This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions.

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A book is lying on surface of table
F1 = Weight of book and
F2 = Normal reaction of table on book
(1) F1 and F2 are action - reaction pair
(2) F1 and F2 are not action - reaction pair.
(3) F1 and F2 may or may not be action - reaction pair.
(4) None of them
2. Which of the following wave cannot travel in vacuum?
(1) Gamma rays (2) Sound waves
(3) Radio waves (4) UV rays
3. If the density of planet is 25% more than that of Earth and its radius is three times that of the Earth, then the
acceleration due to gravity on that planet will be (take acceleration due to gravity on the Earth as 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 4.9 m/s2 (2) 13.6 m/s2
(3) 36.75 m/s2 (4) 9.8 m/s2
4. What does the Richter scale measure during an earthquake?
(1) The frequency of aftershocks
(2) The depth of the earthquake focus
(3) The time of the earthquake
(4) The intensity of the earthquake
5. A plane mirror is used to form image of an object. If the object distance is 15 cm, what is the image distance and
what type of reflection it is?
(1) 7.5 cm, specular
(2) 15 cm, specular
(3) 7.5 cm, diffused
(4) 30 cm, specular
6. Between two stations, a train accelerates uniformly at first, then moves with constant speed and finally, retard
uniformly to come to rest. If the ratio of time taken are 1 : 6 : 1 and the greatest speed is 60 km/hr, then the
average speed over the whole journey is
(1) 52.5 km/hr (2) 54 km/hr
(3) 45 km/hr (4) 53 km/hr
7. A toy car has mass 250g moving with a speed 15 m/s. It moves on sand and stops in 0.5 seconds, what is the
magnitude of average force exerted by sand on the toy car?
(1) 7 N (2) 8 N
(3) 10 N (4) 7.5 N
8. Which statement is true regarding the relationship between frequency and pitch?
(1) Higher frequency results in a lower pitch. (2) Lower frequency results in a higher pitch.
(3) Higher frequency results in a higher pitch. (4) Pitch is not related to frequency.
9. Which graph shows variation in acceleration due to gravity (g) with distance from the centre of earth (r)?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

10. Assertion : An object moving with constant velocity has zero net force acting on it.
Reason : Constant velocity implies no change in speed or direction of object.
(1) Both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(4) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
11. Three balls of different masses are thrown vertically upwards with initial speeds as indicated-

What is the correct sequence (from fastest to slowest) of the speeds of the balls 1 second after being thrown?
(1) vB > vA > vC (2) vA > vB > vC
(3) vB > vC > vA (4) vA = vB = vC
12. Fill in the following blanks :
The phenomenon as shown in figure below demonstrates splitting of white light into its constituent colours
which is known as “ –––––––
I of light”, and –––––––
II – colour is at the top of the spectrum.

(1) I – Dispersion ; II – Violet (2) I – Dispersion ; II – Red

(3) I – Scattering ; II – Violet (4) I – Scattering ; II – Red
13. Two electroscopes one positively charged (X) and the other negatively charged (Y) are connected with a copper
wire as shown in figure. Which of the following will be true about movement of electrons or protons :

(1) Electrons will move from X to Y.

(2) Protons will move from X to Y.
(3) Electrons will move from Y to X.
(4) Protons will move from Y to X
14. Which of the following graph represents uniform acceleration?

(1) Only (III) (2) Only (II) & (III) (3) Only (I) (4) Only (II)
15. An astronaut feels weightlessness in a satellite because of
(1) Zero gravity
(2) Center of mass
(3) Zero reaction force by satellite surface
(4) Height
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
16. Match the column-I with column-II.
Column-I Column-II
P Starting material for fertilizers (a) Coke
Q Petrol, kerosene, paraffin wax (b) Coal tar
R Extraction of many metals (c) Natural gas
S Synthetic dyes, plastics & drugs (d) Petroleum
(1) P-c, Q-a, R-d, S-b
(2) P-b, Q-d, R-c, S-a
(3) P-d, Q-c, R-b, S-a
(4) P-c, Q-d, R-a, S-b
17. Automobile exhaust is ___________ type of colloidal solution.
(1) liquid in gas (2) solid in gas
(3) solid in liquid (4) liquid in liquid
18. The product bitumen that is primarily used for road construction is derived from ________.
(1) Coke (2) Coal
(3) Petrol (4) Crude oil
19. Which zone of candle flame is moderately hot & which zone has unburnt wax vapours respectively?
(1) Middle zone & Outermost zone
(2) Middle zone & Innermost zone
(3) Innermost zone & Outermost zone
(4) Outermost zone & Innermost zone
20. Identify the correct order of calorific values for given fuels.
(1) Hydrogen > CNG < Wood
(2) Cowdung cake > Wood > LPG
(3) Wood < CNG < Hydrogen
(4) Wood < LPG < Diesel
21. Which of the following decreases on increasing the temperature?
(1) Diffusion (2) Fusion
(3) Kinetic energy (4) Condensation
22. Which property of matter is represented by diffusion?
(1) Particles of matter have space between them.
(2) Particles of matter attract each other.
(3) Particles of matter are continuously moving.
(4) Matter is continuous in nature.
23. The amount of water that must be evaporated from 150 mL of ethanol solution in water having concentration
30% to increase the concentration by 10% is _________.
(1) 37.5 mL (2) 32.5 mL
(3) 82.5 mL (4) 67.5 mL
24. Which of the following property does not prove that water is a compound?
(1) Water is made up of two different elements, which chemically combined with one another in a fixed
proportion.
(2) Water has a fixed boiling point.
(3) The constituents of water cannot be separated by simple physical methods.
(4) Distilled water and tap water have same taste and constituents.
25. Why water is not suitable for fires involving oil?
(1) Oil is heavier than water, so contact of air is broken with fuel.
(2) Oil is soluble in water, so they burn together.
(3) Water is heavier than oil, so contact of air doesn't break with fuel.
(4) Oil is insoluble in water, so they cannot burn together.
26. From the given graph, arrange A, B, C and D in the increasing order of their solubilities at 30°C.

(1) CBDA
(2) BCAD
(3) ABCD
(4) DCBA
27. What is the correct order of increasing intermolecular forces of attraction in the following substances?
(1) Water < Sugar < Carbon dioxide < Acetone (2) Carbon dioxide < Acetone < Water < Sugar
(3) Sugar < Water < Acetone < Carbon dioxide (4) Carbon dioxide < Water < Acetone < Sugar
28. Refer to the given venn diagram. Which among the following would most likely to be X and Y respectively?

(1) X-Coal, Y-Natural gas (2) X-Coal, Y-CNG

(3) X-Petroleum, Y-LPG (4) X-Coke, Y-Coal gas
29. Which of the following graph is correct for water at an atmospheric pressure other than 1atm?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) Mixing kerosene and water is a physical change, while burning of kerosene is a chemical change.
(2) Solute particles of true solution can be separated by filtration.
(3) Mixtures can be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
(4) In mixtures, properties of constituting components are retained.
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Which of the following microorganism belongs to the group of eukaryotic, autotrophic organisms having cell
wall made up of cellulose ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

32. How many crops from the following are likely to be sown in the month of June & harvested in the month of
October ?
Soyabean, Cotton, Wheat, Gram, Mustard, Maize
(1) Only 2 (2) Only 4 (3) Only 5 (4) Only 3
33. Select the option with the correct sequence of words to fill in the blanks in the given statements.
(a) The process of loosening and turning of the soil is called __A__.
(b) __B__ involves removal of unwanted and uncultivated plants called weeds.
A B
(1) Ploughing Harvesting
(2) Weeding Ploughing
(3) Ploughing Weeding
(4) Ploughing Threshing
34. Hermaphroditism is a form of sexual reproduction in which a single individual produces both eggs and sperms.
From the given options, identify such type of organism-
(1) Hen (2) Frog (3) Parrot (4) Earthworm
35. Select the the endemic flora & fauna of Pachmarhi biosphere reserve.
(1) Flora – Sal, Fauna – Indian giant squirrel (2) Flora – Wild mango, Fauna – Arjun
(3) Flora – Sal, Fauna – Giant panda (4) Flora – Wild mango, Fauna – Sal
36. Sowing is an important part of crop production. While sowing the seeds, farmers should keep the following
points in mind -
(1) Selection of good quality, clean and healthy seeds.
(2) Seeds must be sown uniformly at equal distance.
(3) Seeds must be placed at great depth in soil for better germination.
(4) Both (1) & (2)
37. A person is suffering from a disease 'X', due to the deficiency of hormone 'Y' which is secreted from 'Z'. This
disease is characterized by high level of sugar in blood and urine. Identify 'X', 'Y' & 'Z' respectively along with
the location of 'Z'.
(1) Goiter, Adrenaline, thyroid gland; in the loop of duodenum.
(2) Diabetes, Insulin, Pancreas; in the loop of duodenum.
(3) Diabetes, Glucagon, Pancreas; at the junction of larynx & trachea.
(4) Diabetes, Thyroxine, Pancreas; in the loop of duodenum.
38. Refer to the given mind map & identify the microorganisms 'P', 'Q', 'R', 'S', 'T' & 'U'.

P Q R S T U
Paramyxo Clostridium Trypanosoma Penicillium Penicilluim
(1) HIV
virus tetani brucei chrysogenum griseofulvum
Trypanosoma Penicillium Penicillium
(2) HIV Bacteriophage Leishmania
brucei griseofulvum chrysogenum
Influenza Trypanosoma Penicillium Penicillium
(3) HIV virus brucei Leishmania griseofulvum notatum
Leishmania Trypanosoma Penicillium Penicillium
(4) HIV Bacteriophage
donovani brucei griseofulvum notatum
39. Biosphere reserve is a protected area; a part of the animals larger natural habitat which often includes one or
more national parks along with expanded areas. Given below is a map of India marked with the states labelled as
'a', 'b', 'c' & 'd'. With reference to the list of the biosphere reserve given below, match it with the states they are
located in and choose the correct option.

(i) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (ii) Similipal Biosphere Reserve

(iii) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve (iv) Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
(1) (i) - d; (ii) - c; (iii) - a; (iv)-b (2) (i) - c; (ii) - d; (iii) - b; (iv)-a
(3) (i) - a; (ii) - b; (iii) - c; (iv)-d (4) (i) - b; (ii) - a; (iii) - c; (iv)-d
40. Refer to the figure given below & identify the types of chromosomes 'W', 'X', 'Y' & 'Z'.

Read the given statements carefully & identify the correct ones with respect to 'W', 'X', 'Y' & 'Z'.
(i) 'Y' is telocentric chromosome in which centromere is near the end and consequently its one arm is very short
and the other arm is very long while 'W' is acrocentric chromosome in which centromere is near the middle.
(ii) 'W' is acrocentric chromosome in which centromere is near the end while 'Z' is metacentric in which the two
arm are almost equal in length as centromere is located in the middle region.
(iii) 'X' is telocentric in which the arm is on one side only as the centromere is located at the tip of chromosome
while 'Y' is submetacentric where centromere is located slightly away from the middle point & its one arm is
slightly shorter than the other arm.
(iv) 'Y' is telocentric in which its one arm is very long and the other is very short while 'Z' is submetacentric in
which the centromere is slightly away from the middle point.
(v) 'W' is acrocentric in which centromere is located at the tip of chromosome while 'X' is telocentric in which
centromere is located near the centre of chromosome.
(1) The statements (iv) & (v) are correct while the statements (i), (ii) & (iii) are incorrect.
(2) The statements (i), (iv) & (v) are correct while the statements (ii) & (iii) are incorrect.
(3) The statements (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct while the statements (iv) & (v) are incorrect.
(4) The statements (ii) & (iii) are correct while the statements (i), (iv) & (v) are incorrect.
41. A method of preservation of milk in which it is heated to about 70°C for 15 – 30 seconds and then suddenly
chilled & stored. The method is ________.
(1) Refrigeration (2) Pasteurisation
(3) Sterilization (4) Incubation
42. Read the given statements carefully and select the correct set of statements.
(i) Ribosomes are the only cell organelles which can be found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell.
(ii) All prokaryotes have a cell membrane surrounding the cell wall.
(iii) Prokaryotes do not have a well defined nucleus.
(iv) All the eukaryotic cells have cell wall.
(1) (i) & (ii) only (2) (i) & (iii) only
(3) (ii) & (iv) only (4) (iii) & (iv) only
43. Which of the following is likely to be responsible for grittiness in fruits like sapota, guava & pear ?
(1) The presence of collenchyma.
(2) The presence of chlorenchyma.
(3) The presence of sclereids.
(4) The presence of parenchyma.
44. Read the given passage where some of the words are underlined.
The cutting and gathering of food crops after their maturation is called threshing. It can be done with hands using
a plough or with the help of a machine called seed drill. Many crops require special harvesting machines like
cotton stripper for corn & corn picker for cotton.
Select the correct option regarding the underlined words-
(1) The word, 'threshing' should be replaced by 'winnowing' while 'seed drill' should be replaced by
'sickle'.
(2) The position of 'corn' and 'cotton' should be interchanged while 'plough' should be replaced by
'harvester'.
(3) The position of 'seed drill' and 'plough' should be interchanged while 'threshing' should be replaced by
'manuring'.
(4) The word 'threshing ' should be replaced by 'harvesting' while 'plough' should be replaced by 'sickle'.
45. In which of the following vessel, digested fat gets absorbed in intestine ?
(1) Arteries
(2) Lymphatic capillaries
(3) Veins
(4) Blood capillaries
This section contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
46. If p4 – q4 = 65, where ‘p’ and ‘q’ are positive integers, then p4 + q4 is
(1) 99 (2) 103
(3) 97 (4) 113
47. Rahim is saving for a new bike which will cost Rs. 480. Rahim earns Rs.1500 per month. Rahim spends his
money on bills, food and extras in the ratio 8 : 3 : 4. Of the money he spends on extras, he spends 80% and puts
20% into his saving account. How long will it take Rahim to save for his new bike?
(1) 10 months (2) 6 months
(3) 3 months (4) 5 months
48. If 7k9 is a 3 digit perfect cube, then the value of 3
k is
(1) – 1 (2) – 2 (3) 2 (4) 9
49. If 40 persons can do a piece of work in 14 days, then the number of persons required to complete the same work
in 28 days are
(1) 10 (2) 15
(3) 20 (4) 25
2 −3 2 2
x−3 × y2 × −z −4 y2 1
4
50. If m = ÷ , then the value of m+ is
(y −2 )5 × (x3 )−2 × (z −3 )4 z −4 m
1
(1) 9 (2) 36 (3) 16 (4)
16
51. A cube of edge 12 cm is filled half, a cuboid with dimensions 10 cm × 8 cm × 15 cm is filled one third and a
3 th
cylinder with radius 7 cm and height 10 cm is filled of its volume. All three solids are emptied into a new
7
22
cylinder of height 37 cm and radius R. If the new cylinder is completely filled, then R is π =
7
(1) 3 cm (2) 4.07 cm
(3) 5.02 cm (4) 3.93 cm
x
52. If = 440 and y = 14 × 50 × 28, then 2
x y is
2.25
(1) 25 (2) 50
(3) 45 (4) 40
53. ABCD is a kite whose diagonals intersect at E. If ∠ DAB = 44° and ∠ BCD = 86°, then find ∠ EBC.
(1) 68° (2) 47°
(3) 86° (4) 42°
54. 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
The expression +
10 11
+. . . . . . . +
2025
+ +
9 10 11
+. . . . . . +
2024
– +
9 10
+. . . . . . . +
2025
+
10 11
+. . . . . . . +
2024
is

(1) 0 (2) 1
2024
(3) 1 (4) 1
2025 18225
55. A( – 3, – 3), B(5, – 3) and C(7, 4) are vertices of a parallelogram ABCD. The area of ABCD is
(1) 24 units2 (2) 56 units2
(3) 96 units2 (4) 84 units2

1 3 1
56. If additive inverse of + is x and multiplicative inverse of is y. Then value
2 7 26

of x + y is
(1) 1 (2) 1
−
28 56
(3) 1 (4) 1
−
56 28
57. When the polynomial p(x) = ax2 + bx + c is divided by (x – 1) and (x + 1), the remainders obtained are 6 and 10
respectively. If the value of p(x) at x = 0 is 5, then 5a – 2b + 5c =
(1) 21 (2) 40
(3) 42 (4) 44
58. If the ages of two friends Ayan and Ryan differ by 2 years and the summation of their ages is 18 years, then the
age of the younger one is
(1) 9 years (2) 10 years
(3) 8 years (4) 7 years
59. In the given figure ℓ 1 || ℓ 2, then the value of ‘x’ is

(1) 85° (2) 95°

(3) 80° (4) 90°
60. Given (5 – a)3 + (a – c)3 + (c – 5)3 = 15ac and a + c = 5, then find the value of 5(a – c).
(1) – 25 (2) – 5
(3) 25 (4) 0
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Aakash said to Mohit, “That boy in blue shirt is younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father’s wife”.
How is the boy in blue shirt related to Aakash?
(1) Father (2) Uncle
(3) Brother (4) Nephew
62. In a certain code language ‘HEAD’ is coded as 106, ‘LAST’ is coded as 906 then find the code for ‘BOOK’ in
the same code language ?
(1) 500 (2) 525 (3) 575 (4) 600
63. If in a certain code language, PARENT is written as BDFGJK and CHILDREN is written as MOXQUFGJ, then
how is REPRINT written in that code ?
(1) FGBFXJK (2) FGBUXJK
(3) FGBFXGD (4) BGBFXJK
64. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(1) 14 (2) 15 (3) 16 (4) 20

65. The different positions of a dice has been given. What letter will be on the face opposite to the face having the
letter F?

(1) B (2) D (3) C (4) A

66. The figure (X) given below is the unfolded position of a dice. This unfolded figure is followed by four different
figures of dice. You have to select the figure which is identical to the figure (X).

(1) (2) (3) (4)

67. P%Q means P is 15m North of Q
P$Q means P is 23m West of Q
P&Q means P is 18m South of Q
P@Q means P is 25m East of Q
P%@Q means P is in the North-East of Q
P&$Q means P is in the South-West of Q
P%$Q means P is in the North-West of Q
P&@Q means P is in the South-East of Q
If Q&R$S&T, S%U and Q@P, then U is in which direction with respect to P ?
(1) %@ (2) &$ (3) &@ (4) %$
68. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as it’s part.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

69. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall and all of them are facing west. D is on the immediate left of C. E is
at an extreme end and has B as his neighbour. G is between B and F. D is sitting third from the north end. Who is
sitting to the immediate left of D ?
(1) B (2) C (3) E (4) F
70. Insert the missing character in the following figure.

(1) 25 (2) 16 (3) 10 (4) 15

71. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will continue the same series as established by the four
problem figures.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

72. If ‘+’ means ‘÷’, ‘ – ’ means ‘+’, ‘×’ means ‘ – ’ and ‘÷’ means ‘×’, then the answer to the below question is:
15 × 5 + 2 – 3 ÷ 6
(1) 27.5 (2) 30.5 (3) 32.5 (4) 31.5
73. Which of the following is the exact mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed on the right side of the figure?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

74. Find the next term of the given series.

BCYX, EFVU, HISR, KLPO, ?
(1) NOML (2) NOLM (3) ONML (4) ONLM
75. Surya is positioned 10th from the left end and Axar is positioned 8th from the right end in a row of 15 students.
How many students are between them?
(1) 6 (2) 15 (3) 1 (4) 0
76. In a row, Aman is 6th from the left end and Bhana is 10th from the right end. If they exchange their positions
Aman becomes 16th from the left end. Then how many persons are there between them in that row?
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 12
77. Find the missing number in given series.
62, 64, ?, 32, 14, 16
(1) 26 (2) 28 (3) 30 (4) 32
78. Find the value of ‘?’ in the given series.
5, 12, 23, 50, 141, ?
(1) 415 (2) 430 (3) 439 (4) 488
79. In the following Venn diagram rectangle represents men, triangle represents educated, circle represents urban
and square represents government employees.

Which one of the following represents the educated men but not urban?
(1) 9 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 11
80. Find the water image of the given figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

 ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 4 2 3

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 1 4 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 2 4 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 4 3 1 1
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 4 3 3 2 4 1 3 1 3 4 4 1

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