DATE: 03.04.

2022

QUESTION BOOKLET
1
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: THERE WILL BE PENALY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 1 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 2 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOWED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

1 The International Standard Book Number contain ____________ digits

A. 11
B. 13
C. 15
D. 9

2 Acharya Chakrapanidutta has explained “हे तुसा धतसा यधमकथनं” as ___

A. प
B. वप
C. नगमन
D. प धमता

3 As per Charaka Samhita “भवे ददमौषधमि मन ् याधौ यौ गकमथवा ने त” is an

example of ______
A. स य भचार
B. अननय
ु ो यं
C. यनुयोगः
D. अनय
ु ोगो

4 NAMASTE PORTAL does not provide information about ______________

A. Standardized Unani Terminologies
B. Standardized Siddha Terminologies
C. National Unani Morbidity Codes
D. Standardized Homeopathy Terminologies

5 Acharya Chakrapani has mentioned समान गण

ु ा यासो ह धातन
ू ाम ् व ृ कारणम ् as
an example of ____________ Tantrayukti.
A. हे वथ
B. वा यशेष
C. अथाप
D. यु सार

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 3 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

6 Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library is situated at _____________

A. Hyderabad, Telangana
B. Patna, Bihar
C. Tanjavur, Tamilnadu
D. Udaipur, Rajasthan

7 According to Acharya Sushruta तसमीरणगुणभू य ठं is ____________

A. पि हल
B. ती ण
C. वशद
D. मद
ृ ु

8 As referred by “Indu”, the redaction of Kharanada Samhita was done by

___________
A. Hemadri
B. Bhattar Harichandra
C. Jejjata
D. Arundatta

9 Ashtang Hridaya Tatvabodh” Vyakhya is the Commentary on _________

A. Ashtanga Hridaya Uttartantra
B. Complete Ashtanga Hridayam
C. Ashtanga Hridaya Sutrasthan
D. Ashtanga Hridaya Sutrasthan & Nidansthan

10 According to Acharya Sushruta जीवनो ब यः संधानः is _________________

A. पि छल
B. त भन
C. वशद
D. रोपण

11 According to Acharya Sushruta “भ व य या ध यापकः” is _______________

A. ा केवल
B. औपस गक

C. अ यल ण

D. उप व

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 4 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

12 Immediate model for a manuscript transcription is known as ________

A. Holograph
B. Autograph
C. Folio
D. Exemplar

13 As per Vagbhata, __________ is not caused due to Shukra Vegavarodha.

A. यथु
B. वर
C. म
D. मू संग

14 Tantrayukti referred by Chakrapani at अनुपानैकदे शोऽयमु तः ायोपयो गकः is

______

A. Atidesh
B. Pradesh
C. Apadesh
D. Prasanga

15 As per Arunadutta, meaning of द in context of भषक् गुण is ________

A. शी कार
B. नपुण
C. कायवाहक
D. व श बु

16 As per Ashtanga Hridaya वब धोऽ त व ृ वा ला नमा तमढ

ू ता is __________
A. अजीण सामा य ल ण
B. अजीण पव
ू प
C. वसू चका ल ण
D. वसू चका पूव प

17 As per Charaka, जीण जीय त चा मानं भु ते वा यमुपै त च is the symptom of

______
A. वातज हणी
B. वातज अ तसार
C. वातज उदर
D. वातज अश

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 5 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

18 The Nyaya used by Chakrapani while explaining जा तकटुकपग

ू ानां लव ग य
फला न च is ___________

A. शलापु क याय
B. गोब लवद याय
C. ूंग ा हक याय
D. छ णो ग छि त याय

19 _____________ स व ेयो न शर र य शोषणम ् । Fill the blank with appropriate term

from the below options.

A. यायाम
B. उ वतनं
C. उपवासः
D. वािजकरणः

20 According to Acharya Chakrapani, Pramilika means _______________

A. चरे ण कायकत ृ वम ्
B. तमः वेशनम ्
C. सततं यानम ्
D. श ररबलहा नः

21 द घसू ता is the Poorvaroopa of ________

A. राजय मा
B. वर
C. गु म
D. हणी

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 6 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

22 यो हे वथ या धजननं कृ वा शा य त, स _________

Fill the blank with appropriate term from the below options.
A. एकाथकार
B. उभयाथकार
C. वत ः
D. परत ः

23 To refute the चतुथ दोष व for Rakta, Arunadutta has quoted ___________ Nyaya.

A. प टपेषण याय
B. श कुल भ ण याय
C. घत
ृ द ध याय
D. कु भकारपवन याय

24 आ थापन काल according to Acharya Dalhana is _________________

A. पव
ू ा हकाल
B. दन य आ द यो मुहूताः
C. म या हे तत
ृ ीये हरे
D. दोषे

25 _______ अनागताथ दे शः ।

Fill the blank with appropriate term from the below options.
A. मेधा
B. ध ृ तः
C. म तः
D. तप ः

26 According to Archaeological Survey of India, a document is considered

as a Manuscript if it is not less than _____________________

A. 50 years
B. 65 years
C. 75 years
D. 55 years

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 7 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

27 प र ाया त खल योजनं __________ ानम ् ।

ु ु
Fill the blank with appropriate term from the below options.
A. स य
B. धम
C. अनुमान
D. तप

28 Who’s statement is " यागण

ु वत ् समवा यकारण म त य ल णम ्" ?
A. Charaka Samhita
B. Vaisheshika Darshana
C. Sushruta Samhita
D. Bhavaprakasha

29 Which of the following Viruddha is described by त व यादसंजातरसं तयत ्

ु
A. Saatmya
B. Sanskaara
C. Sampada
D. Parihaara

30 ______________ Gana is described as म दोषहरो यः पपासा नो च दः

ू
A. पटोला द
B. अंजना द
C. य वा द
D. प शका द

31 The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32 _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a predefined

group of respondents to gain information and insights into various topics
of interest.
A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta-Analysis

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 8 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

33 __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India
B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information
Resources (NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34 _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial designs

that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using interim
evaluations and addition of new interventions during the trial.
A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35 ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.
A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36 Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences
B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37 A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed

by ICH is __________
A. QSEM Codes for Global Health
B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

38 ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Publication
?
Compiled of Report
and
A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 9 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

39 __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40 Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to

be generated through _____
A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41 List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are mentioned

at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940
A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42 Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43 Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by ________

A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44 An approach to gather additional information in the process of literature

review in or around the topic of interest using the available reference list
or the citations is known as ____.
A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 10 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

45 ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46 The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic journal

exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently upsurging.
Such journals are being defined as ____________
A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47 The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems supported

by Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is _________________
A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles
B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48 A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end of

the Second World War are popularly known as _________.
A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49 ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and

analysing scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact
of research papers and academic journals, the understanding of scientific
citations, and the use of such measurements in policy and management
contexts
A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50 In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to

placebo drugs.
A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 11 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

51 _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

52 T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53 Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to

examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent
variable but they cannot control other important variables in the
research?
A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54 Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in

India?
A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)
B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experimental
Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55 In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity
B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56 When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship

between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?
A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 12 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

57 When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?
A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58 Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by __________
A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59 A __________ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and interval scales.
A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60 When the number of observations is very large and group interval is

reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving place
to a smooth curve, known as _________________
A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61 In _______________ the study population is visited a number of times at

regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required
information.
A. Retrospective Study Design
B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

62 The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure of

a population, is an example of ____________ Source.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 13 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

63 In an interview, a ______________ is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

64 ______________ method (sampling technique) is followed when the

population is not homogenous.

A. Simple Random Sampling

B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65 The mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18

micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard
Error of Mean?

A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs

B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

66 Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers have changed over
time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in one parameter affect
another.
III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is divided into different
parts.
IV Cartesian graphs D Used to show numbers that are independent of
each other.

A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 14 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

67 A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What

are the expected counts?

A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis

were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were
true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts
are representative

68 For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled

randomly. It is an example of ______________

A. Simple random sampling

B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69 Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70 healthy

people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test inter-rater
reliability among the two physicians?

A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement

B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70 ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is most

commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

SUBJECT: AYURVEDA SAMHITA & SIDDHANTA Page 15 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET

2
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
DRAVYAGUNA VIGYAN
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 1 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 2 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

1. According to Charaka “दीपनीयपाचनीयगुदशोथाशः शूल-हराणाम् अ ं” is _____

A. Chitrakamula
B. Pippalimula
C. Erandamula
D. Musta

2. Following is an example of Parihara Viruddha____________

A. Shita dravya after intake of grita

B. Food cooked with eranda kastha
C. Usna dravya after intake of varaha mamsa
D. Madhu and gritha in equal quantity

3. Novel food or Neutraceuticals in India are regulated under_____

A. D & C act 1945

B. FSSAI 2006
C. FUFOSE 1996
D. SFDA 2005

4. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, “Mushkakadi Gana” is useful in

following ailments EXCEPT

A. Pandu
B. Arsha
C. Shukranasha
D. Prameha

5. As per Bhavaprakasha ‘Charmakasha’ is synonym of ___________

A. Red wood tree

B. Indian Beech tree
C. Tooth ache tree
D. Pudding pipe tree

6. As per the opinion of Charaka, केशा दयपंु वोपघातकरः is due to

excessive use of ________

A. Lavana
B. Kshara
C. Pippali
D. Bibhitaki

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 3 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

7. Match the plant with their families

Plant Name Family

a. Erythrina indica (i) Bignoneaceae
b. Millingtonia hortensis (ii) Fabaceae
c. Pentapetes phoenicea (iii) Rubiaceae
d. Wendlandia exerta (iv) Sterculiaceae

A. a(iii), b(ii),c(iv). d(i)

B. a(iii), b(i),c(iv). d(ii)
C. a(ii), b(i),c(iv). d(iii)
D. a(ii), b(i),c(i). d(iv)

8. Variation in the sensitivity of population of individuals to

increasing dosages of a drug is best determined by which of the
following?

A. Efficacy
B. Therapeutic index
C. Graded dose response curve
D. Quantal dose response curve

9. Unsuitable drug for Monotherapy to manage mild hypertension in

a 40-year person with impaired pulmonary function is _________

A. Propranolol
B. Ephedrine
C. Albutrol
D. Phenylephrine

10. For evaluation of hepatoprotective agents, the toxic substances

used to develop hepatotoxicity is

A. Carbon tetra chloride and Liquid paraffin

B. Seratonin and Indomethacin
C. Acetic acid and Paracetamol
D. Seratonin and Acetic acid

11. As per Arunadutta, fruit of ________ should be taken for

“Nikochaka”.

A. Sarala
B. Taala
C. Priyala
D. Parushaka

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 4 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

12. त यमा मना कि चि कि च वीयण से वतम ् |

कि च स वपाका यां दोषं हि त करो त वा | as one of the pharmacodynamic
and Kinetic approach of dravyas is mentioned by ___________

A. Acharya Charaka
B. Acharya Sushruta
C. Acharya Vagbhata
D. Acharya Bhava Mishra

13. According to Bhavaprakash, Match the Parts of “Lasuna” with

respective Rasa

Part Rasa
a. Moola (i) Tikta
b. Patra (ii) Kashaya
c. Nalagra (iii) Lavana
d. Nala (iv) Katu

A. a(iii), b(ii),c(iv). d(i)

B. a(iii), b(i),c(iv). d(ii)
C. a(ii), b(i),c(iv). d(iii)
D. a(iv), b(i),c(iii). d(iv)

14. In the process of extraction of drugs, the term “Menstrum” means

A. Extraction with water as solvent

B. Solution containing extracted substances
C. Solvent or Solvent mixture used for extraction
D. Dissolution of extractive substances out of disintegrated cells

15. According to Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940, A drug shall be

deemed to be spurious if_____________________

A. It contains harmful or toxic substance which may render it

injurious to health
B. It is not labeled in a prescribed manner
C. It is manufactured under a name which belongs to another
drug
D. Any substance has been mixed to reduce its quality or strength

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 5 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

16. According to Convention on International Trade in Endangered

Species (CITES) of Wild Fauna and Flora, the plant mentioned
under Appendix of endangered Medicinal plants is _____________

A. Rauvolfia serpentina
B. Inula racemose
C. Adiantum caudatum
D. Flacourtia ramontchi

17. For determination of pesticide residue, which of the following

method is commonly used?

A. High performance thin layer Chromatography (HPTLC) and Gas

chromatography (GC)
B. Gas chromatography (GC) and High-performance Liquid
Chromatography (HPLC)
C. Mass spectroscopy and Gas chromatography (GC)
D. Mass spectroscopy and High-performance thin layer
Chromatography (HPTLC)

18. As per Charaka, which of the following is NOT enumerated under

“Stanya Shodhana Mahakashaya” ?

A. Murva
B. Surdaru
C. Sariva
D. Daruharidra

19. According to Sushruta Samhita, _____________of Aragavadha should

be taken for Virechana.

A. Flowers
B. Leaves
C. Bark
D. Fruit

20. _______________ is not included in Valli Panchamoola?

A. Vidari
B. Shatavari
C. Sariva
D. Manjishtha

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 6 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

21. Kutaki is adulterated with ______

A. Trivrita
B. Trayaman
C. Katu Tumbi
D. Karvellak

22. As per Kashyapa, the order of intake of Rasa in Pitta vikara is _____

A. Madhura, Kashaya, Tikta

B. Tikta, Madhura, Kashaya
C. Kashaya, Tikta, Madhura
D. Kashaya, Madhura, Tikta

23. As per Sharangadhara, Maricha & Vacha has ________ karma.

A. Grahi
B. Pramathi
C. Chedan
D. Abhishyandi

24. Match Trividha jalapana according to Madanapala Nighantu

I. Bhuktaadi (before meals) a. Agnidipana

II. Bhojana Madhya (between meals) b. Karshyahara
III. Bhojanante (after meals) c. Sthulakara

A. I-c, II-b, III-a

B. I-a, II-c, III-b
C. I-b, II-c, III-a
D. I-b, II-a, III-c

25. As per Charaka Kalpasthana, Drug of Choice for “Balo Vrudho

Kshita Khino sukumare cha” is ______________

A. Madanphala
B. Chaturangula
C. Trivrit
D. Ikshvaku

26. According to Bhavaprakasha, “Sarvakandu vinashini” is_______

A. Nimba
B. Haridra
C. Vanya Haridra
D. Amra Gandhi Haridra

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 7 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

27. According to Bhavaprakash, “Bhagnasandhana krit vrishya

sukshma svaryo rasayana” is ________

A. Asthishrunkhala
B. Aabha
C. Shilajatu
D. Guggulu

28. According to Sushruta, ‘Anjanadi gana’ is used for ______________

A. Antardaha & Raktapitta

B. Mukharoga
C. Udara roga
D. Netra roga

29. All the following are the advantages of Pharmacogenomics in

the field of medicine except

A. Delay in drug discovery and approval process

B. Advanced screening for disease
C. More accurate methods of determining appropriate drug
dosages
D. Better and safer drugs

30. According to Bhavaprakasha, the synonym ‘AKSHA’ is not used

for _______ -

A. Bibhitaka
B. Souvarchala
C. Haritaki
D. Rudraksha

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a

predefined group of respondents to gain information and insights
into various topics of interest.

A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta Analysis

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 8 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India

B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information
Resources (NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial

designs that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using
interim evaluations and addition of new interventions during the
trial.
A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses

that summarize and interpret the results of medical research.
A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences
B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology

developed by ICH is __________
A. QSEM Codes for Global Health
B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical
Requirements

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data
? Publication
Compiled of Report

A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 9 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are

opined to be generated through _____
A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are

mentioned at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940
A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by

________
A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of

literature review in or around the topic of interest using the
available reference list or the citations is known as ____.
A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 10 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic

journal exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are
recently upsurging. Such journals are being defined as ____________

A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems

supported by Ministry of Ayush, Govt. of India is _________________

A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles

B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the

end of the Second World War are popularly known as _________.
A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring

and analysing scholarly literature including the measurement of
the impact of research papers and academic journals, the
understanding of scientific citations, and the use of such
measurements in policy and management contexts
A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _______ serves an analogous purpose to

placebo drugs.
A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 11 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking
to examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a
dependent variable but they cannot control other important
variables in the research?
A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal

house in India?
A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)
B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of
Experimental Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development
(OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity
B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and
Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a

relationship between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is
called as?
A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being
observed, they may change their behaviour. This effect is _____
A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 12 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to

universe is measured by______________

A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59. A _____________ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and

interval scales.

A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group

interval is reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its
angulation giving place to a smooth curve, known as _______

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61. In __________, the study population is visited a number of times

at regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the
required information.

A. Retrospective Study Design

B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex

structure of a population, is an example of ________ Source.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

63. In an interview, A ____________is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 13 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

64. __________method (sampling technique) is followed when the

population is not homogenous.

A. Simple Random Sampling

B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65. The mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18
micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the
Standard Error of Mean?

A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs

B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers have
changed over time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in one
parameter affect another.
III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is
divided into different parts.
IV Cartesian D Used to show numbers that are
graphs independent of each other.

A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected

counts.” What are the expected counts?
A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative
hypothesis were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis
were true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed
counts are representative

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 14 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled
randomly. It is an example of:

A. Simple random sampling

B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70

healthy people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test
inter-rater reliability among the two physicians?

A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement

B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is

most commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Subject: Dravyaguna Vigyan Page 15 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

3
QUESTION BOOKLET

Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022

KAUMARABHRITYA
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. Penalty for Wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 1 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 2 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS:70

1. As per text Rasamruta, the Bhavana dravya in the preparation of

‘Krimikuthara Rasa’ which is widely used as an antihelminthic in
paediatric practice is ________.

A. Vidanga Swarasa
B. Kumari Swarasa
C. Musta Kwatha
D. Nirgundi Kwatha

2. ‘Violin –shaped deformity of chest’ is characteristic of ________ .

A. Gulf Syndrome
B. Hypovitaminosis D
C. Reye Syndrome
D. Pneumonia with Pleural effusion

3. ________among the following is not included in the

‘Ashtavidhasweda’ mentioned by Kashyapa.

A. Nadisweda
B. Sankarasweda
C. Parishekasweda
D. Kutisweda

4. “Prakara Yoga”, the unique schedule of improving general

immunity in children is explained by _________.

A. Ashtanga Samgraha
B. GadaNigraha
C. Kumaratantra of Ravana
D. Arogyarakshakalpadruma

5. In a patient who is subjected to Virechana Karma, with Madhyama

Shuddhi, Samsarjana Krama should last for _________________

A. 03 Annakala or days
B. 05 Annakala or days
C. 07 Annakala or days
D. 08 Annakala or days

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 3 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

6. When the number of infant deaths of less than 28 days during the
year is divided by number of live births during the year and then
multiplied by 1000 gives a key vital statistics indicator ________.
A. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
B. Crude Death Rate (CDR)
C. Neonatal Mortality Rate (NMR)
D. Late Neonatal Mortality Rate (LNMR)

7. A Child of age 8 years enters OPD with waddling gait and

complaints of frequent falls and difficulty in climbing steps.
According to parents he was apparently normal till the age of 5
years with a slight delay in motor milestones, they noticed Gait
disturbance and frequent falls on running or brisk walk, which
later increased. They also noticed hard bulk in both calf muscles.
As the age progressed, now he is unable to stand without support
from sitting posture in the ground. On consultation with a local
physician, he was told to be suffering from Muscular Dystrophy.
Which specific test will confirm this diagnosis?
A. CBC with ESR & CPK
B. Gene Mutation Analysis
C. CBC with CRP
D. EMG

8. Toll-free number for National helpline for children in distress is _______.

A. 1098
B. 1091
C. 1094
D. 1078

9. What is the aim of the “PM CARES for Children Scheme” launched
by The Hon'ble Prime Minister of India?
A. Support children who have lost both the Parents or legal
Guardian or Adoptive Parents or Surviving Parent to COVID-19
pandemic
B. Support children who are socially and economically from weaker
section.
C. Support children who belongs to ‘Divyangan’ category
D. Support children who suffer from heart disease and are from
rural background who cannot afford surgical treatments.

10. A child came to Emergency with complaint of Irritability, Stridor

at rest, Tachypnea with SPO2 95% on the room air. This patient
should be classified as
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Very Severe

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 4 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

11. In which disease entity Kashyapa advises the use of

Mandukaparni, Shunti, Brahmi or Madhuka in Vardhamana
krama?
A. Grahonmada
B. Rajayakshma
C. Phakkaroga
D. Madatyaya

12. Kashyapa advocates the administration of Gomutra with Milk in

which of the following condition?
A. Kaphadhika Phakkaroga
B. Kaphaja Gulma
C. Kaphaja Charmadala
D. Kaphaja Shotha

13. ‘Salila Shoshana Churna’ mentioned in text Bhaishajya Ratnavali

is indicated mainly for _________________of children.
A. Prameha
B. Mutrakruchchra
C. Sheershambu
D. Shotha

14. GINA was established through a 1993 collaboration between the

World Health Organization and U.S. National Heart, Lung, and
Blood Institute to develop a prevention and management strategy
which is updated every year is for ___________________.
A. Congenital Heart Disease
B. Asthma
C. Thalassemia
D. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia

15. Fill in the blanks with correct word:

वैव यमर त: मुख ला न: अ न ता / वातकम नव ृ : चे त ________ उ वेदना //
A. अप मारो
B. अ तसारो
C. उदर शल
ू ो
D. अश रोगो

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 5 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

16. Dose of IV Adrenalin in term infant during neonatal resuscitation

is__________________

A. 0.1-0.3 ml/kg in 1: 1000

B. 0.3-0.5 ml/kg in 1: 1000
C. 0.1-0.3 ml/kg in 1: 10,000
D. 0.3-0.5ml/kg in 1:10,000

17. A 4-year old child with bronchial asthma presents history of 3 or

more episodes during daytime and 2 wheezing episodes during
night in a week. How will you grade this asthma?

A. Mild persistent
B. Mild intermittent
C. Moderate persistent
D. Severe persistent

18. A 14-year-old girl presents with history of abdominal pain

(periumbilical) postprandial, passing blood in stools, fever, weight
loss for past 10 months. What may be the likely diagnosis?

A. Bulimia
B. Chronic appendicitis
C. Chronic pancreatitis
D. Crohn’s disease

19. ______________ is the best method for determining the level of

defect in ano-rectal malformation.

A. Clinical examination
B. X ray of Abdomen
C. Ultrasonography of abdomen
D. Invertogram

20. In _________ age group, child’s written assent and parent consent
is required for conducting biomedical research involving children.
A. Less than 7 years
B. 7-11 years
C. 12-18 years
D. Written assent is not required for children

21. Which of the following feature of Nabhi is appreciated as per

Kashyapa Samhita Lakshana adhyaya?
A. Gambheera
B. Gartakriti
C. Swalpakriti
D. Vishamunnata

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 6 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

22. The test TOWRE is used to diagnose______________in children

A. Rubella
B. Mental Retardation
C. Sjogren’s Syndrome
D. Dyslexia

23. The chronology of organs involved in the samprapti of

“Parvanuplava” is ____________

A. Paada, mushka,prishta,sira
B. Sira,mushka,paada,prishta
C. Mushka, siras,paada, prishta
D. Sira,prishta,mushka, paada

24. ‘Banana sign’ in Ultrasonography during antenatal screening

indicates

A. Achondroplasia
B. Neural tube defects
C. Hirschsprung disease
D. Transverse lie

25. 2-year-old girl was brought to OPD with complaints of low-grade fever,
barking cough and biphasic stridor since last 3 days. Chest X-ray
revealed Steeple sign. Probable diagnosis is

A. Retropharyngeal abscess
B. Croup
C. Foreign body aspiration
D. Acute bronchiolitis

26. Which is the gold standard for the estimation of Glomerular

filtration rate

A. Serum creatinine clearance

B. Inulin clearance
C. Albumin globulin ratio
D. DMSA scan

27. Female child aged 2 years presenting with intractable epilepsy and
severe mental retardation. Investigations revealed Corpus callosum
agenesis with hemihypsarrthmic pattern of EEG. Possible diagnosis is

A. West syndrome
B. Aicardi syndrome
C. Lannox Gastaut syndrome
D. Ohtahara syndrome

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 7 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

28. Name the Dhoopana yoga which can be used as Anudhoopa as well
as Prathidhoopa is _________

A. Sreedhoopa
B. Nandaka dhoopa
C. Sishuka dhoopa
D. Brahma dhoopa

29. According to Kashyapa, गभणैकं हेणैकं मृ युनैकेन यु यते is described

about _________ Jataharini.

A. Karkotaki
B. Kulakshyakari
C. Sandanshi
D. Paurushadini

30. ‘Wimberger’s Ring sign’ in X-ray is seen in ___________

A. Osteogenesis imperfecta
B. Scurvy
C. Rickets
D. Congenital Syphilis

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a

predefined group of respondents to gain information and insights
into various topics of interest.

A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta Analysis

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India
B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information
Resources (NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 8 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial

designs that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using interim
evaluations and addition of new interventions during the trial.

A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.

A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences

B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed

by ICH is __________
A. QSEM Codes for Global Health
B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical
Requirements

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Publication
?
Compiled of Report
and

A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 9 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to

be generated through _____

A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are

mentioned at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940

A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products & Resources is managed by ________

A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of

literature review in or around the topic of interest using the
available reference list or the citations is known as ____.

A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 10 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic

journal exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are
recently upsurging. Such journals are being defined as ____________

A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems

supported by Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is
_________________

A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles

B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the

end of the Second World War are popularly known as _________.

A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring

and analysing scholarly literature including the measurement of
the impact of research papers and academic journals, the
understanding of scientific citations, and the use of such
measurements in policy and management contexts

A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to

placebo drugs.

A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 11 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking
to examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a
dependent variable but they cannot control other important
variables in the research?

A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal

house in India?

A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)

B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of
Experimental Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development
(OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity

B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and
Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 12 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a

relationship between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is
called as?

A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being
observed, they may change their behaviour. This effect is known
as?

A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to

universe is measured by ____________________

A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59. A _______________ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and

interval scales.

A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval
is reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation
giving place to a smooth curve, known as ______________

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 13 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

61. In ___________, the study population is visited a number of times

at regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the
required information.

A. Retrospective Study Design

B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex

structure of a population, is an example of __________ Source.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

63. In an interview, A _________is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

64. __________method (sampling technique) is followed when the

population is not homogenous.

A. Simple Random Sampling

B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65. The mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18
micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the
Standard Error of Mean?

A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs

B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 14 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers have
changed over time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in one
parameter affect another.
III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is
divided into different parts.
IV Cartesian D Used to show numbers that are
graphs independent of each other.

A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected
counts.” What are the expected counts?
A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative
hypothesis were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis
were true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed
counts are representative

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled
randomly. It is an example of:
A. Simple random sampling
B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70

healthy people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test
inter-rater reliability among the two physicians?
A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement
B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is

most commonly associated with the following study design:
A. Prospective Cohort Study
B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **
Subject: Kaumarabhritya Page 15 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET

4
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
KAYA CHIKITSA
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. Penalty for Wrong answers: THERE WILL BE PENALY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her after
completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 1 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 2 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

1. Sheeta ushna kriya is indicated in ___________

A. Samyak dagdha
B. Sneha dagdha
C. Durdagdha
D. Atidagdha

2. Ksheeravasti prayoga is indicated in ________

A. Meda kshaya
B. Artava kshaya
C. Shukra Kshaya
D. Garbha kshaya

3. What is the protocol of chest compressions & breath in Pediatric

Patient during CPR in one minute
A. 90 chest compressions/30 Breath
B. 100 chest compressions/40 breath
C. 60 chest compressions/30 breath
D. 50 chest compressions/50 breath

4. As per Charaka Samhita, _________ Taila is indicated for Anuvasana Basti

in the treatment of Sadatura.

A. Madhuyashti Taila
B. Brihat Saindhavadi Taila
C. Nikumbha Taila
D. Ashtakatwara Taila

5. ___________ is NOT associated with the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.

A. Hypertriglyceridemia
B. Hypertension
C. High HDL Cholesterol
D. Hyperglycemia

6. According to Charaka, Vibhranta lochana is the lakshana of __________

A. Maha shwasa
B. Kshudra shwasa
C. Tamaka shwasa
D. Chinna shwasa

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 3 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

7. ____________ is not included in Glassgow Criteria for adverse prognosis

factors in acute pancreatitis.
A. Urea < 60 mmol/L
B. Albumin < 32 g/L
C. Glucose >10 mmol/L
D. Alanine aminotransferase >200U/L

8. Anupana of Sanjivani Vati as per Sharangadhara Samhita is ______

A. Ardraka Swarasa
B. Tulasi Swarasa
C. Gomutra
D. Madhu

9. Jone’s criteria is used for the diagnosis of ____________

A. Rheumatic Fever
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
C. SLE
D. Celiac disease

10. Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is the complication of ___________

A. Trichinosis
B. Malaria
C. Giardiasis
D. Lymphatic Filariasis

11. Prolonged use of Kohl Cosmetics lead to the poisoning of __________

A. Arsenic
B. Lead
C. Mercury
D. Phosphorus

12. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) is a late complication of ___

A. Mumps
B. Chickenpox
C. Measles
D. Herpes zoster

13. In DMD and BMD, the most common type of mutations occurs is _______
A. Deletion in dystrophin gene
B. Inversion in dystrophin gene
C. Point mutation in dystrophin gene
D. Duplication in dystrophin gene

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 4 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

14. Pretibial myxoedema is found in _________

A. Hypoparathyroidism
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Graves’s disease
D. Cushing’s Syndrome

15. Match the List - I with the list - II and select the correct answer using
the codes given as per Acharya Charaka

I - Kushtha II - Dosha Pradhanya

A. Rushyajihva 1. Kapha
B. Pundrika 2. Vatakapha
C. Sidhma 3. Vatapitta
D. Mandala 4. Kaphapitta
A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
B. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
C. A-2, B-1, C-2, D-4
D. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

16. Tourniquet test is related to ___________________

A. Swine flu
B. Chikungunya
C. Dengue
D. Influenza

17. __________ of the following is the feature of Right Heart Failure.

A. Pleural effusion
B. Ascites
C. Cardiomegaly
D. Pulmonary oedema

18. If symptoms of disease are present even after APATARPAN treatment of

AMA in AMAJA VIKARA; the preferred treatment is __________
A. Hetu Viparita
B. Vyadhi Viparita
C. Hetu Vipritathkari
D. Vyadhi Vipritarthkari

19. After an inoculation period of 3 to 7 days, there is sudden onset rigor

followed by headache, aching eyeballs and rapid rise of temp. (to 100-
102 F) along with excruciating backache and joint pain. The probable
diagnosis is ________
A. SARS-COV-2
B. Dengue
C. Small Pox
D. Erysipelas

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 5 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

20. Match the following and identify the right answer

Group A Group B
1 Crohn’s disease a) Obstruction & chronic persistent infection
2 Barrett Oesophagus b) Curschmann Spirals
3 Emphysema c) Skip lesions
4 Bronchiectasis d) Antiprotease alpha 1 Antitrypsin
e) Metaplastic Columnar Epithelium
A. 1-e, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-c, 2-e, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
D. 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b

21. शु धको ठ य यंज

ु ीत व धम महानाद पनम I दयानी चा नपानानी वत नानी लघू न चा||
Line of treatment related to the management of _________
A. Kasa
B. Hridroga
C. Rajayakshma
D. Grahani

22. मा ताशयस भूतेऽ या दतः या व णम ्| र त प ा वयेऽ यादौ नेहनं न हतं मतम ्|| is
mentioned in the context of _______________
A. Anyonyavarana
B. Prameha
C. Raktapitta
D. Visarpa

23. ससे वनीमेहनब शू लं िवशीणधारं च करोित मू म्| is the feature of ___________

A. Mootrakrichra
B. Mootraghata
C. Mootrashtheela
D. Mootrashmari

24. As per Charaka, Kshara prayoga is indicated in ____________

A. Guda Pakwashayagata Vata
B. Koshtagata Vata
C. Amashayagata Vata
D. Pakwashayagata Vata

25. Langhana is the line of treatment in Atisara for __________

A. Bahudoshavastha
B. Alpadoshavastha
C. Madhyamadoshavastha
D. Amavastha

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 6 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

26. Charaka indicated use of Takraristha in ______

A. Atisaara
B. Arsha
C. Grahani
D. Pandu

27. _____ one of the following is an example of intestinal human nematode.

A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Taenia solium
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Trichinella spiralis

28. Kernig’s Sign is found in ____________

A. Motor neuron disease

B. Parkinson’s disease
C. Meningitis
D. Tetanus

29. Manifestation characterized by recurrent oral and genital ulcers with

anterior Uveitis is _______

A Crohn’s Disease
B Behcet’s Disease
C Lipschutz’s Disease
D Meig’s Syndrome

30. The causing of rebound hyperglycemia occurring after hypo-glycemic

episodes is called as ________

A. Zollinger’s effect
B. Bohr effect
C. Somogyi’s effect
D. Dorwin’s effect

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 7 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a predefined
group of respondents to gain information and insights into various topics
of interest.

A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta-Analysis

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India

B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information
Resources (NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial

designs that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using interim
evaluations and addition of new interventions during the trial.

A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.

A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences

B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 8 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed

by ICH is __________

A. QSEM Codes for Global Health

B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Compiled Publication of

?
and Reviewed Report

A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to

be generated through _____

A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are mentioned
at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940

A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 9 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by ________

A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of literature

review in or around the topic of interest using the available reference
list or the citations is known as ____.

A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic journal
exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently
upsurging. Such journals are being defined as ____________

A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 10 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems

supported by Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is __________

A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles

B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end
of the Second World War are popularly known as _________.

A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and
analysing scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact
of research papers and academic journals, the understanding of
scientific citations, and the use of such measurements in policy and
management contexts

A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to

placebo drugs.

A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 11 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to
examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent
variable but they cannot control other important variables in the
research?

A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in

India?

A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)

B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experimental
Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to ________

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity

B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship
between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?

A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 12 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?

A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by____________

A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59. A ________ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and interval scales

A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval is
reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving place
to a smooth curve, known as _____________

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61. In __________, the study population is visited a number of times at regular

intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required information.

A. Retrospective Study Design

B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 13 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure of
a population, is an example of ______________ Source.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

63. In an interview, A _______________is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

64. __________ method (sampling technique) is followed when the population

is not homogenous.

A. Simple Random Sampling

B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65. Mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18 micromole/24
hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard Error of Mean?

A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs

B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers have changed over time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in one parameter affect
another.
III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is divided into different
parts.
IV Cartesian graphs D Used to show numbers that are independent of each
other.
A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 14 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What
are the expected counts?

A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis

were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were
true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts
are representative

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled
randomly. It is an example of:

A. Simple random sampling

B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70 healthy
people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test inter-rater
reliability among the two physicians?

A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement

B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is most
commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Subject: Kaya Chikitsa Page 15 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET
5
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
SHARIRA KRIYA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: THERE WILL BE PENALY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 1 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 2 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

1. The examination of muscles is usually done by __________________

A. NCV
B. ECG
C. BMD
D. EMG

2. Shrimad Bhrajishnu is the Characteristic of ____________

A. Majja Sara
B. Rakta Sara
C. Mansa Sara
D. Meda Sara

3. Calcitonin is secreted by ________

A. Thyroid
B. Pituitary
C. Pancras
D. Adrenal

4. __________ of the brain play important role in controlling emotional

behavior.
A. Thalamus
B. Cerebellums
C. Hypothalamus
D. Spinal cord

5. According to Vagbhatta and Charaka, Sandhisphotana is the feature of

_____________
A. Mamsakshya, Medakshaya
B. Mamsa Kshaya, Meda Kshaya
C. Asthi Kshaya, Meda Vriddhi
D. Asthi Vriddhi, Mamsa Kshaya

6. _________ is not used for the assessment of Adrenal Function

A. Metyrapone Test
B. Vandenberg Test
C. Dexamethasone Suppression Test
D. Kepler’s Water Excretion Test

7. Cholecystokinin acts on ___________

A. Acinar cells to cause the release of zymogen granules and
production of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes but low in volume
B. Pancreatic ducts to cause copious secretion of a very alkaline
pancreatic juice that is rich in HCO3– and poor in enzymes
C. Cholecystokinin effect not affected by phospholipase C
D. Suppression of Pancreatic Juice enzymes

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 3 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

8. The spherocytosis is caused by mutations in proteins that make up the

membrane skeleton of the erythrocyte, which normally maintain the
shape and flexibility of the red cell membrane, including _____

A. Spectrin, ankyrin
B. Myosin
C. Myoglobin
D. Methemoglobin

9. __________ of the following is not a feature of Majja Kshaya

A. Pratata Vata Roga

B. Alpa Shukrata
C. Asthi Toda
D. Sandhi Shunyata

10. Total lung capacity is the maximum volume to which the lungs can be
expanded with the greatest possible effort that is equal to ________

A. Vital capacity plus the residual volume

B. Vital capacity plus the tidal volume
C. Expiratory Reserve Volume plus the residual volume
D. Inspiratory Reserve Volume plus the tidal volume

11. Dysdiadochokinesia is __________

A. Inability to Perform Rapid Alternating Movements

B. Failure of Progression in Talking
C. Tremor of the Eyeballs.
D. Caused by the damage of basal ganglia

12. Regarding gastric emptying, ________ is not correct?

A. The rate of gastric emptying is fastest when stomach contents

are isotonic
B. The rate of gastric emptying is slowest when stomach contents
are hypertonic
C. The rate of gastric emptying is controlled by the size of
osmoreceptors in the duodenum
D. Cholecystokinin and secretine stimulates gastric emptying

13. When the cardiac muscles begin to contract after a brief period of rest
e.g following vagal stimulation, its initial strength of contraction
increases to a plateau, a phenomenon is called _______
A. All or None law
B. Staircase Effect
C. Frank Starling law
D. Haldane Effect

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 4 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

14. A patient’s MCH increases to 50pg, RBC diameter is 8.2 micrometer,

Bone marrow is hyperplastic and replaced by 70% Pro-erythroblast and
early normoblast, 30% intermediate and late normoblast, Achlorhydria,
B12 secretion increases in faeces. What could be the diagnosis?
A. Haemolytic Anaemia
B. Pernicious Anaemia
C. Iron Deficiency Anaemia
D. Aplastic Anaemia

15. Memory that involves conscious recall of events is called as ______

A. Explicit memory
B. Reflexive memory
C. Implicit memory
D. Remote memory

16. Which one of the following is not true about Galactosemia?

A. This is an Inborn metabolic disorder
B. There is a deficiency of enzyme phosphogalactose uridyl
transferase
C. Ingested galactose accumulates in blood
D. This is responsible for causing Mc Ardle’s Syndrome

17. Chakrapani has described ‘अव थानं’ as

A. यार भेण
B. लि जताकारे ण
C. उपे य धीयते
D. ि थर म त वं

18. All increases GFR except _________

A. Prostaglandins
B. Bradykinins
C. Epinephrine
D. Endothelial-Derived Nitric Oxide

19. Propulsive movement of small intestine is inhibited by ___________

A. Gastrin
B. CCK
C. Motilin
D. Secretin

20. Chakrapaani commented as ’माग स बंधमा य‘ for ________________

A. कोप
B. सर
C. सं य
D. य

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 DATE: 03.04.2022

21. Mullerian Regression Factor in the Fetal Testes is secreted by _______

A. Blood-Testes Barrier
B. Spermatogenic Cells
C. Sertoli Cells
D. Seminal Vesicles
22. As per Charaka, _________ of the following is considered as the process
involved in conversion of Mamsa from Rakta.
A. वा व बत
ु ेजसा र मू मणा चा भसंयत
ु म्
B. प ृ वीअ बु तेजसा र मू मणा चा भसंयुतम ्
C. ख अ बु तेजसा र मू मणा चा भसंयुतम ्
D. ले द अ बु तेजसा र मू मणा चा भसंयुतम ्

23. “सौ या सानाददानो” has been said by Acharya Sushruta in the context of
_____________
A. Samana Vayu
B. Vyana Vayu
C. Hridaya
D. Jatharagni
24. _______ of the following is considered as “सवा मना प रणमन प ” by
Chakrapani
A. ीर द ध याय
B. केदार कु या याय
C. खले कपोत याय
D. एक काल धातु पोषण याय
25. Match List I and List II, and choose the correct option
i When the Ventricle of the heart is stimulated at a) Local
short intervals, without changing the strength, phenomenon
the contraction increases gradually for first few
contractions and then it remain the same
ii In primary, aldosteronism, the edema does not b) Arousal
occur phenomenon
iii Immediately after the injury, the blood vessels c) Hamburger
constrict phenomenon
iv Impulses of proprioception, pain, auditory, visual, d) Escape
taste and olfactory sensations cause emotional phenomenon
reactions
v Exchange of a chloride ion for a bicarbonate ion e) Staircase
across RBC membrane phenomenon
A. i)-d, ii)-c, iii)-b, iv)-a, v)-e
B. i)-e, ii)-d, iii)-a, iv)-b, v)-c
C. i)-b, ii)-a, iii)-e, iv)-d, v)-c
D. i)-c, ii)-e, iii)-d, iv)-a, v)-b

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 6 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

26. The human female menstrual cycle is an example of a biological rhythm

called as _________________________
A. Circadian rhythm
B. Infradian rhythm
C. Ultradian rhythm
D. Diurnal rhythm

27. “राजय मा” is the disease of _______ Roga-marga

A. Abhyanta Rogamarga
B. Bahya Rogamarga
C. Madhyama Rogamarga
D. Adhoga Rogamarga

28. Dysdiadochokinesia is _____________

A. Inability to Perform Rapid Alternating Movements
B. Failure of Progression in Talking
C. Tremor of the Eyeballs.
D. Caused by the damage of basal ganglia

29. ’रा ौ च भोजनं कुया थम हरा तरे ‘is stated by

A. Sharangadhara
B. Bhavaprakash
C. Bhela
D. Harita

30. _______ is correct about Pneumotaxic center

A. Controls respiratory rhythm
B. Increases respiratory rate
C. Decreases Inspiration Duration
D. Controls both inspiration and Expiration

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a

predefined group of respondents to gain information and insights into
various topics of interest.
A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta-Analysis

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 7 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India

B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information
Resources (NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial

designs that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using
interim evaluations and addition of new interventions during the trial.

A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.

A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences

B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed

by ICH is __________

A. QSEM Codes for Global Health

B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical
Requirements

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 8 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Compiled Publication of

?
and Reviewed Report

A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to

be generated through _____

A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are

mentioned at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940

A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 9 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by

________
A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of

literature review in or around the topic of interest using the available
reference list or the citations is known as ____.

A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic

journal exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently
upsurging. Such journals are being defined as ____________

A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems

supported by Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is __________
A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles
B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 10 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end
of the Second World War are popularly known as _________.

A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and
analysing scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact
of research papers and academic journals, the understanding of
scientific citations, and the use of such measurements in policy and
management contexts

A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to

placebo drugs.
A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 11 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to
examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent
variable but they cannot control other important variables in the
research?
A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in

India?

A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)

B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of
Experimental Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development
(OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to ________

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity

B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and
Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship
between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?

A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?

A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 12 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by____________

A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59. A ________ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and interval scales
A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval is
reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving
place to a smooth curve, known as _____________

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61. In __________, the study population is visited a number of times at

regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required
information.

A. Retrospective Study Design

B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure
of a population, is an example of ______________ Source.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

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 DATE: 03.04.2022

63. In an interview, A _______________is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

64. __________ method (sampling technique) is followed when the population

is not homogenous.

A. Simple Random Sampling

B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65. Mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18

micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard
Error of Mean?

A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs

B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
Used to show how numbers have changed
I Bar graphs A
over time.
Used to show how changes in one parameter
II Pie charts B
affect another.
Used to show how a whole is divided into
III Line graphs C
different parts.
Cartesian Used to show numbers that are independent
IV D
graphs of each other.

A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 14 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.”

What are the expected counts?

A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative

hypothesis were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis
were true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed
counts are representative

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled
randomly. It is an example of:

A. Simple random sampling

B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70

healthy people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test inter-
rater reliability among the two physicians?

A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement

B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is most
commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Subject: Sharira Kriya Page 15 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET

6
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
PANCHA KARMA
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: THERE WILL BE PENALY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 1 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 2 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

1. Which of the following Sneha Matra is indicated in Krichchramutra?

A. Hrasva Matra
B. Madhyama Matra
C. Uttama Matra
D. Hrasiyasi Matra

2. Considering Charaka, fill in the blank with appropriate term from the
below. Paripakveshu Dosheshu ______ Yatha Amrutam

A. Ushnodaka Panam
B. Kheera Panam
C. Sarpi Panam
D. Kashaya Panam

3. Charaka advised Vamanam Madanonmishro Mantha Sa Kshaudra

Sharkara in ______

A. Jvara
B. Raktapitta
C. Kushtha
D. Visarpa

4. According to Charaka, which of the following Virechaka drug is advised in

Jvara, Hridroga and Vataasruk ?
A. Trivrut
B. Aragvadha
C. Tilvaka
D. Sudha

5. According to Charaka, Dantikalkam Samagudam Shitavariyutam This

Virechana yoga is best for ______
A. Pandu
B. Kamala
C. Pliha
D. Udara

6. Atyartha Katu Teekshnoshnam Gadheshu Ishtam Gadeshu is

mentioned by Charaka for ______

A. Jimootaka
B. Ikshvaku
C. Dhamargava
D. Kritavedhana

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 3 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

7. According to Charaka, _______ is to be done when Stimitata, Anilasanga

and Nirudgara condition is developed after intake of Virechana
Aushadhi.

A. Administer Tikshna Virechana Aushadhi

B. Induce vomiting
C. Administer Pachana Aushadhi
D. Administer Anulomana Aushadhi

8. According to Sushruta, ______ is the treatment for Ruja in Payu due to Ati
utkshipta Basti Netra

A. Vataghna
B. Pittaghna
C. Kaphaghna
D. Svedana

9. National Ayurveda Research Institute for Panchakarma is located at –

A. Lucknow, UP
B. Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu
C. Nagarcoil, Tamil Nadu
D. Cheruthuruthy. Kerala

10. According to Charaka, ब यं स ख

ु ोपचय च सख
ु ं सृ परु ीषकृत् is described for
_________
A. Niruha Basti
B. Matra Basti
C. Snehapana
D. Virechana

11. _________ of the following is incorrect with reference to Ankylosing

spondylosis.

A. It is more common in males than females

B. Rheumatoid factor is usually negative
C. Upper vertebras are involved prior to lower ones & sacroiliac joints
D. Bamboo spine is a characteristic feature when whole spine is
involved

12. As per to Vagbhata, ______ matra of Sneha is indicated for Shamana.

A. Uttama
B. Madhyama
C. Alpa
D. Hrasiyasi (Test dose)

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 4 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

13. According to Charaka, ____________ Ghrita is not indicated for Snehana in

Kamala-Pandu

A. Panchagavya
B. Dadimadi
C. Mahatiktaka
D. Kalyanaka

14. न घतृ ं बहुदोषाय दे यं य न वरे चयेत is described by Charaka in the context of

__________

A. Kushtha
B. Vatashonita
C. Visarpa
D. Grahani

15. Complete the shloka with appropriate terms given below.

उ ले खनोपवासा यां जये त कफ ________ । त ृ यते स ललं चा मे द या बेरसा धतम ् ।।
A. मदा यय
B. र त प
C. कामला
D. वसप

16. मूलं गुदं शर र य सरा त ति ठताः is described by ________

A. Bhela
B. Chakrapani
C. Parashar
D. Dalhana

17. Shampaka is the synonym of __________

A. Aragwadha
B. Kritavedhana
C. Vatsaka
D. Dhamargava

18. Prastha is equivalent to ______ Pala in Panchakarma perspective.

A. 12 ½
B. 13 ½
C. 12
D. 13

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 5 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

19. In Charaka Samhita, among 24 Vicharana, ______ of the following is not

included

A. Karna Taila
B. Akshi Tarpana
C. Karna Tarpana
D. Murdhni Taila

20. As per Sushruta, indication of Niragni sweda is ____________

A. Kapha Medonvita Vata

B. Meda kaphavruta Vata
C. Kaphavrita vata
D. Medasavrita kapha

21. Vamaka Yoga referred as Manovikareshu uttamam is explained at _____

A. Damargava Kalpa
B. Vatsaka Kalpa
C. Madana Kalpa
D. Krita Vedhana Kalpa

22. In Vipadika, Siravyadhana is to be done two angula above _____________

A. Indrabasti
B. Kshipra
C. Gulpha
D. Janu

23. After intake of Vamaka Yoga, Sveda Pradurbhava indicates

A. Dosha Pravilayanam
B. Dosha Prachalitam
C. Dosha Shaithiliyam
D. Dosha Kledanam

24. _______ is to be done in Ayoga of Jaloukavacharana

A. Ghriten Avaghattayeta
B. Tailen Avaghattayet
C. Madhuna Avaghattyet
D. Churnena Avaghattayet

25. Snehana is contraindicated in ___________

A. Vatavyadhi
B. Urustambha
C. Astheela
D. Udavarta

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 6 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

26. Madhu Saindhava invariably added in all Vamaka Yogas considering its
___________ property.

A. Balances electrolytes
B. Good healer and antiseptic
C. Liquefaction of kapha
D. Produces huge secretion

27. As per Charaka, Timira complication arising from Nasya done to alcoholic
patient requires _______

A. Ruksha sheeta lepa

B. Ushna snigdha lepa
C. Madhyapana
D. Dugdha pana

28. Instrument used for Siravyadha over Bony Area’s is _________

A. Kusha Patra
B. Kutharika
C. Vrihimukha
D. Sharari Mukha

29. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, ______ is the type of Nasya indicated in

Kesha Dosha.

A. Brimhana
B. Shamana
C. Shodhana
D. Rechana

30. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, Nasya is advised both in morning and

evening time in which of the following condition ?

A. Ardhava Bhedaka
B. Kesha Shatana
C. Swarabramsha
D. Visamjnata

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 7 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a predefined
group of respondents to gain information and insights into various topics
of interest.

A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta-Analysis

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India

B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information Resources
(NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial designs

that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using interim
evaluations and addition of new interventions during the trial.

A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.

A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences

B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 8 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed by

ICH is __________

A. QSEM Codes for Global Health

B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Compiled Publication of

?
and Reviewed Report

A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to

be generated through _____

A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are mentioned
at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940

A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 9 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by ________

A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of literature

review in or around the topic of interest using the available reference list
or the citations is known as ____.

A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic journal
exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently upsurging.
Such journals are being defined as ____________

A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 10 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems supported
by Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is __________

A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles

B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end of
the Second World War are popularly known as _________.

A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and
analysing scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact
of research papers and academic journals, the understanding of scientific
citations, and the use of such measurements in policy and management
contexts

A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to placebo

drugs.

A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 11 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to
examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent
variable but they cannot control other important variables in the
research?

A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in

India?

A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)

B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experimental
Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to ________

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity

B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship
between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?

A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 12 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?

A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by____________
A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59. A ________ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and interval scales

A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval is
reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving place
to a smooth curve, known as _____________

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61. In __________, the study population is visited a number of times at regular

intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required information.

A. Retrospective Study Design

B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 13 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure of
a population, is an example of ______________ Source.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

63. In an interview, A _______________is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

64. __________ method (sampling technique) is followed when the population

is not homogenous.
A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65. Mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18 micromole/24
hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard Error of Mean?
A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs
B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers have changed over
time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in one parameter
affect another.
III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is divided into different
parts.
IV Cartesian graphs D Used to show numbers that are independent of
each other.
A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 14 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What
are the expected counts?

A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis

were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were
true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts
are representative

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled
randomly. It is an example of:

A. Simple random sampling

B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70 healthy
people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test inter-rater
reliability among the two physicians?

A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement

B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is most
commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Subject: Pancha Karma Page 15 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET
7

Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022

PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: THERE WILL BE PENATLY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 1 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 2 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS:70

1. Which of the following non malignant adnexal masses can give rise to Meigs
Syndrome?
A. Ovarian Fibroma
B. Mature Cystic Teratoma
C. Paratubal Cyst
D. Hydrosalpinx

2. ____________type of incision involves detaching the rectus tendon from the

pubic symphysis.
A. Maylard
B. Cherney
C. J – Incision
D. Pfannenstiel

3. Repeated Intrauterine death in fifth, sixth and seventh month occurs in

__________ Jataharini
A. Punyajani
B. Kulakshaya Kari
C. Vashya
D. Parisruta

4. Pregnancy associated plasma protein—A (PAPP-A) during pregnancy is

secreted by __________.
A. Cytotrophoblast
B. Syncytiotrophoblast
C. Hydatidiform mole
D. Adrenal gland of fetus

5. Death of one fetus of twin pregnancy in _____________trimester converts into

Fetus papyraceous.
A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. First and Third trimester

6. Roll over test as screening for prediction and prevention of pre eclampsia is
done between ______________weeks of pregnancy.
A. 20 and 26
B. 28 and 32
C. 16 and 24
D. 18 and 24

7. A female with complaint of milky white discharge per vagina with fishy odour
visits hospital with no history of itching. What can be the probable
diagnosis?
A. Candidiasis
B. Malignancy
C. Bacterial Vaginosis
D. Urinary Tract Infection

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 3 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

8. As a Complication of general anesthesia in Caesarean Section, _________ is a

serious and life threatening one.
A. Acrodysostosis
B. Rett syndrome
C. Mendelson’s syndrome
D. Noonan Syndrome

9. During Ultrasound Scan in pregnancy, observation of finding of Early IUGR is

indictor of _______________genetic anomaly.
A. Triploidy
B. Triploidy, 45 , XO
C. Trisomy 13,18,21
D. Meckel Gruber Syndrome

10. What is the cut off value of hospitalization of anemia patient in

pregnancy?
A. 8g/dl
B. 8.5g/dl
C. 7g/dl
D. 7.5g/dl

11. According to Kashyapa Samhita, in which month a garbhini may take erand
taila with milk for vata roga
A. 7th month
B. 6th month
C. 5th month
A. 4th month

12. According to Harita Samhita, which shastra is used for “bahu yugala
chhedan” in Mudha Garbha
A. Anguli Shastra
B. Badish Shastra
C. Garbha Shanku
D. Ardha Chandra Shastra

13. What is the contraindication of the use of 15 methyl PGF2α in the

patient of PPH ?
A. Hypertension
B. Pre-Eclampsia
C. Bronchial Asthma
D. Anemia

14. “Aashodashvarshaprapta ya stri pushpam na pashyati”is a feature of _________

A. Mohini
B. Vikuta
C. Katambhara
D. Shushka revati

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 4 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

15. The least common cause of DIC is ……

A. Abruptio Placenta
B. Trophblastic disease
C. Septic abortion
D. Amniotic fluid embolism

16. According to Bhava Prakasha, in treatment of recurrent bleeding after

conception………siddha ksheer should be consumed.
A. Mustadi gana
B. Sursadi gana
C. Jeevniya gana
D. Utpaladi gana

17. …… is a type of transcervical sterilization.

A. Nestorone
B. Essure
C. Norplant
D. Capronor

18. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, “vardhate ten nodram”; is a feature of _______

A. Upvishtak
B. Nagodar
C. Leena Garbha
D. Garbha srava

19. According to Harita, from which day onwards a Sutika can take meal of Shali
shashtika rice……..
A. Day 1 itself
B. Day 2
C. Day 5
D. Day 15

20. According to Harita Samhita, in Chalita garbha chikitsa, in which month the
combination of gairika, Krishna mrittika, & gomaya bhasma are prescribed
orally?
A. 5th month
B. 6th month
C. 7th month
D. 8th month

21. As per KahyapSamhita, what happens if a pregnant female does apathya like
“bahu bhunkate tu ya atyartham bahusho bahu murchhita”:
A. Supraja
B. Garbha srava
C. Garbha pata
D. Mudhagarbha

22. According to FIGO staging in which stage, Cervical Carcinoma exceeds

beyond the uterus but not to the pelvic wall or to lower third of vagina:
A. Stage I
B. Stage II
C. Stage III
D. Stage IV

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 5 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

23. According to Kashyapa Samhita, from which month a pregnant lady can be
given Aushadhi :
A. 6th Month
B. 5th Month
C. 4th Month
D. 8th Month

24. Measurement of duct of Bartholin’s gland is ……

A. 3 cm
B. 4 cm
C. 2 cm
D. 5 cm

25. According to Sushruta, Yonidhupana with the following drug is indicated in

Garbhasanga ……..

A. Pinditaka
B. Hiranyapushpi
C. Suvarchala
D. Vishala

26. According to Bhavaprakasha, “Dhanya kuttan” is mentioned in the

management of …….
A. Upavishtaka garbha
B. Amagarbhapata
C. Viskambha
D. Aparasanga

27. After extraction of Mudhagarbha, Sutika paricharya should be followed up

to…….
A. One and half months
B. Three months
C. Four months
D. Six months

28. Venous drainage of Fallopian tube occurs through _______.

A. Pampini Form Plexus
B. Uterine Vesical plexus
C. Vesical Venous Plexus
D. Inferior colon plexus

29. Flexion during labour can be explained by

A. Hart’s rule
B. Law of unequal flexibility
C. two arm lever theory
D. Couple of force theory
30. In Putraghni Yoni Vyapad, Vayu is aggravated due to predominance of
_______guna
A. Sukshma Guna
B. Khara Guna
C. Chala Guna
D. Ruksha Guna

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 6 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a predefined group
of respondents to gain information and insights into various topics of interest.
A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta Analysis

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India
B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information Resources
(NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial designs that
allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using interim evaluations and
addition of new interventions during the trial.
A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.
A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences
B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed by ICH
is __________
A. QSEM Codes for Global Health
B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 7 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Publication
?
Compiled of Report
and
A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to be

generated through _____
A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are mentioned at
_________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940
A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by ________

A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of literature

review in or around the topic of interest using the available reference list or
the citations is known as ____.
A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 8 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic journal
exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently upsurging. Such
journals are being defined as ____________
A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems supported by
Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is _________________

A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles

B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end of the
Second World War are popularly known as _________.

A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and analysing
scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact of research
papers and academic journals, the understanding of scientific citations, and
the use of such measurements in policy and management contexts

A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to placebo

drugs.

A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 9 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to examine
the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent variable but they
cannot control other important variables in the research?

A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in

India?

A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)

B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experimental
Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity

B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship
between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?

A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?

A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 10 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by…………………...

A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59. A …………… has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and interval
scales.

A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval is
reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving
place to a smooth curve, known as …………………………

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61. In …………………….., the study population is visited a number of times

at regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required
information.

A. Retrospective Study Design

B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure
of a population, is an example of …………………. Source.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

63. In an interview, A ……………………is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 11 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

64. …………………………. method (sampling technique) is followed when the

population is not homogenous.
A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65. The mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18
micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard
Error of Mean?

A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs

B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers
have changed over time.

II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in

one parameter affect another.

III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is

divided into different parts.

IV Cartesian D Used to show numbers that are

graphs independent of each other.

A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What
are the expected counts?

A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis

were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were
true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts
are representative

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 12 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled
randomly. It is an example of:

A. Simple random sampling

B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70 healthy
people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test inter-rater
reliability among the two physicians?

A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement

B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is most
commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Subject: PRASUTI TANTRA AND STREE ROGA Page 13 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET
8
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: THERE WILL BE PENALY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 1 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 2 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

1. Sanskrit Commentaries on Sharangdhara have discussed about use of

substitutes in absence of original drug while preparing certain formulations.
What is the appropriate pairing of original and substitutes as per below:

Original drug Substitute drug

a Aralu i Draksha
b Kustha ii Devdaru
c Bhallataka iii Shyonaka
d Paribhadra iv Bakuchi

A. a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

B. a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
C. a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
D. a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

2. As per API, when heated on charcoal, a fragment of …………………..fuses to a

black mass without swelling which is strongly magnetic, as felt by a horse-
shoe magnet. What is it?

A. Abhraka
B. Godanti
C. Tankana
D. Swarna Makshika

3.
…………….…भ ये मासमेकमादौ वच ण: I प चा स यो यतां दे हे े ीकरण म छता II
Following the verse of Rasendra chintamani, fill the blank with appropriate term
A. मत
ृ ा ं
B. मत
ृ सूतं
C. म ृ हेमं
D. म ृ मा कं

4. Rasa vagbhata mentioned वशोधनात ् त वगत वदोषं सुधासमं या सवीयपाके in the

context of ___________________________

A. Tamra
B. Gandhaka
C. Abhraka
D. Vatsanabha

5. According to Rasa Hridaya Tantra, न पुनः प छे दो य वं वा वना ...............

A. गगनम ्
B. रसे वरम ्
C. सौगि धकम ्
D. सुवणम ्

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 3 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

6. ___________ is present in maximum quantity in Krumikuthara Rasa as per AFI?

A. Karpura
B. Vidanaga
C. Nagakeshar
D. Palash Beeja

7. ______ is minimum area required for manufacturing of ointment as per D & C

act 1940 and Rules 1945.
A. 100 Sq. Feet
B. 150 Sq. feet
C. 50 Sq. feet
D. 200 Sq. feet

8. According to Rasa Tarangini, proportion of Guda (jaggery) for Abhraka Marana

is _____
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 1/8
D. 1/16

9. As per Rasendra Chudamni, which of the following metal is used for Niruttha
Pariksha of Naga Bhasma?

A. Vanga
B. Tamra
C. Loha
D. Rajat

10. Therapeutic index is a measure of_____

A. Safety
B. Efficacy
C. Potency
D. Selectivity

11. According to Ayurved Prakash, which of the following Puta is mentioned for
Gandhaka Shodhana?
A. Varaha
B. Kurma
C. Valuka
D. Kapot

12. XRD shows

A. Chemical composition
B. Phase changes in the substance
C. Molecular binding
D. Surface topography of the molecule

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 4 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

13. The guideline used for reporting of the toxicity study is

A. ARRIVE
B. CONSORT
C. MOOSE
D. OECD

14. According to Charak, Shatapaki Madhuk taila is indicated for

A. Vatavyadhi
B. Kushta
C. Vatarakta
D. Rajayaksma

15. Specific anupana of Kravyad rasa is _______________

A. Shunthi jala
B. Shadangodaka
C. Koshna jala
D. buttermilk

16. According to Sarangadhara, Bheshaja should be administered for Brimhana

purpose in which kala ?

A. Prabhata
B. kala
C. Samudga kala
D. Grase grase
E. Nishi kala

17. What is the working principle of hammer mill ?

A. Cutting
B. Attrition
C. Impact
D. Pressure

18. Form which is required for Loan Licence to manufacture for sale of Ayurvedic
(including Siddha) or Unani Drugs (D & C rule, 1945) is _______

A. 24 D
B. 25 D
C. 24 E
D. 25 E

19. Which of the following yantra is mentioned by Rasatarngini for Talstha

Rasasindoor

A. Patala yantra
B. Valuka yantra
C. Adhasaikat yantra
D. Bhudara yantra

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 5 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

20. What are the ingredients present in the ratio of 16:4:1 in Madhushukta
preparation is as per Sharangadhara

A. Jambir swaras: Madhu: Maricha

B. Jambir swaras: Madhu: Pippali
C. Madhu: Jambir swaras: Pippali
D. Pippali: Jambir swaras: Madhu

21. According to Gudartha deepika teeka, which can be used as a substitute of

Bhallataka in Sanjeevani vati

A. Bakuchi
B. Vacha
C. Chitrak
D. Chitrakmool

22. If any AYUSH drug bears or contains, for purposes of coloring only, a colour
other than one which is prescribed in D & C act, 1940 then it called as

A. Adulterated drug
B. Misbranded drug
C. Spurious drug
D. Standard drug

23. According to Adhamalla what type of Ushnodak is used for phanta kalpana

A. 1/8th reduced
B. 1/6th reduced
C. 1/4th reduced
D. 1/2th reduced

24. “एक भूत तत खज ोभनेन था यं धा ये स तरा ं सुगु तम” is the process for which of
the drug as per AFI

A. Amritprash ghrita
B. Amritabhallatak ghrita
C. Kalyanak ghrita
D. Narasimha ghrita

25. Which one of the following statement is false regarding drug absorption?

A. Unionized lipid soluble drug readily absorbed from the GI track

B. Acidic drugs are largely unionized in the acid gastric juice and are absorbed
from stomach
C. Acidic drugs are largely ionized in the acid gastric juice and are absorbed
from stomach and duodenum
D. Basic drugs are largely ionized and are absorbed from the duodenum.

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 6 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

26. Spectroscopy is working upon Beer-Lambert law which stated

A. The sample path length and concentration of the sample are directly
proportional to the absorbance of the light.
B. The sample path length and concentration of the sample are inversely
proportional to the absorbance of the light.
C. The sample path length and concentration of the sample are directly
proportional to the emission of the light.
D. The sample path length and concentration of the sample are inversely
proportional to the emission of the light

27. According to Anandkanda, weight of Shrestha Haritaki is

A. Ardhakarsha
B. 2 Karsha
C. 1 Shan
D. 1 Karsha

28. According to Rasa Tarangini, Shodhana of Nimbu Bija is to be done in ____

A. Churnodaka
B. Triphala Kwatha
C. Apamarga Kashaya
D. Jambiri Nimbu

29. Amrita is to be administered in which form in patient suffering from Jeerna

Jwara, as per Acharya Sharangdhara:

A. Swarasa
B. Kwatha
C. Hima
D. Phanta

30 . A sample of honey is procured from market. What should be the finding to

ascertain it is of genuine quality as per API:

A. Reducing sugars should be more than 65 % by wt.

B. Fructose-Glucose ratio less than 1 % by wt.
C. Fiehe’s Test will be negative
D. Aniline Chloride Test is positive

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 7 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a predefined group
of respondents to gain information and insights into various topics of
interest.

A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta Analysis

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India

B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information Resources
(NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial designs that
allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using interim evaluations and
addition of new interventions during the trial.

A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.

A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences

B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed by ICH
is __________

A. QSEM Codes for Global Health

B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 8 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Publication
?
Compiled of Report
and
A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to be

generated through _____
A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are mentioned at
_________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940
A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by ________

A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of literature

review in or around the topic of interest using the available reference list or
the citations is known as ____.
A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 9 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic journal
exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently upsurging.
Such journals are being defined as ____________
A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems supported by
Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is _________________
A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles
B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end of the
Second World War are popularly known as _________.
A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and analysing
scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact of research
papers and academic journals, the understanding of scientific citations, and
the use of such measurements in policy and management contexts
A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to placebo

drugs.
A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 10 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to examine
the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent variable but they
cannot control other important variables in the research?

A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in India?

A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)

B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experimental
Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity
B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56 When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship

between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?
A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed, they
may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?
A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by…………………...
A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 11 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

59. A …………………… has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and interval
scales.
A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval is reduced,
the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving place to a smooth
curve, known as ………………………………………

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61. In …………………….., the study population is visited a number of times at

regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required
information.

A. Retrospective Study Design

B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure of a
population, is an example of …………………. Source.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

63. In an interview, A ……………………is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

64. …………………………. method (sampling technique) is followed when the

population is not homogenous.
A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65. The mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18 micromole/24
hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard Error of Mean?
A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs
B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 12 of 13

 DATE:03.04.2022

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers
have changed over time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in
one parameter affect another.
III Line C Used to show how a whole is
graphs divided into different parts.
IV Cartesian D Used to show numbers that are
graphs independent of each other.

A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What are
the expected counts?
A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis were
true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts are
representative

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled randomly.
It is an example of:
A. Simple random sampling
B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70 healthy
people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test inter-rater
reliability among the two physicians?
A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement
B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is most
commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **
SUBJECT: RASA SHASTRA AND BHAISHAJYA KALPANA Page 13 of 13
 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET
9
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
ROGA NIDANA & VIKRITI VIJNANA
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: THERE WILL BE PENALY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate
or displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Page 1 of 15
DATE: 03.04.2022

Page 2 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOWED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS; 70

1. Match the type of Avarana with its chikitsa sutra as per Charaka

Type of Avarana Chikitsa sutra

1. Pranavritta vyana A. Snehayukta virechana
2. Vyanavritta prana B. Agnideepak ghrita
3. Pranvritta samana C. Urdhwa jatrugata chikitsa &
Ashwasana
4. Samanavritta apana D. Sneha with yapana basti
5. Pranavritta udana E. Urdhwa jatrugata chikitsa

A. 1-E, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C

B. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B, 5-E
C. 1-C, 2-E, 3-D, 4-B, 5-A
D. 1-E, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C, 5-B

2. Which one of the following statements is wrong according to Sushruta

A. Janmabala pravritta vyadhis are due to abnormality either in Shukra or

in Shonita or in both
B. Upasargaja vyadhis are included in Daivabala pravritta vyadhis
C. Doshabala pravritta vadhis are originated from Amashaya and
Pakwashaya
D. The external factors are responsible for Sanghatabala pravritta vyadhis

3. All of the following are X-linked recessive disorders except

_________________________

A. G6PD deficiency
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Colour blindness
D. Beta Thalassaemia

4. According to Sushruta, the blood expelled out through anus either

mixed with stool or without stool, with or without bad smell as
symptoms indicate ________________________

A. Aamaatisaara
B. Shokaja Atisaara
C. Pittaja Atisaara
D. Tridoshaja Atisaara

Page 3 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

5. A 22-year-old heterosexual male presents to the STD clinic with a 2-

week history of purulent urethral discharge and dysuria. He has been
sexually active in the past month with two new partners. Gram-stained
smear of urethral exudate shows Gram-negative diplococci, along with
prominent polymorphonuclear cells. What is the most likely cause of
the man’s urethral discharge?
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrrhoea
C. Staphylococcal infection
D. Non-gonococcal urethritis

6 Kernicterus often develops in _______________ of the following type of

hereditary hyperbilirubinaemia
A. Gilbert syndrome
B. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
C. Crigler-Najjar syndrome type-I
D. Rotor syndrome

7 According to Charaka, which one of the following is an incorrect

combination in relation to Anumana Pariksha ______________________
A. Moha-Vigyanena
B. Vigyan-Vyavasayena
C. Medha-Grahanena
D. Sangya-Namagrahanena

8 Which one of the following ECG changes is most typical of

hyperkalaemia?
A. Peaked P wave
B. Peaked T wave
C. ST segment depression
D. Narrowed QRS complex

9 The media used to differentiate lactose fermenting from non-lactose

fermenting bacteria is _________________________________
A. Nutrient agar
B. Blood agar
C. MacConkey agar
D. Mannitol salt agar

Page 4 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

10 A gardener cuts his finger while using a rusty knife. Over the following
24 hours, the finger becomes red, warm and painful. Which cell type is
most important in immune defense during these initial stages of
infection?

A. T cell
B. Neutrophil
C. B Cell
D. Eosinophil

11 A 48-year-old obese women woman complains of severe ache in the right

upper quadrant of the abdomen with radiation to interscapular area and
yellowish discoloration of sclera for 2 days. Sha has also been having
nausea and vomiting. She also gives the history of intermittent dull pain
in the upper abdomen and bloating for the last 6 months, lasting for 1-
2 days and gets relieved after taking some home remedies. She has also
been having intermittent malabsorption and flatulence, especially after
meals for the for the last one year. On examination she has pallor+,
icterus++, pedal edema+, pulse 90/min and blood pressure 130/90mm
of Hg. On deep palpation she is having pain in the right hypochondrium.
However, there is no fever or any hepatosplenomegaly. Then she visits
you. What is your probable diagnosis for her clinical condition –
A. Acute Cholecystitis with cholelithiasis
B. Chronic cholecystitis with Cholelithiasis
C. Chronic cholecystitis with Cholelithiasis and cholestatic jaundice
D. Acute Cholecystitis with cholelithiasis and cholestatic jaundice

12 The commonest type of familial and genetic liver disease causing

unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is –
A) Gilberts syndrome.
B) Crigler- Najjar Syndrome.
C) Duben Johnson.
D) Rotor’s syndrome.

13 In urine microscopic examination prism and dumbbell shaped crystals

are represent: -
A. Calcium oxalate crystals
B. Uric acid Crystals
C. Cystine crystals
D. Leucine crystals

14 “अ दताकृ तकरणं च याधेः” is the purvarupa of ____________________

A. Raktapitta
B. Jvara
C. Unmada
D. VataVyadhi

Page 5 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

15 A patient presents with the clinical feature of shaking of the leg at the
commencement of walking, limping while walking aand loosened
joints. His most probable diagnosis as per Ayurveda is
A. Vishwachi
B. Khanja
C. Vatakantaka
D. Kalaayakhanja

16 According to Sushruta, ‘Aprachuryam Kriyanam’ is the classical

feature of –
A) Vata Kshaya
B) Bala kshaya.
C) Bala Visransa’
D) Kapha Vriddhi.

17 As per Sushruta the ‘ashaya’ of Santata and Anyedyushka jvara is

consecutively_______________
A) Rasa and Rakta.
B) Rasa and Mansa.
C) Rasa- Rakta and Mansa.
D) Rakta and Mansa.

18 “... च ताभय ासगदा तचाराः| छ यामस धारणकशना न..” are the etiological
factors for _________________
A. Grahani
B. Hridroga
C. Atisara
D. VataVyadhi

19 Which of the following features helps in the diagnosis of the stage of

Udaka Pradurbhava in Jalodara -
A. म डलमुदरं गु ि त मतमाको ठतमश दं
B. मद
ृ ु पशमपगतराजीकमा ा तं ना यामेवोपसप त
C. कु ेर तमा व ृ धः, सरा तधानगमनम ्,
D. सदा गड
ु गुडाय च सराजालगवा तम ्

20 “… हणीदोषपा वतराश का चोदर य च..” is the purvarupa of _________________

A. Arsha
B. Grahani
C. Atisara
D. Udavarta

Page 6 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

21 According to Charaka, िवषमां कु ते बुि ं िन यािन ये िहतािहते is referred in the

context of _____________.
A. Vatika unamada
B. Unamada purvrupa
C. Agantuka unadama
D. Atattvabhinivesha

22 According to Yoga Ratnakar, Tail bindu mutra pariksha, spreading of taila

bindu to east direction indicates that ___________
A. Patient will be having fever and will recover soon
B. Patient will die within month
C. Patient will never recover
D. Patient will recover with ease

23 The use of echocardiography helps to rule out following condition except

____________
A. Coronary artery disease :-
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Infective endocarditis
D. Ruptured cordae tendineae

24 The causing of rebound hyperglycaemia occurring after hypoglycaemic

episodes is called as
A. Zollinger’s effect.
B. Bohr effect
C. Somogyi’s effect
D. Rotor’s effect

25 Presence of Charcot Leyden crystal in stool is observed in ___________

A. Amoebic Dysentery
B. Bacilliary Dysentery
C. Shigella
D. Taenia solium

26 Infestation due to _______________ may lead to malabsorption.

A. Giardia Lamblia
B. Necator Americana
C. Ascaris Lumbricoides
D. Ancylostoma Duodenale

27. A patient presents with acute skin eruptions, spreading in nature, resembling
like those caused by burns and the patient has the feeling of burning sensation
as if his body is sprinkled with flaming charcoals. His most probable diagnosis
of skin disease is –
A. Audumbara Kustha
B. Kardama Visarpa
C. Agneya Visarpa
D. Kakanaka Kustha

Page 7 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

28. According to Madhava Nidana, ‘Shunata anganam’ is the lakshana of

A. Vishamajwara
B. Amavata
C. Sandhiagta vata
D. Grahani

29. According to Charaka, “लोहामगि धि त ता ल उ गार चा य जायते..” is

described for which disease ?

A. Raktapitta
B. Grahani
C. Amlapitta
D. Vidagdhajeerna

30. Microalbuminuria is defined as daily excretion of albumin in the range

of
A. 20-100 mg/day.
B. 30-300 mg /day.
C. 50-500 mg /day.
D. 300-500 mg/day.

31 The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32 _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a predefined

group of respondents to gain information and insights into various
topics of interest.

A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta Analysis

33 __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India
B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information
Resources (NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

Page 8 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

34 _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial

designs that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using interim
evaluations and addition of new interventions during the trial.

A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35 ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.
A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36 Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences

B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37 A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed

by ICH is __________

A. QSEM Codes for Global Health

B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

38 ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Publication
?
Compiled of Report
and
A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39 __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

Page 9 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

40 Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to

be generated through _____

A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41 List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are

mentioned at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940

A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42 Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43 Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by ________

A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44 An approach to gather additional information in the process of literature

review in or around the topic of interest using the available reference
list or the citations is known as ____.

A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

45 ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

Page 10 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

46 The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic

journal exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently
upsurging. Such journals are being defined as ____________

A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47 The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems

supported by Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is
_________________

A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles

B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48 A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end

of the Second World War are popularly known as _________.

A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49 ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and

analysing scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact
of research papers and academic journals, the understanding of
scientific citations, and the use of such measurements in policy and
management contexts

A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50 In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to

placebo drugs.

A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

Page 11 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

51 _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

52 T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53 Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to

examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent
variable but they cannot control other important variables in the
research?
A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54 Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in

India?
A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)
B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experimental
Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55 In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity
B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56 When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship

between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?
A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

Page 12 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

57 When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?
A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58 Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by…………………...
A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59 A …………………… has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and

interval scales.
A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60 When the number of observations is very large and group interval is

reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving
place to a smooth curve, known as ………………………………………

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61 In …………………….., the study population is visited a number of times

at regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required
information.

A. Retrospective Study Design

B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

62 The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure

of a population, is an example of …………………. Source.

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

Page 13 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

63 In an interview, A ……………………is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

64 …………………………. method (sampling technique) is followed when the

population is not homogenous.

A. Simple Random Sampling

B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

65 The mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18

micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard
Error of Mean?

A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs

B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

66 Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers
have changed over time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes
in one parameter affect
another.

III Line C Used to show how a whole is

graphs divided into different parts.
IV Cartesian D Used to show numbers that
graphs are independent of each
other.

A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

Page 14 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

67 A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What

are the expected counts?
A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis
were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were
true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts
are representative

68 For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled

randomly. It is an example of:
A. Simple random sampling
B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69 Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70 healthy

people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test inter-rater
reliability among the two physicians?

A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement

B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70 ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is most

commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Page 15 of 15
 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET
10
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
SHALAKYA TANTRA

Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 1 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 2 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

1. MacEwen’s triangle is important landmark to locate________________

A. Attic
B. Mastoid antrum
C. Branch of facial nerve
D. Incus bone

2. According to Sushruta, match appropriate Dushta Shalaka janita

vyapada in the context of Kaphaja Linganasha vedhna karma

a. Karkasha 1. Vishala vrana

b. Sthulagra 2. Hinsyada anekdha
c. Vishma 3. Shula
d. Teekshna 4. Jalasrava
A. a & 2; b & 4; c & 1; d & 3
B. a & 4; b & 3; c & 2; d & 1
C. a & 3; b & 1; c & 4; d & 2
D. a & 2; b & 3; c & 4; d & 1

3. According to Sushruta, ‘Sa Dantanam Gunahari’ is related to_______

A. Dantasharkara
B. Kapalika
C. Dalana
D. Dantaharsha

4. Splinter haemorrhages on the optic disc are a common finding in____

A. Cataract
B. Glaucoma
C. Papilloedema
D. Retinits Pigmentosa

5. According to Sushruta, Complete the following Shloka.

व पचीयते य िपडकािभः सम तः | सवणािभः समािभ िव ात् _______ तत् ||
A. व मावब
B. बहलव
C. ाव व
D. व कदम

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 3 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

6. According to respiratory disturbance index the score of severe apnoea

is _________________

A. Less than 5
B. 5-14
C. 15-29
D. >= 30

7. According to Acharya Sushruta in Shiroroga and Adhimantha the

site for agnikarma is ______________

A. Bhru, lalata, vartma romakoopa

B. Bhru, lalata, shankha pradesha
C. Vartma, Apanga, Shankha pradesha
D. Lalata, apanga and vartma romakoopa

8. According to Sushruta “ Bandhopatape prashamo bhavetcha

shiroabhitapah” is true for ____________ type of Shiroroga.

A. Vataja
B. Kaphaja
C. Kshayaja
D. Raktaja

9. Rhinoscleroma is caused by _______________

A. Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis or Frisch bacillus.
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Rhinosporidium seebri
D. Aspergillus niger

10. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, "हनस

ु या तः क ठे कापासीफलसि नभः|
पि छलो म द क् शोफः "are the clinical features of ________________
A. Swaraghna
B. Balasa
C. Kanthashaluka
D. Tundikeri

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 4 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

11. As per Sushruta, Nasa Pratinaha is due to aavarana of ________Vata.

A. Prana
B. Udana
C. Vyana
D. Samana

12. Menier's disease may present with all of the following except ______
A. Tinnitis
B. Vertigo
C. Deafness
D. Otorrhea

13. According to Ashtanga Hridaya, Misaligned tooth is the clinical

feature of ______________
A. Daalana
B. Bhanjanaka
C. Kraaladanta
D. Adhidanta

14. At an observation distance of six meters, the overall vertical or

horizontal size of each letter in the 6/6 line is ______________
A. 6.26 mm
B. 7.21mm
C. 8.73 mm
D. 5 mm

15. First sign of anterior uveitis is __________________

A. Keratic precipitate
B. Aqueous cells
C. Hypopyon
D. Miosis

16. Amourosis fugax may occur in all of the following except___________

A. Papilledema
B. Papillitis
C. Gaint cell arteritis
D. Raynauld's disease

17. The concentration of Lignocaine used as infiltration anesthesia in

ophthalmology is ___________________
A. 0.25-0.75%
B. 0.5 -1%
C. 4%
D. 0.4%

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 5 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

18. The diagnosed patient of full thickness macular hole came to the
OPD. On examination the status of vision will be _____________
A. Complete loss of central vision
B. Partial loss of central vision
C. Complete loss of central and peripheral vision
D. Complete loss of peripheral vision

19. The instrument used in the diagnosis of Macular Oedema is _______

A. Perimetry
B. Ophthalmoscopy
C. Optical Coherence Tomography
D. A- scan

20. The usual source of infection in Acanthamoebic keratitis is ______

A. Sterile solution used to clean or store the contact lens
B. Repeated rubbing of eyes
C. Secondary to common eye dieses
D. Excessive use of eye drops

21. According to Acharya Sushruta, रायास is etiological factor

responsible for ____________
A. Hriswajadya
B. Timirabasa
C. Nakulandhya
D. Dhumadarsi

22. Complete the following text with appropriate words in given order
according to Acharya Sushruta.
पूयालसे _______ च िहतं तथैव _______ च |
___________ णपाकघाती यथािवधानं िभषजा यो ः ||

A. शोिणतमो णं, उपनाहनं , कृ ो िविध े

B. उपनाहनं, कृ ो िविध े, शोिणतमो णं
C. कृ ो िविध े, शोिणतमो णं , उपनाहनं
D. िभषज, उपनाहनं , कृ ो िविध े

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 6 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

23. Complete the following sloka by selecting suitable word.

व पचीयते य िपडकािभः सम तः | सवणािभः समािभ िव ात् __________तत् ||

A. व मावब
B. बहलव
C. ाव व
D. व कदम

24. Mark correct answer amongst the following

A. The Threshold Tone Decay Test is used to detect the retrocochlear
lesion
B. The Threshold Tone Decay Test is used to detect cochlear lesion
C. The Threshold Tone Decay Test is used to detect middle ear lesion
D. The Threshold Tone Decay Test is used to detect the external ear
lesion

25. The Melkersson Syndrome is characterized by ___________________

A. Facial paralysis, Swelling of lips and fissured lips
B. Facial paralysis, Swelling of lips and fissured gingiva
C. Facial paralysis, deviated nasal septum and Swelling of lips
D. Facial paralysis, Swelling of lips and fissured tongue

26. As per Yogaratnakara, Nasya of ासकुठार रस is indicated in ________

A. Shiroroga
B. Nasa roga
C. Karna roga
D. Mukha roga

27. Which of the following is not true for aqueous flare –

A. Aqueous flare is demonstrated on Slit lamp examination.
B. Aqueous flare are proteinaceous cellular deposits occurring at the
back of the cornea.
C. In the beam of light, protein particles are seen as suspended and
moving dust particles.
D. It is usually marked in nongranulomatous uveitis

28. ___________ of the following is not among the etiological factors of

Lagophthalmos?
A. Paralysis of orbicularis oculi muscle
B. Symblepharon
C. Severe ectropion
D. Severe entropion

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 7 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

29. Patients who have an epiretinal membrane may complain of all the
following symptoms except_
A. Metamorphopsia
B. Decreased visual acuity
C. Central photopsia
D. Delayed dark adaptation

30. वमु तसि ध न चे टं व म य य न मी यते' is the feature of__________

A. Vartmavabandha
B. Vatahata Vartma
C. Nimesha
D. Vartmarbuda

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a

predefined group of respondents to gain information and insights into
various topics of interest.
A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta-Analysis

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India
B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information
Resources (NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial

designs that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using
interim evaluations and addition of new interventions during the trial.
A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 8 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.
A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences
B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed

by ICH is __________
A. QSEM Codes for Global Health
B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Compiled Publication of

?
and Reviewed Report

A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined

to be generated through _____
A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 9 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are

mentioned at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940
A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by

________
A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of

literature review in or around the topic of interest using the available
reference list or the citations is known as ____.
A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic

journal exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently
upsurging. Such journals are being defined as ____________
A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 10 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems

supported by Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is
_________________
A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles
B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end
of the Second World War are popularly known as _________.
A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and
analysing scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact
of research papers and academic journals, the understanding of
scientific citations, and the use of such measurements in policy and
management contexts
A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to

placebo drugs.
A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 11 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to
examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent
variable but they cannot control other important variables in the
research?
A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in

India?
A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)
B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of
Experimental Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity
B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship
between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?
A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?
A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by…………………...
A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 12 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

59. A ________________ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and

interval scales.
A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval is
reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving
place to a smooth curve, known as _____________
A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

61. In __________, the study population is visited a number of times at

regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required
information.
A. Retrospective Study Design
B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.

62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure
of a population, is an example of ______________ Source.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False

63. In an interview, A _______________is a question within a question.

A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question

64. ____________method (sampling technique) is followed when the

population is not homogenous.
A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 13 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

65. The mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18
micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the
Standard Error of Mean?
A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs
B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers have
changed over time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in one
parameter affect another.
III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is
divided into different parts.
IV Cartesian graphs D Used to show numbers that are
independent of each other.
Options:
A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.”

What are the expected counts?
A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative
hypothesis were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were
true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed
counts are representative

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled
randomly. It is an example of:
A. Simple random sampling
B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 14 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70

healthy people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test
inter-rater reliability among the two physicians?
A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement
B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is

most commonly associated with the following study design:

A. Prospective Cohort Study

B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Subject: Shalakya Tantra Page 15 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET
11
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
SHALYA TANTRA
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 1 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 2 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS:70

1. According to Sushruta, ______________ type of Bandhana is used for penile
surgeries

A. Gophana and Swasthika

B. Kosha and Annuveelitha
C. Vibandha and Gophana
D. Mutholi and Sthagikha

2. Which one of the operative steps is not done in Modified radical

mastectomy?

A. Removal of pectoralis major

B. Removal of pectoralis minor
C. Axillary block dissection
D. Total Mastectomy

3. Western, White, Worrying Women’s disease is ………………………

A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Carcinoma of colon
D. Toxic megacolon

4. The maximum dosage of Lignocaine with adrenaline is ………………

A. 2.5 mg/kg
B. 5 mg/kg
C. 7 mg/kg
D. 10 mg/kg

5. The reason for early bone spread from carcinoma prostate to bones is
spread through………………

A. Santorini plexus of veins

B. Waldeyer’s plexus of veins
C. Batson’s plexus of veins
D. Denonvillier’s plexus of veins

6. Garden classification is related to …………………………..

A. Fracture of Humerus
B. Fracture of femur
C. Fracture of Radius
D. Fracture of Tibia

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 3 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

7. …………. is an ideal anaesthetic agent for inhalation induction.

A. Desflurane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Diethyl ether

8. Spigelian hernia is an example for …………………………..

A. Direct hernia
B. Indirect hernia
C. Interstitial hernia
D. Type of femoral hernia

9. According to charaka वरे चनं चैषणपाटनं च वशु धमाग य च तैलदाहः is treatment

principle of__________

A. Braghna
B. Kaphaj Granthi
C. Bhagandara
D. Sleepada

10. Surgery for Periductal Mastitis ?

A. Hadfield’s Operation
B. Patey’s Mastectomy
C. Modified Radical Mastectomy
D. Halsted Mastectomy

11. कुशल या प वै य य यतः स ध रहा ुवा | उप मो जघ योऽयमतः स प रक ततः || The

description has given under context of ________________

A. Arsha chikitsa
B. Ashmari chikitsa
C. Arbuda chikitsa
D. Gulma chikitsa

12. ' शूनना भवष

ृ णं धमू ं गि वतम ् |…………… पय याशु ………………..'
This verse of Sushruta Samhita is referred in context to arishta lakshana
(अ र ट ल ण) of _________________________
A. Parisravi udara (प र ावी उदर)
B. Baddhagudodara (ब ध गद
ु ोदर)
C. Arsha (अश)
D. Ashmaree (अ मर )

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 4 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

13. For diagnostic work up of histology, specimens which of the following is

not a routine stain?
A. H & E stain
B. Perls Prussian blue
C. Congo red
D. Ziehl-Neelsen

14. Which of the following is a definite risk factor for post-ERCP

pancreatitis?
A. Female sex
B. Low volume of ERCPs performed
C. Pancreatic sphincterotomy
D. Absent CBD stone

15. According to Sushruta Samhita (सु त

ु सं हता) who is considered as taskar
vritti Vaidya (त कर व ृ वै य)?

A. Who is not skilled in Ashtavidha shastra karma (अ ट वध श कम)

B. Who is not skilled in trividha karma ( वध कम)
C. Who is not skilled in using anushastra (अनु )
D. Who is not knowing three stages of vranashopha ( णशोफ)

16. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score 14 or 15 with loss of consciousness will
corelates with which option?
A. Minor head injury
B. Mild head injury
C. Moderate head injury
D. Severe head injury

17. Which of the following investigation is considered 'gold standard' of the

upper gastrointestinal tract?
A. Ultrasonography
B. Flexible endoscopy
C. CT-Scan
D. MRI

18. In case of laparoscopic surgery ……………… needle is used for creation of

a pneumoperitoneum.

A. Gabriel
B. Verres
C. Hassaon
D. Yankauer

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 5 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

19. Which one is not a normal anatomical narrowing of the ureter?

A. Ureteropelvic junction
B. Crossing the iliac artery
C. Entering the urinary bladder wall
D. Middle of the ureter

20. Chest Drain (ICD) is inserted ideally in ________

A. 4th Intercostal Space
B. 5th Intercostal Space
C. 6th Intercostal Space
D. 7th Intercostal Space

21. According to Charaka, _______ is not mentioned under सध

ं ानीय महाकषाय
A. Yastimadhu
B. Prishniparni
C. Dhataki
D. Amalaki

22. ‘‘त ात् पु वदे वैनं पालये दातुरं िभषक्’ is the description found in ______

A. िविशखानु वेशनीया ायः

B. अ यनसं दानीया ायः
C. अ िवधश कम या ायः
D. आतुरोप मणीया ायः

23. According to Ashtanga Hridaya,‘िपिटका: सु ा लाजोपमा घना:’ , are

characteristic feature of Pitika seen in _________________

A. Gadarbhi
B. Kaksha
C. Gandhanama
D. Irivellika

24. According to Astanga Hridaya, ______ of the following statements are true
in context of Vataja Granthi Chikitsa except.
i. Sophavat kriya in Amavastha
ii. Initially Snehan chikitsa in patients requiring Sodhana
iii. Fomentation and squeezing again &again
iv. Vastikarma and Siravyadha should be done.

A. i & ii
B. i & iii
C. ii, iii & iv
D. i,ii & iii

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 6 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

25. A 40-year-old female patient presented with dysphagia to both liquids and
solids and regurgitation for 3 months. The dysphagia was non-progressive.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Caricnoma of the esophagus
B. Lower oesophageal mucosal ring
C. Achalasia cardia
D. Reflux esophagitis with esophageal stricture

26. As per Sushruta, ‘त पाद य मणवेपने भवतः’ is found due to injury of ____
A. ं मम
B. कूच मम
C. कूच शरः मम
D. इ बि तः मम

27. During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the common bile duct was mistakenly
identified as the cystic duct and during ligation common bile duct was injured
and the procedure was switchover to lipotomy. After 30 minutes, anaesthetist
noted the following ECG findings. What is the diagnosis?

A. Atrial Flutter
B. Atrial Fibrillation
C. Supra Ventricular Tachycardia
D. Ventricular fibrillation

28. Identify the instrument.

A. Czerny Retractor
B. Kilner Skin Retractor
C. Langenbeck Retractor
D. Morris Retractor

29. A female patient who had steroid therapy planned for laparoscopic
appendicectomy. On 3rd post-operative day patient was developed fever. Which
of the following is likely to be cause?
A. Pneumonia
B. Port site infection
C. Intraabdominal infection
D. DVT

30. Zadek’s procedure is done in

A. Terry’s nails
B. Onycholysis
C. In growing toe
D. Mallet finger

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 7 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a predefined group
of respondents to gain information and insights into various topics of interest.

A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta Analysis

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India

B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information Resources
(NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial designs that
allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using interim evaluations and
addition of new interventions during the trial.
A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.
A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences
B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed by ICH
is __________
A. QSEM Codes for Global Health
B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 8 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data ? Publication
Compiled of Report
A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined to be

generated through _____
A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are mentioned at
_________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940
A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by _______

A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of literature review

in or around the topic of interest using the available reference list or the
citations is known as ____.

A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 9 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic journal
exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently upsurging. Such
journals are being defined as ____________

A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems supported by
Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is _____________
A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles
B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end of the
Second World War are popularly known as _________.
A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and analysing
scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact of research
papers and academic journals, the understanding of scientific citations, and
the use of such measurements in policy and management contexts
A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to placebo

drugs.
A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 10 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to examine
the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent variable but they
cannot control other important variables in the research?
A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in India?

A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)
B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experimental
Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity

B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship between
two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?
A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed, they
may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?
A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by…………………...
A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 11 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

59. A _______ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and interval scales.
A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale
60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval is
reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving
place to a smooth curve, known as _______
A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive
61. In ____________, the study population is visited a number of times at
regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required
information.
A. Retrospective Study Design
B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.
62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure of
a population, is an example of ____________ source.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False
63. In an interview, a ____________ is a question within a question.
A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question
64. …………………………. method (sampling technique) is followed when the
population is not homogenous.
A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling
65. The mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18
micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard
Error of Mean?
A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs
B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 12 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B

Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers have changed over time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in one parameter affect another.
III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is divided into different parts.
IV Cartesian graphs D Used to show numbers that are independent of each other.

A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B

B. I-D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.” What are
the expected counts?
A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative hypothesis were
true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed counts are
representative
68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled randomly.
It is an example of ________
A. Simple random sampling
B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling
69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70 healthy people
independently. What statistics will be ideal to test inter-rater reliability among
the two physicians?

A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement

B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is most
commonly associated with the following study design
A. Prospective Cohort Study
B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Subject: Shalya Tantra Page 13 of 13

 DATE: 03.04.2022

QUESTION BOOKLET
12
Ph.D. Entrance Examination 2022
SWASTHAVRITTA
Name of the Candidate: _________________________________

Roll No. of Candidate: ___________________________________

Signature of Candidate: __________________________________

Signature of Invigilator: __________________________________

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS
QUESTION BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED TO TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC.
IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE QUESTION BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to fill in the roll number, subject etc carefully and without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR answer Sheet. Any omission/Discrepancy will
render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Roll No and signature on the Question Booklet. DO NOT write anything else on
the question booklet
4. This question booklet contains 70 Questions. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. 01
mark will be given for each correct response.
5. PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: THERE WILL BE PENALY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE.
a. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-fourth of the marks
assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
b. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will same penalty as above to that question.
c. If a question is left blank, i.e. No answer is given by the candidate, there will no penalty for that question
6. The duration of the Entrance Examination will be 75 minutes
7. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the provided OMR answer sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the OMR answer sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the invigilator OMR Answer sheet and Question Booklet.
9. OMR answer sheet consists two copies, the original copy and the duplicate copy. Do not attempt to separate or
displace them while answering. The candidate is allowed to take carbon/duplicate copy along with him / her
after completion of exam.
10. Blank page at the end of the question booklet may be used for rough work.

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 1 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 2 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

TIME ALLOTED: 75 MINUTES MAXIMUM MARKS: 70

1. Adoption of DASH eating plan is advised in the management of ______

A. Obesity
B. CHD
C. Diabetes
D. Hypertension

2. ________ is not a part of rapid sand filtration plant.

A. Mixing chamber
B. Under drainage system
C. Flocculation chamber
D. Sedimentation tank

3. Match the following in context to benefits of Kritanna Kalpana as per

Charak Samhita, sutrasthan chapter 27

Column I Column II
(Kritanna Kalpana) (Benefits)
(a) Vilepi (i) Pranadharana ( ाणधारण)
(b) Manda (ii) Sadyobalakara (स ो बलकर)
(c) Sattu (iii) Shramaghna ( म न)
(d) Laja Peya (iv) Hridya ( )

A. a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

B. a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
C. a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
D. a-I, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

4. An IQ range of 25-49 can be related to ______ level of intelligence.

A. Idiot
B. Moron
C. Borderline
D. Imbecile

5. As par Hatha yoga pradeepika - na kshuda na trisha nidra naivalasya

prajayathe - can be acquired by the practice of _______ Pranayama.
A. Seethali
B. Bhastrika
C. Seethkari
D. Ujjayi

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 3 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

6. According to Yoga Ratnakara, नार णाम ् रस ा वा ीण is ___________

A. ीण शु य ल ण
B. ीण रस य ल ण
C. ीण आतव य ल ण
D. ीण धर य ल ण

7. अनु दनं वनु दते र वम डले is explained by Yoga Ratnakara in the context of
_______

A. तमश न य
B. नास जल पान
C. ात: जलपान
D. ा ह मुहूत जागरण

8. Controlled Tipping is ___________

A. Solid Waste Management Method

B. Excreta Management Method
C. e-Waste Disposal Method
D. Water Purification Method

9. Test to identify Mustard Oil contamination with Argemone Oil is _____

A. Paper Chromatography Test

B. Sulphuric Acid Test
C. Methylene Test
D. Hydrocholric Acid Test

10. __________ represents the Killing Power of Disease

A. Case Fertility Rate

B. Proportional Mortality Rate
C. Crude Death Rate
D. Specific Death Rate

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 4 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

11. याधयो नोपसपि त संह ु मग

ृ ा इव । is referred by Susruta in the context of
_____
A. अ यंग
B. यायाम
C. नान
D. न ा

12. According to Bhojana kutuhala, ीर kept in ______ पा has महर effect.

A. ता पा
B. रजत पा
C. का त लोह
D. आयस पा

13. Winner of EatSmart Cities Challenge of FSSAI which supports a

healthy, safe and sustainable food environment through adoption of
various Eat Right India initiatives is ___________

A. Agra
B. Jaipur
C. Mysore
D. Jabalpur

14. A chemical agent when applied to inanimate objects that destroys

disease causing pathogens, but does not kill bacterial spores is ______

A. Antiseptic
B. Sanitizer
C. Disinfectant
D. Detergent

15. Centripetal rash and rash on flexor surfaces with affected axilla is seen
in _______

A. Small pox
B. German measles
C. Rubeola
D. Chicken pox

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 5 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

16. Essential element of neonatal care like adequate nutrition through

breast feeding, support for the mother and her family in caring for the
baby is termed as ________

A. Rooming-in
B. Domiciliary care
C. Kangaroo mother care
D. Small for Date baby care

17. A complex organo-metallic compound with a cobalt item is _________

A. Folate
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin E

18. Controlled tipping is a method of _________

A. Sewage disposal
B. Water filtration
C. Controlling air pollution
D. Refuse disposal

19. Miners’ nystagmus is chronic effect on health due to exposure to _____

A. Excessive brightness
B. Poor illumination
C. Ultraviolet radiation
D. Ionizing radiation

20. A half yearly survey consisting of continuous enumeration of birth and

death rates is known as ___________

A. Epidemiological surveillance
B. Record linkage
C. Registration of vital events
D. Sample registration system

21. Inhalation (Puraka) through the Pingala nadi and exhalation (Rechaka)
through the Ida Nadi is called as ________

A. Shitali pranayama
B. Sitkari pranayama
C. Bhasrika pranayama
D. Suryabhedan pranayama

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 6 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

22. The wastes generated after panchakarma procedures like oil soiled
gauze, cotton, pottali etc. should be disposed in _________

A. Card Board boxes with blue colored marking

B. White translucent puncture proof, leak-proof, tamper-proof
container
C. Red colored non-chlorinated plastic bags or containers
D. Yellow colored non-chlorinated plastic bags

23. On X-ray examination, ‘Snow storm’ appearance in the lung fields is

found in ____________
A. Asbestosis
B. Silicosis
C. Anthracosis
D. Bagassosis

24. ‘SUMAN’ is the scheme intended for _________ in 2019.

A. Mental Health care for elderly

B. Adolescent health care
C. Maternal and neonatal health care
D. Only children and adolescents

25. During fasting, the elimination of toxins is shown through following

signs and symptoms in the body

A. Sweet breath, clear vision

B. Desire to take food, excessive salivation
C. Initially feeling of freshness, disappearing of pain, irritation
D. Coating of tongue, fetid breath

26. Percussion massage is done by _______

A. Tapping, clapping, beating and patting actions
B. By pulling the muscle and moving it away from the origin and
insertion
C. Passive and pressure touch
D. Using knuckles

27. Heart of activated sludge process is ________

A. Primary sedimentation tank

B. Aeration tank
C. Zooglial layer
D. Grit chamber

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 7 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

28. Covaxin is a _______

A. Recombinant chimpanzee adenovirus vector vaccine

B. Whole virion inactivated corona vaccine
C. A messenger RNA Vaccine with efficacy 94.1 %
D. A messenger RNA Vaccine with efficacy 95 %

29. “Ambulatory patients” comes under which color coding of the Triage
system?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Black

30. Window period in relation to HIV infection is _______

A. The period before antibodies are produced and will test

negative on the standard antibody blood test but person is
infectious due to high virus concentration
B. The period after antibodies are produced and will test negative
on the standard antibody blood test but person is not
infectious due to low viral load
C. The period before antibodies are produced and will test positive
on the standard antibody blood test but person is not
infectious due to low viral load
D. The period from incubation period to the period of infectivity
with low viral load and positive standard antibody test

31. The "Sociogram" technique is used to study _________

A. Vocational Interest
B. Professional Competence
C. Human Relations
D. Achievement Motivation

32. _________ is a research method used for collecting data from a

predefined group of respondents to gain information and insights into
various topics of interest.

A. Survey
B. Ex Post Facto
C. Case Study
D. Meta-Analysis

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 8 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

33. __________ issues GI tag in India

A. The Patent Authority of India

B. National Institute of Science Communication and Information
Resources (NISCAIR-CSIR)
C. Geographical Indication Registry
D. Ministry of Finance, Govt. of India

34. _________ are an extension of adaptive multi-arm, multi-stage trial

designs that allow for evaluation of multiple interventions using
interim evaluations and addition of new interventions during the trial.

A. Umbrella Trials
B. Platform Trials
C. Basket Trials
D. Double-Dummy Trials

35. ___________ is a database of systematic reviews and meta-analyses that

summarize and interpret the results of medical research.

A. PubMed
B. Web of Science
C. The Directory of Open Access Journals
D. Cochrane Reviews

36. Acronym, SPSS stands for __________________

A. Statistical Predictions for Social Sciences

B. Statistical Programs for Socio-Economical Sciences
C. Statistical Package for Social Networking Software
D. Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

37. A rich and highly specific standardized medical terminology developed

by ICH is __________
A. QSEM Codes for Global Health
B. International Classification of Disease Terminology
C. Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities
D. International Codes for Harmonization of Technical Requirements

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 9 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

38. ___________ of the following will fit in the empty box

Data Compiled Publication of

?
and Reviewed Report

A. Selection of cohort
B. Follow-up of the patients
C. Registration of the study
D. Statistical Analysis

39. __________ from the below is NOT inclusive of PICOT

A. Population
B. Intervention
C. Outcome
D. Interesting

40. Strongest Evidences towards the efficacy of interventions are opined

to be generated through _____
A. Systematic Reviews
B. Cohort Studies
C. Epidemiological Studies
D. Randomized Control Trials

41. List of Authoritative books of Ayurveda, Siddha and Unani are

mentioned at _________ Schedule of Drugs & Cosmetic Act, 1940
A. Schedule T
B. Schedule H
C. The First Schedule
D. The Second Schedule

42. Assigning ISBN is the responsibility of ____________

A. Rashtriya Ayurveda Vidyapeeth

B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy National Agency
C. National Medical Library
D. National Manuscript Mission

43. Indian Journal of Natural Products and Resources is managed by

________
A. NISCAIR
B. TIFAC
C. FRLHT
D. ICMR

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 10 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

44. An approach to gather additional information in the process of

literature review in or around the topic of interest using the available
reference list or the citations is known as ____.
A. Truncation
B. Boolean search
C. Thesauruses
D. Snowballing

45. ___________ is not an author level citation metric.

A. g-index
B. h-index
C. i10-index
D. k-index

46. The journals with web pages of counterfeit mirror of an authentic

journal exploiting the title and ISSN of authentic journals are recently
upsurging. Such journals are being defined as ____________
A. Predatory Journals
B. Forged Journals
C. Cloned Journals
D. Legitimate Journals

47. The database for Evidence-Based Research for AYUSH Systems

supported by Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India is __________
A. Digital Helpline for AYUSH Research Articles
B. Ayurveda Research Database
C. AYUSH Research Portal
D. National AYUSH Research Consortium

48. A set of research ethics for human experimentation formed at the end
of the Second World War are popularly known as _________.
A. Nuremberg Code
B. Tuskegee Agreement
C. Helsinki Declaration
D. Jesse Gelsinger Code

49. ___________ is the field of study which concerns with measuring and analysing
scholarly literature including the measurement of the impact of research
papers and academic journals, the understanding of scientific citations, and
the use of such measurements in policy and management contexts
A. Cybermetrics
B. Blogometrics
C. Scientometrics
D. Bibliometrics

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 11 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

50. In surgical clinical trials, _________ serves an analogous purpose to

placebo drugs.
A. Decompressive Craniectomy
B. Sham Surgery
C. Laparoscopic Gastrectomy
D. Anterior Temporal Lobectomy

51. _________ of the below is NOT a Boolean Operator

A. AND
B. OR
C. NOT
D. IN

52. T of NITI Aayog is indicative of ___________

A. Traditional
B. Transforming
C. Trans-disciplinary
D. Transcendental

53. Which research design should researchers use if they are seeking to
examine the causal effect of an independent variable on a dependent
variable but they cannot control other important variables in the
research?
A. Single-case design
B. Experimental design
C. Quasi-experimental design
D. Observational / correlational design

54. Which committee sanctions permission to establish a animal house in

India?

A. Institutional Animal Ethics Committee (IAEC)

B. Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
C. Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of
Experimental Animals (CPCSEA)
D. Organization for Economic cooperation and Development (OECD)

55. In the preclinical study, ADMET refers to ________

A. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Toxicity

B. Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion and Therapeutics
C. Action of Drug and Medical Evaluation of Therapeutics
D. Active Drug Material Evaluation & Testing

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 12 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

56. When research attempts to clarify why and how there is a relationship
between two aspects of a situation or phenomenon is called as?

A. Descriptive study
B. Correlational study
C. Explanatory
D. Exploratory research

57. When individuals or groups become aware that they are being observed,
they may change their behaviour. This effect is known as?

A. Participant Bias
B. Halo effect
C. Hawthorne effect.
D. Narrative bias

58. Chance Variation from sample to sample or from sample to universe is

measured by____________
A. Standard Error
B. Standard Deviation
C. Coefficient of Variation
D. Standard Normal Deviate

59. A ________ has all the properties of nominal, ordinal and interval
scales

A. Likert Scale
B. Ratio Scale
C. Mathematical Scale
D. Zero Scale

60. When the number of observations is very large and group interval is
reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose its angulation giving
place to a smooth curve, known as _____________

A. Histogram
B. Frequency Curve
C. Line Chart
D. Ogive

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 13 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

61. In __________, the study population is visited a number of times at

regular intervals, usually over a long period, to collect the required
information.
A. Retrospective Study Design
B. Prospective Study Design
C. Longitudinal Study Design
D. Retrospective– prospective study design.
62. The use of census data to obtain information on the age-sex structure
of a population, is an example of ______________ Source.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Contemporary
D. False
63. In an interview, A _______________is a question within a question.
A. Double-barrelled question
B. Leading Question
C. Open-ended Question
D. Ambiguous Question
64. __________ method (sampling technique) is followed when the
population is not homogenous.
A. Simple Random Sampling
B. Systematic Sampling
C. Cluster Sampling
D. Stratified Sampling
65. Mean urinary lead concentration in 140 children was 2.18
micromole/24 hrs, with standard deviation 0.87. What is the Standard
Error of Mean?
A. 0.74 micromole/24 hrs
B. 0.074 micromole/24 hrs
C. 0.068 micromole/24 hrs
D. 7.4 micromole/24 hrs
66. Match the items in column A with those in the column B
Column A Column B
I Bar graphs A Used to show how numbers have changed over time.
II Pie charts B Used to show how changes in one parameter affect
another.
III Line graphs C Used to show how a whole is divided into different
parts.
IV Cartesian graphs D Used to show numbers that are independent of each
other.
A. I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
B. I- D, II-C, III-A, IV- B
C. I-C, II-B, III-A, IV-B
D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 14 of 15

 DATE: 03.04.2022

67. A chi-square test involves a set of counts called “expected counts.”

What are the expected counts?
A. Hypothetical counts that would occur of the alternative
hypothesis were true.
B. Hypothetical counts that would occur if the null hypothesis were
true.
C. The actual counts that did occur in the observed data.
D. The long-run counts that would be expected if the observed
counts are representative

68. For a survey, a village is divided into 5 lanes, each lane is sampled
randomly. It is an example of:
A. Simple random sampling
B. Standard random sampling
C. Systematic random sampling
D. Cluster random sampling

69. Two Ayurveda physicians were asked to record the Prakriti of 70

healthy people independently. What statistics will be ideal to test
inter-rater reliability among the two physicians?
A. Cohen’s kappa and Percentage agreement
B. One-way ANOVA
C. Student T-test
D. Paired T test

70. ‘Reporting bias’, also known as Recall bias or Information bias, is

most commonly associated with the following study design:
A. Prospective Cohort Study
B. Retrospective Cohort study
C. Randomized Control Trial
D. Cross- Sectional study

** * **

Subject: Swastha Vritta Page 15 of 15