1.
When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur,
which of the following is the most useful criterion?
A. Sperm count
B. Sperm motility
C. Sperm maturity
D. Semen volume
2. A couple who wants to conceive but has been unsuccessful during
the last 2 years has undergone many diagnostic procedures. When
discussing the situation with the nurse, one partner states, “We
know several friends in our age group and all of them have their
own child already, Why can’t we have one?”. Which of the following
would be the most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this couple?
A. Fear related to the unknown
B. Pain related to numerous procedures.
C. Ineffective family coping related to infertility.
D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
3. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant
woman most frequently experience during the first trimester?
A. Dysuria
B. Frequency
C. Incontinence
D. Burning
4. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are
most likely the result of which of the following?
A. Increased plasma HCG levels
B. Decreased intestinal motility
C. Decreased gastric acidity
D. Elevated estrogen levels
5. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to
observe chloasma?
A. Breast, areola, and nipples
B. Chest, neck, arms, and legs
C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs
D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose
6. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The
nurse’s explanation is based on which of the following as the cause?
A. The large size of the newborn
B. Pressure on the pelvic muscles
C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
D. Excessive weight gain
7. Which of the following represents the average amount of weight
gained during pregnancy?
A. 12 to 22 lb
B. 15 to 25 lb
C. 24 to 30 lb
D. 25 to 40 lb
8. When talking with a pregnant client who is experiencing aching
swollen, leg veins, the nurse would explain that this is most
probably the result of which of the following?
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging uterus
D. The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus
9. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are classified as which of
the following?
A. Diagnostic signs
B. Presumptive signs
C. Probable signs
D. Positive signs
10. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive
sign of pregnancy?
A. Hegar sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Skin pigmentation changes
D. Positive serum pregnancy test
11. Which of the following common emotional reactions to
pregnancy would the nurse expect to occur during the first
trimester?
A. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism
B. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness
C. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
12. During which of the following would the focus of classes be
mainly on physiologic changes, fetal development, sexuality, during
pregnancy, and nutrition?
A. Prepregnant period
B. First trimester
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester
13. Which of the following would be disadvantage of breast feeding?
A. Involution occurs more rapidly
B. The incidence of allergies increases due to maternal
antibodies
C. The father may resent the infant’s demands on the
mother’s body
D. There is a greater chance for error during preparation
14. Which of the following would cause a false-positive result on a
pregnancy test?
A. The test was performed less than 10 days after an abortion
B. The test was performed too early or too late in the
pregnancy
C. The urine sample was stored too long at room temperature
D. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is impending
15. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the
following?
A. 5 weeks gestation
B. 10 weeks gestation
C. 15 weeks gestation
D. 20 weeks gestation
16. A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be which of the
following?
A. January 2
B. March 28
C. April 12
D. October 12
17. Which of the following fundal heights indicates less than 12
weeks’ gestation when the date of the LMP is unknown?
A. Uterus in the pelvis
B. Uterus at the xiphoid
C. Uterus in the abdomen
D. Uterus at the umbilicus
18. Which of the following danger signs should be reported promptly
during the antepartum period?
A. Constipation
B. Breast tenderness
C. Nasal stuffiness
D. Leaking amniotic fluid
19. Which of the following prenatal laboratory test values would the
nurse consider as significant?
A. Hematocrit 33.5%
B. Rubella titer less than 1:8
C. White blood cells 8,000/mm3
D. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL
20. Which of the following characteristics of contractions would the
nurse expect to find in a client experiencing true labor?
A. Occurring at irregular intervals
B. Starting mainly in the abdomen
C. Gradually increasing intervals
D. Increasing intensity with walking
21. During which of the following stages of labor would the nurse
assess “crowning”?
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
22. Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief during active
labor for which of the following reasons?
A. The neonatal effects include hypotonia, hypothermia,
generalized drowsiness, and reluctance to feed for the first
few days.
B. These drugs readily cross the placental barrier, causing
depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3 hours after
intramuscular injection.
C. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and lack of an
antagonist make them generally inappropriate during labor.
D. Adverse reactions may include maternal hypotension,
allergic or toxic reaction or partial or total respiratory failure
23. Which of the following nursing interventions would the nurse
perform during the third stage of labor?
A. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory tests.
B. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.
C. Coach for effective client pushing
D. Promote parent-newborn interaction.
24. Which of the following actions demonstrates the nurse’s
understanding about the newborn’s thermoregulatory ability?
A. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.
B. Suctioning with a bulb syringe
C. Obtaining an Apgar score
D. Inspecting the newborn’s umbilical cord
25. Immediately before expulsion, which of the following cardinal
movements occur?
A. Descent
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. External rotation
26. Before birth, which of the following structures connects the right
and left auricles of the heart?
A. Umbilical vein
B. Foramen ovale
C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Ductus venosus
27. Which of the following when present in the urine may cause a
reddish stain on the diaper of a newborn?
A. Mucus
B. Uric acid crystals
C. Bilirubin
D. Excess iron
28. When assessing the newborn’s heart rate, which of the following
ranges would be considered normal if the newborn were sleeping?
A. 80 beats per minute
B. 100 beats per minute
C. 120 beats per minute
D. 140 beats per minute
29. Which of the following is true regarding the fontanels of the
newborn?
A. The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is diamond
shaped.
B. The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior closes at 8
to 12 weeks.
C. The anterior is large in size when compared to the posterior
fontanel.
D. The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears sunken.
30. Which of the following groups of newborn reflexes below are
present at birth and remain unchanged through adulthood?
A. Blink, cough, rooting, and gag
B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag
C. Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, and cough
D. Stepping, blink, cough, and sneeze
31. Which of the following describes the Babinski reflex?
A. The newborn’s toes will hyperextend and fan apart from
dorsiflexion of the big toe when one side of foot is stroked
upward from the ball of the heel and across the ball of the
foot.
B. The newborn abducts and flexes all extremities and may
begin to cry when exposed to sudden movement or loud
noise.
C. The newborn turns the head in the direction of stimulus,
opens the mouth, and begins to suck when cheek, lip, or
corner of mouth is touched.
D. The newborn will attempt to crawl forward with both arms
and legs when he is placed on his abdomen on a flat
surface
32. Which of the following statements best describes hyperemesis
gravidarum?
A. Severe anemia leading to electrolyte, metabolic, and
nutritional imbalances in the absence of other medical
problems.
B. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to electrolyte,
metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the absence of
other medical problems.
C. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that commonly
results in dehydration and ultimately decreasing maternal
nutrients
D. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause gastrointestinal
irritation and possibly internal bleeding
33. Which of the following would the nurse identify as a classic sign
of PIH?
A. Edema of the feet and ankles
B. Edema of the hands and face
C. Weight gain of 1 lb/week
D. Early morning headache
34. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would
the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative
pregnancy tests?
A. Threatened
B. Imminent
C. Missed
D. Incomplete
35. Which of the following factors would the nurse suspect as
predisposing a client to placenta previa?
A. Multiple gestation
B. Uterine anomalies
C. Abdominal trauma
D. Renal or vascular disease
36. Which of the following would the nurse assess in a client
experiencing abruptio placenta?
A. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding
B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
C. Palpable fetal outline
D. Soft and nontender abdomen
37. Which of the following is described as premature separation of a
normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy,
usually with severe hemorrhage?
A. Placenta previa
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Incompetent cervix
D. Abruptio placentae
38. Which of the following may happen if the uterus becomes
overstimulated by oxytocin during the induction of labor?
A. Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70 seconds
B. Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90 seconds
C. Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
D. Increased restlessness and anxiety
39. When preparing a client for cesarean delivery, which of the
following key concepts should be considered when implementing
nursing care?
A. Instruct the mother’s support person to remain in the family
lounge until after the delivery
B. Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia department to
explain what to expect postoperatively
C. Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs of either a
planned or emergency cesarean birth
D. Explain the surgery, expected outcome, and kind of
anesthetics
40. Which of the following best describes preterm labor?
A. Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and before 37
weeks gestation
B. Labor that begins after 15 weeks gestation and before 37
weeks gestation
C. Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation and before 28
weeks gestation
D. Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation and before 40
weeks gestation
41. When PROM occurs, which of the following provides evidence of
the nurse’s understanding of the client’s immediate needs?
A. The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before the onset of
labor.
B. PROM removes the fetus most effective defense against
infection
C. Nursing care is based on fetal viability and gestational age.
D. PROM is associated with malpresentation and possibly
incompetent cervix
42. Which of the following factors is the underlying cause of
dystocia?
A. Nurtional
B. Mechanical
C. Environmental
D. Medical
43. When uterine rupture occurs, which of the following would be
the priority?
A. Limiting hypovolemic shock
B. Obtaining blood specimens
C. Instituting complete bed rest
D. Inserting a urinary catheter
44. Which of the following is the nurse’s initial action when umbilical
cord prolapse occurs?
A. Begin monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR
B. Place the client in a knee-chest position in bed
C. Notify the physician and prepare the client for delivery
D. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the exposed cord
45. Which of the following amounts of blood loss following birth
marks the criterion for describing postpartum hemorrhage?
A. More than 200 ml
B. More than 300 ml
C. More than 400 ml
D. More than 500 ml
46. Which of the following is the primary predisposing factor related
to mastitis?
A. Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources localizing in the
lactiferous glands and ducts
B. Endemic infection occurring randomly and localizing in the
periglandular connective tissue
C. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased perception of
the urge to avoid
D. Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis, and cracking
of the nipples
47. Which of the following best describes thrombophlebitis?
A. Inflammation and clot formation that result when blood
components combine to form an aggregate body
B. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become
lodged within the pulmonary blood vessels
C. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually become
lodged within the femoral vein
D. Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with clot
formation on the vessel wall
48. Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse
expect if the client develops DVT?
A. Midcalf pain, tenderness and redness along the vein
B. Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after delivery
C. Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign, and swelling in
the affected limb
D. Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10 to 14 days
after delivery
49. Which of the following are the most commonly assessed findings
in cystitis?
A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills, and flank
pain
B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria, fever and
suprapubic pain
C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic pain, chills,
and fever
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting, dysuria, and
frequency
50. Which of the following best reflects the frequency of reported
postpartum “blues”?
A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers report some
form of postpartum blues
1. For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs
the client about the need to take the pill at the same time each day
to accomplish which of the following?
A. Decrease the incidence of nausea
B. Maintain hormonal levels
C. Reduce side effects
D. Prevent drug interactions
2. When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the
following would the nurse include as the most effective method for
preventing sexually transmitted infections?
A. Spermicides
B. Diaphragm
C. Condoms
D. Vasectomy
3. When preparing a woman who is 2 days postpartum for
discharge, recommendations for which of the following
contraceptive methods would be avoided?
A. Diaphragm
B. Female condom
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Rhythm method
4. For which of the following clients would the nurse expect that an
intrauterine device would not be recommended?
A. Woman over age 35
B. Nulliparous woman
C. Promiscuous young adult
D. Postpartum client
5. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, “I’m constipated all
the time!” Which of the following should the nurse recommend?
A. Daily enemas
B. Laxatives
C. Increased fiber intake
D. Decreased fluid intake
6. Which of the following would the nurse use as the basis for the
teaching plan when caring for a pregnant teenager concerned about
gaining too much weight during pregnancy?
A. 10 pounds per trimester
B. 1 pound per week for 40 weeks
C. ½ pound per week for 40 weeks
D. A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds
7. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on
January 14 and ended on January 20. Using Nagele’s rule, the nurse
determines her EDD to be which of the following?
A. September 27
B. October 21
C. November 7
D. December 27
8. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who
states, “I had a son born at 38 weeks gestation, a daughter born at
30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks,”the nurse
should record her obstetrical history as which of the following?
A. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
B. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
C. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
D. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
9. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’
gestation, the nurse would use which of the following?
A. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
B. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region
C. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the
xiphoid process
D. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus
10. When developing a plan of care for a client newly diagnosed
with gestational diabetes, which of the following instructions would
be the priority?
A. Dietary intake
B. Medication
C. Exercise
D. Glucose monitoring
11. A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained 6 pounds in 4 weeks.
Which of the following would be the priority when assessing the
client?
A. Glucosuria
B. Depression
C. Hand/face edema
D. Dietary intake
12. A client 12 weeks’ pregnant come to the emergency department
with abdominal cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum
examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical [Link] nurse would
document these findings as which of the following?
A. Threatened abortion
B. Imminent abortion
C. Complete abortion
D. Missed abortion
13. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for
a client with an ectopic pregnancy?
A. Risk for infection
B. Pain
C. Knowledge Deficit
D. Anticipatory Grieving
14. Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness and
position in relation to the umbilicus and midline, which of the
following shouldthe nurse do first?
A. Assess the vital signs
B. Administer analgesia
C. Ambulate her in the hall
D. Assist her to urinate
15. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara
who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore nipples?
A. Tell her to breast feed more frequently
B. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
C. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
D. Use soap and water to clean the nipples
16. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4 hours’
postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60; temperature 100.4ºF;
pulse 100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which of the following
shouldthe nurse do first?
A. Report the temperature to the physician
B. Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff
C. Assess the uterus for firmness and position
D. Determine the amount of lochia
17. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on
four clients. Which of the following assessments would warrant
notification of the physician?
A. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client
B. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days
postpartum
C. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks
after delivery
D. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
18. A postpartum client has a temperature of 101.4ºF, with a uterus
that is tender when palpated, remains unusually large, and not
descending as normally expected. Which of the following shouldthe
nurse assess next?
A. Lochia
B. Breasts
C. Incision
D. Urine
19. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice
with the current early postpartum discharge?
A. Promoting comfort and restoration of health
B. Exploring the emotional status of the family
C. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
D. Teaching about the importance of family planning
20. Which of the following actions would be least effective in
maintaining a neutral thermal environment for the newborn?
A. Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing
B. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing
C. Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing
D. Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette
21. A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex response
should be further assessed for which of the following?
A. Talipes equinovarus
B. Fractured clavicle
C. Congenital hypothyroidism
D. Increased intracranial pressure
22. During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision, assessing for
which of the following is the priority?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Discomfort
D. Dehydration
23. The mother asks the nurse. “What’s wrong with my son’s
breasts? Why are they so enlarged?” Whish of the following would
be the best response by the nurse?
A. “The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma experienced
with birth”
B. “A decrease in material hormones present before birth
causes enlargement,”
C. “You should discuss this with your doctor. It could be a
malignancy”
D. “The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby was in the
uterus”
24. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on a male
newborn: respirations 78; apical hearth rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring;
mild intercostal retractions; and grunting at the end of expiration.
Which of the following shouldthe nurse do?
A. Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention
B. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
C. Suction the infant’s mouth and nares
D. Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity
25. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the telephone about
umbilical cord care. Which of the following statements by the
mother indicates effective teaching?
A. “Daily soap and water cleansing is best”
B. ‘Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs”
C. “An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents infection”
D. “He can have a tub bath each day”
26. A newborn weighing 3000 grams and feeding every 4 hours
needs 120 calories/kg of body weight every 24 hours for proper
growth and development. How many ounces of 20 cal/oz formula
should this newborn receive at each feeding to meet nutritional
needs?
A. 2 ounces
B. 3 ounces
C. 4 ounces
D. 6 ounces
27. The postterm neonate with meconium-stained amniotic fluid
needs care designed to especially monitor for which of the
following?
A. Respiratory problems
B. Gastrointestinal problems
C. Integumentary problems
D. Elimination problems
28. When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following
techniques denotes the correct method of measurement used by
the nurse?
A. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
B. From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
C. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
D. From the fundus to the umbilicus
29. A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with of BP
160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting edema. Which of the
following would be most important to include in the client’s plan of
care?
A. Daily weights
B. Seizure precautions
C. Right lateral positioning
D. Stress reduction
30. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, “When can we have
sexual intercourse again?” Which of the following would be the
nurse’s best response?
A. “Anytime you both want to.”
B. “As soon as choose a contraceptive method.”
C. “When the discharge has stopped and the incision is
healed.”
D. “After your 6 weeks examination.”
31. When preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to a
neonate, the nurse would select which of the following sites as
appropriate for the injection?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Anterior femoris muscle
C. Vastus lateralis muscle
D. Gluteus maximus muscle
32. When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse observes a red
swollen area on the right side of the vaginal orifice. The nurse would
document this as enlargement of which of the following?
A. Clitoris
B. Parotid gland
C. Skene’s gland
D. Bartholin’s gland
33. To differentiate as a female, the hormonal stimulation of the
embryo that must occur involves which of the following?
A. Increase in maternal estrogen secretion
B. Decrease in maternal androgen secretion
C. Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad
D. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad
34. A client at 8 weeks’ gestation calls complaining of slight nausea
in the morning hours. Which of the following client interventions
should the nurse question?
A. Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in an 8-ounce
glass of water
B. Eating a few low-sodium crackers before getting out of bed
C. Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning hours
D. Eating six small meals a day instead of thee large meals
35. The nurse documents positive ballottement in the client’s
prenatal record. The nurse understands that this indicates which of
the following?
A. Palpable contractions on the abdomen
B. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
C. Fetal kicking felt by the client
D. Enlargement and softening of the uterus
36. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purple-blue tinge of the
cervix. The nurse documents this as which of the following?
A. Braxton-Hicks sign
B. Chadwick’s sign
C. Goodell’s sign
D. McDonald’s sign
37. During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the rationale for
breathing techniques during preparation for labor based on the
understanding that breathing techniques are most important in
achieving which of the following?
A. Eliminate pain and give the expectant parents something to
do
B. Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing
uteroplacental perfusion
C. Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the perception of
pain
D. Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and anesthesia are
needed
38. After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that the
contractions of a primigravida client are not strong enough to dilate
the cervix. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate doing?
A. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion
B. Administering a light sedative to allow the patient to rest
for several hour
C. Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to progress
D. Increasing the encouragement to the patient when pushing
begins
39. A multigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation is admitted with painless,
bright red bleeding and mild contractions every 7 to 10 minutes.
Which of the following assessments should be avoided?
A. Maternal vital sign
B. Fetal heart rate
C. Contraction monitoring
D. Cervical dilation
40. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most appropriate
response to a client who asks why she must have a cesarean
delivery if she has a complete placenta previa?
A. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”
B. “You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.”
C. “The placenta is covering most of your cervix.”
D. “The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and
blocking your baby.”
41. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the
following positions with a face presentation?
A. Completely flexed
B. Completely extended
C. Partially extended
D. Partially flexed
42. With a fetus in the left-anterior breech presentation, the nurse
would expect the fetal heart rate would be most audible in which of
the following areas?
A. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of midline
B. In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant
C. In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant
D. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of midline
43. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse
interprets this to be the result of which of the following?
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnio
C. Meconium
D. Vernix
44. A patient is in labor and has just been told she has a breech
presentation. The nurse should be particularly alert for which of the
following?
A. Quickening
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Pica
D. Prolapsed umbilical cord
45. When describing dizygotic twins to a couple, on which of the
following would the nurse base the explanation?
A. Two ova fertilized by separate sperm
B. Sharing of a common placenta
C. Each ova with the same genotype
D. Sharing of a common chorion
46. Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces
itself after conception?
A. Chromosome
B. Blastocyst
C. Zygote
D. Trophoblast
47. In the late 1950s, consumers and health care professionals
began challenging the routine use of analgesics and anesthetics
during childbirth. Which of the following was an outgrowth of this
concept?
A. Labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum (LDRP)
B. Nurse-midwifery
C. Clinical nurse specialist
D. Prepared childbirth
48. A client has a midpelvic contracture from a previous pelvic injury
due to a motor vehicle accident as a teenager. The nurse is aware
that this could prevent a fetus from passing through or around
which structure during childbirth?
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Sacral promontory
C. Ischial spines
D. Pubic arch
49. When teaching a group of adolescents about variations in the
length of the menstrual cycle, the nurse understands that the
underlying mechanism is due to variations in which of the following
phases?
A. Menstrual phase
B. Proliferative phase
C. Secretory phase
D. Ischemic phase
50. When teaching a group of adolescents about male hormone
production, which of the following would the nurse include as being
produced by the Leydig cells?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Testosterone
C. Leuteinizing hormone
D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone