2 Marks

1. In a transformer
(a) All turns are equally insulated (b) The end turns are more strongly insulated
(c) The end turns are closely wound (d) The end turns are widely separated

2. Laminated insulations coated with varnish are normally used in the transformer
(a) To reduce reluctance of magnetic path
(b) To reduce the effect of eddy current
(c) To increase the reluctance of magnetic path
(d) To reduce the hysteresis effect

3. The required thickness of lamination in a transformer decreases when

(a) The applied frequency increases (b) The applied frequency decreases
(c) The applied voltage increases (d) The applied voltage decreases
4. Oil in transformer is used to

(a) Transfer electrical (b) Insulate the windings

energy
(c) Cool the windings (d) None of the above

5. The windings of a transformer are divided into several coils because

(a) It is difficult to wind as one (b) It reduces voltage per coil
coil
(c) It requires less insulation (d) None of the above

6. The size and construction of bushings in a transformer depend upon the

(a) Size of winding (b) Size of tank
(c) Current flowing (d)Voltage supplied

7. Sludge in transformer oil is due to

(a) Decomposition of oil (b) Decomposition of insulation
(c) Moisture content in oil (d) None of the above

8. A transformer used only for electrical isolation between two circuits has turns ratio which is
(a) More than unity (b) Less than (c) Equal to unity (d) More than 0.5
unity
9. If 90 per cent of normal voltage and 90 per cent of normal frequency are applied to a transformer, the per
cent charge in hysteresis losses will be
(a) (b) 4.7% (c) 19% (d) 21%
20
%
10. If 110 per cent of normal voltage and 110 per cent of normal frequency is applied to a transformer, the
percentage change of eddy current losses will be
(a) (b) 20% (c) (d) 21%
10 25
% %
11. A transformer has two 2,400 V primary coils and two 240 V coils. By proper connection of the windings,
the transformation ratio that can be obtained is
(a) (b) 5 (c) (d) 9
1 2
0 0
12. A single-phase, 2,200/200 V transformer takes 1 A at the HT side or no load at a power factor of 0.385
lagging. The iron losses are
(a) 167 (b) 77 W (c) 88 (d) 98 W
W W
13. Neglecting resistance, at constant flux density, the power required per kilogram to magnetize the iron core
of a transformer is 0.8 W at 25 Hz and 2.04 W at 60 Hz. The power required per kilogram for 100 Hz is
(a) 3.8 W (b) 3.63 W (c) 3.4 W (d) 5.2 W
14. Select the correct statement:
(a) emf per turn of both the windings are equal
(b) emf per turn in HV winding is more than the emf per turn in LV winding
(c) emf per turn in HV winding is less than the emf per turn in LV winding
15. The flux involved in the emf equation of a transformer has
(a) rms (b) Average value (c) Total value (d) Maximum value
value
16. The no-load current in a transformer lags the applied voltage by
(a) 90° – 95° (b) About 80° – (c) 0° – 15° (d) About 110°
85°
17. High leakage impedance transformers are used for applications such as
(a) Power distribution (b) Electrical toys
(c) Arc welding (d) Fluorescent lamps
18. A transformer 2,000 kVA, 250 Hz is operated at 50 Hz. Its kVA rating should be revised to
(a) 400 kVA (b) 10,000 kVA
(c) 2,000 kVA (d) Cannot be revised
19. The transformer which will have the largest size is
(a) 100 kVA, 25 Hz (b) 100 kVA, 100 Hz
(c) 100 kVA, 50 Hz (d) 100 kVA, 60 Hz

20. The magnetic flux of a transformer follows

(a) High reluctance path (b) Low reluctance path
(c) Low conductivity path (d) High conductivity path
21. The efficiency of a transformer is usually in the range of
(a) 50– (b) 65–75%
60%
 (c) 70– (d) 90–98%
90%

22. Transformer is laminated to reduce

(a) Hystersis loss (b) Eddy current loss
(c) Partly (a) and partly (d) Increases exciting current
(b)
23. Transformer changes the value of
(a) Power (b) Frequency
(c) Voltage (d) Current

24. Transfer of electrical power from primary to secondary in a transformer takes place
(a) Electrically (b) Electromagnetically
(c) (d) None of these
Magneticall
y
25. The thickness of a 50 Hz transformer lamination is
(a) 0.35 cm (b) 0.35 mm
(c) 0.33 m (d) 0.30 cm
26. A power transformer is a constant
(a) Current device (b) Voltage device
(c) Power device (d) Main flux device
27. The value of flux in the emf equation of a transformer is
(a) rms (b) Average
(c) Maximum (d) Integral wave cycle
28. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon the value of
(a) Load (b) Supply frequency
current
(c) Mutual flux (d) None of these

29. The voltage regulation of a transformer at full-load 0.8 power factor lag is 6 per cent. Its voltage regulation
at full-load 0.8 power factor lead will be
(a) (b) 54% (c) (d) Zero
Negativ Positiv
e e
30. The full-load efficiency of a transformer at 0.85 p.f. lag is 97 per cent. Its efficiency at full load 0.85
bpower factor lead will be
(a) (b) 96% (c) (d) 98%
99 97
% %
31. If a load on secondary side of a transformer increases, the current on the primary side
(a) Remains constant (b) (c) Decreases (d) None of these
Increase
s
32. If a sinusoidal exciting current is applied to a transformer, the mutual flux produced is
(a) Negative (b) Sinusoidal (c) (d) Flat top
Zer
o
33. To get sinusoidal flux in a transformer the mutual flux produced is
(a) Non- (b) Sinusoidal (c) Direct current (d) Zero
sinusoidal
34. A 220V, 150V bulb is connected in series with the primary of a 220/1,100 V, 50 Hz transformer. If the load
on the secondary side is disconnected, the brightness of the bulb will
(a) Decrease (b) Increase
(c) Be unaffected (d) Decrease to a very low value
35. The open circuit test of a transformer gives information about
(a) Core losses of the (b) Cu losses of the transformer
transformer
(c) Exciting current (d) None of these

36. The short circuit test of a transformer gives the information of

(a) Cu losses of the (b) Core losses of the transformer
transformer
(c) Winding circuit impedance (d) None of these

37. During testing of a transformer

(a) Both SC and OC tests are performed at rated current
(b) Both SC and OC tests are performed at rated voltage
(c) OC test is performed at rated voltage
(d) SC test is performed at rated current

38. All-day efficiency of a transformer is

(a) Equal to its power efficiency (b) Less than its power efficiency
(c) More than its power (d) None of these
efficiency
39. Routine efficiency of a transformer depends upon the value of
(a) Load current (b) Supply frequency
(c) Power factor of load (d) Both (a) and (b)
40. A ferrite core has less eddy current loss than an iron core because ferrites have
(a) Lower permeability (b) High hysteresis
(c) Alnico as the main constituent (d) High resistance
41. Circular coil sections are used because they
 (a) Reduce iron material (b) Reduce copper material
(c) Have the strongest mechanical shape (d) All of these

42. A transformer is connected to a constant voltage source. If the supply frequency decreases, the magnetic
flux in the core will
(a) Increase towards (b) Decrease
saturation
(c) Remain unchanged (d) None of these

43. The power in autotransformer is transferred through

(a) Inductive process (b) Convection process
(c) Conduction process (d) All of these

44. The cross-sectional area of the common portion of an autotransformer is

(a) Kept constant (b) Proportionally decreased
(c) Proportionally (d) None of these
increased
45. The efficiency of an autotransformer for the same output compared to a two-winding transformer is
(a) (b) Lesser (c) Poor (d) None of these
Great
er
46. The condition for successful parallel operation of transformer is
(a) Correct polarity
(b) Per unit impedance based on their rating should be equal
(c) Identical voltage and frequency rating
(d) Equal ratio of equivalent resistance to reactance
(e) All of these

47. During parallel operation of transformers incorrect polarity will result in

(a) Open circuit
(b) Dead short circuit
(c) Regeneration of power
(d) Power factor of transformer will be different from that of the connected load
48. A 10 kVA, 400/200 V sinlge-phase transformer with 10 per cent impedance draws a steady short circuit
line current of
(a) 50 (b) 150 A (c) 250 A (d) 350 A
A
49. A 400/100 V, 10 kVA two-winding transformer is reconnected as an autotransformer across a suitable
voltage source. The maximum kVA is
 (a) 50 kVA (b) 15 (c) 12.5 kVA (d) 8.75 kVA
kVA
50. An autotransformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 10 kW. The power transferred
inductively from the primary to the secondary is
(a) 10 kW (b) 8 kW (c) 2 kW (d) Zero
51. A single-phase induction regulator is a constant input transformer to obtain smooth variation of the output
voltage by varying the
(a) Ratio of turns between primary and secondary winding
(b) Frequency
(c) Flux-density in the core
(d) Angle between the magnetic forces of the primary and secondary windings
52. In operating a 400 Hz transformer at 50 Hz
(a) Only voltage is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(b) Only kVA is reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(c) Both voltage and kVA rating are reduced in the same proportion as the frequency
(d) None of the above

53. In performing the short circuit test of a transformer

(a) High-voltage side is usually short-circuited
(b) Low-voltage side is usually short-circuited
(c) Any side is short-circuited with preference
(d) None of these

54. In performing open circuit test of a transformer

(a) High voltage is usually kept open (b) Low voltage is usually kept open
(c) Any side can be kept open (d) None of the above

55. Transformer core usually uses grain-oriented laminated sheets. The grain orientation reduces
(a) Copper loss (b) Eddy current loss
(c) Hysteresis loss (d) None of the above
56. In the circuit model of a transformer, the core loss is represented as
(a) Series resistance (b) Series inductance
(c) Shunt resistance (d) Shunt inductance
57. While performing short circuit test on a transformer, the impressed voltage magnitude is kept constant but
the frequency is increased. The short circuit current will
(a) Increase1 (b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same (d) None of the above
58. A transformer has a hysteresis loss of 30 W at 240 V, 60 Hz. The hysteresis loss at 200 V, 50 Hz will be
(a) 20.8 W (b) 25 W (c) 30 W (d) 36 W
59. In a transformer, the exciting current will be in phase quadrature with the impressed voltage provided
(a) Only the leakage impedance drop is ignored
(b) Only the core loss is ignored
(c) Both the leakage and impedance drop and the core loss are ignored
(d) Only no-load copper loss is ignored

60. Magnetizing impedance of a transformer is determined by

(a) Short circuit test
(b) Open circuit test
(c) Both open circuit and short circuit tests
(d) None of these

61. A transformer is to be tested at full-load conditions consuming only losses from the mains. We do
(a) Load test (b) Open circuit and short circuit tests
(c) Back-to-back test (d) None of these

62. In a transformer operating at constant voltage if the input frequency increases the core loss will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant (d) Increase as the square of the frequency
63. Grain-oriented laminated sheet steel in a transformer reduces
(a) Copper loss (b) Eddy current loss
(c) Hysteresis loss (d) None of above

64. R1 is the resistance of the primary winding of a transformer. The turns ratio in terms of primary to
secondary is a. The equivalent resistance of the primary referred to as secondary is
(a) R1/a (b) a2 R1 (c) R1/a2 (d) None of these
65. Choose the correct statement:
(a) emf per turn in high-voltage winding is more than the emf per turn in low-voltage winding
(b) emf per turn in both the finding are equal
(c) emf per turn in both the windings are not equal
(d) None of these

66. One transformer has leakage impedance of 1 + j 4 Ω and 3 + j 4 Ω for its primary and secondary windings,
respectively. The transformer has
(a) Low voltage primary (b) High voltage primary
(c) Medium voltage primary (d) Insufficient data
67. A single-phase transformer has its maximum efficiency at 60 per cent of full load. At full load copper loss
will be
(a) Equal to core loss (b) Less than core loss
(c) More than core loss (d) Zero

68. The flux in a magnetic core is alternating sinusoidally at a frequency of 600 Hz. The maximum flux density
is 2 T and eddy current loss is 15 W. If the frequency is raised to 800 Hz and maximum flux density
reduced to 1.5 T, the eddy current loss will be
(a) Same (b) Reduced to half
(c) (d) Increased by 50%
Double
d
69. The core flux in a transformer depends mainly on
(a) Supply voltage
(b) Supply voltage and frequency
(c) Supply voltage, frequency and load
(d) Supply voltage and load but independent of frequency

[Link] rating of transformer is in KVA not in KW because:

(a). KVA is fixed whereas KW depends upon load p.f

(b). load power factor is not known often
(c). is has become customary
(d). total transformer loss depends upon VA ie volt ampere

[Link] type of load for which voltage regulation of transformer is negative is:

(a). capacitive
(b). inductive
(c). resistive
(d). none of these

[Link] relay is specially suitable for which type of transformer?

(a). Oil immersed transformer.

(b). Ground transformer.
(c). Current transformer.
(d). Potential tarnsformer.

[Link] flux in a transformer depends upon

 (a). Frequency
(b). Load current
(c). Applied voltage
(d). Mutual flux

[Link] parallel operation of transformers incorrect polarity will result in

(a). short circuit
(b). Open circuit
(c). Regeneration of power
(d). Power factor of transformer will be different from that of the connected load

75. In a transformer zero voltage regulation is achieved at a load power factor which is ?
(a). zero
(b). unity
(c). leading
(d). lagging

76. The inductive reactance of a transformer depends upon ?

(a). e.m.f
(b). m.m.f
(c). magnetic flux
(d). leakage flux

77. A transformer has hysteresis loss of 30 W , at 240 V,60 Hz . The hysteresis loss at 200
V, 50 Hz will be?
(a). 28 W
(b). 25W
(c). 30W
(d). 36 W

78. Distribution transformer has core losses

(a). > copper loss
(b). < copper loss
(c). = copper loss
(d). = ½ (copper loss)

79. In which transformer tertiary winding is used?

 (a). star-delta
(b). delta-delta
(c). star-star
(d). delta-star

80. In small DC machines, armature slots are sometimes not made axial but are skewed,
results in
a. quieter operation
b. slight decrease in losses
c. saving of copper
d. both a and b

81. The critical resistance of the dc generator is the resistance of

a. armature
b. field
c. load
d. brushes

82. In a dc generator, the generator, the generated emf is directly proportional to the
a. field current
b. pole flux
c. number of armature parallel paths
d. number of dummy coils

83. The commutation process in a dc generator basically involves

a. passage of current from moving armature to a stationary load

b. reversal of current in an armature coil as it crosses MNA
c. conversion of ac to dc
d. suppression of reactance voltage

84. The essential condition for stable parallel operation of two dc generators having similar
characteristics is that they should have
a. same kilowatt output ratings
b. dropping voltage characteristics
c. same percentage regulation
d. same no load and full load speed

85. An ideal dc generator has .......... voltage regulation.

a. low
b. zero
c. positive
d. negative

86. Which generator has poorest voltage regulation

a. series
 b. shunt
c. compound
d. high

87. The voltage regulation of an over compound dc generator is always

a. Positive
b. negative
c. zero
d. high

88. Two DC series motors when connected in series, draw a current of I Amp and run at N
rpm. When those motors are connected in parallel and if the motors continue to draw current
I, then the speed of the motors will be
a. N
b. N / 4
c. 4N
d. 2N

89. Two DC series motors are connected in series to produce a torque T. Now if the motors
are connected in parallel, the torque produced will be
a. T / 4
b. 2T
c. T / 2
d. 4T

90. Retardation test on a dc shunt motor is used for finding

a. Stray loss
b. Copper loss
c. Friction loss
d. Iron loss

91. In a DC series motor increasing the load current will

a. Decrease the speed
b. Increase the speed
c. Better commutation
d. Increase the back emf

92. One of the main advantage of the swinburn's test is

a. It is applicable both shunt and compound motors
b. It needs one running test
c. It is very economical and convenient
d. It ignores any charge in iron loss
93. The main disadvantage of Hopkinson's test for finding efficiency of shunt dc motors is
that it
a. Requires full load power
b. Ignores any change in iron loss
c. Needs one motor and one generator
d. Requires two identical shunt machines

94. The most economical method of finding no losses of a large dc shunt motor is
a. Hopkinson's test
b. Swinburn's test
c. Retardation test
d. Field's test

95. The basic requirement of a dc armature winding is that it must be

a. a closed one
b. a lap winding
c. a wave winding
d. either b or c

96. The sole purpose of a commutator in a dc generator is to

a. increase output voltage
b. reduce sparking at brushes
c. provide smoother output
d. convert the induced ac into dc

97. If the load current and flux of dc motor are held constant and voltage applied across its
armature is increase by 5%, the speed of motor will
a) increase by about 5% b) reduce by about 5%
c) remain unaltered d) depends on the other factor

[Link] DC motor, which can provide zero speed regulation at full load without any controller
is
a. series b. shunt
c. cumulative compound d. differential compound

99. A 220V, 15kW,1000rpm shunt motor with armature resistance of 0.25Ω, has a rated line
current of 68A and a rated field current of 2.2A. The change in field flux required to obtain a
speed of 1600 rpm while drawing a line current of 52.8A and a field current of 1.8A is
a. 18.18% increase b. 18.18% decrease
c. 36.36% increase d. 36.36% decrease

100. Both Hopkinson's test and Field test

 a. require two electrically coupled series motors
b. need two similar mechanically coupled motors
c. use negligible power
d. are regenerative tests

101. which of the following motor has the constant speed?

a. Series Motor
b. Shunt Motor
c. Cumulatively Compound Motor
d. All Of The Above

102. The usual test to find the efficiency of the traction motor is
a. Field's test
b. Retardation test
c. Hopkinson's test
d. Swinburn's test

103. A DC series motor is best for driving

a. Lathes
b. Cranes and hoists
c. Shears and punches
d. Machine tools

104. Turbo alternators usually runs at the speed of:

a. 3000 rpm
b. 1500 rpm
c. 5000 rpm
d. 50000 rpm

[Link] ideal synchronous motor has no starting torque because

a. Rotor is made up of salient poles

b. Rotor winding is highly reactive
c. Relative velocity between the stator and rotor mmf’s is zero
d. Relative velocity between stator and rotor mmf’s is not zero

[Link] unexcited single phase synchronous motor is

a. AC series motor
b. Universal motor
c. Reluctance motor
 d. Repulsion motor

107. An inverted V curve of synchronous motor shows variation of ?

a. p.f and dc excitation at constant load

b. supply voltage and field current at constant excitation
c. p.f and supply voltage during hunting
d. supply voltage and excitation current at constant load

108. A small air gap in polyphase induction motor helps to

a. reduce chance of crawling

b. increase starting torque
c. reduce chance of cogging
d. reduce magnetizing current

109.A three phase 400 V, 6 pole, 50 Hz , squirrel cage induction motor is running at a slip of
5%. The speed of stator magnetic field with respect to rotor magnetic field and speed of rotor
wrt stator magnetic field are?

a. zero , -50rpm
b. zero, 950 rpm
c. 1000rpm , -50 rpm
d. 1000 rpm , 950 rpm

110. A 400V , 50Hz ,30hp , three phase IM is drawing 50A current at 0.8 p.f lagging. The
stator and rotor copper losses are 1.5 KW and 900W respectively. The friction and windage
losses are 1050W and core losses are 1200W. The air gap power of the motor will be?

a. 23.06 kW
b. 24.11 kW
c. 25 kW
d. 26.21 kW

[Link] induced in the rotor of 3-ph IM is proportional to the

a. relative velocity between stator field and rotor conductor

b. voltage applied to stator
c. slip
d. all of these

112. When the iron and full load copper loss in transformer are 900 W and 1600W respectively
the maximum efficiency occurs at
 a. 35 % of full load
b. 50 % of full load
c. 25 % of full load
d. 75 % of full load

113. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(A) damping torque.
(B) eddy current torque.
(C) torque aiding the developed torque.
(D) no torque.

114. A hysteresis motor

(A) is not a self-starting motor.
(B) is a constant speed motor.
(C) needs dc excitation.
(D) can not be run in reverse speed.

115. If a transformer primary is energized from a square wave voltage source, its output voltage
will be
(A) A square wave.
(B) A sine wave.
(C) A triangular wave.
(D) A pulse wave.

116. The power factor of a squirrel cage induction motor is

(A) low at light load only.
(B) low at heavy load only.
(C) low at light and heavy load both.
(D) low at rated load only.

117. In a d.c. machine, the armature mmf is

(A) stationary w.r.t. armature.
(B) rotating w.r.t. field.
(C) stationary w.r.t. field.
(D) rotating w.r.t. brushes.

118. In a transformer the voltage regulation will be zero when it operates at

(A) unity p.f.
(B) leading p.f.
(C) lagging p.f.
(D) zero p.f. leading.

119. The primary winding of a 220/6 V, 50 Hz transformer is energised from 110 V, 60

Hz supply. The secondary output voltage will be
(A) 3.6 V.
(B) 2.5 V.
(C) 3.0 V.
(D) 6.0 V.

120. The relative speed between the magnetic fields of stator and rotor under steady
state operation is zero for a
(A) dc machine.
(B) 3 phase induction machine.
(C) synchronous machine.
(D) single phase induction machine.

121. The current from the stator of an alternator is taken out to the external load circuit through
(A) slip rings.
(B) commutator segments.
(C) solid connections.
(D) carbon brushes.

122. A motor which can conveniently be operated at lagging as well as leading power factors is
the
(A) squirrel cage induction motor.
(B) wound rotor induction motor.
(C) synchronous motor.
(D) DC shunt motor.

123. The most suitable servomotor for low power applications is

(A) a dc series motor.
(B) a dc shunt motor.
(C) an ac two-phase induction motor.
(D) an ac series motor.

124. The size of a conductor used in power cables depends on the

(A) operating voltage.
(B) power factor.
(C) current to be carried.
(D) type of insulation used.

125. A capacitor start single phase induction motor will usually have a power factor of
(A) unity
(B) 0.8 leading
(C) 0.6 leading
(D) 0.6 lagging.

126. A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is basically a
(A) ac series motor
(B) dc series motor
(C) 2 phase induction motor
(D) 3 phase induction motor.

127. The starting torque of a capacitor start motor is

(A) zero
(B) low
(C) same as rated torque
(D) more than rated torque.

128. The torque developed by a split phase motor is proportional to

(A) Sine of angle between lm and ls
(B) Cosine of angle between lm and Is
(C) Main winding current, Im
(D) Auxiliary winding current,Is

129. A capacitor start single phase induction motor is switched on the supply with its capacitor
replaced by an inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will
(A) not start
(B) start and run
(C) start and then stall
(D) none of the above.

130. The starting capacitor of a single phase motor is

(A) Electrolytic capacitor
(B) Ceramic capacitor
(C) Paper capacitor
(D) None of the above.

131. Which of the following is the most economical method of starting a single phase motor ?
(A) Resistance start method
(B) Inductance start method
(C) Capacitance start method
(D) Split-phase method.

132. The number of turns in the starting winding of a capacitor start motor as compared to that
for split phase motor is
(A) same
(B) more
(C) less
(D) none of the above.

133. In a split phase motor, the ratio of number of turns for starting winding to that for running
winding is
(A) 2.0
(B) more than 1
(C) 1.0
(D) less than 1.

134. A single phase motor generally used for small air compressor is
(A) capacitor start capacitor run motor
(B) reluctance motor
(C) universal motor
(D) shaded pole motor.

135. Out of the following motors, which will give the highest starting torque ?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Capacitor start motor
(C) Shaded pole motor
(D) All have zero starting torque.

136. Which single phase ac motor will you select for record players and tape recorders ?
(A) Hysteresis motor
(B) Shaded pole motor
(C) Reluctance motor
(D) Two value capacitor motor.

137. A universal motor is one

(A) which can run on any value of supply voltage
(B) which has infinitely varying speed
(C) which can operate on ac as well as dc voltage
(D) which can work as single phase or three phase motor.

138. Under normal operating conditions which motor can run at 5000 rpm ?
(A) Synchronous motor
(B) Induction motor
(C) Universal motor
(D) No motor can give 5000 rpm.

139. The motor used in household refrigerators is

(A) dc series motor
(B) dc shunt motor
(C) universal motor
(D) single phase induction motor.
140. Single phase motors are commercially manufactured up to
(A) 1H.P.
(B) 2 H.P.
(C) 5 H.P.
(D) 10 H.P.

141. The direction of rotation of universal motor can be reversed by

(A) reversing the supply terminals
(B) switching over from ac to dc
(C) interchanging the brush leads
(D) any of the above.

142. A universal motor operates on

(A) constant speed and varying load
(B) constant load and varying speed
(C) approximately constant speed and load
(D) synchronous speed with varying load.

143. Which of the following single phase motors will operate at high power factor ?
(A) shaded pole motor
(B) capacitor run motor
(C) split phase motor
(D) capacitor start motor.

144. A motor suitable for signaling device is

(A) induction motor
(B) dc shunt motor
(C) dc series motor
(D) reluctance motors.

145. Which capacitor is preferred in case of single phase motor

(A) Paper capacitor
(B) Ceramic capacitor
(C) Mica capacitor
(D) Electrolytic capacitor.

146. The motor used for driving the record player deck is
(A) dc series motor
(B) synchronous motor
(C) hysteresis motor
(D) dc shunt motor.
147. When a motor speed of 5000 rpm is required, which motor will you select ?
(A) Capacitor start motor
(B) Shaded pole motor
(C) Hysteresis motor
(D) Universal motor.

148. As compared to other single phase ac motors a universal motor has

(A) speed ratio of 2: 1 on ac/dc
(B) highest efficiency on 50 Hz supply
(C) high horse power/kg ratio
(D) all of the above.

149. When a universal motor is operated on no load, its speed is limited by

(A) armature reaction
(B) armature weight
(C) windage and friction
(D) supply voltage frequency.

150. Which of the following applications make use of a universal motor ?

(A) Floor polishing machine
(B) Oil expeller
(C) Portable tools
(D) Lathe machines.

151. In portable tools the speed of the driven shaft is reduced by

(A) Gearing
(B) Belt drive
(C) Chain drive
(D) Fluid coupling.

152. For ceiling fans generally the single phase motor used is
(A) split phase type
(B) capacitor start type
(C) capacitor start and run type
(D) permanent capacitor type.

153. In case of split phase motors the phase shift is usually limited to
(A) 3 degrees
(B) 60 degrees
(C) 90 degrees
(D) 150 degrees.
154. The capacitance of a small single phase motor will be of the order of
(A) Kilo farads
(B) Few hundred farads
(C) Farads
(D) Micro or pico farads.

155. The type of starting relay used on single phase hermetic motor is
(A) hot wire relay
(B) timing relay
(C) current coil relay
(D) voltage coil relay
(E) any of the above.

156. Reluctance motors are

(A) doubly excited
(B) singly excited
(C) either doubly excited or singly excited
(D) none of the above.

157. Electric motors are generally designed to have maximum efficiency at

(A) full load
(B) near full load
(C) half load
(D) near half load.

158. Which of the following is non-reversible motor ?

(A) Universal motor
(B) Capacitor start split phase motor
(C) Resistance start split phase motor
(D) Permanent split capacitor motor.

159. Which motor is generally used for electric shavers ?

(A) Shaded pole motor
(B) Hysteresis motor
(C) Reluctance motor
(D) Universal motor.

160. The motor useful for signaling and timing device is

(A) Reluctance motor
(B) Shaded pole motor
(C) Hysteresis motor
(D) Two value capacitor motor.
161. A motor generally used in toys is
(A) Hysteresis motor
(B) Shaded pole motor
(C) Two value capacitor motor
(D) Reluctance motor.

162. Single phase motors generally get over heated due to

(A) Overloading
(B) Short windings
(C) Bearing troubles
(D) Any of the above.

163. Which of the following is a reversible motor ?

(A) Universal motor
(B) Capacitor start split phase motor
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) None of the above.

164. The starting torque of a single phase induction motor is

(A) uniform
(B) high
(C) low
(D) zero.

165. Which of the following motors will operate at high power factor ?
(A) Universal motor
(B) Capacitor start motor
(C) Capacitor run motor
(D) Split phase motor.

166. Which of the following statements about reluctance motor is not true ?
(A) It is self starting
(B) It runs at constant speed
(C) It needs no dc excitation for its rotor
(D) It can operate on ac as well as dc.

167. The rotor for a hysteresis motor

(A) is made of chrome steel
(B) has high retentivity
(C) has high hysteresis loss
(D) should have all above properties.