟶ P , the following data are provided

The rate constant for this reaction in standard unit is

A. A) 5
B. B) 1.2
C. C) 2.4 × 10 −4
D. D) 50

Question 78

If 60%, of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction would
be completed in approximately: (\log 4=0.60, \log 5=0.69)

A. A) 45 minutes
B. B) 0 minutes
C. C) 40 minutes
D. D) 50 minutes

Question 79

A closed vessel with rigid walls contains 1 mol of 238

92U and 1 mol of air at 298 K. Considering
complete decay of 238
92U to 82Pb , the ratio of the final pressure to the initial pressure of the
206

system at 298 K is

Question 80

If the definition of the temperature coefficient of the reaction holds good for a reaction between
27°C and 37°C, the activation energy for the reaction in kJ. mol −1 is
A. A) 102
B. B) 53. 5
C. C) ∞
D. D) 141. 5
Question 81

Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with temperature (T ) are given below. The
plot that follows Arrhenius equation is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 82
Consider the following plots of rate constant versus T
1
for four different reactions. which of the
following orders is correct for the activation energies of these reactions?

A. A) E c > E a > E d > E b

B. B) E b > E a > E d > E c
C. C) E a > E c > E d > E b
D. D) E b > E d > E c > E a

Question 83

Which of the following are the correct representations of a zero order reaction, where A
represents the reactant?

A. A) i, ii, iii
B. B) i, ii, iv
C. C) ii, iii, iv
D. D) i, iii, ii

Question 84

For the reaction

5Br − (αq) + 6H + (αq) + BrO − 3 (αq) ⟶

3Br 2 (αq) + 3H 2 O(l)
Δ [BrO −
3]
if, − = 0.01 mol L −1 min −1 ,
Δt
Δ [Br 2 ]
in molL
Δt
A. A) 0.01
B. B) 0.3
C. C) 0.03
D. D) 0.005

Question 85

The following reaction descomposes N 2 O 5 → 2NO 2 + 12 O 2 . At a 25 degree centigrade the

rate constant of the reaction is 5 × 10 −2 sec −1 . The initial pressure of N 2 O 5 is 0.2 atm. If
total pressure of gaseous mixture becomes 0.35 atm, then calculate the time of decomposition
of N 2 O 5 .

A. A) 238.6 seconds
B. B) 138.6 seconds
C. C) 69.3 seconds
D. D) 89.3 seconds

Question 86

The reaction X + Y → Z is first order with respect to X and second order with respect to Y,
initial rate of formation of Z = R mol dm 3 sec −1 when [X] and [Y] are 0.40 mol dm −3 and
0.30 mol dm −3 respectively. If [X] is halved and [Y] is doubled, the value of the initial rate
would become

A. A) 4R
B. B) R
4
C. C) R
D. D) 2R

Question 87

An organic compound undergoes first-order decomposition. The time taken for its
decomposition to 1/ 8 and 1/10 of its initial concentration are t 1/8 and t 1/10 respectively. What
is the value of [ t ] × 10 ? (log 10 2 = 0.3)
t 1/8
1/10

Question 88

The rate constant k, for the reaction \mathrm{N}_2 \mathrm{O}_{5(\mathrm{~g})} \rightarrow 2

\mathrm{NO}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}+1 / 2 \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} is 2.3 × 10 −2 s −1 . Which
equation given below describes the change of [N 2 O 5 ] with time? [N 2 O 5 ] 0 and [N 2 O 5 ] t
correspond to concentration of N 2 O 5 initially and at time t.

A. A) [N 2 O 5 ] t = [N 2 O 5 ] 0 + kt
B. B) [N 2 O 5 ] t = [N 2 O 5 ] 0 e kt
C. C) log [N 2 O 5 ] t = log [N 2 O 5 ] 0 + kt

D. D) ln [ N2 O5 ]0 = kt
[N 2 O 5 ]
t

Question 89

During the kinetic study of the reaction, 2 A + B → C + D, following results were obtained:

Missing \end{array}

\ \hline \text { I } & 0.1 & 0.1 & 6.0 \times 10^{-1} \ \hline \text { II } & 0.3 & 0.2 & 7.2 \times
10^{-1} \ \hline \text { III } & 0.3 & 0.4 & 28.8 \times 10^{-1} \ \hline \text { IV } & 0.4 & 0.1 & 24.0
\times 10^{-1} \ \hline \end{array} Based on the above data which one of the following is
correct?

A. A) rate = k[ A] 2 [ B]
B. B) rate = k[ A][B]
C. C) rate = k[ A] 2 [ B] 2
D. D) rate = k[ A][B] 2

Question 90

In the reaction,
P+Q→R+S
the time taken for 75% reaction of P is twice the time taken for 50% reaction of P. The
concentration of Q varies with reaction time as shown in the [Link] overall order of the
reaction is:

A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 0
D. D) 1
Correct Answers for this Chapter
Q1 - A Q31 - B Q61 - B
Q2 - C Q32 - D Q62 - B
Q3 - A Q33 - C Q63 - C
Q4 - C Q34 - A Q64 - A
Q5 - B Q35 - A Q65 - C
Q6 - B Q36 - C Q66 - C
Q7 - B Q37 - D Q67 - A
Q8 - A Q38 - B Q68 - A
Q9 - A Q39 - A Q69 - A
Q10 - D Q40 - C Q70 - C
Q11 - D Q41 - B Q71 - A
Q12 - B Q42 - C Q72 - B
Q13 - 12 (Num) Q43 - B Q73 - D
Q14 - C Q44 - A Q74 - A
Q15 - B Q45 - A Q75 - D
Q16 - B Q46 - D Q76 - A
Q17 - B Q47 - B Q77 - D
Q18 - B Q48 - C Q78 - A
Q19 - A Q49 - C Q79 - 9 (Num)
Q20 - A Q50 - D Q80 - B
Q21 - C Q51 - A Q81 - A
Q22 - C Q52 - C Q82 - A
Q23 - D Q53 - D Q83 - B
Q24 - B Q54 - C Q84 - C
Q25 - B Q55 - B Q85 - B
Q26 - C Q56 - C Q86 - D
Q27 - C Q57 - D Q87 - 9 (Num)
Q28 - D Q58 - A Q88 - D
Q29 - A Q59 - D Q89 - D
Q30 - C Q60 - C Q90 - D

p Block Elements (Group 15, 16, 17 & 18)

Easy Questions

Question 1

Assertion : All halogens are coloured. Reason : The halogens absorb visible light.

A. A) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but assertion is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
C. C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 2

The statement true for N −

3 is

A. A) it has a non-linear structure

B. B) it is called pseudohalogen
C. C) the formal oxidation state of nitrogen in this anion is -1
D. D) it is isoelectronic with NO 2 .

Question 3

Of the following compounds the most acidic is

A. A) As 2 O 3
B. B) P 2 O 5
C. C) Sb 2 O 3
D. D) Bi 2 O 3

Question 4

Strong reducing behaviour of H 3 PO 2 is due to

A. A) presence of one −OH group and two P − H bonds

B. B) high electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
C. C) high oxidation state of phosphorus
D. D) presence of two -OH groups and one P − H bond

Question 5

The most acidic oxide for nitrogen is

A. A) NO 2
B. B) N 2 O
C. C) NO
D. D) N 2 O 5

Question 6

Which of the following oxides is strongly basic?

A. A) Tl 2 O
B. B) B 2 O 3
C. C) Al 2 O 3
D. D) Ga 2 O 3

Question 7

In XeF 2 , XeF 4 , XeF 6 the numebr of lone pairs of Xe are respectively

A. A) 2, 3, 1
B. B) 1, 2, 3
C. C) 4, 1, 2
D. D) 3, 2, 1

Question 8

PbCl 2 is insoluble in cold water. Addition of HCl increases its solubility due to
A. A) formation of soluble complex anions like [PbCl 3 ]
−

B. B) oxidation of Pb(II) to PB(iV)

C. C) formation of [Pb(H 2 O) 6 ]
2

D. D) formation of polymeric lead complexes

Question 9

The decreasing order of stability of oxides of halogen is

A. A) fluorine > chlorine > iodine > bromine

B. B) fluorine > chlorine > bromine > iodine
C. C) iodine > bromine > chlorine > fluorine
D. D) iodine > chlorine > bromine > fluorine

Question 10
When NH 3 is passed over heated metal A, its amide is formed. The metal is

A. A) Mg
B. B) K
C. C) Al
D. D) Pb

Question 11

Which one of the following reacts with glass?

A. A) H 2 SO 4
B. B) HF
C. C) HNO 3
D. D) K 2 Cr 2 O 7

Question 12

Which of the following order is true regardingthe acidic nature of phenol?

A. A) Phenol > O-cresol > o-nitrophenol

B. B) O-cresol < phenol < O-nitrophenol
C. C) phenol < O-cresol > O-nitrophenol
D. D) phenol < O-cresol < O-nitrophenol

Question 13

SO 2 + 2H 2 S ⟶ 3 S + 2H 2 O. This equation represents preparation of sulphur sol by

A. A) hydrolysis
B. B) oxidation
C. C) reduction
D. D) double decomposition

Question 14

Sulphur sol contains

A. A) Discrete S-atoms
B. B) Discrete S-molecules
C. C) Large aggregates of S-molecules
D. D) Water dispersed in Solid Sulphur
Question 15

Shapes of certain interhalogen compounds are stated below. Which one of them is not correctly
stated?

A. A) IF 7 : pentagonal bipyramid
B. B) BrF 5 : trigonal bipyramid
C. C) BrF 3 : planar T-shaped
D. D) ICI 3 : planar dimeric

Question 16

Excess of PCl 5 reacts with conc H 2 SO 4 giving

A. A) chlorosulphonic acid
B. B) thionyl chloride
C. C) sulphuryl chloride
D. D) sulphurous acid

Question 17

Which of the following compound is a tribasic acid?

A. A) H 3 PO 2
B. B) H 3 PO 4
C. C) H 3 PO 3
D. D) H 4 P 2 O 7

Question 18

Sulphan' is

A. A) a mixture of SO 3 and H 2 SO 3
B. B) 100% conc. H 2 SO 4
C. C) a mixture of gypsum and conc. H 2 SO 4
D. D) 100% oleum (a mixture of 100%SO 3 in 100% H 2 SO 4 )

Question 19

Which of the following oxides is expected to exhibit paramagnetic behaviour?

A. A) CO 3
B. B) SiO 2
C. C) SO 2
D. D) ClO 2

Question 20

Which of the following is not true for concentrated H 2 SO 4 ?

A. A) Sulphonating agent
B. B) Oxidising agent
C. C) Dehydrating agent
D. D) Deliquescent in nature

Question 21

Trigonal bipyramidal geometry is shown by:

A. A) XeOF 2
B. B) XeO 3 F 2
C. C) FXeOSO 2 F
D. D) [XeF 8 ]
2−

Question 22

Which pair of oxyacids of phosphorus contains ' P − H ' bonds?

A. A) H 3 PO 4 , H 3 PO 3
B. B) H 3 PO 5 , H 4 P 2 O 7
C. C) H 3 PO 3 , H 3 PO 2
D. D) H 3 PO 2 , HPO 3

Question 23

In case of nitrogen, NCl 3 is possible but not NCl 5 while in case of phosphorus, PCl 3 as well
as PCl 5 . are possible. It is due to

A. A) availability of vacant d orbitals in P but not in N

B. B) lower electronegativity of P than N
C. C) lower tendency of H-bond formation in P than N
D. D) occurrence of P in solid while N in gaseous state at room temperature.

Question 24

Tincture of iodine is

A. A) aqueous solution of I 2
B. B) solution of I 2 in aqueous KI
C. C) alcoholic solution of I 2
D. D) aqueous solution of KI.

Question 25

Argon is used

A. A) in filling airships
B. B) to obtain low temperature
C. C) in high temperature welding
D. D) in radiotherapy for treatment of cancer

Question 26

Which of the following hydrogen halides is most basic?

A. A) HF
B. B) HCl
C. C) HBr
D. D) HI

Question 27

Calorific value of producer gas is low because of

A. A) high percent of N 2
B. B) low percent of CO 2
C. C) high percent of CO
D. D) low percent of N 2

Question 28

The radio-isotope used for treatment of thyroid disorders is

A. A) Na − 24
B. B) P − 32
C. C) Co-60
D. D) I-131

Question 29

The number of S − S bonds in SO 3 , S 2 O 2−

3 S 2 O 6 and S 2 O 8 respectively are
2− 2−
A. A) 1, 0, 0, 1
B. B) 1,0,1,0
C. C) 0, 1, 1, 0
D. D) 0, 1, 0, 1

Question 30

The catalyst and promoter respectively used in the Haber's process of industrial synthesis of
ammonia are

A. A) Mo, V 2 O 5
B. B) V 2 O 5 , Fe
C. C) Fe, Mo
D. D) Mo, Fe

Moderate Questions

Question 31

Which of the following is used in the preparation of chlorine?

A. A) Only MnO 2
B. B) Only KMnO 4
C. C) Both MnO 2 and KMnO 4
D. D) Either MnO 2 , or KMnO 4

Question 32

The statement that is NOT correct is

A. A) Energies of stationary states in hydrogen like atoms is inversely proportional to the

square
of the principal quantum number.
B. B) The radius of the first orbit of He + is half that of the first orbit of hydrogen atom.
C. C) Angular quantum number signifies the shape of the orbital.
D. D) Total number of nodes for 3 s orbital is three

Question 33

Number of sigma bonds in P 4 O 10 is

A. A) 6
B. B) 7
C. C) 17
D. D) 16

Question 34

0.44 g of a monohydric alcohol when added to methylmagnesium iodide in ether liberates at

S.T.P., 112 cm 3 of methane. With PCC the same alcohol forms a carbonyl compound that
answers silver mirror test. The monohydric alcohol is

A. A) (CH 3 ) 3 C − CH 2 OH
B. B) (CH 3 ) 2 CH − CH 2 OH
C. C)

D. D)

Question 35

Which of the following compound is obtained by heating ammonium cyanate?

A. A) Alkane
B. B) Urea
C. C) Ethylamine
D. D) Ammonium thiocyanate

Question 36

In the reaction of gold with aquaregia, oxidation state of Nitrogen changes from

A. A) +5 to +2
B. B) +3 to +1
C. C) +4 to +2
D. D) +6 to +4

Question 37

A colourless, neutral, paramagnetic oxide of nitrogen ' P ' on oxidation gives reddish brown gas
Q. Q on cooling gives colourless gas R. R on reaction with P gives blue solid S . Identify
P , Q, R, S respectively
A. A) N 2 O, NO, NO 2 , N 2 O 5
B. B) N 2 O, NO 2 , N 2 O 4 , N 2 O 3
C. C) NO 2 , NO 2 , N 2 O 4 , N 2 O 3
D. D) NO, NO, N 2 O 4 , N 2 O 5

Question 38

An element belonging to chalcogen group is

A. A) carbon
B. B) phosphorus
C. C) chlorine
D. D) sulphur

Question 39

Which two of the following salts are used for preparing iodized salt? (i) KIO 3 , (ii) KI, (iii) I 2 (iv)
HI
A. A) (i) and (ii)
B. B) (i) and (iii)
C. C) (ii) and (iv)
D. D) (iii) and (iv).

Question 40

Which one of the following reactions of xenon compounds is not feasible?

A. A) 3XeF 4 + 6H 2 O ⟶ 2Xe + XeO 3 + 12HF + 1.5O 2

B. B) 2XeF 2 + 2H 2 O ⟶ 2Xe + 4HF + O 2
C. C) XeF 6 + RbF ⟶ Rb [XeF 7 ]
D. D) XeO 3 + 6HF ⟶ XeF 6 + 3H 2 O

Question 41

Which of the following is not correct ?

A. A) Ammonia is used as refrigerant

B. B) A mixture of Ca(CN) 2 and C is known as nitrolim
C. C) A mixture of Ca(H 2 PO 4 ) 2 and CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H 2 O is known as superphosphate of lime
D. D) Hydrolysis of NCl 3 gives NH 3 and HOCl

Question 42

Assertion : PCl 5 is covalent in gaseous and liquid states but ionic in solid state. Reason : PCl 5
in solid state consists of tetrahedral PCl +
4 cation and octahedral PCl 6 anion.
−
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 43

Identify the incorrect statement among the following

A. A) Ozone reacts with SO 2 to give SO 3

B. B) Silicon reacts with NaOH (aq) in the presence of air to give Na 2 SiO 3 and H 2 O
C. C) Cl 2 reacts with excess of NH 3 to give N 2 and HCl
D. D) Br 2 reacts with hot and strong NaOH solution to give NaBr, NaBrO 4 and H 2 O

Question 44

Which of the following compounds has a P − P Bond?

A. A) (HPO 3 ) 3
B. B) H 4 P 2 O 6
C. C) H 4 P 2 O 7
D. D) H 4 P 2 O 5

Question 45

Which of the following statements regarding ozone is not correct?

A. A) The Ozone molecule is angular in shape

B. B) The Ozone is a resonance hybrid of two structures
C. C) The Oxygen-Oxygen bond length in ozone is identical with that of molecular oxygen
D. D) Ozone is used as germicide and disinfectant for the purification of air.

Question 46

Choose the correct statement applicable for the reaction: 2H 2 O + 2 F 2 → 4HF + O 2

A. A) water is oxidised to O 2 .
B. B) F 2 is oxidised to HF.
C. C) water is reduced to HF.
D. D) F 2 acts as reducing agent in the reaction.

Question 47
The number of oxygen atoms bonded to one phosphorous atom in P 4 O 6 is

A. A) 4
B. B) 3
C. C) 6
D. D) 5

Question 48

Among the following observations, the correct one that differentiates between SO 3 and SO 4
2− 2−

is

A. A) both form precipitate with BaCl 2 , SO 2−

3 dissolves in HCl but SO 4 does not
2−

B. B) SO 2−
3 forms precipitate with BaCl 2 , SO 4 does not
2−

C. C) SO 2−
4 forms precipitate with BaCl 2 , SO 3 does not
2−

D. D) both form precipitate with BaCl 2 , SO 4 dissolves in HCl but SO 2−

3 does not
2−

Question 49

Hydrolysis of NCl 3 gives NH 3 and X. Which of the following is X ?

A. A) HClO 4
B. B) HClO 3
C. C) HOCl
D. D) HClO 2

Question 50

Concentrated hydrochloric acid when kept in open air sometimes produces a cloud of white
fumes. The explanation for it is that

A. A) oxygen in air reacts with the emitted HCI gas to form a cloud of chlorine gas
B. B) strong affinity of HCI gas for miosture in air results in forming of droplets of liquid solution
which appears like a cloudy smoke.
C. C) due to strong affinity for water, concentrated hydrochloric acid pulls moisture of air
towards it self. This moisture forms droplets of water and hence the cloud.
D. D) concentrated hydrochloric acid emits strongly smelling HCI gas all the time.

Question 51

Xenon hexafluoride on partial hydrolysis produces compounds ' X ' and ' Y '. Compounds ' X ',
'Y' and the oxidation state of Xe are respectively:

A. A) XeOF 4 (+6) and XeO 3 (+6)

B. B) XeO 2 (+4) and XeO 3 (+6)
C. C) XeOF 4 (+6) and XeO 2 F 2 (+6)
D. D) XeO 2 F 2 (+6) and XeO 2 (+4)

Question 52

Which of the following has S − S bond?

A. A) H 2 S 2 O 6
B. B) H 2 S 2 O 7
C. C) H 2 S 2 O 8
D. D) Mustard gas

Question 53

Ammonia forms the complex ion [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] with copper ions in alkaline solutions but not in
2+

acidic solutions. What is the reason for it?

A. A) In acidic solutions protons coordinate with ammonia molecules forming NH +

4 ions and
NH 3 molecules are not available.
B. B) In alkaline solutions insoluble Cu(OH) 2 is precipitated which is soluble in excess of any
alkali.
C. C) Copper hydroxide is an amphoteric substance.
D. D) In acidic solutions hydration protects copper ions.

Question 54

The true statement for the acids of phosphorus, H 3 PO 2 , H 3 PO 3 and H 3 PO 4 is

A. A) the order of their acidity is H 3 PO 4 > H 3 PO 3 > H 3 PO 2

B. B) all of them are reducing in nature
C. C) all of them are tribasic acids
D. D) the geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three.

Question 55

What are the products formed when chlorine is passed through aqueous hypo solution?

A. A) Na 2 SO 3 + HCl + S
B. B) Na 2 SO 3 + SO 3 + HCl
C. C) Na 2 SO 4 + HCl + S
D. D) Na 2 SO 4 + HCl + SO 2
Question 56

The hybridisation of phosphorous in PO 3−

4 is

A. A) sp
B. B) sp 2
C. C) sp 3
D. D) sp 3 d

Question 57

Out of H 2 S 2 O 3 , H 2 S 2 O 4 , H 2 SO 5 and H 2 S 2 O 8 peroxy acids are

A. A) H 2 S 2 O 3 , H 2 S 2 O 8
B. B) H 2 SO 5 , H 2 S 2 O 8
C. C) H 2 S 2 O 4 , H 2 SO 5
D. D) H 2 S 2 O 3 , H 2 S 2 O 4

Question 58

Which of the following compound of xenon does not exists?

A. A) XeF 6
B. B) XeF 4
C. C) XeF 5
D. D) XeF 2

Question 59

In Ramsay and Rayleigh's isolation of noble gases from air, the nitrogen of the air is finally
converted into

A. A) NaNO 2 only
B. B) NO and NO 2
C. C) NaNO 3 only
D. D) NaNO 2 and NaNO 3

Question 60

Among the following molecules (i) XeO 3 (ii) XeOF

¨ 4 those having same number of lone pairs
on Xe are

A. A) (i) and (ii) only

B. B) (i) and (iii) only
C. C) (ii) and (iii) only
D. D) (i), (ii) and (iii).

Hard Questions

Question 61

Which Of the following orders is correct?

(1) SbH 3 > NH 3 > AsH 3 > PH 3 - Boiling Point

(2) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 - Thermal Stability

(3) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 - Basic Character

(4) NH 3 > PH 3 > AsH 3 > SbH 3 - Bond Angle

A. A) (1), (2) and (3) only

B. B) (2), (3) and (4) only
C. C) (1), (3) and (4) only
D. D) (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Question 62

Paragraph: The reactions of Cl 2 gas with cold-dilute and hot-concentrated NaOH in water
give sodium salts of two (different) oxoacids of chlorine, P and Q, respectively. The Cl 2 gas
reacts with SO 2 gas, in presence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with white
phosphorus to give a compound S. On hydrolysis, S gives an oxoacid of phosphorus, T .
Question: R, S and T , respectively, are

A. A) SO 2 Cl 2 , PCl 5 and H 3 PO 4
B. B) SO 2 Cl 2 , PCl 3 and H 3 PO 3
C. C) SOCl 2 , PCl 3 and H 3 PO 2
D. D) SOCl 2 , PCl 5 and H 3 PO 4

Question 63

Match List I (substances) with List II (processes) employed in the manufacture of the
substances and select the correct option
List I (Substances) List II (Processes)
1. Sulphuric acid (i) Haber's process
2. Steel (ii) Bessemer's process
3. Sodium hydroxide (iii) Leblanc process
4. Ammonia (iv) Contact process

A. A) 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)

B. B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
C. C) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
D. D) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)

Question 64

The cation that will not be precipitated by H 2 S in the presence of dil HCl is:

A. A) Co 2+
B. B) As 3+
C. C) Pb 2+
D. D) Cu 2+

Question 65

The reaction of P 2 with X leads selectively to P 4 O 6 . The X is

A. A) dry O 2
B. B) a mixture of O 2 and N 2
C. C) moist O 2
D. D) O 2 in the presence of aq. NaOH

Question 66

Which one of the following pairs of reactants does not form oxygen when they react with each
other?

A. A) F 2 , NaOH solution (hot, conc.)

B. B) F 2 , H 2 O
C. C) Cl 2 , NaOH solution (cold, dilute)
D. D) CaOCl 2 , H 2 SO 4 (dilute, small amount)

Question 67

The oxoacid of sulphur which contains two sulphur atoms in different oxidation states is
A. A) pyrosulphurous acid
B. B) hyposulphurous acid
C. C) pyrosulphuric acid
D. D) persulphuric acid

Question 68

P 4 O 6 reacts with water according to equation P 4 O 6 + 6H 2 O → 4H 3 PO 3 . Calculate the

volume of 0.1 M NaOH (in mL ) solution required to neutralise the acid formed by dissolving
1.1 g of P 4 O 6 in H 2 O?

Question 69

XeO 4 molecule is tetrahedral having:

A. A) Two pπ − dπ bonds
B. B) One pπ − dπ bonds
C. C) Four pπ − dπ bonds
D. D) Three pπ − dπ bonds

Question 70

Three reactions involving H 2 PO −4 are given below : (i) H 3 PO 4 + H 2 O → H 3 O + H 2 PO 4

+ −

(ii) H 2 PO 4 + H 2 O → HPO 4 + H 3 O + (iii) H 2 PO 4 + OH → H 3 PO 4 + O 2− In which

− 2− − −

of the above does H 2 PO −

4 act as an acid ?

A. A) (ii) only
B. B) (i) and (ii)
C. C) (iii) only
D. D) (i) only

Question 71

One mole of fluorine is reacted with two moles of hot concentrated KOH. The products formed
are KF, H 2 O and O 2 . The molar ratio of KF, H 2 O and O 2 , respectively is

A. A) 1 : 1 : 2
B. B) 2 : 1 : 0.5
C. C) 1 : 2 : 1
D. D) 2 : 1 : 2

Question 72
The total number of compounds having at least one bridging oxo group among the molecules
given below is
N 2 O 5 , P 4 O 6 , P 4 O 8 , H 4 P 2 O 5 , H 5 P 3 O 10 , H 2 S 2 O 3 , H 2 S 2 O 5

Question 73

Match each of the reactions given in Column I with the corresponding products(s) given in
Column II.

A. A) (A) p,q,t, (B) p,s,t, (C) r,s, (D) p

B. B) (A) p,q,s, (B) p,q,t, (C) r, (D) q
C. C) (A) p,q,s, (B) q,s,t, (C) r,s, (D) p
D. D) (A) p,q,t, (B) p,q,t, (C) r, (D) q

Question 74

Referring to the following reactions the missing products A, B, C, and D respectively are

NH 4 Cl (aq) + NaNO 2 (aq) → [A] + H 2 O (l) + NaCl (aq)

Δ
(NH 4 ) 2 Cr 2 O 7 → [B] + H 2 O (l) + Cr 2 O 3 (s)

Cu + HNO 3 (dilute) → Cu(NO 3 ) 2 + [C] + H 2 O(l)

Cu + HNO 3 (concentrate) → Cu(NO 3 ) 2 + [D] + H 2 O(l)

A. A) N 2 , N 2 , NO, NO 2
B. B) N 2 , NH 3 , N 2 , NO
C. C) N 2 , N 2 , NO 2 , NO 2
D. D) N 2 , NH 3 , NO 2 , N 2 O 4

Question 75

The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in Na 2 S 4 O 6 is

Question 76

XeF 6 on partial hydrolysis with water, produces a compound X. The same compound X is
formed when XeF 6 reacts with silica. The compound X is:
A. A) XeF 4
B. B) XeF 2
C. C) XeO 3
D. D) XeOF 4

Question 77

What is the correct relationship between the pH of isomolar solutions of sodium oxide (pH 1 ),
sodium sulphide (pH 2 ), sodium selenide (pH 3 ) and sodium telluride (pH 4 ) ?

A. A) pH 1 > pH 2 = pH 3 = pH 4
B. B) pH 1 < pH 2 < pH 3 < pH 4
C. C) pH 1 < pH 2 > pH 3 < pH 4
D. D) pH 1 > pH 2 > pH 3 > pH 4 .

Question 78

Paragraph: There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth's crust. Nitrates are
more soluble in water. Nitrates are difficult to reduce under the laboratory conditions but
microbes do it easily. Ammonia forms large number of complexes with transition metal ions.
Hybridisation easily explains the ease of sigma donation capability of NH 3 and PH 3 .
Phosphine is a flammable gas and is prepared from white [Link]: Among the
following, the correct statement is

A. A) between NH 3 and PH 3 , NH 3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of

electrons occupies spherical 's' orbital and is less directional
B. B) between NH 3 and PH 3 , PH 3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of
electrons occupies sp 3 orbital and is more directional
C. C) between NH 3 and PH 3 , NH 3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of
electrons occupies sp 3 orbital and is more directional
D. D) between NH 3 and PH 3 , PH 3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of
electrons occupies spherical ' s ' orbital and is less directional

Question 79

Identify the incorrect statement :

A. A) The S-S-S bond angles in the S 8 and S 6 rings are the same.
B. B) Rhombic and monoclinic Sulphur have S 8 molecules.
C. C) S 2 is paramagnetic like oxygen.
D. D) S 8 ring has a crown shape.
Question 80

The correct order of acid strength is:

A. A) HClO 4 < HClO 3 < HClO 2 < HClO

B. B) HClO < HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4
C. C) HClO 4 < HClO 2 < HClO 2 < HClO 3
D. D) HClO 2 < HClO 3 < HClO 4 < HClO

Question 81

Select the correct statement about elements of group 15th.

A. A) The order of stability of oxidation state for +3 is Bi 3+ > Sb 3+ > As 3+ and for +5 is
Bi 5+ < Sb 5+ < As 5+
B. B) In the case of nitrogen, all oxidation states from +1 to +4 tend to disproportionate in acid
solution.
C. C) There is considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P but from As to Bi only a
small increase in covalent radius is observed.
D. D) All of these

Question 82

The elements with the highest and the lowest enthalpy of atomisation respectively, for first row
transition elements are:

A. A) Sc, Zn
B. B) Ti , Ni
C. C) V, Zn
D. D) Cr, Mn

Question 83

What are X and Y, respectively in the following reactions ?

Au + aqua regia ⟶ AuCl −

4 + H2 O + X

Pt + aqua regia ⟶ PtCl 2−

6 + H2 O + Y

A. A) N 2 O, NO
B. B) N 2 O, N 2 O
C. C) NO, NO
D. D) NO, NO 2
Question 84

Paragraph: Upon heating KClO 3 in the presence of catalytic amount of MnO 2 , a gas W is
formed. Excess amount of W reacts with white phosphorus to give X. The reaction of X with
pure HNO 3 gives Y and Z.
Question: Y and Z are, respectively

A. A) N 2 O 4 and H 3 P O 3
B. B) N 2 O 4 and HP O 3
C. C) N 2 O 5 and HP O 3
D. D) N 2 O 3 and H 3 P O 4

Question 85

Which of the following is not correct ?

A. A) Ammonia is used as refrigerant

B. B) A mixture of Ca(CN) 2 and C is known as nitrolim
C. C) A mixture of Ca(H 2 PO 4 ) 2 and CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H 2 O is known as superphosphate of lime
D. D) Hydrolysis of NCl 3 gives NH 3 and HOCl

Question 86

One mole of fluorine is reacted with two moles of hot concentrated KOH. The products formed
are KF, H 2 O and O 2 . The molar ratio of KF, H 2 O and O 2 , respectively is

A. A) 1 : 1 : 2
B. B) 2 : 1 : 0.5
C. C) 1 : 2 : 1
D. D) 2 : 1 : 2

Question 87

Which one of the following orders is not in accordance with the property stated against it?

A. A) F 2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : bond dissociation energy

B. B) F 2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : oxidising power
C. C) HI > HBr > HCI > HF; acidic property in water
D. D) F 2 > Cl 2 > Br 2 > I 2 : electronegativity

Question 88

The number of sigma and pi bonds in peroxodisulphuric acid are, respectively

A. A) 9 and 4
B. B) 11 and 4
C. C) 4 and 8
D. D) 4 and 9

Question 89

F 2 formed by reacting K 2 MnF 6 with

A. A) SbF 5
B. B) MnF 3
C. C) KSbF 6
D. D) MnF 4 .

Question 90

One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction with an excess of water gives

A. A) one mole of ammonia

B. B) two moles of nitric acid
C. C) two moles of ammonia
D. D) one mole of nitric acid

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q31 - C Q61 - C
Q2 - C Q32 - D Q62 - A
Q3 - B Q33 - D Q63 - D
Q4 - A Q34 - A Q64 - A
Q5 - D Q35 - B Q65 - B
Q6 - B Q36 - A Q66 - C
Q7 - D Q37 - C Q67 - A
Q8 - A Q38 - D Q68 - 400.00 (Num)
Q9 - D Q39 - A Q69 - C
Q10 - B Q40 - D Q70 - A
Q11 - B Q41 - B Q71 - B
Q12 - B Q42 - A Q72 - 5 (Num)
Q13 - B Q43 - D Q73 - A
Q14 - C Q44 - B Q74 - A
 Q15 - B Q45 - C Q75 - 5 (Num)
Q16 - C Q46 - A Q76 - D
Q17 - B Q47 - B Q77 - D
Q18 - D Q48 - A Q78 - C
Q19 - D Q49 - C Q79 - A
Q20 - A Q50 - A Q80 - B
Q21 - B Q51 - C Q81 - D
Q22 - C Q52 - A Q82 - A
Q23 - A Q53 - A Q83 - C
Q24 - B Q54 - D Q84 - C
Q25 - C Q55 - C Q85 - B
Q26 - A Q56 - C Q86 - B
Q27 - A Q57 - B Q87 - A
Q28 - D Q58 - C Q88 - B
Q29 - C Q59 - D Q89 - A
Q30 - C Q60 - D Q90 - C

d and f Block Elements

Easy Questions

Question 1

Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids(Ln) is dominated by its +3 oxidation state, which of
the following statements is incorrect?

A. A) The ionic size of Ln (III) decrease in general with increasing atomic number
B. B) Ln (III) compounds are generally colourless.
C. C) Ln (III) hydroxide are mainly basic in character.
D. D) Because of the large size of the Ln (III) ions the bonding in its compounds is
predominantly ionic in character.

Question 2

The function of Fe(OH) 3 in the contact process is

A. A) to remove arsenic impurity

B. B) to detect colloidal impurity
C. C) to remove moisture
D. D) to remove dust particles

Question 3

The main reason for larger number of oxidation states exhibited by the actinoids than the
corresponding lanthanoids is:

A. A) more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbitals than between 4f and 5 d orbitals
B. B) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6 d orbitals than between 4f and 5 d orbitals
C. C) larger atomic size of actinoids than the lanthanoids
D. D) greater reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids

Question 4

Which of the following is not formed when H2S reacts with acidic K2Cr2O7 solution ?

A. A) K2SO4

B. B) Cr2(SO4)3

C. C) S
D. D) CrSO4

Question 5

Match the catalysts to the correct process.

Catalyst Process
A. TiCl 3 i. Wacker process
B. PdCl 2 ii. Ziegler – Natta polymerisation
C. CuCl 2 iii. Contact process`
D. V 2 O 5 iv. Deacon’s process

A. A) A → iii , B → i , C → ii , D → iv
B. B) A → iii , B → ii , C → iv , D → i
C. C) A → ii , B → i , C → iv , D → iii
D. D) A → ii , B → iii , C → iv , D → i

Question 6

Heating mixture of Cu 2 O and Cu 2 S will give

A. A) Cu + SO 2
B. B) Cu + SO 3
C. C) CuO + CuS
D. D) Cu 2 SO 3

Question 7

Spin only magnetic moment of Mn 4+ ion is nearly

A. A) 3 BM
B. B) 6 BM
C. C) 4 BM
D. D) 5 BM

Question 8

Assertion : Reduction potential of Mn (+3 to +2) is more positive than Fe (+3 to +2). Reason :
Ionisation potential of Mnis more than that of Fe.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 9

Which from following alloys is used to make statues?

A. A) Nichrome
B. B) Stainless steel
C. C) Bronze
D. D) Cupra-nickel

Question 10

Which one of the following has maximumnumber of unpaired electrons?

A. A) Mg 2+
B. B) Ti 3+
C. C) V 3+
D. D) Fe 2+

Question 11
Baeyer's reagent is

A. A) alkaline potassium permanganate

B. B) acidified potassium permanganate
C. C) neutral potassium permanganate
D. D) alkaline potassium manganate

Question 12

Which of the following pairs has the same size?

A. A) Fe 2+ , Ni 2+
B. B) Zr 4+ , Ti 4+
C. C) Zr 4+ , Hf 4+
D. D) Zn 2+ , Hf 4+

Question 13

In the ground state of Cu + , the number of shells occupied, subshells occupied, filled orbitals
and unpaired electrons respectively are

A. A) 4, 8, 15, 0
B. B) 3, 6, 15, 1
C. C) 3, 6, 14, 0
D. D) 4, 7, 14, 2

Question 14

A red solid is insoluble in water. However it becomes soluble if some KI is added to water.
Heating the red solid in a test tube results in liberation of some violet coloured fumes and
droplets of a metal appear on the cooler parts of the test tube. The red solid is

A. A) HgI 2
B. B) HgO
C. C) Pb 3 O 4
D. D) (NH 4 ) 2 Cr 2 O 7

Question 15

Which metal has a greater tendency to form metal oxide?

A. A) Cr
B. B) Fe
C. C) Al
D. D) Ca

Question 16

Which one of the following sets correctly represents the increase in the paramagnetic property
of the ions?

A. A) Cu 2+ > V 2+ > Cr 2+ > Mn 2+

B. B) Cu 2+ < Cr 2+ < V 2+ < Mn 2+
C. C) Cu
2+
< V 2+ < Cr 2+ < Mn 2+
D. D) V 2+ < Cu 2+ < Cr 2+ < Mn 2+

Question 17

What is the correct order of spin only magnetic moment (in BM) of Mn 2+ , Cr 2+ and V 2+ ?

A. A) Mn 2+ > V 2+ > Cr 2+
B. B) V 2+ > Cr
2+
> Mn 2+
C. C) Mn 2+ > Cr 2+ > V 2+
D. D) Cr 2+ > V 2+ > Mn 2+

Question 18

Lanthanide for which + II and +III oxidation states are common is

A. A) La
B. B) Nd
C. C) Ce
D. D) Eu.

Question 19

The reaction, Zn(s) + CuSO 4 (aq) → ZnSO 4 (aq) + Cu(s) is an example of a

A. A) spontaneous process
B. B) isobaric process
C. C) non-spontaneous process
D. D) reversible process

Question 20

The point of dissimilarity between lanthanides and actinides is

A. A) three outermost shells are partially filled

B. B) they show oxidation state of +3 (common)
C. C) they are called inner transition elements
D. D) they are radioactive in nature

Question 21

Which of the following is a correct statement?

A. A) Aqueous solutions of Cu + and Zn 2+ are colourless

B. B) Aqueous solutions of Cu and Zn 2+ are colourless
2+

C. C) Aqueous solution of Fe 3+ is green in colour

D. D) Aqueous solution of MnO −
4 is colourless

Question 22

Mercury is a liquid metal because

A. A) it has a completely filled s-orbital

B. B) it has a small atomic size
C. C) it has a completely filled d-orbital that prevents d − d overlapping of orbitals
D. D) it has a completely filled d-orbital that causes d-(d) overlapping

Question 23

Ferrous ion charges to X ion, on reacting with acidified hydrogen peroxide. The number of d-
electrons present in X and its magnetic moment (in BM) are, respectively :

A. A) 6 and 6.93
B. B) 5 and 5.92
C. C) 5 and 4.9
D. D) 4 and 5.92

Question 24

Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO 4
solution in the presence of H 2 SO 4 . The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in
the presence of HCl, because HCl

A. A) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine

B. B) furnishes H + ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
C. C) reduces permanganate to Mn 2+
D. D) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
Question 25

When same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of
sodium hydroxide solution, the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is:

A. A) 1: 1
B. B) 1: 2
C. C) 2: 1
D. D) 9: 4

Question 26

In the periodic table metals usually used as catalysts belong to

A. A) s-block
B. B) p-block
C. C) d-block
D. D) f -block

Question 27

The maximum number of unpaired electrons is present in

A. A) Fe
B. B) Cu
C. C) Co
D. D) Ni

Question 28

The colour imparted by Co(II) compounds to glass is

A. A) green
B. B) deep-blue
C. C) yellow
D. D) red.

Question 29

The orange solid on heating gives a colourless gas and a green solid which can be reduced to
metal by aluminium powder. The orange and the green solids are, respectively

A. A) NH 4 Cr 2 O 7 and Cr 2 O 3
B. B) Na 2 Cr 2 O 7 and Cr 2 O 3
C. C) K 2 Cr 2 O 7 and CrO 3
D. D) (NH 4 ) 2 CrO 4 and CrO 3

Question 30

The electronic configuration of Cr 3+ is

A. A) [Ar]3d 4 4s 2
B. B) [Ar]3d 3 4s 0
C. C) [Ar]3d 2 4s 1
D. D) [Ar]3d 5 4s 1

Moderate Questions

Question 31

Identify the metal which is not common to German silver and brass.

A. A) Cu
B. B) Zn
C. C) Fe
D. D) Ni

Question 32

Identify the statement which is not correct regarding CuSO 4 .

A. A) It reacts with KI to give iodine

B. B) It reacts with KCl to give Cu 2 Cl 2
C. C) It reacts with NaOH and glucose to give Cu 2 O
D. D) It gives CuO on strong heating in air

Question 33

Identify the incorrect statement among the following

A. A) d− Block elements show irregular and erratic chemical properties among themselves
B. B) La and Lu have partially filled d orbitals and no other partially filled orbitals
C. C) The chemistry of various lanthanoids is very similar
D. D) 4f and 5f orbitals are equally shielded

Question 34

Which of the following ions is colourless in solution?

A. A) V 3+
B. B) Cr
3+

C. C) Co 2+
D. D) Sc 3+

Question 35

When a manganous salt is fused with a mixture of KNO 3 and solid NaOH the oxidation
number of Mn changes from +2 to

A. A) +4
B. B) +3
C. C) +6
D. D) +7

Question 36

When KMnO 4 acts as an oxidising agent and ultimately forms

[MnO 4 ] −1 , MnO 2 , Mn 2 O 3 , Mn +2 then the number of electrons transferred in each case
respectively is

A. A) 4, 3, 1, 5
B. B) 1, 5, 3, 7
C. C) 1, 3, 4, 5
D. D) 3, 5, 7, 1

Question 37

Identify the compound formed from elements X, Y, Z having oxidation state +2, +5, −2
respectively.

A. A) X (Y 4 Z)
B. B) X 3 (YZ 4 ) 2
C. C) X 3 (YZ 2 ) 2
D. D) XYZ 2

Question 38

In acidic medium, potassium permanganate oxidises oxalic acid to

A. A) oxalate
B. B) carbon dioxide
C. C) acetate
D. D) acetic acid

Question 39

The yellow precipitate formed during the chromyl chloride test is chemically

A. A) chromic acid
B. B) lead chromate
C. C) lead acetate
D. D) sodium chromate

Question 40

Which one of the following metal ions is coloured?

A. A) Ti +
B. B) Cu +
C. C) V 4+
D. D) Zn 2+

Question 41

Arrange Ce +3 , La +3 , Pm +3 and Yb +3 in increasing order of their ionic radii

A. A) Yb +3 < Pm +3 < Ce +3 < La +3

B. B) Ce
+3
< Yb +3 < Pm +3 < La +3
C. C) Yb +3 < Pm +3 < La +3 < Ce +3
D. D) Pm +3 < La +3 < Ce +3 < Yb +3

Question 42

Cyanogen gas is obtained in the reaction

A. A) CuSO 4(aq) + KCN ⟶

B. B) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] ⟶
heat

C. C) CH 3 CN + H 2 O ⟶
Δ

D. D) CH 3 CONH 2 + P 2 O 5 ⟶
Δ

Question 43

Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated
against it?
A. A) Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr3+ < Sc3+ :​Stability in aqueous solution
B. B) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn :​Number of oxidation states

C. C) V2+< Cr2+ < Mn2+ < Fe2+:​​Paramagnetic behaviour

D. D) Ni2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+ :​Ionic size

Question 44

When a brown compound of Mn(A) is treated with HCl, it gives a gas (B). The gas (B) taken
in
excess reacts with NH 3 to give an explosive compound (C).
The compounds A, B and C are;

A. A) A = MnO 2 , B = Cl 2 , C = NCl 3
B. B) A = MnO, B = Cl 2 , C = NH 4 Cl
C. C) A = Mn 3 O 4 , B = Cl 2 , C = NCl 3
D. D) A = MnO 3 , B = Cl 2 , C = NCl 2

Question 45

Most basic hydroxide among the following is

A. A) Lu(OH) 3
B. B) Eu(OH) 3
C. C) Yb(OH) 3
D. D) Ce(OH) 3

Question 46

In the laboratory, manganese (II) salt is oxidise to permanganate ion in aqueous solution by

A. A) hydrogen peroxide
B. B) conc. nitric acid
C. C) peroxy disulphate
D. D) dichromate

Question 47

Which of the following set of elements do not possess f -electrons?

A. A) La, U, Lr
B. B) La, Th, Lr
C. C) La, Ac, Th
D. D) Ce, Ac, Th

Question 48

The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless? (Atomic
number : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22, Mn = 25)

A. A) Sc 3+
B. B) Fe 2+
C. C) Ti 3+
D. D) Mn 2+

Question 49

In context with the transition elements, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. A) In addition to the normal oxidation states, the zero oxidation state is also shown by these
elements in complexes.
B. B) In the highest oxidation states, the transition metal show basic character and form
cationic complexes.
C. C) In the highest oxidation states of the first five transition elements (Sc to Mn), all the 4s
and 3d electrons are used for bonding.
D. D) Once the d 5 configuration is exceeded, the tendency to involve all the 3d electrons in
bonding decreases.

Question 50

Identify the correct statements from the following : I. The ionic radius of Pr 3+ , Dy 3+ and Sm 3+
follow the order, Sm 3+ > Pr 3+ > Dy 3+ . II. Eu 2+ acts as strong reducing reagent. III. Pu
exhibits +7 oxidation state.

A. A) I, II only
B. B) I, III only
C. C) I, II, III
D. D) II, III only

Question 51

Best reagent for the conversion of AgNO 3 to Ag is

A. A) HClO 4
B. B) H 3 PO 2
C. C) HIO 4
D. D) I 2

Question 52

The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and
acidified potassium dichromate solution is

A. A) +4
B. B) +6
C. C) +2
D. D) +3

Question 53

The equivalent weight of K 2 Cr 2 O 7 in acidic medium is expressed in terms of its molecular

weight (M) as

A. A) M/3
B. B) M/4
C. C) M/6
D. D) M/7

Question 54

When calomel is treated with ammonium hydroxide, a black substance is formed. The black
substance is

A. A) Hg + HgO
B. B) HgO. HgCl 2
C. C) H 2 N − Hg − Cl + Hg
D. D) Hg(NH 2 ) 2 + HgO

Question 55

The formula of chromyl chloride is

A. A) CrCl
B. B) CrCl 3
C. C) CrOCl 2
D. D) CrO 2 Cl 2

Question 56

The oxidation number of Cr in CrO 5 which has the following structure, is

A. A) +4
B. B) +5
C. C) +3
D. D) +6

Question 57

4 (1 mole) in neutral aqueous medium is disproportionated to

MnO 2−
A. A) 2/3 mole of MnO 4 and 1/3 mole of MnO 2
−

B. B) 1/3 mole of MnO −

4 and 2/3 mole of MnO 2
C. C) 1/3 mole of Mn 2 O 7 and 1/3 mole of MnO 2
D. D) 2/3 mole of Mn 2 O 7 and 1/3 mole of MnO 2 .

Question 58

On heating potassium permanganate, one of the following compound is not obtained:

A. A) O 2
B. B) MnO
C. C) MnO 2
D. D) K 2 MnO 4

Question 59

Among the following the compound that is both paramagnetic and coloured is

A. A) K 2 Cr 2 O 7
B. B) (NH 4 ) 2 [TiCl 6 ]
C. C) VOSO 4
D. D) K 3 Cu(CN) 4

Question 60

"925 fine silver" means an alloy of

A. A) 7.5%Ag and 92.5%Cu

B. B) 92.5%Ag and 7.5%Cu
C. C) 80%Ag and 20%Cu
D. D) 90%Ag and 10%Cu

Hard Questions
Question 61

Which one of the following species is stable in aqueous solution?

A. A) Cr 2+
B. B) MnO 2−
4
C. C) MnO 3−
4
D. D) Cu +

Question 62

Paragraph: When a metal rod M is dipped into an aqueous colourless concentrated solution of
compound N, the solution turns light blue. Addition of aqueous NaCl to the blue solution gives
a white precipitate O. Addition of aqueous NH 3 dissolves O and gives an intense blue
[Link]: The metal rod M is

A. A) Fe
B. B) Cu
C. C) Ni
D. D) Co

Question 63

Which of the following are not more basic than Al(OH) 3 ?

A. A) Ca(OH) 2 , Ce(OH) 3
B. B) Yb(OH) 3 , Lu(OH) 3
C. C) B(OH) 3 , Be(OH) 2
D. D) Ce(OH) 3 , Lu(OH) 3 .

Question 64

Identify the incorrect statement.

A. A) The transition metals and their compounds are known for their catalytic activity due to
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to form complexes.
B. B) Interstitial compounds are those that are formed when small atoms like H, C or N are
trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals.
C. C) The oxidation states of chromium in CrO 2−
4 and Cr 2 O 7 are not the same.
2−

D. D) Cr 2 + (d 4 ) is a stronger reducing agent than Fe 2+ + (d 6 ) in water.

Question 65
In the following reactions, identify P , Q and R, respectively
I. 3Fe 2 O 3 + CO ⟶ 2P + CO 2 ↑ II. Fe 3 O 4 + 4CO ⟶ 3Q + 4CO 2 ↑ III.
Fe 2 O 3 + CO ⟶ 2R + CO 2 ↑

A. A)
P Q R
Fe Fe 3 O 4 FeO

B. B)
P Q R
Fe 3 O 4 FeO Fe

C. C)
P Q R
Fe 3 O 4 Fe FeO

D. D)
P Q R
FeO Fe 3 O 4 Fe

Question 66

Consider the following reactions

NaCl + K 2 Cr 2 O 7 + Conc. H 2 SO 4 → (A) + side products
(A) + NaOH → (B)+ side products
(B) + dilute H 2 SO 4 + H 2 O 2 → (C)+ Side products
The sum of atoms in one molecule each of (A), (B) and (C) is

Question 67

The correct increasing order of basic character of Ce(OH) 3 , Gd(OH) 3 and Nd(OH) 3 is

A. A) Ce(OH) 3 < Nd(OH) 3 < Gd(OH) 3

B. B) Gd(OH) 3 < Ce(OH) 3 < Nd(OH) 3
C. C) Gd(OH) 3 < Nd(OH) 3 < Ce(OH) 3
D. D) Ce(OH) 3 < Gd(OH) 3 < Nd(OH) 3

Question 68

Which one of the following is used to remove most of plutonium from spent nuclear fuel?

A. A) BrO 3
B. B) I 2 O 5
C. C) ClF 3
D. D) O 2 F 2

Question 69

Potassium dichromate when heated with concentrated sulphuric acid and a soluble chloride,
gives brown-red vapours of :
A. A) CrO 3
B. B) CrCl 3
C. C) CrO 2 Cl 2
D. D) Cr 2 O 3

Question 70

HCN + H 2 O → [X] + NH 3 ,

[X] → [Y] + H 2 O (Unbalanced equations)

[Y] May be prepared by which one of the following methods?

A. A) By dehydration of Malonic acid with P 2 O 5

B. B) By thermal decomposition of carbon sub-oxide in air.
C. C) By heating potassium hexacyanoferrate (II) with conc. H 2 SO 4 .
D. D) By the action of conc. HNO 3 on charcoal.

Question 71

Ferrous ion charges to X ion, on reacting with acidified hydrogen peroxide. The number of d-
electrons present in X and its magnetic moment (in BM) are, respectively :

A. A) 6 and 6.93
B. B) 5 and 5.92
C. C) 5 and 4.9
D. D) 4 and 5.92

Question 72

Identify all the correct statements for Lanthanide contraction. (A) The covalent properties of the
Lanthanide metal hydroxides increases from La to Lu. (B) The chemical reactivity decreases
from La to Lu. (C) La(OH) 3 is more basic than Lu(OH) 3 (D) Zr and Hf have about the same
radius. (E) Separation of Lanthanides from one another is easy

A. A) A, B, C, E only
B. B) A, B, C, D only
C. C) A, B, C only
D. D) B, C, D only

Question 73
 In dilute aqueous H 2 SO 4 , the complex diaquodioxalatoferrate(II) is oxidized by MnO −
4

For this reaction, the ratio of the rate of change of [H + ] to the rate of change of [MnO −
4 ] is

Question 74

Paragraph: An aqueous solution of a mixture of two inorganic salts, when treated with dilute
HC ?, gave a precipitate (P ) and a filtrate (Q). The precipitate P was found to dissolve in hot
water. The filtrate (Q) remained unchanged, when treated with H 2 S in a dilute mineral acid
medium. However, it gave a precipitate (R) with H 2 S in an ammoniacal medium. The
precipitate R gave a coloured solution (S), when treated with H 2 O 2 in an aqueous NaOH
medium.
Question: The coloured solution S contains

A. A) Fe 2 (SO 4 ) 3
B. B) CuSO 4
C. C) ZnSO 4
D. D) Na 2 CrO 4

Question 75

The IUPAC name of the compound (NH 4 ) 2 [Ni (C 2 O 4 ) 2 (H 2 O) 2 ] is

A. A) Nickel (II) diammino dioxalato diaquate

B. B) Dioxalato diammino diaquo nickelate (III)
C. C) Ammonium diaquabis (oxalato) nickelate (II)
D. D) Ni dioxalato diaqua (II) amminate

Question 76

heat
−
(X) + K 2 CO 3 + Air → (Y)

(Y) + Cl 2 ⟶ (Z)Pink

Which of the following is correct ?

A. A) X= black, MnO 2 , Y= Blue, K 2 CrO 4 , Z=KMnO 4

B. B) X= green, Cr 2 O 3 , Y= Yellow, K 2 CrO 4 , Z=K 2 Cr 2 O 7
C. C) X= black, MnO 2 , Y= green, K 2 MnO 4 , Z=KMnO 4
D. D) X= black; Bi 2 O 3 , Y= colourless KBiO 2 , Z= KBiO 3

Question 77
Compound A (molecular formula C 3 H 8 O ) is treated with acidified potassium dichromate to
form a product B (molecular formula C 3 H 6 O ). B forms a shining silver mirror on warming with
ammoniacal silver nitrate. B when treated with an aqueous solution of H 2 NCONHNH 2 . HCl
and sodium acetate gives a product C . Identify the structure of C .

A. A) \text { } \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{NNHCONH}_2

B. B)

C. C)

D. D) \text { } \mathrm{CH}_3 \mathrm{CH}_2 \mathrm{CH}=\mathrm{NCONHNH}_2

Question 78

The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order: (Atomic nos.
Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26 )
A. A) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO
B. B) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
C. C) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
D. D) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO

Question 79

An aqueous solution of a salt X turns blood red on treatment with SCN − and blue on treatment
with K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] , X also gives a positive chromyl chloride test. The salt X is:

A. A) FeCl 3
B. B) Fe(NO 3 ) 3
C. C) CuCl 2
D. D) Cu(NO 3 ) 2

Question 80

The reaction of aqueous KMnO 4 with H 2 O 2 in acidic conditions gives:

A. A) Mn 4+ and O 2
B. B) Mn 2+ and O 2
C. C) Mn 2+ and O 3
D. D) Mn 4+ and MnO 2

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - B Q28 - B Q55 - D
Q2 - A Q29 - B Q56 - D
Q3 - B Q30 - B Q57 - A
Q4 - D Q31 - C Q58 - B
Q5 - C Q32 - B Q59 - C
Q6 - A Q33 - D Q60 - B
Q7 - C Q34 - D Q61 - B
Q8 - C Q35 - C Q62 - B
Q9 - C Q36 - C Q63 - C
Q10 - D Q37 - B Q64 - C
Q11 - A Q38 - B Q65 - C
Q12 - C Q39 - B Q66 - 18 (Num)
Q13 - C Q40 - C Q67 - C
Q14 - A Q41 - A Q68 - D
Q15 - D Q42 - A Q69 - C
Q16 - C Q43 - C Q70 - C
Q17 - C Q44 - A Q71 - B
Q18 - D Q45 - D Q72 - B
Q19 - A Q46 - C Q73 - 8 (Num)
Q20 - D Q47 - C Q74 - D
Q21 - A Q48 - A Q75 - C
Q22 - A Q49 - B Q76 - C
Q23 - B Q50 - D Q77 - A
Q24 - C Q51 - B Q78 - D
Q25 - A Q52 - D Q79 - A
Q26 - C Q53 - C Q80 - B
Q27 - A Q54 - C

Coordination Compounds

Easy Questions
Question 1

A compound absorbs light in the wavelength region 490 − 500 nm. Its complementary colour
is

A. A) red
B. B) blue
C. C) orange
D. D) blue-green

Question 2

AgCl dissolves in a solution of NH 3 but not in water because

A. A) NH 3 is a better solvent than H 2 O
B. B) Ag + forms a complex ion with NH 3
C. C) NH 3 is a stronger base than H 2 O
D. D) the dipole moment of water is higher than NH 3

Question 3

Which of the following compound is not coloured?

A. A) Na 2 [CuCl 4 ]
B. B) Na 2 [CdCl 4 ]
C. C) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
D. D) K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ]

Question 4

Formation of coloured solution is possible when metal ion in the compound contains

A. A) paired electrons
B. B) lone pair of electrons
C. C) unpaired electrons
D. D) none of the above

Question 5

The correct order for the wavelength of absorption in the visible region is

A. A) [Ni(NO 2 ) 6 ]
4−
< [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] 2+ < [Ni(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+
B. B) [Ni(NO 2 ) 6 ]
4−
< [Ni(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ < [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] 2+
C. C) [Ni(H 2 O) 6 ]
2+
< [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] 2+ < [Ni(NO 2 ) 6 ] 4−
D. D) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]
2+
< [Ni(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ < [Ni(NO 2 ) 6 ) 4−

Question 6

The type of isomerism present in nitropentamine chromium (III) chloride is

A. A) optical
B. B) linkage
C. C) ionization
D. D) polymerisation

Question 7

[Fe(en) 2 (H 2 O) 2 ] 2+ + en → complex (X). The correct statement about the complex (X) is -
A. A) it is a low spin complex
B. B) it is diamagnetic
C. C) it shows geometrical isomerism
D. D) (a) and (b) both

Question 8

The ligand called π acid is

A. A) CO
B. B) NH 3
C. C) C 2 O 2−
4
D. D) ethylene diamine.

Question 9

The common name of K [PtCl 3 (η 2 ⋅ C 2 H 4 )] is

A. A) potassium salt
B. B) Zeise's salt
C. C) complex salt
D. D) None of these

Question 10

[Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]NO 2 and [Co(NH 3 ) 4 ClNO 2 ]Cl exhibit which type of isomerism?
A. A) Geometrical
B. B) Optical
C. C) Linkage
D. D) Ionisation

Question 11

Which of the following is not correct?

A. A) Chlorophyll is responsible for the synthesis of carbohydrates in plants

B. B) The compound formed in the addition of oxygen to haemoglobin is called
oxyhaemoglobin
C. C) Acetyl salicylic acid is known as aspirin
D. D) The metal ion present in vitamin B 12 is Mg 2+

Question 12

The complex [PtClC 2 (en) 2 ] ion shows

2+

A. A) structural isomerism only

B. B) optical isomerism only
C. C) geometrical and optical isomerism
D. D) geometrical isomerism only

Question 13

Which of the following can participate in linkage isomerism?

A. A) NO 2
B. B) H 2 NCH 2 CH 2 NH 2
C. C) H 2 O
D. D) : NH 3

Question 14

Which of the following does not have a metal carbon bond?

A. A) Al(OC 2 H 5 ) 3
B. B) C 2 H 5 MgBr
C. C) K [Pt (C 2 H 4 )Cl 3 ]
D. D) Ni(CO) 4

Question 15

One mole of the complex compound Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl 3 , gives 3 moles of ions on dissolution in
water. One mole of the same complex reacts with two moles of AgNO 3 solution to yield two
moles of AgCl (s). The structure of the complex is

A. A) [Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ] ⋅ 2NH 3
B. B) [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]Cl. NH 3
C. C) [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl]Cl 2 . NH 3
D. D) [Co(NH 3 ) 5 Cl]Cl 2

Question 16

The pair in which both species have same magnetic moment (spin only value) is

A. A) [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]
2+
, [CoCl 4 ] 2−
B. B) [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]
2+
, [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+
C. C) [Mn(H 2 O) 6 ]
2+
, [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+
D. D) [CoCl 4 ] , [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ .
2−

Question 17

Which of the following is a diamagnetic complex

A. A) [Co (NH 3 ) 6 ]
3+

B. B) [NiCl 4 ]
2−

C. C) [CuCl 4 ] 2−
D. D) [Fe (H 2 O) 6 ]
3+

Question 18

A complex compound of Co 3+ with molecular formula CoCl x ⋅ yNH 3 gives a total of 3 ions
when dissolved in water. How many Cl − ions satisfy both primary and secondary valencies in
this complex?

A. A) 3
B. B) 1
C. C) 4
D. D) zero

Question 19

Which of the following compounds is not coloured?

A. A) Na 2 [Cu (Cl 4 ]
B. B) Na [Cd(Cl) 4 ]
C. C) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
D. D) K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ]

Question 20

The oxidation state of iron in K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] is

A. A) 1
B. B) 4
C. C) 3
D. D) 2

Question 21

The EAN of central metal atom in [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 is [Atomic number of Co = 27 ]

A. A) 34
B. B) 35
C. C) 36
D. D) 32

Question 22

Which of the following has an optical isomer ?

A. A) [CO(NH 3 ) 3 Cl]
+

B. B) [CO( en )(NH 3 ) 2 ]
2+

C. C) [CO(H 2 O) 4 (en)]
3+

D. D) [CO(en) 2 (NH 3 ) 2 ]
3+

Question 23

The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] is

+

A. A) +3
B. B) +2
C. C) +1
D. D) 0

Question 24

When AgCl is treated with KCN

A. A) Ag is precipitated
B. B) a complex ion is formed
C. C) double decomposition takes place
D. D) no reaction takes place

Question 25

The color of CoCl 3 .5NH 3 ⋅ H 2 O is

A. A) red
B. B) orange
C. C) orange - yellow
D. D) pink

Question 26

Which of the following facts about the complex [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 s wrong ?

A. A) The complex is paramagnetic

B. B) The complex is an outer orbital complex
C. C) The complex gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution
D. D) The complex involves d 2 sp 3 hybridization and is octahedral in shape.

Question 27

Amongst [Ni(H 2 O) 6 ] [Ni(PPh 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ], [Ni(CO) 4 ] and [Ni (CN 4 )] 2− the

2+
,
paramagnetic species are

A. A) [NiCl 4 ]
2−
, [Ni(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ ⋅ [Ni(PPh 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ]
B. B) [Ni(CO) 4 ], [Ni(PPh 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ], [NiCl 4 ]
2−

C. C) [Ni(CN) 4 ] 2− ⋅ [Ni(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ , [NiCl 4 ] 2−

D. D) [Nl(PPh 3 ) 2 Cl 2 } [Ni(CO) 4 }[Ni(CN) 4 ]
2−

Question 28

A complex compound in which the oxidation number of a metal is zero is

A. A) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
B. B) K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
C. C) [Ni(CO) 4 ]
D. D) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ]Cl 2

Question 29

The correct order of ligands in the spectrochemical series is

A. A) Cl − >en > CN − > NCS −
B. B) CN >en > NCS − > Cl −
−

C. C) NCS − > CN − > Cl − >en

D. D) en > CN − > Cl − > NCS −

Question 30

Indicate the correct IUPAC name of the co-ordination compound shown in the figure.

A. A) Cis-dichlorotetraminochromium (III) chloride

B. B) Trans-dichlorotetraminochromium (III) chloride
C. C) Trans-tetraminedichlorochromium (III) chloride
D. D) Cis-tetraamminedichlorochromium (III) chloride

Moderate Questions

Question 31

How many isomers does Co(en) 2 Cl 2 + have?

A. A) 1
B. B) 3
C. C) 2
D. D) 4

Question 32

Which of the following compounds shows optical isomerism?

A. A) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]
+2

B. B) [ZnCl 4 ]
−2

C. C) [Cr(C 2 O 4 ) 3 ]
−3

D. D) [Co(CN) 6 ]
−3

Question 33

The complex [Ag (NH 3 ) 2 ] [Ag(CN) 2 ] has the IUPAC name

A. A) diamminesilver (I) dicyanosilver (I)
B. B) diamminesilver (I) dicyanoargentate (I)
C. C) dicyanosilver (I) diammineargentate (I)
D. D) none of these

Question 34

Nickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative monodentate ligand X − to form a paramagnetic

complex [NiX 4 ] . The number of unpaired electron(s) in the nickel and geometry of this
2−

complex ion are, respectively

A. A) one, tetrahedral
B. B) two, tetrahedral
C. C) one, square planar
D. D) two, square planar

Question 35

Pick out the complex compound in which the central metal atom obeys EAN rule strictly.

A. A) K 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
B. B) K 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
C. C) [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]Cl 3
D. D) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]SO 4

Question 36

The number of unpaired electrons in [NiCl 4 ] 2− , Ni(CO) 4 and [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] 2 respectively

are

A. A) 2,2,1
B. B) 2,0,1
C. C) 0,2,1
D. D) 2,2,0

Question 37

Which one of the following coordination entity is chiral?

A. A) trans −[CrCl 2 (ox) 2 ]

3−

B. B) cis- [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 3 ]
+

C. C) cis-[CrCl C 2 (ox) 2 ]
3−

D. D) trans- [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]
+
Question 38

Which of the following will give a pair of enantiomers?

A. A) [Cr(NH 3 ) 6 ] [Co(CN) 6 ]
B. B) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl
C. C) [Pt(NH 3 ) 4 ] [PtCl 6 ]
D. D) [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]NO 2

Question 39

Among the following, the species having square planar geometry for central atom are (i) XeF 4 ,
(ii) SF 4 , (iii) [NiCl 4 ] , (iv) [PdCl 4 ]
2− 2−

A. A) (i) and (iv)

B. B) (i) and (ii)
C. C) (ii) and (iii)
D. D) (iii) and (iv).

Question 40

Which of the following is a negatively charged bidentate ligand?

A. A) Cyano
B. B) Ethylene diamine
C. C) Acetato
D. D) Dimethyl glyoximato

Question 41

Which one of the following has a square planar geometry?

A. A) [CoCl 4 ]
2−

B. B) [FeCl 4 ] 2−
C. C) [NiCl 4 ]
2−

D. D) [PtCl 4 ]
2−

Question 42

The pair in which both species have same magnetic moment (spin onlyvalue) is:

A. A) [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]
2+
, [CoCI 4 ] 2−
B. B) [Cr(H 2 O 6 )
2+
, [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+
C. C) [Mn(H 2 O) 6 )
2+
, [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+
D. D) [CoCl 4 )
2−
, [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+

Question 43

When AgNO 3 solution is added in excess to 1M solution of CoCl 3 . XNH 3 , one mole of
AgCl is formed. What is the value of ' X '?
A. A) 1
B. B) 4
C. C) 3
D. D) 2

Question 44

Match the following.

A B C D

A. A) (v) (ii) (iv) (iii)

B. B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
C. C) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
D. D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Question 45

Which of the following shows maximum magnetic moment?

A. A) Mg 2+
B. B) Ti 3+
C. C) V 3+
D. D) Fe 2+

Question 46

The number of isomers possible for the octahedral complex [CoCl 2 (en)(NH 3 ) 2 ] is,
+

A. A) Two
B. B) Three
C. C) No isomer
D. D) Four isomers

Question 47

Ferric ion forms a prussian blue precipitate due to the formation of

A. A) K 4 [Fe (CN) 6 ]
B. B) K 3 [Fe (CN) 6 )
C. C) F e(CNS) 3
D. D) F e 4 [F e(CN) 6 ] 3

Question 48

[Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ is a 3d 2 system, the value of crystal field stabilisation energy decreases by

A. A) 4 × 10 −1 △ o
B. B) 4.0Δ o
C. C) 8.0Δ o
D. D) 8 × 10 −1 Δ o

Question 49

When SCN − is added to an aqueous solution containing Fe(NO 3 ) 3 , the complex ion produced
is

A. A) [Fe(OH 2 ) 2 (SCN − )]
2+

B. B) [Fe(OH 2 ) 5 (SCN − )]
2+

C. C) [Fe(OH 2 ) 8 (SCN )]
− 2+

D. D) [Fe (OH 2 ) (SCN − )]

6+

Question 50

Which of the following compounds have magnetic moment identical with [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ]
3+

A. A) [Cu(H 2 O) 6 ]
2+

B. B) [Mn(H 2 O) 6 ]
3+

C. C) [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ]
3+

D. D) [Mn(H 2 O) 6 ]
4+

Question 51

Assertion: NF 3 is a weaker ligand than N(CH 3 ) 3 . Reason : NF 3 ionizes to give F − ions in

aqueous solution.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 52

According to IUPAC nomenclature sodium nitroprusside is named as:

A. A) sodium nitroferricyanide
B. B) sodium nitroferrocyanide
C. C) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (II)
D. D) sodium pentacyanonitrosyl ferrate (III)

Question 53

Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated
against it?

A. A) V 2+ < Cr 2+ < Mn 2+ < Fe 2+ :paramagnetic behaviour

B. B) Ni 2+ < Co < Fe 2+ < Mn 2+ : ionic size
2+

C. C) Co 3+ < Fe 3+ < Cr 3+ < Sc 3+ : stability in aqueous solution

D. D) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : number of oxidation states

Question 54

Which one of the following is wrongly matched?

A. A) [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ] − Square planar

2+

B. B) [Ni(CO) 4 ] − Neutral ligand

C. C) [Fe(CN 6 )
3−
] − sp 3 d 2
D. D) [Co(en) 3 ] − Follows EAN rule
3+

Question 55

Crystal field splitting energies for octahedral (Δ 0 ) and tetrahedral (Δ t ) geometries caused by
the same ligands are related through the expression

A. A) Δ 0 = Δ t
B. B) 4Δ 0 = 9Δ 1
C. C) 9Δ 0 = 4Δ 1
D. D) Δ 0 = 2Δ 1

Question 56

Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism?

A. A) [Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ]
B. B) [Co(en)(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ]
+

C. C) [Co(en) 3 ]
3+

D. D) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]
+

Question 57

Which of the following has square planar geometry?

A. A) [PtCl 4 ]
2−

B. B) [NiCl 4 ]
2−

C. C) [ZnCl 4 ]
2−

D. D) [CoCl 4 ]
2−

Question 58

For Cr 2 O 7 2− + 14H + + 6e − → 2Cr 3+ + 7H 2 O; E ∘ = 1.33 VAt [Cr 2 O 7 2− ] = 4.5

millimole, [Cr 3+ ] = 15 millimole, E ∘ is 1.067 V. The pH of the solution is nearly equal to

A. A) 03
B. B) 04
C. C) 12
D. D) 05

Question 59

Which of the following does not have optical isomer?

A. A) [Co(NH 3 ) 3 Cl 3 ]
B. B) [Co(en) 3 ]Cl 3
C. C) [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl
D. D) [Co(en)(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl

Question 60

How many water molecules present in CuSO 4 ⋅ 5H 2 O are hydrogen bonded?

A. A) 5
B. B) 1
C. C) 4
D. D) 2

Hard Questions

Question 61

Which one of the following complexes will most likely absorb visible light? (At nos.
Sc = 21, Ti = 22, V = 23, Zn = 30 )
A. A) [Sc(H 2 O) 6 ]
3+

B. B) [Ti(NH 3 ) 6 ]
4+

C. C) [V(NH 3 ) 6 ]
3+

D. D) [Zn(NH 3 ) 6 ]
2+

Question 62

Geometrical shapes of the complexes formed by the reaction of

Ni 2+ with Cl − , CN − and H 2 O , respectively, are
A. A) Octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar
B. B) Tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral
C. C) Square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral
D. D) Octahedral, square planar and octahedral

Question 63

Paragraph: When a metal rod M is dipped into an aqueous colourless concentrated solution of
compound N, the solution turns light blue. Addition of aqueous NaCl to the blue solution gives
a white precipitate O. Addition of aqueous NH 3 dissolves O and gives an intense blue
[Link]: The final solution contains

A. A) [Pb(NH 3 ) 4 ] and [CoCl 4 ]

2+ 2−

B. B) [Al(NH 3 ) 4 ] and [Cu(NH 3 ) 4 ]

3+ 2+

C. C) [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ] + and [Co(NH 3 ) 4 ] 2+

D. D) [Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ] and [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]
+ 2+

Question 64

Paragraph: The coordination number of Ni 2+ is 4 . NiCl 2 + KCN (excess) → A (cyano

complex) NiCl 2 + conc. HCl (excess) → B (chloro complex)Question: The IUPAC name of
A and B are
A. A) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II), potassium tetrachloronickelate (II)
B. B) Tetracyanopotassiumnickelate (II), tetrorachloropotassiumnickelate (II)
C. C) Tetracyanonickel (II), tetrachloronickel (II)
D. D) Potassium tetracyanonickel (II), potassium tetrachloronickel (II)

Question 65

Cyclopentadienyl anion is

A. A) benzenoid and aromatic

B. B) non-benzenoid and aromatic
C. C) non-benzenoid and non-aromatic
D. D) non-benzenoid and anti- aromatic

Question 66

There are four complexes of Ni. Select the complexes/es which will be attracted by magnetic
field:

(I) [Ni(CN) 4 ] (II) [NiCl 4 ] (III) [Ni(CO) 4 ] (IV) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]

2− 2− 2+

A. A) I only
B. B) II only
C. C) II, III and IV
D. D) II and IV

Question 67

A 2+ , B 2+ and C − form an ionic complex like A x−2 [B(C) x ] 2 . If the complex is 75%
dissociated in a solvent with i = 4, the coordination number of B is

A. A) 3
B. B) 4
C. C) 5
D. D) 6

Question 68

Paragraph: The coordination number of Ni 2+ is 4 . NiCl 2 + KCN (excess) → A (cyano

complex) NiCl 2 + conc. HCl (excess) → B (chloro complex)Question: The hybridization of A
and B are
A. A) dsp 2 , sp 3
B. B) sp 3 , sp 3
C. C) dsp 2 , dsp 2
D. D) sp 3 d 2 , d 2 sp 3

Question 69

Identify the number of complexes that are optically active

[Co(en) 3 ] 3+ ; [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] + ;
[CoCl 2 (en) 2 ]; [Co(NH 3 ) 3 (NO 2 ) 3 ]

A. A) 0
B. B) 1
C. C) 2
D. D) 3

Question 70

In a complexometric titration of metal ion with ligand

M (Metal ion) + L(Ligand) → C (Complex) end point is estimated
spectrophotometrically (through light absorption). If 'M' and 'C' do not absorb light and only 'L'
absorbs then the titration plot between absorbed light (A) versus volume of ligand 'L' (V )
would look like:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 71

The correct structure of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 72

Statement 1 The geometrical isomer of the complex [M (NH3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] are optically inactive.
Statement 2 Both geometrical isomers of the complex [M(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] possess axis of
symmetry.

A. A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for

Statement 1.
B. B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
C. C) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
D. D) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true

Question 73

Consider the complexes. (i) [Pd(NH 3 ) 2 ClBr] (ii) [Pd(NH 3 ) 2 Cl 2 ] (iii) [Pd(en)Cl 2 ] (iv)
[Pd(en) ClBr] (v) [Pd(en) 2 ]Cl 2 (en = ethylenediamine) The total number of geometrical
isomers of (A) is same as the total number of geometrical isomers of

A. A) (ii)
B. B) (iii)
C. C) (iv)
D. D) (v)

Question 74

The pair having the same magnetic moment is

[At. No.: Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27]

A. A) [CoCl 4 ] and [FeH 2 O) 6 ]

2− 2+

B. B) [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] and [CoCl 4 ]

2+ 2−

C. C) [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] and [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ]

2+ 2+

D. D) [Mn(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ and [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+

Question 75

Both [Ni(CO) 4 ] and [Ni(CN) 4 ] are diamagnetic. The hybridisations of nickel in these
2−

complexes, respectively, are

A. A) sp 3 , sp 3
B. B) sp 3 , dsp 2
C. C) dsp 2 , sp 3
D. D) dsp 2 , dsp 2

Question 76

Match the following.

A B C D
A. A) (v) (ii) (iv) (iii)
B. B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
C. C) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
D. D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

Question 77

Among the following, the coloured compound is

A. A) CuCl
B. B) K 3 [Cu(CN) 4 ]
C. C) CuF 2
D. D) [Cu (CH 3 CN 4 )]BF 4

Question 78

The ionization isomer of [Cr(H 2 O) 4 Cl (NO 2 )]Cl is

A. A) [Cr(H 2 O) 4 (O 2 N)]Cl 2
B. B) [Cr(H 2 O) 4 Cl 2 ] (NO 2 )
C. C) [Cr(H 2 O) 4 Cl(ONO)]Cl
D. D) [Cr(H 2 O) 4 Cl 2 (NO 2 )] ⋅ H 2 O

Question 79

The coordination complex [Co (OH 2 ) 6 ] has one unpaired electron, which of the following
2+

statements are true?

(i) The complex is octahedral.

(ii) The complex is an outer orbital complex.

(iii) The complex is diamagnetic.

A. A) (i) and (iii) only

B. B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
C. C) (i) and (ii) only
D. D) (ii) and (iii) only

Question 80
Which one of the following does not exhibit geometrical isomerism?

A. A) Octahedral complex with formula [MX 2 L 4 ]

B. B) Square planar complex with formula [MX 2 L 2 ]
C. C) Tetrahedral complex with formula [MABXL]
D. D) Octahedral complex with formula [MX 2 (L − L) 2 ]

Question 81

The complex having the highest spin only magnetic moment is

A. A) [Fe (CN) 6 ]
3−

B. B) [Fe (H 2 O) 6 ]
2+

C. C) [MnF 6 ]
4−

D. D) [NiCl 4 ]
2−

Question 82

The crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) of [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ]Cl 2 and K 2 [NiCl 4 ], respectively,
are:

A. A) −0.4 Δ 0 and −1.2Δ t

B. B) −2.4Δ 0 and −1.2Δ t
C. C) −0.4Δ 0 and −0.8Δ t
D. D) −0.6Δ 0 and −0.8Δ t

Question 83

Among (i) [Cr(en) 3 ] , (ii) trans-[ [Cr(en) 2 Cl 2 ] , (iii) Cis-[Cr(en) 2 Cl 2 ] , (iv)

3+ + +

[Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ] the optically active complexes are

+

A. A) i and ii
B. B) i and iii
C. C) ii and iii
D. D) ii and iv

Question 84

Identify the correct trend given below:

(Atomic No. = Ti : 22, Cr : 24 and Mo : 42)

A. A) Δ of [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] > [Mo(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ and Δ of [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ > [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+

2+
B. B) Δ of [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] > [Mo(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ and Δ of [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ < [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+
2+

C. C) Δ of [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] < [Mo(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ and Δ of [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ > [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+

2+

D. D) Δ of [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] < [Mo(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+ and Δ of [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ < [Ti(H 2 O) 6 ] 2+

2+

Question 85

Paragraph: The coordination number of Ni 2+ is 4 . NiCl 2 + KCN (excess) → A (cyano

complex) NiCl 2 + conc. HCl (excess) → B (chloro complex)Question: Predict the magnetic
nature of A and B are

A. A) both are diamagnetic

B. B) A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic with one unpaired electron
C. C) A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons
D. D) both are paramagnetic

Question 86

Metal 'M' forms a carbonlyl compound in which it is present in its lower valance state. Which of
the following bonding is possible in this metal carbonyl?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 87

The crystal field stabilization energies (CFSE) of high spin and low spin d 6 metal complexes in
terms of Λ 0 , respectively, are-

A. A) −0.4 and −2.4

B. B) −2.4 and −0.4
C. C) −0.4 and 0.0
D. D) - 2.4 and 0.0

Question 88

In which of the following pairs both the complexes show optical isomerism?

A. A) cis- [Cr(C 2 O 4 ) 2 Cl 2 ] , cis- [Co(NH 3 ) 4 Cl 2 ]

3−

B. B) [Co(en) 3 ]Cl 3 , cis [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl

C. C) [PtCl (dien )]Cl, [NiCl 2 Br 2 ]
2−

D. D) [Co(NO 3 ) 3 (NH 3 ) 3 ], cis-[Pt(en ) 2 Cl 2 ]

Question 89

During estimation of nickel, we prepare nickel dimethylglyoxime, a scarlet red solid. This
compound is ____.

A. A) ionic
B. B) covalent
C. C) metallic
D. D) non-ionic complex.

Question 90

Consider the following complex ions, P, Q and R.

The correct order of the complex ions, according to their spin-only magnetic moment values (in
B.M.) is

A. A) R < Q < P
B. B) Q < R < P
C. C) R < P < Q
D. D) Q < P < R

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q31 - C Q61 - C
Q2 - B Q32 - C Q62 - B
Q3 - B Q33 - B Q63 - C
Q4 - C Q34 - B Q64 - A
 Q5 - A Q35 - A Q65 - B
Q6 - B Q36 - B Q66 - D
Q7 - D Q37 - C Q67 - C
Q8 - A Q38 - B Q68 - A
Q9 - B Q39 - A Q69 - C
Q10 - D Q40 - D Q70 - A
Q11 - D Q41 - D Q71 - C
Q12 - C Q42 - B Q72 - A
Q13 - A Q43 - B Q73 - A
Q14 - A Q44 - B Q74 - C
Q15 - D Q45 - D Q75 - B
Q16 - B Q46 - A Q76 - B
Q17 - A Q47 - D Q77 - C
Q18 - B Q48 - D Q78 - B
Q19 - C Q49 - B Q79 - C
Q20 - D Q50 - D Q80 - C
Q21 - C Q51 - C Q81 - C
Q22 - D Q52 - C Q82 - C
Q23 - A Q53 - A Q83 - B
Q24 - B Q54 - C Q84 - C
Q25 - D Q55 - B Q85 - C
Q26 - B Q56 - A Q86 - B
Q27 - A Q57 - A Q87 - A
Q28 - C Q58 - C Q88 - B
Q29 - B Q59 - A Q89 - D
Q30 - D Q60 - B Q90 - B

Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Easy Questions

Question 1
 C 2 H 3 I + NaOC 2 H 3 ⟶ X + Nal
What is Y in the following reaction? X + 2HI ⟶
Δ
2Y + H 2 O

A. A) C 2 H 6
B. B) C 2 H 5 I
C. C) C 2 H 4
D. D) C 2 H 5 OC 2 H 5

Question 2

Reaction of methyl bromide with aqueous sodium hydroxide involves

A. A) racemisation
B. B) S N 1 mechanism
C. C) retention of configuration
D. D) S N 2 mechanism

Question 3

In a S N 2 substitution reaction of the type R − Br + Cl − ⟶ R − Cl + Br − which one of the

DMF

following has the highest relative rate?

A. A) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 Br
B. B)

C. C)

D. D) CH 3 CH 2 Br

Question 4

Which of the following statements about benzyl chloride is incorrect?

A. A) It is a lachrymatory liquid and answers Beilstein's test.

B. B) It gives a white precipitate with alcoholic silver nitrate.
C. C) It is less reactive than alkyl halides.
D. D) It can be oxidised to benzaldehyde by boiling with copper nitrate solution.
Question 5

' R ′ is

A. A) sulphanilamide
B. B) p-bromo sulphanilamide
C. C) o-bromo sulphanilic acid
D. D) sulphanilic acid

Question 6

The reaction of C 6 H 5 CH = CHCH 3 with HBr produces

A. A)

B. B)

C. C) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 Br
D. D)

Question 7

A gas formed by the action of alcoholic KOH on ethyl iodide, decolourises alkaline KMnO 4 .
The gas is

A. A) C 2 H 6
B. B) CH 4
C. C) C 2 H 2
D. D) C 2 H 4

Question 8

The reaction: (CH 3 ) 3 C − Br ⟶ (CH 3 ) 3 − C − OH

H2 O

A. A) elimination reaction
B. B) substitution reaction
C. C) free radical reaction
D. D) displacement reaction

Question 9

The raw material for Raschig process is

A. A) chlorobenzene
B. B) phenol
C. C) benzene
D. D) anisole

Question 10

2-methylpropane on monochlorination under photochemical condition give

A. A) 2 -chloro-2-methyipropane as major product

B. B) (1 : 1) mixture of 1 -chioro- 2 -methylpropane and 2 -chloro-2-methylpropane
C. C) 1-chioro-2-methylpropane as a major product
D. D) (1 : 9) mixture of 1 -chioro- 2 -methylpropane and 2-chloro-2-methylpropane

Question 11

The reaction of 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclobutane with metallic sodium in dioxane under reflux

conditions gives

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 12

In Dow's process, the starting raw material is

A. A) phenol
B. B) chlorobenzene
C. C) aniline
D. D) diazobenzene

Question 13

When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces

A. A) 2-iodopropane
B. B) allyl iodide
C. C) propene
D. D) glycerol triodide

Question 14

Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing SN 2 reactivity?

A. A) RCH 2 X > R 3 CX > R 2 CHX

B. B) RCH 2 X > R 2 CHX > R 3 CX
C. C) R 3 CX > R 2 CHX > RCH 2 X
D. D) R 2 CHX > R 3 CX > RCH 2 X (X = a halogen )

Question 15

Identify A and B in the following reaction

A. A) A = aq. KOH; B = AgOH

B. B) A = al. KOH/Δ; B = aq. NaOH
C. C) A = aq. NaOH; B = AgNO 2
D. D) A = AgNO 2 ; B = KNO 2

Question 16
The reaction, CH 3 CH 2 I + KOH(aq) ⟶ CH 3 CH 2 OH + KI is classified as

A. A) electrophilic substitution
B. B) nucleophilic substitution
C. C) electrophilic addition
D. D) nucleophilic addition

Question 17

Alkyl halides undergoing S N 2 reaction do inverse

A. A) racemic mixture
B. B) retention of configuration
C. C) formation of carbocation
D. D) inversion of configuration

Question 18

Identify A, B and C .

A. A)

B. B)
 C. C)

D. D)

Question 19

What is the minimum quantity (in grams) of methyl iodide required for preparing one mole of
ethane by Wurtz reaction? (Atomic weight of iodine = 127 )

A. A) 142
B. B) 568
C. C) 326
D. D) 284

Question 20

Reaction−(X) Reaction−(Y)
−
−
Chlorobenzene → Phenol → Salicylaldehyde.
The reactions(s) ′X′ and′Y′ respectively are

A. A) Fries rearrangement and Kolbe

B. B) Cumene and Reimer-Tiemann
C. C) Dow and Reimer-Tiemann
D. D) Dow and Sandmeyer.

Question 21

Williamson's synthesis involves

A. A) S N 1 mechanism
B. B) nucleophilic addition
C. C) S N 2 mechanism
D. D) S E mechanism
Question 22

Butene- 1 may be converted to butane by reaction with

A. A) Sn − HCI
B. B) Zn − Hg
C. C) Pd/H 2
D. D) Zn − HCI

Question 23

Which of the following is added to chloroform to slow down its aerial oxidation in presence of
light ?

A. A) Carbonyl chloride
B. B) Ethyl alcohol
C. C) Sodium hydroxide
D. D) Nitric acid

Question 24

The product of the reaction is

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 25

Which of the following is involved in Sandmeyer's reaction?

A. A) Ferrous salt
B. B) Diazonium salt
C. C) Ammonium salt
D. D) Cupromonium salt

Question 26

The correct increasing order of the reactivity of halides for S N 1 reaction is

A. A)
 CH 3 − CH 2 − X < (CH 3 ) 2 CH − X <
CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − X < PhCH 2 − X

B. B)

(CH 3 ) 2 CH − X < CH 3 − CH 2 − X <

CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − X < PhCH 2 − X

C. C)

PhCH 2 − X < (CH 3 ) 2 CH − X < CH 3 − CH 2 − X <

CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − X

D. D)

CH 2 = CH − CH 2 − X < Ph − CH 2 − X <
(CH 3 ) 2 CH − X < CH 3 − CH 2 − X

Question 27

Assertion : Chloral reacts with phenyl chloride to form DDT. Reason : It is an electrophilic
substitution reaction.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 28

3-Phenylpropene on reaction with HBr gives (as a major product)

A. A) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH(Br)CH 3
B. B) C 6 H 5 CH(Br)CH 2 CH 3
C. C) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Br
D. D) C 6 H 5 CH(Br)CH = CH 2 .

Question 29
 EtOH/H 2 O
Consider the following reaction, C 2 H 5 Cl + AgCN ⟶ X (major) Which one of the
–
following statements is true for X? (I) It gives propionic acid on hydrolysis (II) It has an ester
–
functional group (III) It has a nitrogen linked to ethyl carbon (IV) It has a cyanide group

A. A) IV
B. B) III
C. C) II
D. D) I

Question 30

Tertiary alkyl halide is practically to substitution by S N 2 mechanism because of

A. A) Insolubility
B. B) Instability
C. C) Inductive efffect
D. D) Steric hindrance

Moderate Questions

Question 31

The major product obtained on the monobromination (with Br 2 /FeBr 3 ) of the following
compound A is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 32

The final product (IV) in the sequence of reactions

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 33

Which of the following is correct?

A. A) Vinyl chloride is more reactive than ethyl chloride in S N 2

B. B) Vinyl chloride is more reactive than ethyl chloride in S N 1
C. C) allyl chloride is less reactive than n-propyl chloride in S N 1
D. D) allyl chloride is more reactive than n-propyl chloride in S N 2

Question 34

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

A. A) Only I
B. B) ∣ and II
C. C) II and III
D. D) II and IV

Question 35

Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 36

Identify X in the following sequence of reactions.

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 37

Which one of the following forms propane nitrile as the major product?
A. A) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic KCN
B. B) Propyl bromide + alcoholic KCN
C. C) Propyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN
D. D) Ethyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN

Question 38

Which of the following compounds gives trichloromethane on distilling with bleaching powder?

A. A) Ethanol
B. B) Methanol
C. C) Methanal
D. D) Phenol

Question 39

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 40

A dibromo derivative of an alkane reacts with sodium metal to form an alicyclic hydrocarbon.
The derivative is

A. A) 1, 1-dibromopropane
B. B) 2, 2-dibromobutane
C. C) 1, 2-dibromoethane
D. D) 1 , 4-dibromobutane

Question 41

Which information below regarding this reaction is applicable?

A. A) It follows S N 2 pathway, because it is a primary alkyl chloride.

B. B) It follows S N 1 pathway, because the intermediate carbocation is resonance stabilized.
C. C) S N 1 pathway is not followed, because the intermediate carbocation is destabilised by −1
effect of oxygen
D. D) A mixed S N 1 and S N 2 pathway is followed.

Question 42

An organic compound A (C 4 H 9 Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon

which on monochlorination gives only one chloro derivative, then A is

A. A) tert-butyl chloride
B. B) sec-butyl chloride
C. C) isobutyl chloride
D. D) n -butyl chloride

Question 43

HBr reacts with CH 2 = CH − OCH 3 under anhydrous conditions at room temperature to

give

A. A) CH 3 CHO and CH 3 Br
B. B) BrCH 2 CHO and CH 3 OH
C. C) BrCH 2 − CH 2 − OCH 3
D. D) H 3 C − CHBr − OCH 3

Question 44

Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

A. A) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 Cl
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Cl
C. C) CH 3 CH (CH 3 )CH 2 Cl
D. D) (CH 3 ) 3 CCl

Question 45

Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The reaction is
called

A. A) Wurtz's reaction
B. B) Williamson's reaction
C. C) Fittig's reaction
D. D) Etard's reaction

Question 46

Ethylidene dichloride is obtained by the reaction of excess of HCl with

A. A) ethylene
B. B) acetylene
C. C) propene
D. D) methane

Question 47
The major product ' Y ′ in the following reaction is :

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 48

An organic compound which produces a bluish green coloured flame on heating in presence of
copper is

A. A) chlorobenzene
B. B) benzaldehyde
C. C) aniline
D. D) benzoic acid
 Question 49

Identify compound (C) in the following reaction

3 Cl 2 /Δ Br 2 / Fe Zn / HCl
−
−
−
C7 H8 → (A) → (B) → (C)
A. A) o-bromotoluene
B. B) m-bromotoluene
C. C) p-bromotoluene
D. D) 3-bromo, 2, 4, 6 trichlorotoluene

Question 50

Match List I (Reaction) with List II (Reagent) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:

A. A) I − A, II − B, III − C, IV − B
B. B) I − D, II − C, III − A, IV − B
C. C) I − C, II − D, III − A, IV − B
D. D) I − B, II − A, III − D, IV − C

Question 51

The reaction of aniline with chloroform under alkaline conditions leads to the formation of

A. A) phenylcyanide
B. B) phenylisonitrile
C. C) phenylcyanate
D. D) phenylisocyanate

Question 52

Identify ′ C ∘ in the following

A. A) ethanol
B. B) propanone
C. C) cumene hydroperoxide
D. D) water

Question 53

KMnO 4 /H +
B ⟶ C ⟶ D, 'D' is
aq⋅KOH NH 3 Br 2
CH 3 CH 2 Br ⟶ A ⟶
Δ Δ Δ alkali

A. A) CH 3 Br
B. B) CH 3 CONH 2
C. C) CH 3 NH 2
D. D) CHBr 3

Question 54

The correct option for the above reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 55

Which of the following order is not correct?

A. A) MeBr > Me 2 CHBr > Me 3 CBr > Et 3 CBr (S N 2)
B. B) Me 3 CBr > Me 2 CHBr > Me 2 CH. CH 2 Br > MeCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Br. (E 2 )
C. C) PhCH 2 Br > PhCHBrMe > PhCBrMe 2 > PhCBrMePh (S N 1)
D. D) MeI > MeBr > MeCl > MeF (S N 2)

Question 56

Product [B] is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 57

2-Phenylethylbromide when heated with NaOEt, elimination takes place. No deuterium

exchange takes place when the reaction is carried out in C 2 H 5 OD solvent. The mechanism
will be

A. A) E1 elimination
B. B) E2 elimination
C. C) E1cB elimination
D. D) E2 or E1cB.

Question 58

The final product (U) is :

aq. NaCN Catalytic hydrogenation
PhCH 2 Cl ⟶ ? ⟶
A. A) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2
B. B) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CONH 2
C. C) C 6 H 5 CH 2 NH 2
D. D) C 6 H 5 CH 2 NHCH 3

Question 59

The reaction sequence given below gives product R The structure of the product R is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 60

excess

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Hard Questions

Question 61

Match the following.

The correct answer is

A. A) (a)
B. B) (b)
C. C) (c)
D. D) (d)

Question 62

Find the correct order of acid strengths of the following compounds

A. A) F > D > E > B > C > A

B. B) D > F > E > C > B > A
C. C) D > E > F > B > C > A
D. D) F > E > D > B > C > A

Question 63

Paragraph: An organic acid P (C 11 H 12 O 2 ) can easily be oxidized to a dibasic acid which

reacts with ethyleneglycol to produce a polymer dacron. Upon ozonolysis, P gives an aliphatic
ketone as one of the products. P undergoes the following reaction sequences to furnish R via
Q. The compound P also undergoes another set of reactions to produce S.

Question : The compound S is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
 Question 64

If all the nucleophilic substitution reactions at saturated carbon atoms in the above sequence of
reactions follow S N 2 mechanism, then E and E will be respectively,
–
–

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 65

The major product of the following reaction is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 66

Which of the following is obtained product

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D) None of these

Question 67

What is the product when acetylene reacts with hypochlorous acid ?

A. A) CH 3 COCl
B. B) ClCH 2 CHO
C. C) Cl 2 CHCHO
D. D) ClCHCOOH

Question 68

LIST-I contains reactions and LIST-II contains major products

LIST-I LIST -II

A) P)
B) Q)
C) R)
D) S)
T)

Match each reaction in LIST-I with one or more products in LIST-II and choose the correct
option

A. A) a-s,t;b-s;c-q,r;d-q,r,s;
B. B) a-r,s,t;b-r;c-s,t;d-s,t;
C. C) a-p,s;b-q;c-s;d-r;
D. D) a-q;b-s,t;c-r;d-t;

Question 69

Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 70

The major product formed in the following reactions is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 71

Match the following.

The correct match is A B C
A. A) II I IV
B. B) III IV IV
C. C) III I I
D. D) II IV I

Question 72

Assertion : The presence of nitro group facilitates nucleophilic substitution reactions in aryl
halides. Reason : The intermediate carbanion is stabilised due to the presence of nitro group.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true, but reason is false
D. D) Both assertion and reason are false statements.

Question 73

Identify correct reactivity order for S N 1 reaction

A. A)
(i) > (ii) > (iii)
B. B)
(ii) > (iii) > (i)
C. C)
(i) > (iii) > (ii)
D. D)
(ii) > (i) > (iii)

Question 74

Which of the following statements is correct for optically active alkyl halides, upon reaction with
nucleophiles?

A. A) (a)
B. B) (b)
C. C) (c)
D. D) (d)

Question 75

major products formed in the reaction of t-butyl methyl ether with HI are :

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 76
The possible final products (R) and (S) of the following reaction sequence are

A. A)
R S

B. B)
R S

C. C)
R S

D. D)
R S
Question 77

The major product Q of the following schemes is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 78
 The major product (P) formed in the following reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 79

Identity Z in the following reaction

PBr 3 alc. KOH (i) H 2 SO 4 , RT
−
−
−
CH 3 CH 2 OH → X →Y →Z
(ii)H 2 O, heat

A. A) CH 2 = CH 2
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 OH
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 − O − CH 2 CH 3
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 − SO 3 H

Question 80

The major product in the following reactions is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 81

Maximum number of bromine atoms present in the final product P upon complete bromination
are

A. A) 4
B. B) 6
C. C) 10
D. D) 8

Question 82

How many of the statement(s) are correct

i) The nucleophile makes a rear attack in S N 2 reaction and expels the leaving group from front
side.
ii) CH 3 O − CH = CH 2 adds to HBr according to Anti‐Markownikoff’s rule.
iii) The basicity of halides decreases in the order F − > C1 − > Br − > I − , but the
nucleophillicity is reverse of it. (in polar protic solvents)
iv) The rate of S N 2 reaction is independent of the polarity of the solvent.
v) Sigma complex or arenium ion is resonance stablised.

Question 83

The major product in the following reaction is

A. A)
 B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 84

Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides?

Anhyd. ZnCl 2
I. CH 3 CH 2 OH + HCl
− →

II. CH 3 CH 2 OH + HCl ⟶

III. (CH 3 ) 3 COH + HCl ⟶

Anhyd. ZnCl 2
IV. (CH 3 ) 2 CHOH + HCl
− →
A. A) I III and IV only
B. B) I and II only
C. C) IV only
D. D) III and IV only

Question 85

Consider the following reaction

Which of these reactions are possible?

A. A) (b) , (c) and (d)

B. B) (b) and (d)
C. C) (a) and (d)
D. D) (a) and (b)

Question 86

Which of the following statement is correct for the reactivity in S N 2 reaction?

A. A) is more reactive than

B. B) is more reactive than

C. C) is more reactive than

D. D) is more reactive than

Question 87

Match the following

A. A) (A) Q, (B) P, (C) R,S, (D) Q,S

B. B) (A) S, (B) R, (C) R, (D) P,S
C. C) (A) R, (B) Q, (C) S, (D) Q,S
D. D) (A) Q, (B) Q, (C) R,S, (D) P,S

Question 88

Paragraph: The reaction of compound P with CH 3 MgBr (excess) in (C 2 H 5 ) 2 O followed by

addition of H 2 O gives Q. The compound Q on treatment with H 2 SO 4 at 0 ∘ C gives R. The
reaction of R with CH 3 COCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 in CH 2 Cl 2 followed by
treatment with H 2 O produces compound S. [Et in compound P is ethyl group]

Question: The product S is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 89

The compound C 7 H 8 undergoes the following reactions:

The product ′C′ is

A. A) 3-bromo-2, 4, 6-trichlorotoluene
B. B) o-bromotoluene
C. C) m-bromotoluene
D. D) p-bromotoluene

Question 90

In the reaction (X) and (Y) are respectively.

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - B Q31 - B Q61 - A
Q2 - D Q32 - C Q62 - A
Q3 - D Q33 - D Q63 - B
Q4 - C Q34 - D Q64 - D
Q5 - D Q35 - A Q65 - A
Q6 - A Q36 - B Q66 - B
Q7 - D Q37 - A Q67 - C
Q8 - B Q38 - A Q68 - C
Q9 - C Q39 - A Q69 - A
Q10 - C Q40 - D Q70 - A
Q11 - D Q41 - D Q71 - B
Q12 - B Q42 - A Q72 - A
Q13 - A Q43 - D Q73 - D
Q14 - B Q44 - B Q74 - B
Q15 - A Q45 - B Q75 - C
Q16 - B Q46 - B Q76 - C
Q17 - D Q47 - C Q77 - C
Q18 - A Q48 - A Q78 - C
Q19 - D Q49 - B Q79 - B
Q20 - C Q50 - C Q80 - C
Q21 - C Q51 - B Q81 - D
Q22 - C Q52 - B Q82 - 3 (Num)
Q23 - B Q53 - C Q83 - B
Q24 - C Q54 - A Q84 - A
Q25 - B Q55 - C Q85 - B
Q26 - A Q56 - C Q86 - B
Q27 - C Q57 - B Q87 - D
Q28 - B Q58 - A Q88 - D
Q29 - B Q59 - D Q89 - C
 Q30 - D Q60 - D Q90 - B

Alcohols Phenols and Ethers

Easy Questions

Question 1

A. A) Liebermann's reaction
B. B) Phthalein fusion test
C. C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
D. D) Schotten-Baumann reaction

Question 2

The reaction

is called:

A. A) Williamson continuous etherification process

B. B) Etard reaction
C. C) Gatterman - Koch reaction
D. D) Williamson Synthesis

Question 3

Cannizaro's reaction is not given by :

A. A)
B. B)

C. C) CH 3 CHO
D. D) HCHO

Question 4

Methoxybenzene on treatment with HI produces

A. A) iodobenzene and methanol

B. B) phenol and methyl iodide
C. C) iodobenzene and methyl iodide
D. D) phenol and methanol

Question 5

Which one of the following products obtained when diethyl ether is boiled with water in
presence of dilute acid?

A. A) Glycol
B. B) Ethyl alcohol
C. C) Ethylene oxide
D. D) Peroxide

Question 6

Among the following compound which can be dehydrated very easily is

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 7

What is the structure of the major product when phenol is treated with bromine water?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 8

The major product formed in the following reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 9

The unstable intermediate dichlorocarbene [: CCl 2 ] is formed during

A. A) Kolbe's reaction
B. B) Friedel-Crafts reaction
C. C) Williamson synthesis
D. D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction

Question 10

H 2 COH. CH 2 OH on heating with periodic acid gives :

A. A)

B. B) CO 2
C. C) HCOOH
D. D)

Question 11

The alcohol obtained during the hydrolysis of ground nut oil is

A. A) glycol
B. B) butan-1-ol
C. C) pentan-2-ol
D. D) propane 1, 2, 3-triol

Question 12

C 2 H 5 MgI H 2 O/H +
For the sequence of reactions A ⟶ B ⟶ ter-pentyl alcohol. The compound A in the
sequence is

A. A) 2-butanone
B. B) acetaldehyde
C. C) acetone
D. D) propanal

Question 13

Identify Z in the reaction.

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 14

Which of the following compounds will not be soluble in sodium bicarbonate?

A. A) 2, 4, 6 - Trinitrophenol
B. B) Benzene sulphonic acid
C. C) o - Nitrophenol
D. D) Benzoic acid
Question 15

Which of the following statements is not true about alcohols?

A. A) Lower alochols have fiery taste and strong smell.

B. B) As molecular mass increases the boiling point increases.
C. C) Lower alcohols are water insoluble and their. solubility increases with molecular weight.
D. D) Lower alcohols are water soluble and their solubility decreases with molecular weight.

Question 16

Denatured alcohol is

A. A) ethanol + methanol
B. B) rectified spirit + methanol + naphtha
C. C) undistilled ethanol
D. D) rectified spirit

Question 17

Absolute alcohol (100\% alcohol) is prepared by distilling rectified spirit over

A. A) Na
B. B) CaCl 2
C. C) Mg
D. D) Mg(OC 2 H 5 ) 2

Question 18

The compound which gives turbidity immediately with Lucas reagent at room temperature is

A. A) butan-1-ol
B. B) butan-2-ol
C. C) 2-methyl propan-2-ol
D. D) 2-methyl propan-1-ol

Question 19

Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

?
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 20

The intermediate formed in aldol condensation is

A. A) aldol
B. B) carbanion
C. C) alcohol
D. D) α-hydrogen ester.

Question 21
Hydroboration oxidation of 4 -methyl-octene would give

A. A) 4-methyl octanol
B. B) 2-methyl decane
C. C) 4 -methyl heptanol
D. D) 4-methyl-2-octanone

Question 22

What are A, B, C in the following reactions? (i) (CH 3 CO 2 ) 2 Ca ⟶ A (ii)

Δ

P B (iii) 2CH 3 CO 2 H ⟶ C
HI P 4 O 10
CH 3 CO 2 H Red
A. A) A − C 2 H 6 B − CH 3 COCH 3 C - (CH 3 CO) 2 O
B. B) A − (CH 3 CO) 2 O B − C 2 H 6 C - CH 3 COCH 3
C. C) A − CH 3 COCH 3 B − C 2 H 6 C - (CH 3 CO) 2 O
D. D) A − CH 3 COCH 3 B − (CH 3 CO) 2 O C - C 2 H 6

Question 23

Cumene process is the most important commercial method for the manufacture of phenol.
Cumene is

A. A) iso-propyl benzene
B. B) ethyl benzene
C. C) vinyl benzene
D. D) propyl benzene.

Question 24

CH ≡ CH HCl
Excess A Hydrolysis
Δ
Reduction
B Na−Hg/H 2O
C Compound C is
A. A) ethanal
B. B) propenal
C. C) ethanol
D. D) 2-methyl butan-1-ol

Question 25

During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc. H 2 SO 4 the initiation step is

A. A) formation of carbocation
B. B) elimination of water
C. C) formation of an ester
D. D) protonation of alcohol molecule

Question 26

Which does not react with Fehling's solution?

A. A) CH 3 CHO
B. B) C 6 H 5 CHO
C. C) C 6 H 12 O 6
D. D) HCOOH

Question 27

The reaction
is called

A. A) Claisen-Schmidt reaction
B. B) Kolbe-Schmidt reaction
C. C) Schmidt reaction
D. D) Kolbe's reaction.

Question 28

Ethanol, when reacted with PCl 5 gave A, POCl 3 and HCl. A reacts with silver nitrite to form
B (major product) and AgCl. A and B are respectively
A. A) C 2 H 5 Cl and C 2 H 5 OC 2 H 5
B. B) C 2 H 6 and C 2 H 5 OC 2 H 5
C. C) C 2 H 5 Cl and C 2 H 5 NO 2
D. D) C 2 H 6 and C 2 H 5 NO 2

Question 29

Which of the following is strongly acidic?

A. A) Phenol
B. B) o-cresol
C. C) p-nitrophenol
D. D) p-cresol

Question 30
Reaction of ROH with R ′ MgX produces :

A. A) RH
B. B) R ′ H
C. C) R − R
D. D) R ′ − R ′

Moderate Questions

Question 31

Waxes are esters of

A. A) glycerol
B. B) long chain alcohols
C. C) glycerol and fatty acid
D. D) long chain alcohols and long chain fatty acids

Question 32

Zn−Hg/HC
[P ] ⟶ C 2 H 4 Br 2 ? [Q] [Q] Hg2+2⋅Δ 4 [R] [S] The species P , Q, R and S
Br 2 NaNH 2 20%H SO
NH 3 ⟶
respectively are

A. A) ethene, ethyne, ethanal, ethane

B. B) ethane, ethyne, ethanal, ethene
C. C) ethene, ethyne, ethanal, ethanol
D. D) ethyne, ethane, ethene, ethanal

Question 33

Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acidic strength :
i. m-nitrophenol
ii. m-cresol
iii. phenol
iv. m-chlorophenol

A. A) iii < ii < i < iv

B. B) ii < iv < iii < i
C. C) ii < iii < iv < i
D. D) ii < iii < i < iv

Question 34
Treatment of with NaNH 2 /liq. NH 3 gives

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 35

In the following sequence of reactions,

the compound ' D ' is

A. A) butanal
B. B) n−butyl alcohol
C. C) n−propyl alcohol
D. D) propanal

Question 36

Which one of the following methods is used to prepare Me 3 COEt with a good yield?

A. A) Mixing EtONa with MegCCl

B. B) Mixing Me 3 CONa with EtCl
C. C) Heating a mixture of (1; 1) EtOH and Me 3 COH in the presence of conc. H 2 SO 4
D. D) Treatment of Me_COH with EtMgI

Question 37

The final product of the following reaction is/are

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 38

CH 3 OC 2 H 5 and (CH 3 ) 3 C − OCH 3 are treated with hydroiodic acid. The fragments after
reactions obtained are

A. A) CH 3 I + HOC 2 H 5 ; (CH 3 ) 3 C − I + HOCH 3

B. B) CH 3 OH + C 2 H 5 I; (CH 3 ) 3 Cl + HOCH 3
C. C) CH 3 OH + C 2 H 5 ; (CH 3 ) 3 C − OH + CH 3 I
D. D) CH 3 I + HOC 2 H 5 ; CH 3 I + (CH 3 ) 3 C − OH.

Question 39

H3 O+
CH 3 COOH ⟶ A A + CH 3 COOH ⟶ B + H 2 O In the above reactions ' A ' and ' B '
LiAlH 4

respectively are

A. A) CH 3 COOC 2 H 5 , C 2 H 5 OH
B. B) CH 3 CHO, C 2 H 5 OH
C. C) C 2 H 5 OH, CH 3 CHO
D. D) C 2 H 5 OH, CH 3 COOC 2 H 5

Question 40

What is the product "C" after following reactions -

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 41

The major product obtained on interaction of phenol with sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide
is :

A. A) benzoic acid
B. B) salicylaldehyde
C. C) salicylic acid
D. D) phthalic acid

Question 42

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. A) Alcohols are weaker acids than water

B. B) Acid strength of alcohols decreases in the following
RCH 2 OH > R 2 CHOH > R 3 COH
C. C) Carbon-oxygen bond length in methanol, CH 3 OH is shorter than that of C − O bond
length in phenol.
D. D)

Question 43

' a ' and ' b ' in the following reactions are:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 44

Z in the above reaction sequence is:

A. A) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NHCOCH 3
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CONHCH 3
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CONHCOCH 3

Question 45

In the reaction, C 2 H 5 OC 2 H 5 + CO X What is X ?

BF 3
∘
⟶
150 C,500 atm pressure

A. A) Diethyl carbonate
B. B) Ethyl carbonate
C. C) Diethyl peroxide
D. D) Ethyl propionate

Question 46

Isopropyl benzene on air oxidation in the presence of dilute acid gives

A. A) C 6 H 5 COOH
B. B) C 6 H 5 COCH 3
C. C) C 6 H 5 CHO
D. D) C 6 H 5 OH.

Question 47

\text { The product } P \text { is }

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D) none of these.

Question 48

An ester (A) with molecular formula C 9 H 10 O 2 was treated with excess of CH 3 MgBr and the
complex so formed was treated with H 2 SO 4 to give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a
ketone with molecular formula C 8 H 8 O which shows positive iodoform test. The structure of
(A) is
A. A) C 6 H 5 COOC 2 H 5
B. B) C 6 H 5 COOC 6 H 5
C. C) C 6 H 5 COOCH 3
D. D)

Question 49

Which one of the following compounds will be most readily dehydrated?

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 50

Assertion : Aryl sulphonic acid gives phenol on reacting with NaOH at high temperature.
Reason : This reaction is electrophilic substitution reaction.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 51

Which one of the following is correct?

A. A) RCH 2 OH ⟶ No reaction
KMnO 4

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 52

In the reaction C 2 H 5 OH ⟶ X. The molecular formula of X is

Cu
∘
(Vapour) 300 C

A. A) C 4 H 6 O
B. B) C 4 H 10 O
C. C) C 2 H 4 O
D. D) C 2 H 6

Question 53

Iodoform test is not given by

A. A) 2 -pentanone
B. B) ethanol
C. C) ethanal
D. D) 3-pentanone

Question 54

An unknown alcohol is treated with the "Lucas reagent" to determine whether the alcohol is
primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts fastest and by what mechanism:

A. A) Secondary alcohol by SN2

B. B) Tertiary alcohol by SN2

C. C) Secondary alcohol by SN1

D. D) Tertiary alcohol by SN1

Question 55

P and Q are isomers. Identify Q

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 56

Replacement of Cl of Chlorobenzene to give phenol requires drastic conditions, but Cl of 2, 4 -

dinitro chlorobenzene is readily replaced. This is because,

A. A) −NO 2 group makes the ring electron rich at o- and p- positions.

B. B) −NO 2 group withdraws electrons from m-position.
C. C) −NO 2 donate electrons at m - position.
D. D) −NO 2 withdraws electrons from o- and p-positions.

Question 57

What will be the correct structural formula of product for the following reaction?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 58

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 59

The product 'B' is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 60

p-cresol reacts with chloroform in alkaline medium to give the compound A which adds
hydrogen cyanide to form, the compound B. The latter on acidic hydrolysis gives chiral
carboxylic acid. The structure of the carboxylic acid is
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Hard Questions

Question 61

Calcium butanoate on heating followed by tratment with 1,2 -ethanediol in the presence of
catalytic amount of acid, produces a major product which is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 62

Which of the following statements are correct with respect to benzene? (i) It forms triozonide
with O 3 . (ii) It is non-planar. (iii) It forms only one monosubstituted product with CH 3 COCl in
the presence of anhyd. AlCl 3 . (iv) If forms hexachlorobenzene on heating with Cl 2 under
photochemical condition.

A. A) (i), (ii)
B. B) (ii), (iii)
C. C) (i), (iii)
D. D) (iii), (iv)

Question 63

In the following reaction sequence, the correct structures of E, F and G are

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 64

The major product of the following reaction is:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 65

An organic compound ‘X’ showing the following solubility profile is:

A. A) m-Cresol
B. B) o-Toluidine
C. C) Oleic acid
D. D) Benzamide

Question 66

The major product of the following reaction is

A. A) a hemiacetal
B. B) an acetal
C. C) an ether
D. D) an ester

Question 67

Optically active
was found to have lost its optical activity after standing in water containing a few drops of acids,
mainly due to the formation of

A. A) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH = CH 2
B. B) CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3
C. C)

D. D) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − OH

Question 68
Paragraph: Reimer-Tiemann reaction introduces an aldehyde group, on to the aromatic ring of
phenol, ortho to the hydroxyl group. This reaction involves electrophilic aromatic substitution.
This is a general method for the synthesis of substituted salicylaldehydes as depicted below.
Question: Which one of the following reagents is used the above reaction?

A. A) aq. NaOH + CH 3 Cl
B. B) aq. NaOH + CH 2 Cl 2
C. C) aq. NaOH + CHCl 3
D. D) aq. NaOH + CCl 4

Question 69

In the following reaction, the major products are

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 70

In which of the following compounds deoxygenation is possible when heated with Zn

A. A) A, B and C
B. B) A, C and D
C. C) B and D
D. D) B and C

Question 71

Phenol on treatment with CO 2 in the presence of NaOH followed by acidification produces

compound X as the major product. X on treatment with (CH 3 CO) 2 O in the presence of
catalytic amount of H 2 SO 4 produces:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 72

When benzene sulphonic acid and p-nitrophenol are treated with NaHCO 3 , the gases
released respectively are

A. A) SO 2 , NO 2
B. B) SO 2 , NO
C. C) SO 2 , CO 2
D. D) CO 2 , CO 2

Question 73

H+
X + Y ⟶ Aspirin +H 3 CCOOH Identify X and Y from the following
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 74

Paragraph: A tertiary alcohol H upon acid catalysed dehydration gives a product I . Ozonolysis
of I leads to compounds J and K. Compound J upon reaction with KOH gives benzyl alcohol
and a compound L, where K on reaction with KOH gives only M .
Question: The structures of compounds J, K and L, respectively, are

A. A) PhCOCH 3 , PhCH 2 COCH 3 and PhCH 2 COO − K +

B. B) PhCHO, PhCH 2 CHO and PhCH 2 COO − K +
C. C) PhCOCH 3 , PhCH 2 CHO and CH 3 COO − K +
D. D) PhCHO, PhCOCH 3 and PhCOO − K +

Question 75

The major product of the following reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 76

The major product in the following reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 77

BF 3 /150 ∘ C
Identify the product (A) of the following reaction, C 2 H 5 − O − C 2 H 5 + CO ⟶ A
500 atm

A. A) ethyl alcohol
B. B) ethyl propionate
C. C) ethanoic acid
D. D) ethyl acetate

Question 78

Paragraph: Two aliphatic aldehydes P and Q react in the presence of aqueous K 2 CO 3 to give
compound R, which upon treatment with HCN provides compound S. On acidification and
heating, S gives the product shown below :
Question: The compounds P and Q respectively are

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 79

Match the chemical conversions in List I with the appropriate reagents in List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List - I List - II
(A) (P) (i) Hg (OAc) 2 ; (ii) NaBH 4
(B) ​ (Q) NaOEt
(C) (R) Et − Br
(D) (S) (i) BH 3 ; (ii) H 2 O 2 / NaOH

A. A) a-p;b-r;c-q;d-s;
B. B) a-q;b-r;c-s;d-p;
C. C) a-q;b-r;c-p;d-s;
D. D) a-q;b-p;c-r;d-s;

Question 80

An organic compound neither reacts with neutral ferric chloride solution nor with Fehling
solution. It however, reacts with Grignard reagent and given positive iodoform test. The
compound is:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 81

The following compound

can readily be prepared by Williamson ether synthesis by reaction between

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D) .

Question 82

Paragraph: Reimer-Tiemann reaction introduces an aldehyde group, on to the aromatic ring of

phenol, ortho to the hydroxyl group. This reaction involves electrophilic aromatic substitution.
This is a general method for the synthesis of substituted salicylaldehydes as depicted below.
Question: The structure of the intermediate I is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 83

Bouveault-Blanc reduction reaction involves:

A. A) Reduction of an acyl halide with H 2 /Pd.

B. B) Reduction of an anhydride with LiAlH 4
C. C) Reduction of an ester with Na/C 2 H 5 OH .
D. D) Reduction of a carbonyl compound with Na / Hg and HCl.

Question 84

CH 3 CH 2 OH ⟶ CH 3 CHO ⟶ Cl 3 CCHO In above reactions the role of Cl 2 in step- 1

Cl 2 3Cl 2
step-1 step-2
and step-2 respectively is :

A. A) oxidation, chlorination
B. B) reduction, chlorination
C. C) oxidation, addition
D. D) reduction, substitution

Question 85

The major product (Z) of the following chemical reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 86

From the following reactions, identify the reactions that give carboxylic acids as products.

A. A) (i), (iii)
B. B) (i), (iv)
C. C) (ii), (iii)
D. D) (ii), (iv)

Question 87

In the reaction sequence,

the major products X and Y, respectively, are-
A. A) i
B. B) ii
C. C) iii
D. D) iv

Question 88

A. A)

B. B)

C. C) CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3
D. D)

Question 89

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 90

The major product expected from the following reaction is:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Correct Answers for this Chapter

 Q1 - A Q31 - D Q61 - A
Q2 - D Q32 - A Q62 - C
Q3 - C Q33 - C Q63 - C
Q4 - B Q34 - D Q64 - A
Q5 - B Q35 - C Q65 - A
Q6 - C Q36 - B Q66 - B
Q7 - A Q37 - B Q67 - B
Q8 - D Q38 - A Q68 - C
Q9 - D Q39 - D Q69 - B
Q10 - A Q40 - A Q70 - C
Q11 - D Q41 - C Q71 - B
Q12 - C Q42 - C Q72 - D
Q13 - B Q43 - A Q73 - B
Q14 - C Q44 - A Q74 - D
Q15 - C Q45 - D Q75 - B
Q16 - A Q46 - D Q76 - B
Q17 - D Q47 - C Q77 - B
Q18 - C Q48 - A Q78 - B
Q19 - B Q49 - C Q79 - C
Q20 - B Q50 - C Q80 - D
Q21 - A Q51 - D Q81 - B
Q22 - C Q52 - C Q82 - B
Q23 - A Q53 - D Q83 - C
Q24 - C Q54 - D Q84 - A
Q25 - D Q55 - D Q85 - C
Q26 - B Q56 - D Q86 - B
Q27 - C Q57 - A Q87 - C
Q28 - C Q58 - B Q88 - B
Q29 - C Q59 - C Q89 - B
Q30 - B Q60 - B Q90 - C

Aldehydes and Ketones

Easy Questions
Question 1

The following reaction

is known as:

A. A) Perkin reaction
B. B) Gatterman-Koch Formylation
C. C) Kolbe's reaction
D. D) Gattermann reaction

Question 2

Which of the following does not given yellow soild on treatment with sodium hypoiodite?

A. A) Acetophenone
B. B) Pentan – 3 – one
C. C) Pentan – 2 –one
D. D) Ethanal

Question 3

Pentan-3-one is not obtained from

A. A) 2, 2-dichloro pentane
B. B) 3 , 3 -dichloro pentane
C. C) pentan-3-ol
D. D) pent-2-yne

Question 4

Which of the following compounds can be detected by Molisch's test ?

A. A) Nitro compounds
B. B) Sugars
C. C) Amines
D. D) Primary alcohols

Question 5

lodoform can be prepared from all except :

A. A) Ethyl methyl ketone
B. B) Isopropyl alcohol
C. C) 3−Methyl−2− butanone
D. D) Isobutyl alcohol

Question 6

Consider the following reaction

The product ' A ' is

A. A) C 6 H 5 CHO
B. B) C 6 H 5 OH
C. C) C 6 H 5 COCH 3
D. D) C 6 H 5 Cl

Question 7

Which of the following pairs give positive Tollen's test?

A. A) Glucose,sucrose
B. B) Glucose, fructose
C. C) Hexanal,acetophenone
D. D) Fructose,sucrose

Question 8

Dry distillation of calcium acetate and calcium formate forms:

A. A) methanol
B. B) ethanal
C. C) ethanol
D. D) acetone

Question 9

When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling solution, a red precipitate is formed. Which of the
following is that?

A. A) Cu 2 O
B. B) Cu
C. C) CuO
D. D) CuSO 4

Question 10

A compound that shows positive iodoform test is

A. A) 2-pentanone
B. B) 3 -pentanone
C. C) 3- pentanol
D. D) 1-pentanol

Question 11

The most suitable reagent for the conversion of RCH 2 OH → RCHO is

A. A) KMnO 4
B. B) K 2 Cr 2 O 7
C. C) CrO 3
D. D) PCC (pyridine chloro chromate).

Question 12

Y ⟶ Z In the above reaction Z is

LiAlH 4 Cu Dilute
CH 3 COOH ⟶ X ⟶∘
300 C NaOH

A. A) butanol
B. B) aldol
C. C) ketol
D. D) acetal

Question 13

Which one of the following statements is true?

A. A) Saponification of oil yields a diol

B. B) Drying of oil involves hydrolysis
C. C) Addition of antioxidant to oil minimizes rancidity
D. D) Refining of oil involves hydrogenation

Question 14

Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds?

A. A) Cannizzaro reaction
B. B) Wurtz reaction
C. C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
D. D) Friedel-Crafts acylation

Question 15

Ba(OH) 2
What is X in the following reaction? 2CH 3 COCH 3 ⟶ X
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 16

Toluene on treatment with CrO 3 and (CH 3 CO) 2 O followed by hydrolysis with dil. HCl gives

A. A) benzaldehyde
B. B) benzoic acid
C. C) phenol
D. D) phenylacetaldehyde.

Question 17

The reagent with which both acetaldehyde and acetone react is

A. A) Fehling's solution
B. B) I 2 /NaOH
C. C) Tollen's reagent
D. D) carbonic acid

Question 18

The reagent (s) which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from benzophenone is (are)

A. A) 2,4 - dinitrophenylhydrazine
B. B) aqueous solution of NaHSO 3
C. C) benedict reagent
D. D) I 2 and NaOH

Question 19

The reagent used to distinguish between acetaldehyde and benzaldehyde is

A. A) Tollen's reagent
B. B) Fehling's solution
C. C) 2-4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
D. D) semicarbazide

Question 20

Which among the following reduces Fehling's solution?

A. A) Acetic acid
B. B) Formic acid
C. C) Benzoic acid
D. D) Salicylic acid

Question 21

Catalytic dehydrogenation of a primary alcohol gives a/an

A. A) secondary alcohol
B. B) aldehyde
C. C) ketone
D. D) ester

Question 22

Which of the following compound will give positive iodoform test?

A. A) Isopropyl alcohol
B. B) Propionaldehyde
C. C) Ethylphenyl ketone
D. D) Benzyl alcohol

Question 23

In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was obtained.

\extT hestructureofC would be

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 24

The product of the above reaction is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 25

A reaction between a carbonyl compound and a Grignard reagent is termed as

A. A) nucleophilic addition
B. B) electrophilic addition
C. C) S N l reaction
D. D) S N 2 reaction

Question 26

The following conversion

is known as

A. A) Cannizzaro reaction
B. B) aldol condensation
C. C) polymerisation
D. D) benzoin condensation.

Question 27
Which one of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the
corresponding alcohol and acid?

A. A) C 6 H 5 CHO
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CHO
C. C)

D. D) C 6 H 5 CH 2 CHO

Question 28

Which of the following is obtained by hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride in presence of Pd on

BaSO 4 ?
A. A) Benzene
B. B) Benzoic acid
C. C) Benzyl alcohol
D. D) Benzaldehyde

Question 29

Which of the following does not undergo aldol condensation reaction?

A. A) CH 3 − CHO
B. B) ClCH 2 − CHO
C. C) C 6 H 5 − CHO
D. D) CHCl 2 − CHO

Question 30

Formic acid and acetic acid can be distinguished by:

A. A) phenyl hydrazine
B. B) NaHCO 3
C. C) tollen's reagent
D. D) none of these

Moderate Questions
Question 31

Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C 2 H 5 ONa, yields a stable compound which has the
structure?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 32

The compound which forms acetaldehyde when heated with dilute NaOH, is

A. A) 1, 1-dichloroethane
B. B) 1,1 , 1-trichloroethane
C. C) 1-chloroethane
D. D) 1, 2-dichloroethane

Question 33

A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrine which on hydrolysis
forms a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is:

A. A) formaldehyde
B. B) acetaldehyde
C. C) acetone
D. D) diethyl ketone

Question 34

The correct sequence of steps involved in the mechanism of Cannizaro's reaction is

A. A) nucleophilic attack, transfer of H − and transfer of H +

B. B) transfer of H − , transfer of H + and nucleophilic attack
C. C) transfer if H + , nucleophilic attack and transfer of H −
D. D) electrophilic attack by OH , transfer of H + and transfer of H −
−

Question 35

The number of aldol reaction(s) that occurs in the given transformation is :

A. A) 1
B. B) 2
C. C) 3
D. D) 4

Question 36

Find the final product for the reaction

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 37

The alcohol product(s) of the reduction of 2 -methyl-3-pentanone with LiAlH 4 is (are)

A. A) a single enantiomer
B. B) racemic mixture
C. C) two diastereoisomers
D. D) two structural isomers

Question 38

An important reaction of acetone is auto-condensation in presence of concentrated sulphuric

acid to give the aromatic compound

A. A) mesitylene
B. B) mesityl oxide
C. C) trioxane
D. D) phorone

Question 39

On vigorous oxidation by permanganate solution \left(\mathrm{CH}_3\right)_2

\mathrm{C}=\mathrm{CH}-\mathrm{CH}_2-\mathrm{CHO} \text { gives }

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 40

The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate
and calcium acetate is

A. A) methanal
B. B) propanal
C. C) propanone
D. D) ethanal

Question 41

When m-chlorobenzaldehyde is treated with 50%KOH solution, the products (s) obtained is
(are):

A. A)

B. B)

Option B image
C. C)

D. D)

Question 42

Ethyl methyl ketone is obtained by heating calcium salts of

A. A) formic acid + propionic acid

B. B) acetic acid + propionic acid
C. C) acetic acid only
D. D) acetic acid + methanoic acid

Question 43

The reaction

A. A)
Rosenmund's reaction
B. B)
Stephen's reaction
C. C)
Cannizzaro's reaction
D. D)
Gatterman-Koch reaction

Question 44

Identify the final product.

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D) None of these

Question 45

Which of the following reagents can form a hydrazone with alkanone?

A. A) NH 3 OHCl
B. B) PhNHNH 2
C. C) NH 2 NHCONH 2
D. D) HCN

Question 46

Benzoin is

A. A) α-hydroxy aldehyde
B. B) α-hydroxy ketone
C. C) compound containing an aldehyde and a ketonic group
D. D) α, β - unsaturated acid

Question 47

Reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine in the presence of catalytic amount of an acid

forms a compound if water during the reaction is continuously removed. The compound formed
is generally known as
 A. A) a Schiff’s base
B. B) an enamine
C. C) an imine
D. D) an amine

Question 48

Which reaction, intermediate is formed during the condensation reaction between acetaldehyde
and formaldehyde ?

A. A) : CH 2 CHO
–

B. B) C +
2 CHO
+
C. C) CH 2 OH

D. D) : CHCHO
–

Question 49

Which of the following esters cannot undergo Claisen self condensation?

A. A) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 COOC 2 H 5
B. B) C 6 H 5 − COOC 2 H 5
C. C) C 6 H 11 CH 2 COOC 2 H 5
D. D) C 6 H 5 CH 2 COOC 2 H 5

Question 50

At higher temperature, iodoform reaction is given by

A. A) CH 3 CO 2 CH 3
B. B) CH 3 CO 2 C 2 H 5
C. C) C 6 H 5 CO 2 CH 3
D. D) CH 3 CO 2 C 6 H 5 .

Question 51

Following compounds are given (i) CH 3 CH 2 OH (ii) CH 3 COCH 3 (iii)

(iv) CH 3 OH Which of the above compound(s) on being warmed with iodine solution and
NaOH, will give iodoform?

A. A) (i), (iii) and (iv)

B. B) Only(ii)
C. C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
D. D) (i) and (ii)

Question 52

In the given transformation, which of the following is the most appropriate reagent?

(−)
A. A) NH 2 NH 2 , OH
B. B) Zn − Hg/HCl
C. C) Na, Liq. NH 3
D. D) NaBH 4

Question 53

A dihaloalkane ' X, having formula C 3 H 6 Cl 2 , on hydrolysis gives a compound, that can reduce
Tollen's reagent. The compound X ′ is

A. A) 1,2 -dichloropropane
B. B) 1 , 1 -dichloropropane
C. C) 1,3 -dichloropropane
D. D) 2, 2-dichloropropane

Question 54

In the following reaction sequence, the correct structures of E, F and G are

[F] + [G] [∗ implies 13 C labelled carbon)

Heat I2
⟶ [E] NaOH

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 55

Which one of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bond ?

A. A) Friedel Craft's acylation

B. B) Reimer-Tieman reaction
C. C) Cannizaro reaction
D. D) Wurtz reaction

Question 56

What is the reaction of acetaldehyde with concentrated sulphuric acid?

A. A) No reaction
B. B) Decomposition
C. C) Charred to black residue
D. D) Polymerisation

Question 57

3-hydroxybutanal is formed when (X) reacts with (Y ) in dilute (Z) solution. What are X, Y
and Z ? X Y Y
A. A) CH 3 CHO, (CH 3 ) 2 CO, NaOH
B. B) CH 3 CHO, CH 3 CHO, NaCl
C. C) (CH 3 ) 2 CO, (CH 3 ) 2 CO, HCl
D. D) CH 3 CHO, CH 3 CHO, NaOH

Question 58

Match the following lists :

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 59

In Oppenauer's oxidation,

A. A) secondary alcohol is oxidised to carboxylic acid in acetone solvent using aluminium

tertiary butoxide
B. B) secondary alcohol is oxidised to carboxylic acid without affecting the C = C or C ≡ C
bond by aluminium tertiary butoxide in acetone solvent
C. C) secondary alcohol is oxidised to ketone without affecting C = C or C ≡ C bond by
aluminium tertiary butoxide
D. D) secondary alcohol is oxidised to ketone by chromic acid - pyridine complex.

Question 60

A substance C 4 H 10 O yields on oxidation a compound, C 4 H 8 O which gives an oxime and a

positive iodoform test. The original substance on treatment with conc. H 2 SO 4 gives C 4 H 8 . The
structure of the compound is
A. A) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH
B. B) CH 3 CHOHCH 2 CH 3
C. C) (CH 3 ) 3 COH
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 − O − CH 2 CH 3

Hard Questions

Question 61

Suitable reagents X and Y, respectively, in the following reactions are

A. A) aq. KOH, CrO 3

B. B) alc. KOH, Cu/Δ
C. C) aq. NaHCO 3 , KMnO 4
D. D) alc. KOH, NaOI

Question 62

The major product of the following reactions

A. A) CH 3 CH 2 CHBrCO 2 H
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CHBrCO 2 H
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CHBrCO 2 H
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CHBrCOBr

Question 63

An organic compound A, C 5 H 8 O; reacts with H 2 O, NH 3 and CH 3 COOH as described

below:
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 64

Consider all possible isomeric ketones, including stereoisomers of MW = 100. All these isomers
are independently reacted with NaBH 4 (NOTE: stereoisomers are also reacted separately).
The total number of ketones that give a racemic product(s) is/are

Question 65

What is ' Y '?

X + CH 3 CHO ⟶ Y
CaOCl 2 + H 2 O ⟶ Ca (OH 2 + X
Y + Ca(OH) 2 ⟶ CHCl 3 .
A. A) CH 3 CH(OH) 2
B. B) CH 2 Cl 2
C. C) CCl 3 CHO
D. D) CCl 3 COCH 3

Question 66

Paragraph: Treatment of benzene with CO / HCl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3 / CuCl
followed by reaction with Ac 2 O/ NaOAc gives compound X as the major product. Compound
X upon reaction with Br 2 / Na 2 CO 3 , followed by heating at 473 K with moist KOH
furnishes Y as the major product. Reaction of X with H 2 /Pd − C , followed by H 3 PO 4
treatment gives Z as the major product
Question : The compound Y is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 67

The correct sequence of reagents for the following conversion will be

A. A) CH 3 MgBr, H + / CH 3 OH, [Ag (NH 3 ) 2 ] OH −

+

B. B) CH 3 MgBr, [Ag (NH 3 ) 2 ] OH − , H + / CH 3 OH

+

C. C) [Ag (NH 3 ) 2 ] OH − , CH 3 MgBr, H + / CH 3 OH

+

D. D) [Ag (NH 3 ) 2 ] OH − , H + / CH 3 OH, CH 3 MgBr

+

Question 68
The major product obtained in the following reaction is:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 69

In the following reactions

X and Y are
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 70

The major products P and Q in the following reaction sequence are

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 71
Paragraph: A carbonyl compound P , which gives positive iodoform test, undergoes reaction
with MeMgBr followed by dehydration to give an olefin Q. Ozonolysis of Q leads to a dicarbonyl
compound R, which undergoes intramolecular aldol reaction to give predominantly S . P
\underset{\text { (ii) } \mathrm{H}^{+}, \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}{\stackrel{\text { (i) }
\mathrm{MeMgBr}}{\longrightarrow}} \mathrm{Q} \underset{\text { Heat }}
{\stackrel{\mathrm{O}_3 / \mathrm{Zn}-\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}{\longrightarrow}} \mathrm{P}
(iii) H 2 SO 4 /HeatQuestion: \text { The structures of the products } Q \text { and } R \text {,
respectively, are }

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 72

In the following reactions:

the major product X is :

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 73

The major product of the following reaction is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 74

Major products of the following reaction are:

A. A) CH 3 OH and HCO 2 H
B. B) HCOOH and

C. C) and
D. D) CH 3 OH and

Question 75

The major product H of the given reaction sequence is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 76

An organic compound, ' A ' with molecular formula C 8 H 8 O on reaction with I 2 /KOH gives
salt of carboxylic acid ' B ' and a halo-compound ' C '. Compound ' C ' on the reaction with
silver powder gives ' D '. The structures of ' A ' and ' D ' are

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 77

Paragraph: In the following reaction sequence, product I. J and L are formed. K represent a
reagent
Question: \text { The structure of product } L \text { is }

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 78

Identify X, Y and Z respectively from the following reactions :

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 79

Total number of hydroxyl groups present in a molecule of the major product P is ______

Question 80

In the following reaction sequence, the compound J is an intermediate.

J (C 9 H 8 O 2 ) gives effervescence on treatment with NaHCO 3 and a positive Baeyer's test.
Question: The compound I is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 81

What is the product E in the following reaction?

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 82

The major product of the following reaction sequence is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 83

Which one of the following will not form a yellow precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution
of iodine?

A. A) CH 3 CH(OH)CH 3
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 CH(OH)CH 3
C. C) CH 3 OH
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 OH

Question 84

In the following reactions, products A and B are:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 85

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 86

The final product of the given reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 87

In the following sequence of the reactions, identify the final product.

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 88

The major product of the following reaction is :

A. A)

B. B)
 C. C)

D. D)

Question 89

In the following sequence of reactions:

KMnO 4 SOCl 2 H 2 / Pd
−
−
−
Toluene →A →B →C
BaSO 4

The Product C is:

A. A) C 6 H 5 CHO
B. B) C 6 H 5 COOH
C. C) C 6 H 5 CH 3
D. D) C 6 H 5 CH 2 OH

Question 90

Identify the alkyne in the following sequence of reactions,

A. A) H 3 C − C ≡ C − CH 3
B. B) H 3 C − CH 2 − C ≡ CH
C. C) H 2 C = CH − C ≡ CH
D. D) HC ≡ C − CH 2 − C ≡ CH
Correct Answers for this Chapter
Q1 - D Q31 - B Q61 - D
Q2 - B Q32 - A Q62 - C
Q3 - A Q33 - B Q63 - C
Q4 - B Q34 - A Q64 - 5 (Num)
Q5 - D Q35 - C Q65 - C
Q6 - A Q36 - A Q66 - C
Q7 - B Q37 - B Q67 - D
Q8 - B Q38 - A Q68 - D
Q9 - A Q39 - B Q69 - A
Q10 - A Q40 - B Q70 - A
Q11 - D Q41 - A Q71 - A
Q12 - B Q42 - B Q72 - A
Q13 - C Q43 - D Q73 - B
Q14 - A Q44 - B Q74 - B
Q15 - A Q45 - B Q75 - A
Q16 - A Q46 - B Q76 - B
Q17 - B Q47 - B Q77 - B
Q18 - D Q48 - A Q78 - A
Q19 - B Q49 - B Q79 - 6 (Num)
Q20 - B Q50 - B Q80 - A
Q21 - B Q51 - C Q81 - C
Q22 - A Q52 - A Q82 - A
Q23 - D Q53 - B Q83 - C
Q24 - C Q54 - C Q84 - B
Q25 - A Q55 - C Q85 - D
Q26 - B Q56 - B Q86 - A
Q27 - D Q57 - D Q87 - A
Q28 - D Q58 - B Q88 - C
Q29 - C Q59 - C Q89 - A
Q30 - C Q60 - B Q90 - A

Carboxylic Acid Derivatives

 Easy Questions

Question 1

Consider the above reaction and identify the missing reagent/chemical.

A. A) B 2 H 6
B. B) Red Phosphorus
C. C) CaO
D. D) DIBAL − H

Question 2

The most suitable reagent for the given conversion is:

A. A) B 2 H 6
B. B) NaBH 4
C. C) LiAlH 4
D. D) H 2 /Pd

Question 3

LiAlH 4 I 2 +NaOH Ag (dust)

In the reaction, CH 3 COOH
−
−
− → (A) → (B) → (C).
Δ

The final product (C) is

A. A) C 2 H 5 I
B. B) C 2 H 5 OH
C. C) C 2 H 2
D. D) CH 3 COCH 3

Question 4

Strongest acid among the following is

A. A) acetic acid
B. B) FCH 2 COOH
C. C) F 2 CHCOOH
D. D) F 3 CCOOH

Question 5

In the following reaction order, B is

A. A) CH 2 = CH − COOH
B. B)

C. C) CH 3 CH 2 COBr
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 OH

Question 6

Acetic acid is reacted with metallic sodium to form hydrogen and X. When X is heated with
sodalime, Y and sodium carbonate are formed. Y is

A. A) C 2 H 6
B. B) CH 4
C. C) CH 3 COONa
D. D) CH 3 CONH 2

Question 7

The acid which contains both -OH and -COOH groups is

A. A) Phthalic acid
B. B) Adipic acid
C. C) Glutaric acid
D. D) Salicylic acid

Question 8

The reagent used in the preparation of aspirin from salicylic acid is

A. A) SOCl 2 / pyridine
B. B) CH 3 COOH/HCl
C. C) (CH 2 CO) 2 O/Conc. H 2 SO 4
D. D) CH 3 Cl/AlCl 3

Question 9

The reaction,
is known as:

A. A) Wurtz reaction
B. B) Koch reaction
C. C) Clemmensen reduction
D. D) Kolbe's reaction

Question 10

Ethylene glycol gives oxalic acid on oxidation with

A. A) acidified K 2 Cr 2 O 7
B. B) acidified KMnO 4
C. C) alkaline KMnO 4
D. D) periodic acid

Question 11

Which of the following compound is not formed in haloform reaction?

A. A) CHF 3
B. B) CHCl 3
C. C) CHI 3
D. D) CHBr 3

Question 12

The following conversion is known as

A. A) Etard reaction
B. B) Rosenmund reaction
C. C) Stephen reaction
D. D) Gattermann-Koch reaction

Question 13

Ethyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium generates

A. A) propanoic acid and ammonium salt

B. B) ethanoic acid and ammonium salt
C. C) methylamine salt and ethanoic acid
D. D) ethylamine salt and methanoic acid

Question 14

A liquid was mixed with ethanol and a drop of concentrated H 2 SO 4 was added. A compound
with a fruity smell was formed. The liquid was:

A. A) CH 3 OH
B. B) HCHO
C. C) CH 3 COCH 3
D. D) CH 3 COOH

Question 15

Silver salt of carboxylic acid on reaction with R − X gives

A. A) alkyl halide
B. B) ester
C. C) aldehyde
D. D) alcohol

Question 16

The compound formed as a result of oxidation of ethyl benzene by KMnO 4 is

A. A) benzophenone
B. B) acetophenone
C. C) benzoic acid
D. D) benzyl alcohol

Question 17

Which of the following reactions will not give N, N -dimethyl benzamide?

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 18

The OH group of an alcohol or theCOOH group of a carboxylic acid can be replaced by −Cl
using:

A. A) phosphorus pentachloride
B. B) hypochlorous acid
C. C) chlorine
D. D) hydrochloride acid

Question 19

Propionic acid with Br 2 − P yields a dibromo product. Its structure would be

A. A) CH 2 Br − CHBr − COOH
B. B)

C. C) CH 2 Br − CH 2 − COBr
D. D)

Question 20

Which one of the following is an ingredient of Pthalic acid manufacture by catalytic oxidation
A. A) Benzene
B. B) Salicylic acid
C. C) Anthranilic acid
D. D) naphthalene

Question 21

H2 O
(CH 2 CO) 2 O + RMgX ⟶?
A. A) ROOC (CH 2 )COOR
B. B) RCOCH 2 CH 2 COOH
C. C) RCOOR
D. D) RCOOH

Question 22

\text { Predict the product : }

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
 Question 23

The major product of the following reaction is:

LiAlH 4
−
CH 3 CH = CHCO 2 CH 3 →
A. A) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CO 2 CH 3
B. B) CH 3 CH = CHCH 2 OH
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CHO

Question 24

CH 3 CH 2 COOH ⟶ A ⟶ B. What is B ?
Cl 2 alc. KOH
red P

A. A) CH 3 CH 2 COCl
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 CHO
C. C) CH 2 = CHCOOH
D. D) ClCH 2 CH 2 COOH

Question 25

End product of the following reaction is \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{CH}_{2} \mathrm{COOH}

\frac{\mathrm{Cl}_{2}}{\text { red } \mathrm{P}} X \stackrel{\mathrm{Alc} \mathrm{KOH}}
{\longrightarrow}

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 26

The correct order of acidity for the following compounds is:

A. A) II < IV < I < I

B. B) II < I < III < IV
C. C) II < III < IV < I
D. D) III < II < I < IV

Question 27

Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl 3 CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid and
produces -

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
 Question 28

dry H3 O+
−
−
RMgX + CO 2 → Y → RCOOH
ether

What is Y in the above reaction?

A. A) R 3 CO − Mg + X
B. B) RCOO − X +
C. C) (RCOO) 2 Mg
D. D) RCOO − Mg + X

Question 29

C is with the product

A. A) CO 2
B. B)

C. C) Both (a) and (b)

D. D) None of the above

Question 30

Which of the following reactions involves α -halogenation of carboxylic acid?

A. A) Gattermann reaction
B. B) Riemer - Tiemann reaction
C. C) Sandmeyer reaction
D. D) Hell-Vohlard-Zelinsky reaction

Moderate Questions

Question 31

Which of the following acid will form an (a) Anhydride on heating and (b) Acid imide on strong
heating with ammonia?
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 32

An ester A(C 4 H 8 O 2 ), on treatment with excess methyl magnesium chloride followed by

acidification, gives an alcohol B as the sole organic product. Alcohol B, on oxidation with
NaOCl followed by acidification, gives acetic acid. Ester A is:
A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 33

Which are the starting materials for the preparation of?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D) Any of the three

Question 34

Oil of winter green is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 35

The major product of the following reaction is:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 36

Acid strength given below the correct decreasing order will be :

A. A) NO 2 CH 2 COOH > FCH 2 COOH > CNCH 2 COOH > ClCH 2 COOH
B. B) NO 2 CH 2 COOH > NCCH 2 COOH > FCH 2 COOH > ClCH 2 COOH
C. C) CNCH 2 COOH > O 2 NCH 2 COOH > FCH 2 COOH > ClCH 2 COOH
D. D) FCH 2 COOH > NCCH 2 COOH > NO 2 CH 2 COOH > ClCH 2 COOH

Question 37

The major product Y in the following reaction is:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 38

Which of the following acids does not contain -COOH group?

A. A) Carbamic acid
B. B) Barbituric acid
C. C) Lactic acid
D. D) Succinic acid

Question 39

Which one of the following functional groups undergoes hydrolysis with alkali to yield an acid
group?

A. A) −CN
B. B) −CHO
C. C) −COCH 3
D. D) −Br
Question 40

Decarboxylation of malonic acid gives

A. A) CH 4
B. B) CH 3 COOH
C. C) Both (a) and (b)
D. D) None of the above

Question 41

The product C in the following sequence of chemical reaction is

Ca(OH) 2 Heat NH 2 OH
CH 3 − COOH ⟶ ⟶ ⟶ B ⟶ C
A. A) acetaldoxime
B. B) formaldoxime
C. C) ethane nitrile
D. D) acetoxime

Question 42

The reagent(s) required for the following conversion are:

A. A) (i) NaBH 4 , (ii) Raney Ni/H 2 , (iii) H 3 O +

B. B) (i) LiAlH 4 , (ii) H 3 O +
C. C) (i) B 2 H 6 , (ii) DIBAL − H, (iii) H 3 O +
D. D) (i) B 2 H 6 , (ii) SnCl 2 /HCl, (iii) H 3 O +

Question 43

In a set of reaction acetic acid yielded a product 'd'.

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 44

The reagent used for converting acetylene to oxalic acid is

A. A) HgSO 4 /aqueous H 2 SO 4
B. B) HgSO/CH O COOH
C. C) KMnO 4 /KOH, 25 ∘ C
D. D) Cr 2 O 3 /H 2 SO 4

Question 45

An organic compound is boiled with alcoholic potash. The product is cooled and acidified with
HCl. A white solid separates out. The starting compound may be

A. A) ethyl acetate
B. B) methyl acetate
C. C) ethyl benzoate
D. D) ethyl formate

Question 46

A; Product A is
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 47

Which of the following acids, does NOT undergo Hell-Vohlard-Zelinsky reaction?

A. A) Butanoic acid
B. B) Propanoic acid
C. C) Ethanoic acid
D. D) Methanoic acid

Question 48

Alkaline

Consider the following reaction, Phenol ⟶ X Y ⟶ Z, the product, Z ,

Zn dust CH 3 Cl KMnO
⟶
Anhydrous AlCl 3
is

A. A) toluene
B. B) benzaldehyde
C. C) benzoic acid
D. D) benzene

Question 49

The product ' A ′ is

A. A) succinic acid
B. B) melonic acid
C. C) oxalic acid
D. D) maleic acid

Question 50

Which of the following compounds would not be expected to decarboxylate when heated?

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 51

n-Propanol on treatment with concentrated HBr gives P. The product P on reaction with KCN
gave the product Q. The product Q on heating with aqueous acidic solution, furnished the
product R. The product 'R' is

A. A) Propanoic acid
B. B) Propanamide
C. C) Butanoic acid
D. D) Butanamide

Question 52

\text { Identify the compound obtained in following reaction? }

A. A) Ar − Cl
B. B)

C. C) Ar − O − R
D. D)
Question 53

Which of the following carboxylic acids is most reactive towards esterification?

A. A) (CH 3 ) 3 CCOOH
B. B) (CH 3 ) 2 CHCOOH
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 COOH
D. D) (C 2 H 5 ) 2 CHCOOH

Question 54

Which is more basic oxygen in an ester?

A. A) Carbonyl oxygen, α
B. B) Carboxyl oxygen, β
C. C) Equally basic
D. D) Both are acidic oxygen

Question 55

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 56

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 57

Which of the following undergoes reaction with 50% sodium hydroxide solution to give the
corresponding alcohol and acid?

A. A) Phenol
B. B) Benzoic acid
C. C) Butanal
D. D) Benzaldehyde

Question 58

Which one of the following esters gets hydrolyzed most easily under alkaline conditions?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 59

Consider the following reaction sequence,

Isomers are

A. A) C and E
B. B) C and D
C. C) D and E
D. D) C, D and E

Question 60

Oxalic acid reacts with concentrated H 2 SO 4 to give a mixture of two gases. When this mixture
is passed through caustic potash, one of the gases is absorbed. What is the product formed by
the absorbed gas with caustic potash?

A. A) K 2 SO 0
B. B) K 2 HCO 3
C. C) K 2 CO 3
D. D) KOH

Hard Questions

Question 61

Acetic acid on heating with NH 3 forms A. When A reacts with LiAlH 4 followed by hydrolysis
gives B. When B is heated with chloroform in KOH medium gives C . What are B and C
respectively?

A. A) CH 3 CONH 2 , CH 3 CH 2 NC
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 , CH 3 CH 2 NC
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 , CH 3 COOH
D. D) mathrmCH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NH 2 , CH 3 CH 2 NC

Question 62
The product formed from the following reaction sequence is:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 63

Find the suitable method from the following to prepare primary amines without the loss of
carbons.

A. A) Gabriel method
B. B) Alkylation method
C. C) Hoffmann bromamide method
D. D) Stephen method

Question 64

Which of the following reaction is feasible?

A. A)

B. B) H 3 CCH = CHCH 2 OH ⟶ H 3 CCH = CHCHO

PCC

KMnO 4
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH H + H 3 CCH 2 CHO
D. D)

Question 65

The correct order of acidity for the following compounds is :

A. A) I > II > III > IV

B. B) III > I > II > IV
C. C) III > IV > II > I
D. D) I > III > IV > II

Question 66

A is :

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 67

Consider the following reactions,

\text { What are the structures of } Y \text { and } Z \text { ? }

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 68

The compound that undergoes decarboxylation most readily under mild condition is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 69

Assertion : Esters which contain α-hydrogens undergo Claisen condensation. Reason :

LiAlH 4 reduction of esters gives acids.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.
Question 70

Compound (A), C 8 H 9 Cl, gives a white precipitate when warmed with alcoholic AgNO 3
. Oxidation of (A) gives an acid (B), C 8 H 6 O 4 . (B) easily forms anhydride on heating. Identify
the compound (A).

A. A) ​

B. B) ​

C. C) ​

D. D) ​

Question 71

Identify X, Y and Z respectively in the following reaction sequence : Acetic acid

(i) NH 3 ,ii)
⟶ X+Y +Z
(iii) C 6 H 5 SO 2 Cl
Pyridine /343 K
A. A) C 6 H 5 SO 3 H, CH 3 NC, HCl
B. B)

C. C) C 6 H 5 SO 3 H, CH 3 CN, HCl
D. D) C 6 H 5 SO 2 Cl, CH 3 NC, H 2 O

Question 72

\text { } \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{CCH}_2 \mathrm{CO}_2 \mathrm{H} \stackrel{\mathrm{P}_2

\mathrm{O}_5}{\longrightarrow} X \stackrel{\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}}{\longrightarrow} Y
\stackrel{\mathrm{SOCl}_2}{\longrightarrow} Z Identify X, Y and Z .

A. A) (a)
B. B) (b)
C. C) (c)
D. D) (d)

Question 73

The major product of the following reaction is:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 74

The major product in the following reaction is

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 75

The major products Q and R from the following reactions, respectively are

A. A)
Q R

B. B)
Q R
C. C)
Q R

D. D)
Q R

Question 76

The carboxyl functional group (−COOH) is present in

A. A) picricacid
B. B) barbituric acid
C. C) ascorbic acid
D. D) aspirin

Question 77
The total number of carboxylic acid groups in the product P is

Question 78

Oxidation of cyclohexene in presence of acidic potassium permaganate leads to

A. A) glutaric acid
B. B) adipic acid
C. C) pimelic acid
D. D) succinic acid

Question 79

In the reaction the structure of the product T is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 80

Predict A and B in the following reaction sequence :

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 81

Which of the following reactions gives carboxylate ion in their reaction mixture?

A. A) I and II
B. B) II and III
C. C) I and III
D. D) III and IV

Question 82

Consider the following set of reactions :

The structure of D would be

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 83

Different possible thermal decomposition pathways for peroxyesters are shown below. Match
each
pathway from List I with an appropriate structure from List II and select the correct answer using
the code
given below the lists.
 List – I List – II
A Pathway P P.
B. Pathway Q Q.
C. Pathway R R.
D. Pathway S S.

A. A) a-p;b-r;c-s;d-q;
B. B) a-s;b-p;c-r;d-q;
C. C) a-r;b-s;c-q;d-p;
D. D) a-s;b-p;c-q;d-r;

Question 84

What is the final product of following reactions?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 85

An organic compound A upon reacting with NH 3 gives B. On heating, B gives C. C in presence

of KOH reacts with Br2 to give CH3CH2NH2. A is :

A. A)
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 COOH
C. C) CH 3 COOH
D. D) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 COOH

Question 86

Compound C in above reaction sequence is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 87

The correct order of acid strength of the following carboxylic acids is -

A. A) I > III > II > IV
B. B) III > II > I > IV
C. C) II > I > IV > III
D. D) I > II > III > IV

Question 88

What are the products B and C in the following reaction sequence?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 89

What are the constituent amines formed when the mixture of (a) and (b) undergoes Hofmann
bromamide degradation?

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 90

What is Y ?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - C Q31 - A Q61 - B
Q2 - A Q32 - A Q62 - B
Q3 - C Q33 - C Q63 - A
Q4 - D Q34 - A Q64 - B
Q5 - A Q35 - B Q65 - A
Q6 - B Q36 - B Q66 - A
Q7 - D Q37 - C Q67 - D
Q8 - C Q38 - B Q68 - B
Q9 - B Q39 - A Q69 - C
Q10 - C Q40 - B Q70 - B
Q11 - A Q41 - D Q71 - B
Q12 - B Q42 - D Q72 - B
Q13 - D Q43 - D Q73 - A
Q14 - D Q44 - C Q74 - D
Q15 - B Q45 - C Q75 - B
Q16 - C Q46 - D Q76 - D
Q17 - B Q47 - D Q77 - 2 (Num)
Q18 - A Q48 - C Q78 - B
Q19 - D Q49 - A Q79 - B
Q20 - D Q50 - C Q80 - D
Q21 - B Q51 - C Q81 - B
Q22 - B Q52 - D Q82 - A
Q23 - B Q53 - C Q83 - A
 Q24 - C Q54 - A Q84 - D
Q25 - C Q55 - A Q85 - B
Q26 - B Q56 - C Q86 - D
Q27 - A Q57 - D Q87 - D
Q28 - D Q58 - A Q88 - A
Q29 - A Q59 - C Q89 - B
Q30 - D Q60 - C Q90 - A

Amines

Easy Questions

Question 1

The compound most suitable for the preparation of cyanohydrin is

A. A) C 2 H 5 COOH
B. B) C 6 H 5 NH 2
C. C) C 2 H 5 COC 2 H 5
D. D) C 2 H 5 − C 2 H 5 .

Question 2

In the following sequence of reactions ;

The compound A is

A. A) Propane nitrile
B. B) Ethane nitrile
C. C) CH 3 NO 2
D. D) CH 3 NC

Question 3

An amine C 3 H 9 N reacts with benzene sulphonyl chloride to form a white precipitate which is
insoluble in aq. NaOH. The amine is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 4

Amongst the following the most basic compound is

A. A) benzylamine
B. B) aniline
C. C) acetanilide
D. D) p-nitroaniline

Question 5

Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic strengths CH 3 NH 2 , (CH 3 ) 2 NH,
(CH 3 ) 3 N, NH 3
A. A) NH 3 < (CH 3 ) 3 N < (CH 3 ) 2 NH < CH 3 NH 2
B. B) NH 3 < (CH 3 ) 3 N < CH 3 NH 2 < (CH 3 ) 2 NH
C. C) (CH 3 ) 3 N < NH 3 < CH 3 NH 2 < (CH 3 ) 2 NH
D. D) CH 3 NH 2 < (CH 3 ) 2 NH < (CH 3 ) 3 N < NH 3

Question 6
Aniline when diazotised in cold and then treated with dimethyl aniline gives a coloured product.
Its structure would be:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 7

The final product ' c ', obtained in this reaction would be

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 8

The order of basic strength of the following in aqueous solution is I. C 6 H 5 NH 2 II. (CH 3 ) 3 N
III. NH 3 IV. CH 3 NH 2 V. (CH 3 ) 2 NH

A. A) IV > I > V > III > II

B. B) II > V > IV > III > I
C. C) V > IV > II > III > I
D. D) IV > III > V > II > II

Question 9

Which one of the following is strongly basic?

A. A) Dimethyl amine
B. B) Methyl amine
C. C) Ammonia
D. D) Aniline

Question 10

Which one of the following is the strongest base in aqueous solution?

A. A) Trimethylamine
B. B) Aniline
C. C) Dimethylamine
D. D) Methylamine

Question 11
Schotten-Baumann reaction is a reaction of phenols with

A. A) benzoyl chloride and sodium hydroxide.

B. B) acetyl chloride and sodium hydroxide.
C. C) salicylic acid and conc. H 2 SO 4 .
D. D) acetyl chloride and conc H 2 SO 4 .

Question 12

Which of the following is the weakest base?

A. A) Ethyl amine
B. B) Ammonia
C. C) Dimethyl amine
D. D) Methyl amine

Question 13

Nitrobenzene on treatment with zinc dust and aqueous ammonium chloride gives

A. A) C 6 H 5 N = N − C 6 H 5
B. B) C 6 H 5 NH 2
C. C) C 6 H 5 NO
D. D) C 6 H 5 NHOH.

Question 14

Which of the following is more basic than aniline?

A. A) benzylamine
B. B) diphenylamine
C. C) triphenylamine
D. D) p-nitroaniline

Question 15

When acetamide is treated with Br 2 and caustic soda, the product formed is

A. A) N-bromamide
B. B) bromoacetic acid
C. C) methanamine
D. D) ethanamine
 Question 16

Isopropyl amine with excess of acetyl chloride will give

A. A) (CH 3 CO) 2 N − CH − (CH 3 ) 2

B. B) < smiles>CCCNC(=O)OC < /smiles>
C. C) (CH 3 ) 2 CHN(COCH 3 ) 2
D. D) none of these

Question 17

Hofmann's bromamide reaction is to convert

A. A) acid to alcohol
B. B) alcohol to acid
C. C) amide to amine
D. D) amine to amide

Question 18

The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH 3 , CH 3 NH 2 and (CH 3 ) 2 NH is

A. A) (CH 3 ) 2 NH < NH 3 < CH 3 NH 2

B. B) NH 3 < CH 3 NH 2 < (CH 3 ) 2 NH
C. C) CH 3 NH 2 < (CH 3 ) 2 NH < NH 3
D. D) CH 3 NH 2 < NH 3 < (CH 3 ) 2 NH

Question 19

Aniline is prepared in presence of Fe/HCI from

A. A) Benzene
B. B) Nitrobenzene
C. C) Dinitrobenzene
D. D) Aniline

Question 20

In the reaction,

CH 3 ⋅ CH 2 ⋅ Cl → (A) → (P) end product (P) is

KCN LiAlH 4
−
−
A. A) CH 3 CH 2 ⋅ NO 2
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 NO 2
C. C) CH 3 CH 2 NH 2
D. D) CH 3 ⋅ CH 2 ⋅ CH 2 NH 2

Question 21

The chemical formula of Hinsberg's reagent is

A. A) HNO 2
B. B) NaOH + CaO
C. C) C 6 H 5 SO 2 Cl
D. D) CH 3 CONH 2

Question 22

Consider the following reaction

What is Y ?

A. A) Acetanilide
B. B) Benzanilide
C. C) Azo-benzene
D. D) Hydrazo-benzene

Question 23

In the given reaction sequence

The product C is

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 24

Among the following which one does not act as an intermediate in Hofmann rearrangement?

A. A) RNCO

B. B) RCON
¨
C. C) RCON̈HBr
D. D) RNC

Question 25

The carbylamine reaction is

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 26

Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used for the preparation of

A. A) secondary amines
B. B) amides
C. C) primary amines
D. D) tertiary amines

Question 27

Which of the following reactions can produce aniline as main product?

A. A) C 6 H 5 NO 2 + Zn/KOH
B. B) C 6 H 5 NO 2 + Zn/NH 4 Cl
C. C) C 6 H 5 NO 2 + LiAlH 4
D. D) C 6 H 5 NO 2 + Zn/HCl

Question 28

The reaction of Benzenediazonium chloride with aniline yields yellow dye. The name of the
yellow dye is

A. A) p-Hydroxyazobenzene
B. B) p-Aminoazobenzene
C. C) p-Nitroazobenzene
D. D) o-Nitroazobenzene

Question 29
In Gattermann reaction, a diazonium group is replaced by X using Y . X and Y are X Y
–
–
–
–
–
–
A. A) Cl
⊖
Cu/HCl
B. B) Cl ⊕ CuCl 2 /HCl
C. C) Cl ⊖ CuCl 2 /HCl
D. D) Cl 2 Cu 2 O/HCl

Question 30

Maximum number of molecules of CH 3 I that can react with a molecule of CH 3 NH 2 are

A. A) 3
B. B) 4
C. C) 2
D. D) 1

Moderate Questions

Question 31

The correct order of basicity of the following compounds is

A. A) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4

B. B) 1 < 2 < 4 < 3
C. C) 2 < 1 < 3 < 4
D. D) 4 < 3 < 2 < 1

Question 32

Which of the following is highly basic?

A. A) Diphenylamine
B. B) Benzylamine
C. C) Aniline
D. D) Triphenylamine

Question 33
Identify A and B in the following reactions

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 34

\text { The following sequence of reactions on } A \text { gives }

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 35

The amine 'A', when treated with nitrous acid, gives a yellow oily substance. The amine A is

A. A) Triethylamine
B. B) Trimethylamine
C. C) Aniline
D. D) Methylphenylamine

Question 36

Reduction of nitrobenzene with Zn and alcoholic KOH solution results in the formation of the
following compound

A. A) hydrazobenzene
B. B) azobenzene
C. C) aniline
D. D) phenyl hydroxyl amine

Question 37

Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a product ' d ':

The structure of the product ' d ' would be
A. A) C 6 H 5 NHOH
B. B) C 6 H 5 NHCH 2 CH 3
C. C) C 6 H 5 CH 2 NH 2
D. D) C 6 H 5 CH 2 OH

Question 38

AgCN
Y, Here Y is
Reduction
C 2 H 5 Br ⟶ X ⟶
Zn−Rg/HCl

A. A) Ethyl methyl amine

B. B) n-propylamine
C. C) Isopropylamine
D. D) Ethylamine

Question 39

The final product formed when methylamine is treated with NaNO 2 and HCl followed by
hydrolysis is:

A. A) Nitromethane
B. B) Methylcyanide
C. C) Methyl alcohol
D. D) Diazomethane

Question 40

Primary amines can be distinguished from secondary and tertiary amines by reacting with

A. A)
Chloroform and alcoholic KOH
B. B)
Methyl iodide
C. C)
Chloroform alone
D. D)
Zinc Dust

Question 41
\text { In a reaction of ani line a coloured product } \mathrm{C} \text { was obtained. }
\text { The structure of } \mathrm{C} \text { would be }

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 42

Identify the product formed in the given reaction.

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 43

Carbylamine forms from aliphatic or aromatic primary amine via which of the following
intermediates?

A. A) Carbanion
B. B) Carbene
C. C) Carbocation
D. D) Carbon radical

Question 44

The major product obtained in the following reaction is:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 45

In the following sequence of reactions

The compound C formed will be

A. A) butanol-1
B. B) butanol-2
C. C) 2-methyl propanol-1
D. D) 1,1 -dimethylethanol

Question 46

The compound that forms a yellow oily liquid with nitrous acid is

A. A) 2 -methyl aniline
B. B) methyl amine
C. C) Benzyl amine
D. D) diethyl amine

Question 47

Aromatic nitriles (ArCN) are not prepared by reaction:

A. A) Ar X + KCN
B. B) ArN +
2 + CuCN
C. C) ArCONH 2 + P 2 O 5
D. D) ArCONH 2 + SOCl 2 .

Question 48

Identify X and Y in the following reactions

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 49

Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly acidic medium gives:

A. A) N-phenylhydroxylamine
B. B) nitrosobenzene
C. C) aniline
D. D) p-hydroxyaniline

Question 50

A gaseous carbon compound is soluble in dilute HCl. The solution on treating with NaNO 2
gives off nitrogen leaving behind a solution, which smells of wood spirit. The carbon compound
is

A. A) HCHO
B. B) CO
C. C) C 2 H 5 NH 2
D. D) CH 3 NH 2
Question 51

A nitrogen containing organic compound gave an oily liquid on heating with bromine and
potassium hydroxide solution. On shaking the product with acetic anhydride, an antipyretic drug
was obtaine(d) The reactions indicate that the starting compound is

A. A) acetamide
B. B) nitrobenzene
C. C) aniline
D. D) benzamide

Question 52

5.5mg of nitrogen gas dissolves in 180 g of water at 273 K and one atm pressure due to
nitrogen gas. The mole fraction of nitrogen in 180 g of water at 5 atm nitrogen pressure is
approximately

A. A) 1 × 10 −5
B. B) 1 × 10 −4
C. C) 1 × 10 −6
D. D) 1 × 10 −3

Question 53

Assertion : p − O 2 N − C 6 H 5 COCH 3 is prepared by Friedel Crafts acylation of nitrobenzene.

Reason : Nitrobenzene easily undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 54

Maximum number of molecules of methyl iodide that can react with one molecule of methyl
amine is

A. A) 4
B. B) 3
C. C) 2
D. D) 1
 Question 55

Nitrobenzene gives N-phenylhydroxylamine by

A. A) Sn/HCl
B. B) H 2 /Pd − C
C. C) Zn/NaOH
D. D) Zn/NH 4 Cl.

Question 56

H 2 SO 4
For the reaction C 6 H 5 . NH 2
− → H 2 N ⋅ C 6 H 4 (SO 3 H) the true statement about the
180°C (Para)
product is

A. A) it does not exist as Zwitter ion

B. B) − NH 2 group displays a powerful basic character
C. C) it does not act as inner salt
D. D) − SO 3 H, diminishes the basic character of − NH 2

Question 57

What is Z in the following reaction sequence?

A. A) C 6 H 5 CO 2 H
B. B) C 6 H 5 OH
C. C) C 6 H 5 CHO
D. D) C 6 H 6

Question 58

Which one of the following gives amine on heating with amide?

A. A) Br 2 in aqueous KOH
B. B) Br 2 on alcoholic KOH
C. C) Cl 2 in sodium
D. D) sodium in ether

Question 59

For the reaction below the structure of the product Q is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 60

In the reaction,

The number of possible isomers for the organic compound X is

A. A) 4
B. B) 5
C. C) 3
D. D) 2

Hard Questions

Question 61

Which is the strongest base among the following?

A. A) \text { } \mathrm{H}_3 \mathrm{CNH}_2

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 62

The major product of the reaction is

A. A) ​
B. B) ​

C. C) ​

D. D) ​

Question 63

The major product in the following reaction is:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 64

Statement 1 Aniline on reaction with NaNO 2 /HCl at 0 ∘ C followed by coupling with β-naphthol
gives a dark coloured precipitate. Statement 2 The colour of the compound formed in the
reaction of aniline with NaNO 2 /HCl at 0 ∘ C followed by coupling with β-naphthol is due to the
extended conjugation.

A. A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for

Statement 1.
B. B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for
Statement 1.
C. C) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
D. D) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true

Question 65

For the following amines,

The correct order of basic strength is
A. A) iii > ii > iv > i
B. B) iv > iii > ii > i
C. C) iii > ii > i > iv
D. D) iii > i > ii > iv

Question 66

The order of basicity among the following nitrogen compounds is

A. A) iv > i > iii > ii

B. B) iii > i > iv > ii
C. C) ii > i > iii > iv
D. D) i > iii > ii > iv

Question 67

Paragraph: \mathrm{RCONH}_2 \text { is converted into } \mathrm{RNH}_2 \text { by means of

Hofmann bromamide degradation. }
In this reaction, RCONHBr is formed from which this reaction has derived its name. Electron
donating group at phenyl activates the reaction. Hofmann degradation reaction is an
intramolecular [Link]: What are the constituent amines formed when the mixture of
(i) and (ii) undergoes Hofmann bromamide degradation?

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 68

An organic compound (C 3 H 9 N)(A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N 2
gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl 3 and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction
gave iso-propylmethylamine. Predict the structure of (A).

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 69

In the following reaction,

\text { The structure of the major product } X \text { is }

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D) < smiles>O=C(Nc1cccc([N+](=O)[O-])c1)c1ccccc1 < /smiles>

Question 70

Match the four starting materials (P, Q, R, S) given in List I with the corresponding reaction
schemes
(I, II, III, IV) provided in List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List – I List – II
A. P.
B. Q.
C. R.
D. S.

A. A) a-s;b-q;c-p;d-r;
B. B) a-p;b-q;c-r;d-s;
C. C) a-p;b-q;c-r;d-s;
D. D) a-r;b-s;c-q;d-p;

Question 71

The major product in the following reactions, is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 72

An amine compound on reaction with benzenesulphonyl chloride gives an organic compound

(P) which is highly acidic in nature. The compound P is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 73

The major products P and Q in the following reactions are

P Q

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 74

In one reaction,

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 75

The major product of the following reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 76

Paragraph: p-amino-N, N-dimethylaniline is added to a strongly acidic solution of X. The

resulting solution is treated with a few drops of aqueous solution of Y to yield blue colouration
due to the formation of methylene blue. Treatment of the aqueous solution of Y with the reagent
potassium hexacyanoferrate(II) leads to the formation of an intense blue precipitate. The
precipitate dissolves an excess addition of the reagent. Similarly, treatment of the solution of Y
with the solution of potassium hexacyanoferrate(III) leads to a brown colouration due to the
formation of Z .Question: The compound Z , is

A. A) Mg 2 [Fe(CN) 6 ]
B. B) Fe [Fe(CN) 6 ]
C. C) Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3
D. D) K 2 Zn 3 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 2

Question 77

Match the compounds given in List I with their characteristic reactions given in List II. Select the
correct option.

A. A) (a)
B. B) (b)
C. C) (c)
D. D) (d)

Question 78

Products A and B formed in the following reactions are respectively:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 79

Identify A and B in the following reactions

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 80

Reduction of nitrobenzene with Zn and alcoholic KOH solution results in the formation of the
following compound

A. A) hydrazobenzene
B. B) azobenzene
C. C) aniline
D. D) phenyl hydroxyl amine

Question 81

An organic compound ' A ' on treatment with NH 3 gives ' B ' which on heating gives ' C ', ' C '
when treated with Br 2 in the presence of KOH produces ethylamine. Compound ' A ' is

A. A) CH 3 COOH
B. B) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 COOH
C. C)

D. D) CH 3 CH 2 COOH

Question 82

All but one of the following compounds reacts with aniline to give acetanilide. Which one does
not?

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 83

In a set of reactions p - nitrotoluene yielded a product E

The product E would be :

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 84

A compound with molecular mass 180 is acylated with CH 3 COCl to get a compound with
molecular mass 390. The number of amino groups presents per molecule of the former
compound is

A. A) 4
B. B) 6
C. C) 2
D. D) 5

Question 85

Predict the product,

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 86

The major products P and Q formed in the following reactions of benzonitrile are

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 87

The product of the following reaction is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 88

Identify X and Y in the following reactions

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 89

Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with 1 − naphthol in alkaline medium will give:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 90

Benzaldehyde can be prepared from

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D) ◯ − N + −
2 Cl + H 2 O ⟶

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - C Q31 - C Q61 - A
Q2 - B Q32 - B Q62 - D
Q3 - B Q33 - C Q63 - C
Q4 - A Q34 - C Q64 - A
Q5 - B Q35 - D Q65 - C
Q6 - C Q36 - A Q66 - D
Q7 - C Q37 - D Q67 - B
Q8 - C Q38 - A Q68 - A
Q9 - A Q39 - C Q69 - B
Q10 - C Q40 - A Q70 - D
Q11 - A Q41 - A Q71 - D
Q12 - B Q42 - B Q72 - A
Q13 - D Q43 - B Q73 - A
Q14 - A Q44 - B Q74 - B
Q15 - C Q45 - D Q75 - A
Q16 - C Q46 - D Q76 - B
Q17 - C Q47 - A Q77 - C
Q18 - B Q48 - C Q78 - A
Q19 - B Q49 - C Q79 - C
Q20 - D Q50 - D Q80 - A
Q21 - C Q51 - D Q81 - D
Q22 - B Q52 - B Q82 - C
Q23 - D Q53 - D Q83 - C
Q24 - D Q54 - A Q84 - D
Q25 - B Q55 - D Q85 - A
 Q26 - C Q56 - D Q86 - C
Q27 - D Q57 - C Q87 - A
Q28 - B Q58 - A Q88 - C
Q29 - A Q59 - B Q89 - C
Q30 - A Q60 - D Q90 - A

Biomolecules

Easy Questions

Question 1

Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to:

A. A) vitamin toxicity
B. B) kidney stones
C. C) hypercholesterolemia
D. D) urine laden with ketone bodies.

Question 2

Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives

A. A) D-ribose
B. B) D -glucose
C. C) L -glucose
D. D) D-fructose

Question 3

All structures given below are of vitamin C. Most stable of them is:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 4

Which one of the following compounds contains β − C 1 − C 4 glycosidic linkage ?

A. A) Sucrose
B. B) Amylose
C. C) Lactose
D. D) Maltose

Question 5

RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains

A. A) ribose sugar and thymine

B. B) ribose sugar and uracil
C. C) deoxyribose sugar and thymine
D. D) deoxyribose sugar and uracil

Question 6

Identify the correct statements from the following:

I) When DNA is hydrolysed, adenine and thymine are obtained in equal quantities.
II) When RNA is hydrolysed, adenine and uracil are obtained in equal quantities.
III) Amylose is branched polymer with α1 → 4 and α1 → 6 glycosidic linkages.
IV) Addison disease is due to the abnormal functioning of adrenal cortex.
A. A) I, II, III only
B. B) I, II, III, IV
C. C) I, II, IV only
D. D) I, IV only

Question 7

Fructose reduces Tollen's reagent due to

A. A) primary alcoholic group

B. B) secondary alcoholic group
C. C) enolisation of fructose followed by conversation to aldehyde by base
D. D) asymmetric carbon atoms

Question 8

In nucleoside, the base is attached to which position of sugar molecule?

A. A) C -1
B. B) C -2
C. C) C -3
D. D) C -5

Question 9

Starch can be used as an indicator for the detection of traces of

A. A) glucose in aqueous solution

B. B) proteins in blood
C. C) iodine in aqueous solution
D. D) urea in blood

Question 10

The transfer RNA anticodon for the messenger RNA codon G − C − A is

A. A) C − G − U
B. B) C − C − U
C. C) U − C − C
D. D) G − U − C

Question 11
The charring of sugar takes place when treated with concentrated H 2 SO 4 . What is the type of
reaction involved in it?

A. A) Dehydration reaction
B. B) Hydrolysis reaction
C. C) Addition Reaction
D. D) Disproportionation reaction

Question 12

From the following number of fat soluble and water soluble vitamins respectively are
ADCB 1 K B 6 .
A. A) 2,4
B. B) 4,2
C. C) 3,3
D. D) 6,0

Question 13

The vitamin nicotinamide can be synthesized in our body from

A. A) tyrosine
B. B) tryptophan
C. C) valine
D. D) phenylalanine.

Question 14

Biuret test is not given by

A. A) carbohydrates
B. B) polypeptides
C. C) urea
D. D) proteins

Question 15

The human body does not produce

A. A) Enzymes
B. B) DNA
C. C) Vitamins
D. D) Hormones

Question 16

Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?

A. A) Uracil
B. B) Thymine
C. C) Guanine
D. D) Cytosine

Question 17

Which of the following vitamin is helpful in the blood clotting?

A. A) Vitamin C
B. B) Vitamin E
C. C) Vitamin K
D. D) Vitamin B

Question 18

Subunits present in haemoglobin are

A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 4
D. D) 5 .

Question 19

When glucose reacts with bromine water, the main product is

A. A) acetic acid
B. B) saccharic acid
C. C) glyceraldehyde
D. D) gluconic acid

Question 20

Lysine is least soluble in water in the pH range

A. A) 3 to 4
B. B) 5 to 6
C. C) 6 to 7
D. D) 8 to 9 .

Question 21

The nucleic acid base having two possible binding sites is

A. A) thymine
B. B) cytosine
C. C) guanine
D. D) adenine.

Question 22

Glucose + ? ____ Sucrose

A. A) Glucose
B. B) Fructose
C. C) Arabinose
D. D) Lactase

Question 23

The helical structure of protein is stabilized by

A. A) dipeptide bonds
B. B) hydrogen bonds
C. C) ether bonds
D. D) peptide bonds

Question 24

Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives

A. A) D-ribose
B. B) D-glucose
C. C) L-glucose
D. D) D-fructose

Question 25

Which of the following is not true about the denaturation of protein?

A. A) 2 ∘ structure get destroyed

B. B) 3 ∘ structure get destroyed
C. C) 1 ∘ structure get destroyed
D. D) Bioactivity is lost

Question 26

Which one of the following biomolecules is insoluble in water?

A. A) α-Keratin
B. B) Haemoglobin
C. C) Ribonuclease
D. D) Adenine

Question 27

The structural feature which distinguishes proline from natural α -amino acids?

A. A) Proline is optically inactive.

B. B) Proline contains aromatic group.
C. C) Proline is a dicarboxylic acid.
D. D) Proline is a secondary amine.

Question 28

Observe the following statements. I. Sucrose has glycosidic linkage. II. Cellulose is present in
both plants and animals. III. Lactose contains D-galactose and D-glucose units. Which of the
following statements are correct?

A. A) (I), (II) and (III)

B. B) (I) and (II)
C. C) (I) and (II)
D. D) (I) and (III)

Question 29

Which of the following is not an essential amino acid?

A. A) Lysine
B. B) Histidine
C. C) Valine
D. D) Tyrosine

Question 30
Which of the following vitamins cannot be stored in the body?

A. A) A
B. B) C
C. C) E
D. D) K

Moderate Questions

Question 31

In alanylglycylleucylalanylvaline the number of peptide linkages is:

Question 32

Which of the following compounds will behave as reducing sugar in an aqueous KOH
solution?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 33
The predominant form of histamine present in human blood is (pK a , Histidine = 60)

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 34

Thymine is

A. A) 5-methyluracil
B. B) 4-methyluracil
C. C) 3-methyluracil
D. D) 1-methyluracil.

Question 35

The pair in which both species have iron is

A. A) nitrogenase, cytochromes
B. B) carboxypeptidase, haemoglobin
C. C) haemocyanin, nitrogenase
D. D) haemoglobin, cytochromes.

Question 36

Which of the following statement is correct?

A. A) Gluconic acid is a dicarboxylic acid
B. B) Gluconic acid is a partial oxidation product of glucose
C. C) Gluconic acid can form cyclic (acetal/hemiacetal) structure
D. D) Gluconic acid is obtained by oxidation of glucose with HNO 3

Question 37

Glycylalanine is a dipeptide of which amino acids?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 38

Hydrolysis of nucleic acid gives nitrogenous base sugar and......

A. A) sulphuric acid
B. B) phosphorous acid
C. C) sulphurous acid
D. D) phosphoric acid

Question 39

Maltose is made of the units

A. A) α − D glucose and β − D glucose

B. B) α − D glucose and β − D fructose
C. C) α − D glucose and α − D glucose
D. D) α − D glucose and β − D galactose.
Question 40

Match the following :

(i) Riboflavin (a) Beriberi

(ii) Thiamine (b) Scurvy
(iii) Pyridoxine (c) Cheilosis
(iv) Ascorbic acid (d) Convulsions

A. A) (i) − (a), (ii) − (d), (iii) − (c), (iv) − (b)

B. B) (i) − (c), (ii) − (d), (iii) − (a), (iv) − (b)
C. C) (i) − (c), (ii) − (a), (iii) − (d), (iv) − (b)
D. D) (i) − (d), (ii) − (b), (iii) − (a), (iv) − (c)

Question 41

The number of essential amino acids among the following is ________

Histidine, Glycine, Valine, Alanine, Aspartic acid, Lysine, Methionine.

Question 42

Thiamine and pyridoxine are also known respectively as :

A. A)
Vitamin B 2 and Vitamin E
B. B)
Vitamin E and Vitamin B 2
C. C)
Vitamin B 6 and Vitamin B 2
D. D)
Vitamin B 1 and Vitamin B 6

Question 43

Hydrolysis of which of the following nucleic acids does not give equal number of A and T or G
and C.

A. A) (A), (B), (C)

B. B) (B), (C), (D)
C. C) (B) only
D. D) (A) only
Question 44

In D - glucose (X) and D - Fructose (Y), which hydroxyl group participates in hemiacetal
formation

A. A) C − 5 in both X and Y
B. B) C − 5 in X and C − 6 in Y
C. C) C − 6 in X and C − 5 in Y
D. D) C − 4 in both X and Y

Question 45

Match List I with List II

List - I List - II
A. α - Glucose and α - Galactose I. Functional isomers
B. α - Glucose and β - Glucose II. Homologous Choose the
C. α - Glucose and α - Fructose III. Anomers
D. α - Glucose and α - Ribose IV. Epimers
correct answer from the options given below:

A. A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

B. B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
C. C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
D. D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 46

All of the following statements apply to proteins except

A. A) Proteins generally have no definite melting point

B. B) Proteins contain the grouping - CONH−
C. C) Proteins have high molecular weight
D. D) Proteins can only contain the elements C, H, O and N.

Question 47

Which of the following will not show mutarotation?

A. A) Maltose
B. B) Lactose
C. C) Glucose
D. D) Sucrose
Question 48

Match the following $

List - I List - II
b) Vitamin E i) Meat
c) Vitamin K ii) Sunflower oil
d) Vitamin B 12 iii) Egg white
e) Vitamin B 2 iv) Exposure to sunlight
v) Green leafy vegetables

$ The correct answer is

A. A) $

(a) (b) (c) (d)

iii ii iv i

$
B. B) $

(a) (b) (c) (d)

ii v i iii

$
C. C) $

(a) (b) (c) (d)

i iii ii v

$
D. D) $

(a) (b) (c) (d)

iv i v ii

Question 49

Find the hydrolysis product of maltose.

A. A) α-D-glucose +α-D-glucose
B. B) α-D-glucose +α − D-fructose
C. C) α − D − g glucose +α − D-galactose
D. D) α − D− fructose +α − D− galactose

Question 50

D-Glucose and D-mannose are:

A. A) enantiomers
B. B) functional isomers
C. C) epimers
D. D) metamers

Question 51

Which of the following sugars is not found in plants?

A. A) sucrose
B. B) glucose
C. C) lactose
D. D) fructose

Question 52

The correct match between item I and item II is

Item I (Compound) Item II (Reagent)

a. Lysine p. 1−naphthol
b. Furfural q. Ninhydrin
c. Benzyl alcohol r. KMnO 4
d. Styrene s. Ceric ammonium nitrate

A. A) a → q, b → r, c → s, d → p
B. B) a → q, b → p, c → s, d → r
C. C) a → r, b → p, c → q, d → s
D. D) a → q, b → p, c → r, d → s

Question 53

Among the following, the incorrect statement is

A. A) cellulose and amylose has 1, 4−glycosidic linkage.

B. B) lactose contains β − D−galactose and β − D−glucose.
C. C) maltose and lactose has 1, 4−glycosidic linkage.
D. D) sucrose and amylose has 1, 2−glycosidic linkage.

Question 54

The number of amino acids and number of peptide bonds in a linear tetrapeptide (made of
different amino acids) are respectively

A. A) 4 and 4
B. B) 5 and 5
C. C) 5 and 4
D. D) 4 and 3

Question 55

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. A) Amylopectin is insoluble in water.

B. B) Fructose is reducing sugar.
C. C) Cellulose is the polymer of D-glucose.
D. D) D-Ribose sugar is present in DNA.

Question 56

Select the option having all correctly matched pairs. A. Alkaloids (i) Carotenoid; Anthocyanin B.
Pigments (ii) Vinblastin; curcumin C. Drugs (iii) Morphine; Codeine

A. A) A-i; B-ii;C-iii
B. B) A-ii; B-iii; C-i
C. C) A-iii; B-i; C-ii
D. D) A-i; B-iii; C-ii

Question 57

Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

A. A) Sucrose
B. B) Maltose
C. C) Lactose
D. D) Mannose

Question 58

ADP and ATP differ in the number of

A. A) phosphate units
 B. B) ribose units
C. C) adenine base
D. D) nitrogen atom

Question 59

The correct observation in the following reaction is:

Gly cosidic bond Seliw anoff
Sucrose
−
− →A+B →?
Cleavage (Hydrolysis) Reagent

A. A) Formation of blue colour

B. B) Gives no colour
C. C) Formation of red colour
D. D) Formation of violet colour

Question 60

Amylopectin is composed of:

A. A) β − D− glucose , C 1 − C 4 and C 1 − C 6 linkages

B. B) α − D− glucose, C 1 − C 4 and C 2 − C 6 linkages
C. C) α − D− glucose, C 1 − C 4 and C 1 − C 6 linkages
D. D) β − D− glucose, C 1 − C 4 and C 2 − C 6 linkages

Hard Questions

Question 61

The correct structure of the dipeptide gly-ala is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 62

Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
A. Glucose/NaHCO 3 /Δ I. Gluconic acid
B. Glucose/HNO 3 II. No reaction
C. Glucose/HI /Δ III. n-hexane
D. Glucose/Bromine water IV. Saccharic acid

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

B. B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
C. C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
D. D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

Question 63

A tetrapeptide has -COOH group on alanine. This produces glycine (Gly), valine (Val), phenyl
alanine (Phe) and alanine (Ala), on complete hydrolysis. For this tetrapeptide, the number of
possible sequences (primary structures) with −NH 2 group attached to a chiral center is

Question 64

Identify the molecule (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their name and
occurrence.

(a)

(b)

A. A) (a) Lecithin - Cell membrane

B. B) (b) Uridylic acid - RNA
C. C) (a) Triglyceride - DNA
D. D) (b) Uracil - DNA

Question 65

Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct option from codes given below.

A. A) A− (iv), B − (iii), C− (i), D− (ii)

B. B) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)
C. C) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii)
D. D) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)

Question 66

Reduction of hexose A (molecular formula C 6 H 12 O 6 ) with sodium borohydride gives

compound B and C. Compound B is optically inactive, whereas compound C is optically active.
Which of the following is compound A?

A. A) D-fructose
B. B) D-glucose
C. C) D-mannose
D. D) D-galactose

Question 67

Which of the following structures is the correct Haworth representation of D-aldose?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 68

The increasing order of pKa of the following amino acids in aqueous solution is

Glycine, Aspartate, Lysine, Arginine.

A. A) Arginine < Lysine < Glycine < Aspartate

B. B) Aspartate < Glycine < Arginine < Lysine
C. C) Glycine < Aspartate < Arginine < Lysine
D. D) Aspartate < Glycine < Lysine < Arginine

Question 69

The formulas of A and B for the following reaction sequence are

A. A) A = C 7 H 14 O 8 , B = C 6 H 14
B. B) A = C 7 H 13 O 7 , B = C 7 H 14 O
C. C) A = C 7 H 12 O 8 , B = C 6 H 14
D. D) A = C 7 H 14 O 8 , B = C 6 H 14 O 6

Question 70

Synthesis of each molecule of glucose in photosynthesis involves

A. A) 8 molecules of ATP
B. B) 6 molecules of ATP
C. C) 18 molecules of ATP
D. D) 10 molecules of ATP

Question 71
A. A) heptanoic acid
B. B) 2-iodohexane
C. C) heptane
D. D) heptanol.

Question 72

Nucleosides are

A. A) A and B
B. B) B and C
C. C) C and D
D. D) D and A.

Question 73

Amylopectin is composed of

A. A) α -D-glucose with C 1 —C 4 and C 1 —C 6 linkage

B. B) α -D-glucose with C 1 —C 4 and C 2 —C 6 linkage
C. C) β -D-glucose with C 1 —C 4 and C 2 —C 6 linkage
D. D) β -D-glucose with C 1 —C 4 and C 1 —C 6 linkage

Question 74

1.
2.
3.
4.
The dipeptides which may be obtained from the aminoacids glycine and alanine are
A. A) only 1
B. B) only 2
C. C) both 1 and 2
D. D) all of them

Question 75

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. A) Recombinant DNA - DNA formed by the joining of segments of DNA from different
sources
B. B) Purine - Nitrogenous bases Cytosine, thymine and uracil
C. C) ATP - The principal energy carrying compound in the cell
D. D) r-RNA - RNA molecules found in ribosomes

Question 76

Sugar moiety in DNA and RNA molecules respectively are

A. A) β − D − 2−deoxyribose, β − D−deoxyribose
B. B) β − D−ribose, β − D − 2deoxyribose
C. C) β − D − 2−deoxyribose, β − D−ribose
D. D) β − Ddeoxyribose, β − D − 2deoxyribose

Question 77

The incorrect statement among the following is

A. A) α − D−glucose and β − D− glucose are enantiomers.

B. B)

the penta acetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine.

C. C) α − D−glucose and β − D−glucose are anomers.

D. D) cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide made up of only β − D−glucose units.

Question 78
If phthalic acid is treated with NH 3 and then it is first heated weakly then strongly, the final
product formed is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 79

Which of the following disaccharide will not reduce Tollen's reagent?

A. A) P
B. B) Q
C. C) P and Q both
D. D) None of these

Question 80

Consider the following

The above process in which α and β form remain in equilibrium with acyclic form and a change
in optical rotation is observed, is called as-

A. A) Mutarotation
B. B) Epimerisation
C. C) Condensation
D. D) Inversion

Question 81

Select the correct set of answer.

A. A) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S

B. B) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P
C. C) A − R, B − P, C − Q, D − S
D. D) A − S, B − Q, C − P, D − R

Question 82

Consider the following sequence for aspartic acid:

The pH (Isoelectric point) of aspartic acid is:

A. A) 3.65
B. B) 2.77
C. C) 5.74
D. D) 1.88

Question 83

Which of the following statements are true about carbohydrates? (i) Monosaccharides can be
hydrolysed. (ii) The two monosaccharide units obtained on hydrolysis of a disaccharide can
either be same or different. (iii) Polysaccharides are now sweet in taste. (iv) All
monosaccharides are not reducing. sugars.

A. A) (i) and (ii)

B. B) (ii) and (iii)
C. C) (iii) and (iv)
D. D) (i) and (iv)

Question 84

A child took sugar cane and sucked its juice. Regarding this which of the following match is
correct?

Substrate Enzyme Site of secretion of enzyme Products formed

A. A)
Proteins Pepsin Duodenum Polypeptides
Substrate Enzyme Site of secretion of enzyme Products formed
B. B)
Starch Amylase Salivary glands Glucose
Substrate Enzyme Site of secretion of enzyme Products formed
C. C)
Lipids Lipase Pancreas Fat globules

D. D)
Substrate Enzyme Site of secretion of enzyme Products formed
Sucrose Invertase Duodenum Glucose + Fructose

Question 85

Among the following L-serine is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 86

The correct structure of Ruhemann's Purple, the compound formed in the reaction of Ninhydrin
with proteins is:

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 87

The figure given below shows three velocitysubstrate concentration curves for an enzyme
reaction. What do the curves a, b, and c depict respectively?

A. A) a-normal enzyme reaction, b-competitive inhibition, c-non-competitive inhibition

B. B) a-enzyme with an allosteric modulator added, b-normal enzyme activity, c-competitive
inhibition
C. C) a-enzyme with an allosteric stimulator, b-competitive inhibition added c-normal enzyme
reaction
D. D) a-normal enzyme reaction, b-non-competitive inhibitor added c-allosteric inhibitor added

Question 88

Which of the following is correct structure of α-anomer of maltose?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 89

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 90

If number of aldose, ketose, furanose and pyranose units present in maltose are p, q, r, s
respectively. Find the value of p + q + r + s

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - C Q31 - 4 (Num) Q61 - C
Q2 - B Q32 - D Q62 - B
Q3 - A Q33 - A Q63 - 4 (Num)
Q4 - C Q34 - A Q64 - A
Q5 - B Q35 - D Q65 - C
Q6 - D Q36 - B Q66 - A
Q7 - C Q37 - A Q67 - B
Q8 - A Q38 - D Q68 - D
Q9 - C Q39 - C Q69 - A
Q10 - A Q40 - C Q70 - C
Q11 - A Q41 - 4 (Num) Q71 - A
Q12 - C Q42 - D Q72 - B
Q13 - B Q43 - A Q73 - A
Q14 - A Q44 - A Q74 - D
Q15 - C Q45 - A Q75 - B
Q16 - A Q46 - D Q76 - C
Q17 - C Q47 - D Q77 - A
Q18 - C Q48 - B Q78 - D
Q19 - D Q49 - A Q79 - B
Q20 - D Q50 - C Q80 - A
Q21 - C Q51 - C Q81 - A
Q22 - B Q52 - B Q82 - B
Q23 - B Q53 - D Q83 - B
Q24 - B Q54 - D Q84 - D
Q25 - C Q55 - D Q85 - C
Q26 - A Q56 - C Q86 - D
Q27 - D Q57 - A Q87 - A
Q28 - D Q58 - A Q88 - A
Q29 - D Q59 - C Q89 - B
Q30 - B Q60 - C Q90 - 4 (Num)