FIITJEE Bhopal Common Test Paper 2023
FIITJEE Bhopal Common Test Paper 2023
Instructions
The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 14 questions of Biology.
Each question carries +1 marks.
There is No negative marking.
Attempt All questions.
Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTE(D)
All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -3
SECTION – I (SST)
1. Which organization publishes the Human Development Report?
(A) WHO (B) UNDP
(C) WTO (D) IMF
2. The number of children that die without completing even the first year of their birth in per 1000 live birth
cases in a year is known as:
(A) Birth Rate (B) Death rate
(C) Maternal Mortality Rate (D) Infant Mortality Rate
3. Total number of children of age group 14-15 years attending school as a percentage of total number of
children in the same age group.
(A) Attendance (B) Enrolment Ratio
(C) Net Attendance Ratio (D) None of the above
4. The national income of an economy divided by its total population is known as:
(A) GDP (B) Per Capita Income
(C) GNP (D) NNP
5. Which one of the following prepares its development report on the basis of per capita income only?
(A) UNDP (B) WTO
(C) IMF (D) World Bank
8. Which one of the following is not among the criteria used for preparing the Human Development Index
(HDI)?
(A) Literacy Rates (B) Environmental Pollution
(C) Per capita income (D) Health
9. Consider the following two statements about the per capita income being used as an indicator of
development:
I. Per Capita Income is an average figure and thus hides disparities.
II. Mere increase in per capita income levels does not indicate any improvements in the abstract or non-
materialistic goods and services.
Identify the incorrect statement/statements/
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
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10. “We have not inherited the world from our forefathers- we have borrowed it from our children.” The given
statement is referring to which one of the following development approaches?
(A) Sustainable Development (B) Human Development
(C) Economic Development (D) Socio-Cultural Development
11. The first International Earth Summit was held at which of the following cities?
(A) Geneva (B) New York
(C) Japan (D) Rio de Janeiro
12. “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s gree(D)” Whose statement is this?
(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore (B) John Kennedy
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) George Washington
13. “River dams are the temples of modern Indi(A)” Which one of the following Indian mainstream leaders
described dams in this way?
(A) Pt. JL Nehru (B) Pt. MM Malviya
(C) SC Bose (D) Lala Lajpat Rai
14. Which among the following was the first ever multi-purpose river valley project of independent India?
(A) Sivasamudram (B) Damodar Valley Corporation
(C) Hirakud (D) Narmada Valley Project
18. Which among the following is the first ever and the only state till date which has made roof water
harvesting compulsory to all households?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh
19. The ancient water harvesting system found at Sringaverapura was used to channelise flood waters of
which river?
(A) Tungabhadra (B) Godavari
(C) Ganga (D) Krishna
20. Bamboo drip irrigation system is a popular technique from which of these states?
(A) Assam (B) Meghalaya
(C) Nagaland (D) Manipur
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21. How many times the Belgian Constitution was amended between 1970 to 1993?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
22. Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
This system of power sharing can also be termed as:
(A) Federal form of government (B) Horizontal distribution of power
(C) Vertical distribution of power (D) Community Government
23. When did the act recognising Sinhala as the official language of Sri Lanka passed?
(A) 1956 (B) 1966
(C) 1976 (D) None of the above
25. The system of check and balance could be found in which one of these forms of power sharing?
(A) Horizontal (B) Among different political parties
(C) Vertical (D) Among different social groups
26. Who among the following were not one of the groups in ethnic composition of Belgium?
(A) Germans (B) Dutch
(C) Spanish (D) French
28. _________ is a belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it
wants by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority.
(A) Majoritarianism (B) Minoritarianism
(C) Secularism (D) None of the above
29. Which one of the following statements about power-sharing arrangements is correct?
(A) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions.
(B) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions.
(C) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
(D) Power-sharing is not necessary at all
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CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -6
31. Which of the following areas were ruled by the Habsburg Empire?
(A) Denmark (B) Belgium-Holland
(C) Sweden (D) Austria-Hungary
32. Giuseppe Mazzini founded the secret underground society named ‘Young Europe’ in __________.
(A) Marseilles (B) Berne
(C) Vienna (D) Brussels
33. Vienna Congress of 1815 was hosted by which one of the following leaders?
(A) Cavour (B) Victor Immanuel II
(C) Bismarck (D) Metternich
35. Which was the last state to become a part of unified Italy?
(A) Lombardy-Venetia (B) Parma, Modena and Tuscany
(C) The Papal State (D) Kingdom of two Sicilies
39. Who said ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?
(A) Garibaldi (B) Bismarck
(C) Mazzini (D) Duke Metternich
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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -7
SECTION – II (MATHEMATICS)
1 1
1. If α, β are the zeroes of polynomial f ( x ) = x 2 + px + q then polynomial having and as its zeroes is
α β
(A) x 2 + qx + p (B) x 2 − px + q (C) qx 2 + px + 1 (D) px 2 + qx + 1
2. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial 5 x 2 − 4 x + 2 , then the sum of their reciprocal is
4 7 2 14
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 5 5 24
3. The value of P for which the polynomial x 3 + 4 x 2 − px + 8 is exactly divisible by ( x − 2 ) is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 16 (D) 12
7. A boat covers 32 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 7 hours. Also, it cover 40 km upstream and 48
km downstream in 9 hours. Find the speed of boat in still water
(A) 5 km/hr (B) 8 km/hr (C) 10 km/hr (D) 2 km/hr
−1 b
8. If the zeroes of the rational expression (3x + 2a) (2x + 1) are and , then the value of a is
2 3
−b −b
(A) −2b (B) (C) (D) none of these
2 3
1 1 x3 x2
9. The expression − − + in lowest terms is
1− x 1+ x 1− x 1+ x
(A) 2x3+1 (B) x2+2 (C) x2+2x (D) x2−2x
10. Applying Euclid’s division algorithm, the H.(C)F. of 5256 and 18278 is
(A) equal to the H.(C)F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(B) less than H.(C)F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(C) greater than H.(C)F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(D) none of these
α+β
11. α, β are roots of 5x2−7x+1. Value of is
αβ
(A) 1/5 (B) 7/5 (C) 5 (D) 7
13. LCM of two number x and y is 720 and the LCM of number 12x and 5y is also 720. The number y is
(A) 180 (B) 144
(C) 120 (D) 90
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CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -8
14. When a natural number x is divided by 5, the remainder is 2. When a natural number y is divided by 5,
2z − 5
the remainder is 4. The remainder is z when x + y is divided by 5. The value of is
3
(A) −1 (B) 1
(C) − 2 (D) 2
2 2
16. If 1 + 2 + 32 + ....... + 122 =
650, then the value of 22 + 42 + 62 + .... + 242 is
(A) 1300 (B) 2600
(C) 2500 (D) 42250
17. For which value of p the following pair of linear equations 3 x + py= 7, px + 3 y= 15 will have no
solutions?
(A) ± 9 (B) ± 5
(C) ±3 (D) ±4
18. If xyz + xy + xz + yz + x + y + z =384 where x, y, z are positive integers, then the value of x + y + z is
(A) 23 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 35
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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -9
1. A child walks towards a fixed plane mirror at a speed of 5 km h-1. The velocity of the image with respect to
mirror is -
(A) 5 km h-1 (B) –5 km h-1
(C) 10 km h-1 (D) –10 km h-1
2. In a plane mirror, an object is 0.5 m in front of the mirror. The distance between object and image is -
(A) 0.5 m (B) 1 m
(C) 0.25 m (D) 0.75 m
3. Which of the following correctly represents graphical relation between angle of incidence (i) and angle of
reflection (r) ?
y y
i i
(A) (B)
O x O x
r r
y y
i i
(C) (D)
O x O x
r r
4. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle θ. If the angle between the incident and reflected rays is 80°,
what is the value of θ.
(A) 40° (B) 50°
(C) 45° (D) 55°
7. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The
position of the object should be-
(A) Beyond C (B) Between C and F
(C) At C (D) At F
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CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -10
8. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected, if the central portion of the lens is wrapped in
black paper, as shown in the fig.
9. One surface of a lens is convex and the other is concave. If the radii of curvature are r1 and r2
respectively, the lens will be convex, if-
(A) r1 > r2 (B) r1 = r2
(C) r1 < r2 (D) r1 = 1/r2
3
10. R.I. of glass w.r.t. air is , then the R.I. of air w.r.t. glass is-
2
3 2
(A) (B)
4 3
1
(C) (D) 3
3
11. A ray of light is incident normally on a rectangular piece of glass. The value of angle of refraction will be-
(A) 180° (B) 90°
(C) 45° (D) 0°
12. A swimming pool appears to be 2m deep. Its actual depth is (µ for water = 1.33)-
(A) 2.66 m (B) 2 m
(C) 2.34 (D) 2.54 m
13. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens of focal length f is-
(A) f (B) 2f
(C) 3f (D) 4f
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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -11
SECTION – IV (CHEMISTRY)
2. What will happen if a copper piece is dipped in an aqueous solution of silver nitrate for quite some
time?
(i) Solution will remain colourless
(ii) Solution will turn blue
(iii) Silver will deposit on the copper piece
(iv) Bubbles of brown gas will be formed around copper piece
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
5. Potassium iodide on reacting with lead nitrate forms potassium nitrate and lead iodide. Which of the
following correctly represents the type of reaction involved?
(i) Displacement reaction (ii) Precipitation reaction
(iii) Combination reaction (iv) Double displacement reaction
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iv) only (D) (ii) and (iv)
7. The most basic oxide among MnO, Mn2O3, MnO2 and Mn2O7 is
(A) MnO (B) Mn2O3 (C) MnO2 (D) Mn2O7
8. In which of the following aqueous solutions the colour of blue litmus will turn to red?
(A) NaCl(aq) (B) CuSO4(aq) Na2CO3(aq) (D) NaCN(aq)
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CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -12
10. Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during chlor-alkali process
(A) 2NaCl(l) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(l) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
(D) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
11. When solid KOH is mixed with solid NH4Cl a gas is produce(D) Which gas is it?
(A) Chlorine (B) Hydrogen (C) Hydrogen chloride (D) Ammonia
12. Which of the following is(are) not present in a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
(A) H3O+ (B) OH– (C) Cl– (D) un-ionized HCl
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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -13
SECTION – V (BIOLOGY)
1. Which of the following is a respiratory pigment
(A) Chlorophyll (B) Haemoglobin (C) Fucoxanthin (D) Anthocyanin
2. The pH of blood is
(A) 8.4 (B) 9.4 (C) 6.8 (D) 7.4
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CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -14
SECTION – I (SST)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. B
15. A 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. D
22. B 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. A
29. C 30. C 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C
36. D 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. B
SECTION – II (MATHEMATICS)
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. A
15. D 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. A
1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. D
SECTION – IV (CHEMISTRY)
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. D 13. B
SECTION – V (BIOLOGY)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. A 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. B
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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -15
SECTION – I (SST)
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:G10000102
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:G10000102
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:G10000101
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:G10000102
Ans. (C)
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CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -16
Concept Code:G10000102
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000601
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000602
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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -17
SECTION – II (MATHEMATICS)
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. A
15. D 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. A
1. α + β = −p αβ = q
1 1 1
Polynomial x 2 − + x +
α β αβ
4 2
2. α +=
β αβ
=
5 5
1 1 β+α
+ =
α β αβ
3. p(x) = x3 + 4x 2 − px + 8
p(2) =23 + 4(2)2 − p(2) + 8
8 + 16 – 2p + 8 = 0
p = 16
1
4. α,
α
1 K
α× =
α 2
K=2
5. (x - 1)(x - 2)
K −1
6. ≠ K≠3
6 −2
32 36
7. + =7
x−y x+y
40 48
+ =9
x−y x+y
8. 3x + 2a = 0
−29
x=
3
b −2a
=
3 3
b
− = a
2
1 + x − (1 − x) − (1 + x)x3 + x 2 (1 − x)
9.
1 − x2
= (x 2 + 2)
10. A
α + β 7 /5
11. = = 7
αβ 1/5
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CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -18
12. B
13. Product of number = LCM × HCF
14. A
15. D
16. 22 + 42 + 62 + ..... + 242
22 (12 + 22 + 32.....122 )
4 × 650 = 2600
a1 b1 c
17. = ≠ 1
a2 b2 c2
18. xyz + xy + zy + x + y + z + 1 = 385
xy(z + 1) + y(z + 1) + x(z + 1) + (z +1) = 385
(z + 1)(xy + y + x + 1) = 385
(z + 1)(x + 1)(y + 1) = 385
5 × 7 × 11
z = 10 x=4 y=6
19. a2 + 6b + b2 + 8c + 23 + c 2 + 4a − 8 =0
2 2
(a + 2) + (b + 3) + (c + 4) =2
0
a = -2 b = -3 c= - 4
ab + bc + ca = 26
a1 b1 c1
20. = =
a2 b2 c2
ANS. B
CC - P10000402
ANS. B
CC - P10000402
ANS. D
CC - P10000402
ANS. B
CC – P10000402
ANS. D
CC - P10000403
ANS. A
CC - P10000402
ANS. C
CC - P10000402
ANS. B
CC - P10000406
ANS. C
CC - P10000405
ANS. B
CC - P10000404
ANS. D
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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -19
CC - P10000404
ANS. A
CC - P10000407
ANS. D
CC - P10000406
SECTION – IV (CHEMISTRY)
ANSWER
1. A
CC C10000107
2. C
CC C10000103
3. B
CC C10000102
4. B
CC C10000107
5. D
CC C10000104
6. D
CC C10000101
7. A
CC C10000206
8. B
CC C10000201
9. C
CC C10000204
10. D
CC C10000208
11. D
CC C10000203
12. D
CC C10000204
13. B
CC C10000201
∆
3. (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 (s) → Cr2O3 (s) + N2 (g)+ 4H2O(l)
ORANGE GREEN
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CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -20
5. A type of reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form products is known double
displacement reaction. If at least one product is a precipitate, such reaction is also known as
precipitation reaction.
Heat
6. 2Cu + O2 → 2CuO
BLACK
7. The basic strength of oxide of metal decreases with the increase of the oxidation number of metal in
the oxide.
So the order of basic strength is
MnO> Mn2O3> MnO2> Mn2O7
10. 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)
Dissociation
12. HCl + H2O → H+ + Cl−
Dissociation
H2O(l) → H+ (aq) + OH− (aq)
SECTION – V (BIOLOGY)
1. B10000109
2. B10000117
3. B10000105
4. B10000105
5. B10000120
6. B10000101
7. B10000115
8. B10000120
9. B10000116
10. B10000121
11. B10000121
12. B10000118
13. B10000120
14. B10000110
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