1.
What is the quantum of Transport Allowance eligible to a Government Servant placed under
suspension from 1-10-2017 to 31-12-2017?
A. 50% of eligible Transport Allowance
B. 100% of eligible Transport Allowance
C. 1/3rd of eligible Transport Allowance
D. Not eligible for Transport Allowance
2. As per GFR 2017, Rules -155 local purchase committee as constituted by a central govt.
department can purchase items costing up to Rs on each occasion
A. 50,000
B. 1,00,000
C. 1,50,000
D. 2,50,000
3. The tender system in which tender is sent only to approved vendors is called
A. Open tender
B. Global tender
C. Limited tender
D. Quotation cases
4. Which one of above information is not necessarily required in tender notice
A. Name of work with its location
B. Approximate cost of the work
C. Cost of tender form
D. Name of sanctioning authority
5. Which one of above is not deducted from bill of contractor
A. Income tax
B. Surcharge on income tax
C. Educational cess
D. Professional tax
6. NPS is being administered by regulated by
A. PFMS
B. PFRDA
C. NSDL
D. NIC
7. A journey between two places shall be determined with reference to
A. Cheapest Route
B. Shortest Route
C. Least reaching time
D. All the above
8. Period for which Performance Security should remain valid beyond the date of completion of
all contractual obligations of the supplier including warranty obligations?
A. 30 davs
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
9. GST is calculated on
A. Basic cost of the material
B. Basic cost of the material & packing charges
C. Basic cost of the raw material.
D. Basic cost of the material + forwarding charges + freight charges
10. Limited tenders will be called for works costing Rs.
A. Rs.10 Lakh B. Less than Rs.10 Lakh
C. Rs.5 Lakh D. Less than Rs.5 Lakh
11. A bidder may be debarred from bidding for a period of for breach of Code of
Integrity.
A. Not exceeding 3 vears B. Not exceeding 2 years
C. Not exceeding 4 years D. Not exceeding 1 year
12. Ordinarily, the minimum time to be allowed for submission of bids should be
weeks____________ from the date of publication of the domestic advertised tender.
A. 4 weeks B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 5 weeks
13. The weightage of the technical parameters in QCBS method should not exceed
percentage.
A. 70 % B. 80 % C. 50 % D. 60%
14. Contract Document, wherever necessary, should be executed within_____________ of the
issue of letter of acceptance.
A. 4 weeks B. 3 weeks C. 2 weeks D. 5 weeks
15. No claim for the payment from contractor shall be entertained after the lapse of_________
years of arising of the claim.
A. 4 years B. 3 years C. 2 years D. 1 year
16. MSE quoting price within price band L1+ percentage, when L1 is from someone
other than MSE, shall be allowed to supply at least 25% of tendered value at L1 subject
to lowering of price by MSE to L1 .
A. 20 % B. 25 % C. 10 % D. 15%
17. The GeM portal shall be utilized by the Government buyers for direct online purchase
upto Rupees _______for procurement of automobiles.
A. Rs.10 Lakh B. Rs.20 Lakh C. Rs.30 Lakh D. Rs.25 Lakh
18. As per the revised Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order, 2017,
Purchase Preference is given to ____________Supplier.
A. Class-I Local B. Class-II Local C. Non-local D. Both A and B
19. As per the revised Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order, 201 7, the
minimum local content requirement to Categorize a supplier as Class-II local supplier
is
A. 50 % B. 40 % C. 30 % D. 20%
20. As per the revised Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order, 2017,
procurement for a value more than , the class-I local / class-II local supplier shall be
required to provide a certificate from the statutory auditor or cost auditor of the company
giving the percentage of local content.
A. Rs.5 Crore B. Rs.10 Crore C. Rs.1 Crore D. Rs.15 Crore
21. Small value scrap upto a value of Rs. in each case may be sold directly to the local
scrap dealers on a summery quotation basis.
A. Rs.10,000/- B. Rs.5,000/— C. Rs.20,000/- D. Rs. 15,000/-
22 . When there is a discrepancy between the Unit Price and Total Price in a Financial Bid,
the __ Price shall prevail and _______________Price corrected accordingly.
A. Total Price, Unit Price B. Unit Price, Total Price
C. Revised Financial Bid to be obtained from the bidder D. Financial Bid is to be rejected.
23. One of the Criteria for an entity to be considered as Startups is that its turnover for any of the
financial years has not exceeded Rs. Crore.
A. 10 B. 25 C. 75 D. 100
24. An enterprise shall be classified as a Micro Enterprise as per MSMED Act, 2006, where the
investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed Rs,____________ and
turnover does not exceed Rs._______ respectively.
A. 1 Crore, 2 Crore B. 2 Crore, 4 Crore C. 5 crore, 5 crore D. 1 crore, 5 crore
25. The MSEs are provided following exemption(s) subject to furnishing of relevant valid certificate:
A. Tender cost B. Earnest Money Deposit (EMD)
C. Both A. and B. D. None of the above
26. As per Purchase Preference under Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order
2017, procurement of goods which are divisible in nature, if L1 bidder is not a Class-I local
supplier, _% of the order quantity shall be awarded to L1.
A. 25 B. 50 C. 75 D. 100
27. Concessional GST is applicable for procurement of goods by Public funded Research
Institutions to be used for :
A. Academic purposes only B. Administrative purposes only
C. Research purposes only D. Both Research and Academic purposes.
28. The credentials of suppliers on GeM are certified by
A. Buyer B. GeM SPV
C. Ministry of Finance D. None of these.
29. Govt. of India decided to reduce the Performance Security to_____________% of the
value of the contract for all existing contracts as well as tenders/ contracts issued/
concluded till 31.12.2021.
A. 2% B. 5% C. 3% D. 1%
30. Loss of a book of a value Rs. ______and rare books irrespective of value shall invariably
be investigated.
A. 5,00O/— B. 10,000/— C. 1,000/- D. 2,000/-
31. Out of the total annual procurement from MSEs, ___ percentage shall be
earmarked for procurement from MSEs owned women.
A. 5 B. 3 C. 2 D. 4
32. The delivery of sold scrap material has to be taken within calendar
days from the date of the acceptance letter / Sale Order.
A. 15 B. 21 C. 30 D. 45
33. In Two Bid System, bids are received in the following manner: ___________________
A. Technical Bid is to be received first followed by Financial Bid
B. Simultaneous receipt of separate technical and financial bid.
C. Financial bid is to be received first followed by Technical Bid
D. None of these
34. In case of maintenance contract, the advance payment amount should not exceed the
amount payable for under the contract.
A. 3 Months B. 6 Months C. 9 Months D. 1 2 Months
35. Advance payment demanded by State or Central Government agency or a Public
Sector Undertaking against fabrication contracts, should not exceed of the contract
value.
A. 25% B. 30% C. 40% D. 50%
36. Suspension of Government servant means
A. A kind of penalty
B. Temporary withdrawal of duties
C. Attending office without salary
D. None of the above
37. Censure means
A. A formal punishment
B. Imposition of penalty
C. A record of adverse entry in the confidential record
D. All the above
38. What is the due date for submission of T.A. claim on completion of journey?
A. Within 30 days
B. Within 1 year
C. within 15 days
D. Within 60 days
39. While making a public procurement, the description of the subject matter
should not contain which of the following?
A. technical specification
B. a particular trade mark, trade name or brand
C. quantity of goods to be procured
D. a complete schedule of procurement cycle
40. Which of the following is the function of an Inquiry officer?
A. His duty is to somehow prove the charges
B. He has to conduct an inquiry as a quasi-judicial functionary and send a report
C. He has to suggest deterrent punishment/ penalties
D. He can consult others behind the back of the Charged Officer and send the report
41. When will a bidder be debarred for supply of goods?
A. Due to non-availability of after-sales service
B. Supply of inferior quality of goods
C. Not making timely supply of goods
D. Convicted of an office under the Prevention of Corruption Act
42. Daily allowance is not admissible at tour station for a continuous halt beyond how many days?
A. 180 days
B. 30 days
C. 90 days
D. 240 days
43. A Public Authority is constituted b y
A. A law made by Parliament
B. The Constitution
C. A notification issued or order made by the appropriate Government
D. All the above
44. Composite transfer grant shall be equal to one month,
A. Grade Pay
B. Basic Pay plus NPA if any
C. Basic Pay plus DA
D. Grade Pay plus DA
45. What is the time-limit stipulated to the family of the deceased Government
Servant to complete a journey to settle at their home town?
A. Within six months after the date of death
B. Within nine months after the date of death
C. Within one year after the date of death
D. Within three months after the date of death
46. What is the rate of deputation allowance in case of deputation out of the station
i.e. other than Headquarters?
A. 5% of pay subject to a maximum of Rs.4,500 per month
B. 10% of pay subject to a maximum of Rs.9,000 per month
C. 7.5% of pay subject to a maximum of Rs.5,000 per month
D. 15% of pay subject to a maximum of Rs.7,500 per month
47. When will the personal pay granted to the official for passing Hindi examination?
A. From the date of declaration of result
B. Date of issue of order for grant of personal pay
C. The first of the month following the month in which results of examination
are announced
D. From the date of examination
48. As per 7th CPC , Maximum amount of retirement gratuity is
A. Rs. 10,00,000
B. Rs. 3,50,000
C. Rs. 15,00,000
D. Rs. 20,00,000
49. Who can issue GPF final payment authority?
A. A Drawing and Disbursing Officer.
B. Accounts Officer who maintains the GPF fund Account of the subscriber.
C. Appointing authority
D. Audit Officer.
50. Which of the following is correct with regard to availing LTC?
A. The declared place of visit may be changed before commencement of journey.
B. The declared place of visit can be changed during the journey
C. The declared place of visit can be changed after completion of the journey
D. The declared place of visit can be changed at the time of submission of LTC bill
51. The bloc to which the LTC is to be debited is decided from which of the following.
A. Date of outward journey
B. Date of return journey
C. Date of intimation to office
D. Date of submission of claim
52. In-patient treatment is permissible without consulting AMA in a:
A. Private nursing home
B. Private hospital
C. Private clinic
D. Government hospital/recognised hospital
53. Which of the following is horizontal reservation?
A. Reservation for Physically handicapped persons (PWD)
B. Reservation for Minorities
C. Reservation for OBC
D. Reservation for SC/ST/EWS
54. In contracts entitles a contractor to suitably enhance the contract
price if the cost rises beyond a given percentage:
A. Notional price
B. Indirect cost
C. Estimate
D. Escalation clause
55. The components of the prime cost are
A. Direct Material+ Direct Labor+ Other Direct Cost
B. Direct Labor+ Other Direct Cost+ FOH
C. Direct Labor+ FOH
D. None of the given options
56. Which one out of the following is not an inventory valuation method?
A. FIFO
B. LIFO
C. Weighted Average
D. EOQ
57. Earnest Money deposited by a Contractor with the Institute is
A. Current asset in the Balance Sheet of the Institute
B. Current liability in the Balance Sheet of the Institute
C. Cash balance in the Balance Sheet of the Institute
D. None of above
58. Advance payment to private firms against a contract entered by a central govt.
department should not exceed ___________percent of the total value of the
contract.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
59. The contract in which government can procure any number of specified item at fixed
unit rate during period of currency of contract is called
A. Lump sum contract
B. Rate contract
C. One delivery contract
D. Labour contract
60. CCS Pension Rules 1972 are not applicable to those who were appointed on are after
A. 01-04-2005
B. 01-01-2004
C. 01-09-2004
D. 01-10-2004
61. The rate of Leave Salary Contribution shall be
A. 8%
B. 10%
C. 11%
D. 13%
62. An online real-time purchasing technique utilised by the procuring entity to select the
successful bid, which involves presentation by bidders of successively more
favourable bids during a scheduled period of time and automatic evaluation of bids is
called
A. Electronic Procurement
B. Electronic Reverse Auction
C. Electronic Buyer Seller Action
D. Electronic Deliberation
63. QCBS stands for
A. Quality Control & Budgeting Syst m
B. Quality Control Based Selection
C. Quality and Cost Based Selection
D. Quality and Cost Based Supply
64. Disposal of scrap/old items may be done by
A. Auction
B. Sale by tender
C. Sale to other Govt. department and undertakings
D. All above
65. For procurement of non-consulting services of estimated value above advertised
tender should be adopted.
A. Rs.10 Lakh B. Rs.20 Lakh C. Rs.25 Lakh D. Rs.30 Lakh
66. As per Public Procurement Policy for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSEs) Order,
every Central Ministry /Department / PSUs shall set an annual target for _percentage
procurement from MSE Sector.
A. 30 % B. 20 % C.-25 % D. 10%
67. As per GFR-2017, Any bidder from a country which shares a land border with India will be eligible
to bid in any public procurement by Central Govt. and its agencies if the bidder has a valid
Registration Certificate issued by _
A. Ministry of Home Affairs B. Ministry of Defence
C. Ministry of Finance D. DPIIT
68. An enterprise shall be classified as a Small Enterprise as per MSMED Act, 2006, where the
investment in plant and machinery or equipment does not exceed Rs. ___ and turnover does not
exceed Rs._________ respectively.
A. 10 Crore, 20 Crore · B. 20 Crore, 40 Crore
C. 10 crore, 50 crore D. 50 crore, 50 crore
69. MSEs registered on or after 01 July 2020 shall be required to submit Registration Certificate
for availing benefit under Public Procurement Policy for MSEs.
A. EM-Part-II B. Udyog Aadhar Memorandum (UAM)
C. Udyam D. Any one of the above
70. As per Public Procurement (Preference to Make in India) Order 2017, the Nodal
Ministry or Department for category of items falling under "Scientific Lab and
Test equipment" is_____
A. Ministry of Electronics and IT B. Department of Heavy Industries
C. Department of Science and Technology D. Department of Telecommunication.
71. A Government servant is deemed to have been placed under suspension, if he is
detained in police custody for a period exceeding -
A. 24 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 6 hours
72. Which Rule provision of the CCS (CCA) Rule is to be considered by the Appellate
Authority in case of appeal against the order of suspension?
A. Rule 10
B. Rule 12
C. Rule 11
D. None of the above
73. Under which Act does a Government servant communicate official information in
performance of his duties?
A. Evidence Act
B. Copyright Act
C. Right to Information Act
D. Contract Act
74. Identify the document that does not form part of RFP.
A. A letter of invitation
B. Terms of reference
C. Bid evaluation criteria
D. Proposed list of potential consultants
75. What will be the T.A. reimbursement for travel by own car/full taxi between places
connected by rail?
A. At present rates of AC taxi by the Directorate of Transport
B. Actual fare by any type of public bus including AC bus
C. Highest entitled class of accommodation by rail on the particular route
D. Rs. 24 per km for journeys performed by own car/taxi
76. Purchase of Goods without quotations may be done up to a limit of:
A. Rs. 20,000
B. Rs. 25,000
C. Rs. 10,000
D. Rs. 8,000
77. Which of the following can neither be pre-fixed not suffixed to Earned Leave.
A. Paternity Leave
B. Maternity Leave
C. Restricted Holiday
D. Casual Leave
78. When should a second appeal be filed under Section 19 of the RTI Act?
A. Within 30 days
B. Within 60 days
C. Within 90 days
D. Within 180 days
79. How will you regulate Daily Allowance for local journeys, where the absence
from headquarters is less than 6 hours?
A. No DA is admissible
B. 15% of lumpsum amount
C. 35% of lumpsum amount
D. 50% of lumpsum amount
80. A Central Government servant went on deputation to a Central PSU/State PSU/AB,
who will bear the LS/PS contribution?
A. The borrowing department
B. The lending department
C. The employee himself
D. Either by the employee or by the borrowing organization
81. A Group - A and B Officer shall not accept any gift without sanction of the
Government if the value exceeds -
A. Rs.2,000
B. Rs. 5,000
C. Rs.1, 000
D. Rs.1,500
82. Is it necessary to obtain a non-employment certificate from a suspended employee for
grant of Subsistence Allowance?
A. Yes, once in three months
B. Yes, every month with the claim
C. Yes, when subsistence allowance is reviewed
D. Not necessary
83. How will the leave granted to a female Government servant in connection with inquiry
of sexual harassment be treated?
A. Will be debited to leave account as special leave
B. Will not be debited to leave account
C. Will be treated as Special Casual Leave
D. Will be deducted from her EL at credit
84. Whether re-employed pensions are entitled to LTC facility and encashment of 10 days EL
along with LTC?
A. Entitled for LTC only
B. Not entitled for encashment of EL and LTC
C. At the discretion of the Head of Office
D. Entitled for both encashment of 10 days EL and LTC facility
85. When will bid securities be refunded to the unsuccessful bidders?
A. On or before the 30th day after the award of the contract
B. On or before the 10th day after the award of the contract
C. On or before the 40th day after the award of the contract
D. On or before the 15th day after the award of the contract
86. Which of the following sentences is correct in terms of bidding procedure?
A. Any new condition can be brought in for evaluation of bids
B. Bidders can modify/alter their bids after expiry of the deadline for
receipt of bids
C. Negotiation with bidders can be done to achieve
the lowest bid even after opening the bid
D. Contract should ordinarily be awarded to the lowest evaluated
bidder who is qualified to perform satisfactorily.
87. Which of the following shall not be taken as emoluments for calculation of
retirement benefits?
A. Pay as defined in FR 9 drawn immediately before retirement or death
B. Non-practicing allowance granted to Medical Officers in lieu of private
practice
C. Stagnation increment (s)
D. Special Pay/Deputation Pay/Special allowance
88. Treatment of willful absence from duty not covered by leave can be treated as.
A. Entail loss of lien.
B. Treated as die non if not covered by grant of leave
C. Will be treated as leave.
D. None of the above.
89. Which penalty proceeding have no effect on pension.
A. Minor penalty
B. Both major and minor penalty
C. Major penalty
D. None of the above
90. Joining time is admissible-
A. To join a new post on direct recruitment.
B. To join on transfer on own request.
C. To join on transfer in public interest to a new post.
D. None of the above.
91. Joining time may not be combined with.
A. Earned Leave
B. Commuted Leave
C. Causal Leave
D. Half pay Leave
92. Powers under Delegation of Financial Rules cannot be re-delegated in respect of.
A. Creation of posts
B. Write of losses.
C. Appropriation and re-appropriation of funds in some cases.
D. All of the above.
93. Which two kinds of leave cannot combined ?
A. Earned Leave and half pay leave
B. Earned Leave and Casual Leave
C. Half pay leave and extraordinary Leave
D. Maternity Leave and Leave not due.
94. As per CCS (Conduct) Rules 10, a Govt. Employee must take prior permission before
giving evidence.
A. At an enquiry before an authority appointed by the Government, Parliament or
State Legislature.
B. In a Judicial enquiry.
C. At any Departmental enquiry ordered by authority (ies) subordinate to the
Government.
D. In connection with an enquiry conducted by any person, committee or authority
other than those state at (a),(b) and (C) above.
[Link] is not necessary for.
A. Occasional work for literary/artistic/scientific character.
B. Accepting gift worth Rs.20,000/- or less.
C. Participating in public media.
D. Raising if funds in pursuance of any object.
96. Sexual harassment includes.
A. Physical contact and advance.
B. Demand or request for sexual favor
C. Sexually coloured remarks.
D. All of the above.
97. ________________ is empowered to place Government employee under suspension.
A. Appointing Authority
B. Disciplinary Authority
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above.
98. Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissal from service should be imposed only by.
A. Controlling Officer
B. Disciplinary Authority
C. Appointing Authority.
D. None.
99. AMA stands for.
A. Allopathic Medical Advance
B. Authorized Maternity Attendance.
C. Authorized Medical Attendant
D. Allowed Medical Advance treatment.
100. How many days of earned leave can be encashed for LTC during entire service of the Govt.
Servant?
A. 30 days.
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days.
Sample Questions used in various written examinations held by the NID AP are made
available for facilitation purposes only. NID AP is not responsible for any errors or loss
on account of such disclosure.