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FIITJEE Bhopal Common Test Paper 2023

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9 views19 pages

FIITJEE Bhopal Common Test Paper 2023

Uploaded by

hellrider244
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
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Available Formats
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FIITJEE COMMON TEST

BATCHES : CTH 2326 A LOT


PHASE TEST-1 (SET A)
QP CODE: 00000.0
Time : 2.00 hours Maximum Marks : 100

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions

 The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 14 questions of Biology.
 Each question carries +1 marks.
 There is No negative marking.
 Attempt All questions.
 Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTE(D)
 All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
 The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
 This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

FIITJEE Ltd., BHOPAL Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455. [Link]
CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -3

SECTION – I (SST)
1. Which organization publishes the Human Development Report?
(A) WHO (B) UNDP
(C) WTO (D) IMF

2. The number of children that die without completing even the first year of their birth in per 1000 live birth
cases in a year is known as:
(A) Birth Rate (B) Death rate
(C) Maternal Mortality Rate (D) Infant Mortality Rate

3. Total number of children of age group 14-15 years attending school as a percentage of total number of
children in the same age group.
(A) Attendance (B) Enrolment Ratio
(C) Net Attendance Ratio (D) None of the above

4. The national income of an economy divided by its total population is known as:
(A) GDP (B) Per Capita Income
(C) GNP (D) NNP

5. Which one of the following prepares its development report on the basis of per capita income only?
(A) UNDP (B) WTO
(C) IMF (D) World Bank

6. What is not true about the Human Development Report?


(A) It is an annual publication of UNDP
(B) It ranks countries on the basis of a score between 0-1
(C) It was first published in the year 1990
(D) None of the above

7. Consider the following statements:


I. Different people have different connotations about development.
II. Two people must have a non-contradictory approach toward development.
Identify the correct statement.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both the above (D) None of the above

8. Which one of the following is not among the criteria used for preparing the Human Development Index
(HDI)?
(A) Literacy Rates (B) Environmental Pollution
(C) Per capita income (D) Health

9. Consider the following two statements about the per capita income being used as an indicator of
development:
I. Per Capita Income is an average figure and thus hides disparities.
II. Mere increase in per capita income levels does not indicate any improvements in the abstract or non-
materialistic goods and services.
Identify the incorrect statement/statements/
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

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10. “We have not inherited the world from our forefathers- we have borrowed it from our children.” The given
statement is referring to which one of the following development approaches?
(A) Sustainable Development (B) Human Development
(C) Economic Development (D) Socio-Cultural Development

11. The first International Earth Summit was held at which of the following cities?
(A) Geneva (B) New York
(C) Japan (D) Rio de Janeiro

12. “There is enough for everybody’s need and not for anybody’s gree(D)” Whose statement is this?
(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore (B) John Kennedy
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) George Washington

13. “River dams are the temples of modern Indi(A)” Which one of the following Indian mainstream leaders
described dams in this way?
(A) Pt. JL Nehru (B) Pt. MM Malviya
(C) SC Bose (D) Lala Lajpat Rai

14. Which among the following was the first ever multi-purpose river valley project of independent India?
(A) Sivasamudram (B) Damodar Valley Corporation
(C) Hirakud (D) Narmada Valley Project

15. Duars, Chos, and Terai are the types of __________.


(A) Piedmont Plains (B) Soils
(C) Channels (D) None of the above

16. Consider the following statements about Agenda 21:


I. It was signed in 1992.
[Link] Forest Principles were the parallel concept endorsed with it in the same international conference.
Which of the above is correct?
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II

17. Identify the correct pair:


(A) Club of Rome- 1967
(B) Small is Beautiful- 1975
(C) Our Common Future- 1987
(D) Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity- 1995

18. Which among the following is the first ever and the only state till date which has made roof water
harvesting compulsory to all households?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala (D) Andhra Pradesh

19. The ancient water harvesting system found at Sringaverapura was used to channelise flood waters of
which river?
(A) Tungabhadra (B) Godavari
(C) Ganga (D) Krishna

20. Bamboo drip irrigation system is a popular technique from which of these states?
(A) Assam (B) Meghalaya
(C) Nagaland (D) Manipur

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21. How many times the Belgian Constitution was amended between 1970 to 1993?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four

22. Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
This system of power sharing can also be termed as:
(A) Federal form of government (B) Horizontal distribution of power
(C) Vertical distribution of power (D) Community Government

23. When did the act recognising Sinhala as the official language of Sri Lanka passed?
(A) 1956 (B) 1966
(C) 1976 (D) None of the above

24. Identify the main religion that is being practiced in Srilank(A)


(A) Hinduism (B) Jainism
(C) Christianity (D) Buddhism

25. The system of check and balance could be found in which one of these forms of power sharing?
(A) Horizontal (B) Among different political parties
(C) Vertical (D) Among different social groups

26. Who among the following were not one of the groups in ethnic composition of Belgium?
(A) Germans (B) Dutch
(C) Spanish (D) French

27. Consider the following case:


The Bombay High Court ordered the Maharashtra state government to immediately take action and
improve living conditions for the 2,000-odd children at seven children’s homes in Mumbai.
Identify the type of power sharing arrangement being represented in the above case.
(A) Horizontal (B) Vertical
(C) Among different political parties (D) Among different social groups

28. _________ is a belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it
wants by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority.
(A) Majoritarianism (B) Minoritarianism
(C) Secularism (D) None of the above

29. Which one of the following statements about power-sharing arrangements is correct?
(A) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions.
(B) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions.
(C) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
(D) Power-sharing is not necessary at all

30. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that:


I. It ensures the stability of political order.
II. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
III. It gives a fair share to minorities.
IV. It is the very spirit of democracy. Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) I, II (B) I, III and IV
(C) I, II, III, IV (D) I, II & III

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31. Which of the following areas were ruled by the Habsburg Empire?
(A) Denmark (B) Belgium-Holland
(C) Sweden (D) Austria-Hungary

32. Giuseppe Mazzini founded the secret underground society named ‘Young Europe’ in __________.
(A) Marseilles (B) Berne
(C) Vienna (D) Brussels

33. Vienna Congress of 1815 was hosted by which one of the following leaders?
(A) Cavour (B) Victor Immanuel II
(C) Bismarck (D) Metternich

34. Bismarck: Germany:: ? : Italy


(A) Mazzini (B) Cavour
(C) Garibaldi (D) Victor Immanuel II

35. Which was the last state to become a part of unified Italy?
(A) Lombardy-Venetia (B) Parma, Modena and Tuscany
(C) The Papal State (D) Kingdom of two Sicilies

36. Which of the following states led to the unification of Germany?


(A) Bavaria (B) Hanover
(C) Rhineland (D) Prussia

37. Romanticism refers to:


(A) Concept of government by consent (B) Freedom for the individual
(C) Cultural movement (D) Freedom of markets

38. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known as:


(A) The French Revolutionary Code (B) Napoleonic Code
(C) European Imperial Code (D) The French Civil Code

39. Who said ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?
(A) Garibaldi (B) Bismarck
(C) Mazzini (D) Duke Metternich

40. What helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain?


(A) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of a sudden upheaval.
(B) In 1688, the British Parliament seized power from the monarchy.
(C) The parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy which gradually led to
the emergence of a nation-state.
(D) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.

Space for rough work

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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -7

SECTION – II (MATHEMATICS)
1 1
1. If α, β are the zeroes of polynomial f ( x ) = x 2 + px + q then polynomial having and as its zeroes is
α β
(A) x 2 + qx + p (B) x 2 − px + q (C) qx 2 + px + 1 (D) px 2 + qx + 1

2. If α and β are the zeroes of the polynomial 5 x 2 − 4 x + 2 , then the sum of their reciprocal is
4 7 2 14
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 5 5 24
3. The value of P for which the polynomial x 3 + 4 x 2 − px + 8 is exactly divisible by ( x − 2 ) is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 16 (D) 12

4. If one zero of 2 x 2 − 3 x + k is reciprocal to the other, then the value of k is


(A) 2 (B) –2/3 (C) –3/2 (D) –3

5. The quadratic polynomial having zeroes are 1 and 2 is


(A) x 2 − 2 x + 3 (B) x 2 − 3 x − 2 (C) x 2 − 3 x + 2 (D) x 2 + 3 x + 2

6. The value of k for which the pair of equation kx − y =2 and 6 x − 2 y =


3 has a unique solution.
(A) k = 3 (B) k ≠ 3 (C) k ≠ 0 (D) k = 0

7. A boat covers 32 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 7 hours. Also, it cover 40 km upstream and 48
km downstream in 9 hours. Find the speed of boat in still water
(A) 5 km/hr (B) 8 km/hr (C) 10 km/hr (D) 2 km/hr

−1 b
8. If the zeroes of the rational expression (3x + 2a) (2x + 1) are and , then the value of a is
2 3
−b −b
(A) −2b (B) (C) (D) none of these
2 3
1 1 x3 x2
9. The expression − − + in lowest terms is
1− x 1+ x 1− x 1+ x
(A) 2x3+1 (B) x2+2 (C) x2+2x (D) x2−2x

10. Applying Euclid’s division algorithm, the H.(C)F. of 5256 and 18278 is
(A) equal to the H.(C)F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(B) less than H.(C)F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(C) greater than H.(C)F. of the remainders obtained in second and third step
(D) none of these

α+β
11. α, β are roots of 5x2−7x+1. Value of is
αβ
(A) 1/5 (B) 7/5 (C) 5 (D) 7

12. A number of the form 6q + 2. (q ∈N) is


(A) always odd (B) always even (C) depends on q (D) none of these.

13. LCM of two number x and y is 720 and the LCM of number 12x and 5y is also 720. The number y is
(A) 180 (B) 144
(C) 120 (D) 90

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14. When a natural number x is divided by 5, the remainder is 2. When a natural number y is divided by 5,
2z − 5
the remainder is 4. The remainder is z when x + y is divided by 5. The value of is
3
(A) −1 (B) 1
(C) − 2 (D) 2

15. x and y are two non-negative numbers such that 2 x + y =


10. The sum of the maximum and
minimum values of ( x + y ) is
(A) 6 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 15

2 2
16. If 1 + 2 + 32 + ....... + 122 =
650, then the value of 22 + 42 + 62 + .... + 242 is
(A) 1300 (B) 2600
(C) 2500 (D) 42250

17. For which value of p the following pair of linear equations 3 x + py= 7, px + 3 y= 15 will have no
solutions?
(A) ± 9 (B) ± 5
(C) ±3 (D) ±4

18. If xyz + xy + xz + yz + x + y + z =384 where x, y, z are positive integers, then the value of x + y + z is
(A) 23 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 35

19. Given that a 2 + 6b = 0 and c 2 + 4a − 8 =


−14, b 2 + 8c + 23 = 0, then the value of ab + bc + ca is
(A) 26 (B) 32
(C) 16 (D) 25

20. The system of equations 32 and 2qy + 15 x =


px + 4 y = 96 has infinite solutions. The value of
p − q is
(A) − 1 (B) 1
(C) 0 (D) 11

Space for rough work

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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -9

SECTION – III (PHYSICS)

1. A child walks towards a fixed plane mirror at a speed of 5 km h-1. The velocity of the image with respect to
mirror is -
(A) 5 km h-1 (B) –5 km h-1
(C) 10 km h-1 (D) –10 km h-1

2. In a plane mirror, an object is 0.5 m in front of the mirror. The distance between object and image is -
(A) 0.5 m (B) 1 m
(C) 0.25 m (D) 0.75 m

3. Which of the following correctly represents graphical relation between angle of incidence (i) and angle of
reflection (r) ?
y y
i i
(A) (B)
O x O x
r r
y y
i i
(C) (D)
O x O x
r r
4. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle θ. If the angle between the incident and reflected rays is 80°,
what is the value of θ.
(A) 40° (B) 50°
(C) 45° (D) 55°

5. The magnification produced by a concave mirror -


(A) is always more than one (B) is always less than one
(C) is always equal to one (D) may be less than or greater than one

6. Choose the correct relation between u, v and R-


2uv 2 2(u + v)
(A) R = (B) R = (C) R = (D) none of these
u+v u+v (uv)

7. The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The
position of the object should be-
(A) Beyond C (B) Between C and F
(C) At C (D) At F

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8. How will the image formed by a convex lens be affected, if the central portion of the lens is wrapped in
black paper, as shown in the fig.

(A) No image will be formed


(B) Full image will be formed but it is less bright
(C) Full image will be formed but without the central portion
(D) Two images will be formed, one due to each exposed half.

9. One surface of a lens is convex and the other is concave. If the radii of curvature are r1 and r2
respectively, the lens will be convex, if-
(A) r1 > r2 (B) r1 = r2
(C) r1 < r2 (D) r1 = 1/r2

3
10. R.I. of glass w.r.t. air is , then the R.I. of air w.r.t. glass is-
2
3 2
(A) (B)
4 3
1
(C) (D) 3
3

11. A ray of light is incident normally on a rectangular piece of glass. The value of angle of refraction will be-
(A) 180° (B) 90°
(C) 45° (D) 0°

12. A swimming pool appears to be 2m deep. Its actual depth is (µ for water = 1.33)-
(A) 2.66 m (B) 2 m
(C) 2.34 (D) 2.54 m

13. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens of focal length f is-
(A) f (B) 2f
(C) 3f (D) 4f

Space for rough work

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CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -11

SECTION – IV (CHEMISTRY)

1. oxygen shows +2 oxidation state in


(A) OF2 (B) H2O (C) H2O2 (D) CH3COOH

2. What will happen if a copper piece is dipped in an aqueous solution of silver nitrate for quite some
time?
(i) Solution will remain colourless
(ii) Solution will turn blue
(iii) Silver will deposit on the copper piece
(iv) Bubbles of brown gas will be formed around copper piece
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)

3. The green-coloured substance produced during burning of ammonium dichromate in firework is


(A) CrO3 (B) Cr2O3 (C) CrO5 (D) Cr(OH)3

4. The oxidation number of S in SOCl2 is


(A) -2 (B) +4 (C) -4 (D) +6

5. Potassium iodide on reacting with lead nitrate forms potassium nitrate and lead iodide. Which of the
following correctly represents the type of reaction involved?
(i) Displacement reaction (ii) Precipitation reaction
(iii) Combination reaction (iv) Double displacement reaction
(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iv) only (D) (ii) and (iv)

6. Which one of the following processes involves chemical reaction(s)?


(A) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder
(B) Liquefaction of air
(C) Keeping petrol in a China dish in the open
(D) Heating copper wire in presence of air at high temperature

7. The most basic oxide among MnO, Mn2O3, MnO2 and Mn2O7 is
(A) MnO (B) Mn2O3 (C) MnO2 (D) Mn2O7

8. In which of the following aqueous solutions the colour of blue litmus will turn to red?
(A) NaCl(aq) (B) CuSO4(aq) Na2CO3(aq) (D) NaCN(aq)

9. In an attempt to demonstrate electrical conductivity through an electrolyte, the following apparatus


was set up.
Which among the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not
acidic
(ii) Bulb will glow because HCl is a strong acid
and furnishes ions for conduction.
(iii) Bulb will not glow because circuit is incomplete
(iv) Bulb will not glow because it depends upon
the type of electrolytic solution
(A) (i) and (iii) (B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) only (D) (iv) only

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10. Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during chlor-alkali process
(A) 2NaCl(l) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(l) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

(B) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(aq) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

(C) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2(aq) + H2(aq)

(D) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

11. When solid KOH is mixed with solid NH4Cl a gas is produce(D) Which gas is it?
(A) Chlorine (B) Hydrogen (C) Hydrogen chloride (D) Ammonia

12. Which of the following is(are) not present in a dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?
(A) H3O+ (B) OH– (C) Cl– (D) un-ionized HCl

13. Which of the following is not a mineral acid?


(A) Hydrochloric acid (B) Citric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid (D) Nitric acid

Space for rough work

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SECTION – V (BIOLOGY)
1. Which of the following is a respiratory pigment
(A) Chlorophyll (B) Haemoglobin (C) Fucoxanthin (D) Anthocyanin

2. The pH of blood is
(A) 8.4 (B) 9.4 (C) 6.8 (D) 7.4

3. Which of the following starch digesting enzyme is present in saliva


(A) Pepsin (B) Trypsin (C) Elastase (D) Ptyalin

4. Pepsin differs from trypsin because it digests


(A) Protein in acidic medium in duodenum
(B) Proteins in alkaline medium in duodenum
(C) Proteins in acidic medium in stomach
(D) Proteins in alkaline medium in stomach

5. Deamination of aminoacids and production of urea takes place in


(A) Liver (B) Pancreas (C) Stomach (D) Small Intestine

6. The mode of nutrition in which animals feeds on the excreta or faeces is


(A) Macrophagy (B) Autophagy (C) Ephagy (D) Coprophagy

7. Which of the following is known as pacemaker of the heart


(A) Bundle of His (B) AV node (C) Purkinjefibres (D) SA node

8. The pigment present in urine providing pale yellow colour


(A) Urochrome (B) Bilirubin (C) Biliverdin (D) None of the above

9. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched


(A) Chlorophyll–Stromaof chloroplast (B) Haemoglobin - Erythrocytes
(C) Lymph–Middle man (D) Heparin - Anticoagulant

10. The sequence of tubular structure present in nephron is


(A) Collecting duct → PCT → DCT → Loop of Henle
(B) DCT → PCT→Collecting duct →Loop of Henle
(C) PCT → Loop of Henle→DCT → Collecting duct
(D) Loop of Henle→Collecting duct → PCT→ DCT

11. Long urethra is the characteristic feature of


(A) Females (B) Males (C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

12. Which of the following organ is considered as the graveyard of RBCs


(A) Kidney (B) Heart (C) Gall bladder (D) Spleen

13. The excretion of uric acid is known as


(A) Uricotelism (B) Ureotelism (C) Ammonotelism (D) All of these

14. The process of glycolysis take place in


(A) Mitochondria (B) Cytoplasm (C) Nucleus (D) Mitochodrial matrix

Space for rough work

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FIITJEE COMMON TEST


BATCHES : CTH 2326 A LOT
PHASE TEST-1 (SET A)
QP CODE: 00000.0
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Answer KEY

SECTION – I (SST)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. B
15. A 16. C 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. D
22. B 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. A
29. C 30. C 31. D 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. C
36. D 37. C 38. B 39. D 40. B

SECTION – II (MATHEMATICS)

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. A
15. D 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. A

SECTION – III (PHYSICS)

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. A 13. D

SECTION – IV (CHEMISTRY)

1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. D 7. A
8. B 9. C 10. D 11. D 12. D 13. B

SECTION – V (BIOLOGY)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. D
8. A 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. A 14. B

FIITJEE Ltd., BHOPAL Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455. [Link]
CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -15

FIITJEE COMMON TEST


BATCHES : CTH 2326 A LOT
PHASE TEST-1 (SET A)
QP CODE: 00000.0
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Answer KEY / CONCEPT CODES

SECTION – I (SST)
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:EC1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:G10000102
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:G10000102
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:G10000101
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:G10000102
Ans. (C)

FIITJEE Ltd., BHOPAL Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455. [Link]
CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -16

Concept Code:G10000102
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:G10000301
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (A)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:PS1000101
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (D)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000601
Ans. (C)
Concept Code:H10000602
Ans. (B)
Concept Code:H10000602

FIITJEE Ltd., BHOPAL Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455. [Link]
CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -17

SECTION – II (MATHEMATICS)

1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. A
15. D 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. A

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS :

1. α + β = −p αβ = q
 1 1 1
Polynomial x 2 −  + x +
α β αβ
4 2
2. α +=
β αβ
=
5 5
1 1 β+α
+ =
α β αβ
3. p(x) = x3 + 4x 2 − px + 8
p(2) =23 + 4(2)2 − p(2) + 8
8 + 16 – 2p + 8 = 0
p = 16

1
4. α,
α
1 K
α× =
α 2
K=2

5. (x - 1)(x - 2)

K −1
6. ≠ K≠3
6 −2
32 36
7. + =7
x−y x+y
40 48
+ =9
x−y x+y
8. 3x + 2a = 0
−29
x=
3
b −2a
=
3 3
b
− = a
2
1 + x − (1 − x) − (1 + x)x3 + x 2 (1 − x)
9.
1 − x2
= (x 2 + 2)

10. A
α + β 7 /5
11. = = 7
αβ 1/5

FIITJEE Ltd., BHOPAL Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455. [Link]
CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -18

12. B
13. Product of number = LCM × HCF
14. A
15. D
16. 22 + 42 + 62 + ..... + 242
22 (12 + 22 + 32.....122 )
4 × 650 = 2600
a1 b1 c
17. = ≠ 1
a2 b2 c2
18. xyz + xy + zy + x + y + z + 1 = 385
xy(z + 1) + y(z + 1) + x(z + 1) + (z +1) = 385
(z + 1)(xy + y + x + 1) = 385
(z + 1)(x + 1)(y + 1) = 385
5 × 7 × 11
z = 10 x=4 y=6
19. a2 + 6b + b2 + 8c + 23 + c 2 + 4a − 8 =0
2 2
(a + 2) + (b + 3) + (c + 4) =2
0
a = -2 b = -3 c= - 4
ab + bc + ca = 26

a1 b1 c1
20. = =
a2 b2 c2

SECTION – III (PHYSICS)

ANS. B
CC - P10000402
ANS. B
CC - P10000402
ANS. D
CC - P10000402
ANS. B
CC – P10000402
ANS. D
CC - P10000403
ANS. A
CC - P10000402
ANS. C
CC - P10000402
ANS. B
CC - P10000406
ANS. C
CC - P10000405
ANS. B
CC - P10000404
ANS. D

FIITJEE Ltd., BHOPAL Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455. [Link]
CTH 2326 A LOT-PT-I (SAT) -19

CC - P10000404
ANS. A
CC - P10000407
ANS. D
CC - P10000406

SECTION – IV (CHEMISTRY)

ANSWER
1. A
CC C10000107
2. C
CC C10000103
3. B
CC C10000102
4. B
CC C10000107
5. D
CC C10000104
6. D
CC C10000101
7. A
CC C10000206
8. B
CC C10000201
9. C
CC C10000204
10. D
CC C10000208
11. D
CC C10000203
12. D
CC C10000204
13. B
CC C10000201

Hints & Solution

1. Let oxidation number of O = x


x × 2 ×(-1) =0 ⇒x = +2

2. Cu(s) + 2AgNO3 (aq) → Cu(NO3 )2 (aq) + 2Ag(s)


Colourless Blue


3. (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 (s)  → Cr2O3 (s) + N2 (g)+ 4H2O(l)
ORANGE GREEN

4. Let x = oxidation no. of S


Oxidation no. of O = -2
Oxidation no. of Cl = -1
x +(-2)×1 + (-1) ×2 = 0 ⇒x = +4

FIITJEE Ltd., BHOPAL Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455. [Link]
CTH 2225-PT-I(SAT) -20

5. A type of reaction in which two compounds exchange their ions to form products is known double
displacement reaction. If at least one product is a precipitate, such reaction is also known as
precipitation reaction.

Heat
6. 2Cu + O2  → 2CuO
BLACK

7. The basic strength of oxide of metal decreases with the increase of the oxidation number of metal in
the oxide.
So the order of basic strength is
MnO> Mn2O3> MnO2> Mn2O7

8. In acidic solutions the colour of blue litmus turns to re(D)


NaCl(aq) : Neutral
CuSO4(aq) : Acidic
Na2CO3(aq) : Basic
NaCN(aq) : Basic

9. HCl is a strong electrolyte. It dissociates in water completely.


Dissociation
HCl + H2O  → H+ + Cl−

10. 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2(g) + H2(g)

11. KOH + NH4Cl → NH3(g)+ KCl + H2O

Dissociation
12. HCl + H2O  → H+ + Cl−
Dissociation
H2O(l)  → H+ (aq) + OH− (aq)

13. Hydrochloric acid : Mineral acid


Citric acid : Organic acid
Sulphuric acid : Mineral acid
Nitric acid : Mineral acid

SECTION – V (BIOLOGY)
1. B10000109
2. B10000117
3. B10000105
4. B10000105
5. B10000120
6. B10000101
7. B10000115
8. B10000120
9. B10000116
10. B10000121
11. B10000121
12. B10000118
13. B10000120
14. B10000110

FIITJEE Ltd., BHOPAL Centre, Plot No. 102, Zone-2, M.P. Nagar, Bhopal. Ph. : 0755-4253355, 4253455. [Link]

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