INDUSTRIAL/ORGANIZATIONAL
PSYCHOLOGY
1. Who was/were responsible for increasing productivity as well as reducing
fatigue of workers using scientific principles? *
A. Robert Yerkes
B. Frederick Taylor
C. Frank and Lillian Gilbreth
D. Elton Mayo
2. Who pioneered the human relations movement that emphasized the role of
social factors such as morale and satisfaction in determining behavior at
work? *
A. Robert Yerkes
B. Frederick Taylor
C. Frank and Lillian Gilbreth
D. Elton Mayo
3. There are two goals of Industrial/Organizational psychology. The practical
one is to improve the psychological well-being of workers. What is the
scientific one? *
A. To increase profits and decrease unnecessary spending
B. To increase knowledge and understanding of work behavior
C. To maximize human resources for organizational growth
D. To offer alternatives to existing psychological theories regarding personality
4. Which branch of psychology involves the analysis of jobs, recruitment,
selection, compensation, training, and performance evaluation. *
A. Industrial Psychology
B. Organizational Psychology
C. Industrial/Organizational Psychology
D. Personnel Psychology
5. A psychologist surveys the employees' perception of the company in terms
of its strengths and weaknesses and makes recommendations on how
identified areas can be improved. Which branch of psychology is this
psychologist operating in? *
A. Industrial Psychology
B. Organizational Psychology
C. Industrial/Organizational Psychology
D. Personnel Psychology
6. Which of the following statements fall under the study of human factors? *
A. Determining which employee to promote or remove
B. Arranging the layout of the office for maximum efficiency
C. Giving surveys to employees to determine their attitude towards the current
administration
D. Creating a counseling program for the employees
7. What is least likely FALSE about the Hawthorne effect? *
A. Elton Mayo and colleagues set out to study the effects of supervision on employee
behavior
B. The Hawthorne effect is not stable in that behavior returns to normal after prolonged
exposure to supervision
C. The Hawthorne effect also applies to self-monitoring
D. All of the above
8. Men who wear colored suits during interviews have better interview scores.
What is the independent variable in this hypothesis? *
A. Colored suits
B. Interviews
C. Interview scores
D. Men
9. Andy knows that he is not allowed to bring outsiders during a company
party, but he does anyway, saying, "Everyone does it, and besides, the more
the merrier!". What kind of ethical dilemma is present in the situation? *
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type AB
D. Type O
10. As the human resource assistant director, you are responsible for
conducting a job analysis. Which of the following are part of that task? *
A. Writing the tasks for each job
B. Describing the manner in which employees are doing their job
C. Identifying machines and tools needed for each job
D. Identifying the requirements needed to do each job.
E. All of the above
11. Which of the following will not result from what you are doing in no. 10? *
A. Training Program
B. Recruitment Ad
C. Employee Compensation
D. None of the above
12. What part of a job description is most likely to determine an employee or
an applicant's perception (negative or positive) towards the job? *
A. Internal Pay Equity
B. Work equipment
C. Job Competencies
D. Job Title
13. Guy was not accepted as a military cadet despite being a professional
martial artist due to his poor vision. What does he lack? *
A. Knowledge
B. Skill
C. Ability
D. Others
14. Flanagan and his students developed this job analysis method to
determine successful and unsuccessful job performance. *
A. JCI
B. TTA
C. CIT
D. ONET
15. I. Internal pay equity is typically done first before external pay equity II. A
company's market position is determined by external pay equity III.
Compensable job factors are constant and standardized *
A. I and III are TRUE
B. II and III are FALSE
C. I and II are TRUE
D. All are FALSE
E. All are TRUE
16. Which of the following is NOT an example of internal pay equity? *
A. To save on labor costs, Jinibrah decides to be 'lagging in the market'
B. Gail works for the finance department and is paid higher than Gale, who works for
housekeeping
C. In schools, educational attainment is more important than experience when it comes
to employment
D. All of the above
17. The issue of comparable worth is seen in which of the following? *
A. Ash finds it unfair that Gary is given bigger opportunities simply because he is white.
What Ash does not know is that Gary has better qualifications.
B. John and Mandy are both engineers. John is always chosen as project head even if
Mandy is as competent.
C. Mia advocates for transparency and open communication. She knows that there are
problems with how funds are handled.
D. Jin is the oldest worker on his cruise ship but is given the most challenging work to
do.
18. What kind of decision was likely made if a company and a complainant
pursued their case in a judicial court after arbitration? *
A. Null and Void
B. Absolute Arbitration
C. Binding Arbitration
D. Non-Binding Arbitration
19. Which of the following is TRUE about harassment in the workplace? *
A. A single occurrence of quid pro quo can warrant legal action already
B. Work environments are considered hostile if they inhibit an employee from doing
their job
C. Generally, it is unethical for employers and employees to engage in relationships
even if it is consensual
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
20. Security cameras were installed in Caroline's office without her knowledge,
and her work emails were also being monitored. If she were to file a case, on
what grounds would her arguments be valid? *
A. The right to privacy is a fundamental human right and must be upheld at all times.
B. Caroline had no previous knowledge of the company's intentions. They failed to
communicate their safety procedures to the employees.
C. The company has the right to do these procedures without prior notice since they
have sovereignty over their employees.
D. It is impossible to file a case against her employers since the company owns
Caroline's office and computer.
21. Which of the following is NOT a reason why companies use Blind box
ads? *
A. Companies want to avoid the hassle and drama of a current employee finding out
they will be replaced through a recruitment ad for his/her position.
B. Prestigious hiring companies want to avoid the massive influx of applicants who want
to work for them despite being unqualified.
C. Companies that have bad reputations do not want their potential applicants to be
discouraged.
D. Companies use these to promote 'Costumers to Employees,' wherein ads are posted
in visible places.
22. Which of the following is an efficient internal recruitment method that can
predict future job performance? *
A. Job Postings
B. Point-of-Purchase Method
C. Employee Referrals
D. Career Planning
23. According to research, what should an ad contain to attract the greatest
number of applicants possible? *
A. Use creative illustrations
B. Indicate the salary range
C. Display the company emblem or logo
D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C
24. Which is the best method for evaluating the effectiveness of a recruitment
method? *
A. Determining the cost per applicant
B. Determining the cost per qualified applicant
C. Determining the number of applicants attracted
D. Determining the number of successful applicants
25. What difference is between a Realistic Job Preview (RJP) and an
Expectation-Lowering Procedure (ELP)? *
A. An ELP is a variation of the RJP that focuses on giving realistic descriptions of a
job's particulars.
B. An RJP is a variation of the ELP that focuses on work in general. It aims to promote
longer tenure and higher job satisfaction.
C. An ELP focuses on expectations about work in general. It does not dwell on a
particular job or task.
D. An RJP is most effective when given at the beginning of the recruitment process,
while the ELP is better delivered during the selection process.
26. Arranging your work experience and skills from the most relevant to the
least relevant concerning the job specifications reflects what type of
resume? *
A. Chronological resume
B. Functional resume
C. Graduating resume
D. Psychological resume
27. An employee injured a client. The company had done a thorough
background and reference check before hiring the employee and found
nothing suspicious. Does the client have the right to sue the company for
negligent hiring? *
A. Yes, since the company bears jurisdiction over its employee
B. Yes, since the company did not do enough to ensure the integrity and moral
character of the people they hire.
C. No, since it should be the employee who should be sued.
D. No, since the company did all the necessary procedures, which gave them no
reason not to hire the person.
28. This is a widely-used group cognitive-ability test that is administered in
more or less 12 min. *
A. Wonderlic Personnel Test
B. Wonderlic Personality Test
C. Siena Reasoning Test
D. Basic Cognitive Reasoning Test
29. The following statements describe a work sample except? *
A. They are only valid if tasks are job-related
B. Work samples are often expensive and time-consuming to administer
C. They are universal enough to be valid for most positions
D. Tasks, situations, and equipment often reflect the actual job content and context
30. This selection technique simulates job tasks wherein applicants have to
sort information into those already completed and those to be handled. *
A. Simulation
B. Business Games
C. Work Sample
D. In-basket
31. What is NOT a characteristic of a completely unstructured interview
format? *
A. It is less defensible in court
B. It has standardized scoring
C. It is perceived to be more accommodating to applicants
D. It requires a greater amount of experience from an interviewer
32. Among the following selection methods, which is least likely to predict
future job performance? *
A. Interviews
B. Work Samples
C. Interest Inventories
D. Reference or recommendation letters
33. Why is 'What makes you different from other applicants?' not ideal to ask
in interviews? *
A. Because it is a disqualifier
B. Because it invades the privacy of an applicant
C. Because it is not job-related
D. Because it is too easy to answer
34. The employees' test scores are correlated with their performance
appraisals and tenure in the company. What kind of validity is established? *
A. Internal Consistency
B. Criterion
C. Convergent
D. Content
35. These were designed to determine if a particular employee will become
successful if a specific test is used. *
A. Utility Formula
B. Lawshe Tables
C. Taylor-Russel Tables
D. Expectancy charts
36. Which is most likely an example of adverse impact? *
A. Indra, a Native American, was not hired because she did not meet the job's minimum
requirements.
B. Briar was removed from her job as an opera singer at the London Theater due to
rising tensions between the UK and Russia, her home country.
C. A university in the United States did not hire Esmeralda and her fellow applicants
who did not speak English.
D. Cindy, a Caucasian, was considered over Tiana, a black woman, by a hospital with
mostly white employees.
37. Bogart, Andrei, and Margielyn scored the highest during the selection
process. The recruiter submits their profiles to the HR director, who makes the
hiring decisions. What kind of selection technique is this? *
A. Passing Scores
B. Top-Down
C. Rule of Three
D. Multiple cut-offs
38. This is a selection method reduces the applicant pool in every step of the
process. *
A. Top-down selection
B. Passing scores method
C. Multiple-cutoff method
D. Multiple-hurdle method
39. This selection technique is a compromise between top-down hiring and
passing scores. It attempts to hire the top test scorers while still allowing
some flexibility for affirmative action. *
A. Compensatory Approach
B. Banding
C. Multiple hurdles
D. Rule of Three
40. Which of the following is least likely TRUE? *
A. High performers evaluate their peers more strictly than low performers.
B. Employees tend to react worse to negative feedback from peers than from experts.
C. Peer ratings are fairly reliable only when the raters are similar to and well acquainted
with the colleagues they are rating.
D. Peer-ratings are the most common type of performance appraisals.
41. This concept refers to when a rater fails to discriminate between two
employees that are rated sequentially wherein the rating of the first employee
affects the rating of the second. *
A. Assimilation error
B. Proximity error
C. Contrast error
D. Carryover effect
42. Although Bonnie observes that Caitlyn is not a good worker, she still
decides to rate her highly since the previous rater did the same. What error is
being committed? *
A. Halo Error
B. Leniency Error
C. Assimilation Error
D. Reference Error
43. Patricia evaluates her serving girls and cooks based on their honesty in
the restaurant. What kind of approach to performance appraisal is Patricia
using? *
A. Competency-focused
B. Trait-focused
C. Character-focused
D. Contextual-focused
44. Using the paired comparisons method, how many pairs will be evaluated if
a shop has seven employees? *
A. 28
B. 14
C. 21
D. 7
45. If a garment factory is using quality of work as their basis for performance
appraisal of their employees, which of the following should they look into? *
A. Punctuality of the employees
B. Adherence to safety rules
C. Number of garments they can produce in a given period
D. Errors that they commit while working on garments
46. Which of the following is LEAST advisable as a source for performance
evaluation data due to concerns about its validity? *
A. Supervisor appraisals
B. Subordinate appraisals
C. Customer appraisals
D. Peer appraisals
47. This method of communicating appraisal results starts with telling
employees what they had done poorly, then marketing ways to improve. *
A. Feedback sandwich
B. Tell and Sell
C. Negative-positive
D. Collaborative
48. Companies are allowed to fire employees at any time because of the
employee-at-will doctrine. In what situation would this be invalid? *
A. If the employee has no contract with the company.
B. If the company is in the private sector
C. If an employee has refused to violate the ethics of his profession for the company
D. If the employee is still in the probationary period
49. A job analysis is most relevant in this stage of a training needs analysis. *
A. Organizational analysis, where the readiness of the employees and the organization
is assessed.
B. Task analysis, where the focus of training will be on the competencies that are
lacking or that need to be developed.
C. Person analysis, where employees that require the training are identified.
D. Job analysis is equally relevant in the three stages of training needs analysis.
50. This is an incentive method wherein employees attend training to improve
a skill that they need to get a promotion or a pay raise. *
A. Competency-based pay
B. Skill-based pay
C. Experience-based pay
D. Knowledge-based pay
51. Reviewing seriously two weeks before the board examination is called? *
A. Distributed practice
B. Aggregated practice
C. Massed practice
D. Bravery
52. During training, the manager shows the trainees how to deal with
customer complaints, after which the trainees take turns in doing the exercise.
What training method is used? *
A. Behavior Modeling
B. Role Play
C. Programmed Instruction
D. NOTA
53. What training method employs self-paced learning where information is
presented in small chunks? *
A. Behavior Modeling
B. Role Play
C. Programmed Instruction
D. NOTA
54. This is commonly used to train non-managerial employees. It allows for
lateral transfers within the company and effectively ensures that absent
employees' tasks are accomplished. *
A. Apprentice Training
B. Backlog Training
C. Cross-Training
D. Coaching
55. On-the-job Training methods heavily rely on which of the following
learning theories? *
A. Gestalt Theory by Wortheimer
B. Operant Conditioning by Skinner
C. Observational Learning by Bandura
D. Classical Conditioning by Pavlov
56. Which of the following statements is least likely TRUE? *
A. In overlearning, time and effort are spent in studying information, but retention is not
lengthened.
B. The more similar training environments are to the actual work environment increases
the effectiveness of the training
C. Transfer of training increases when the 'big picture' and fundamental principles are
taught rather than just specific tasks or techniques
D. It is better to train employees in as many different situations as possible.
57. This is the lowest and most common method of evaluating a training
method. *
A. Employee Learning
B. Employee Reactions
C. Business Impact
D. Return of Investments
58. This method of evaluating a training program involves considering the cost
of the program and the revenue that was generated as a result of it. *
A. Employee Learning
B. Employee Reactions
C. Business Impact
D. Return of Investments
59. Anya is discouraged because the director does not believe that she can
play the lead role in Anastasia. If this causes her to perform poorly in her
other projects, what would the effect be called? *
A. Golem effect
B. Golum effect
C. Pygmalion effect
D. Galatea effect
60. Anya agrees with the director and personally believes that she is not good
enough to do the job, causing her to perform poorly. What would the effect be
called? *
A. Golem effect
B. Self-fulfilling
C. Pygmalion effect
D. Galatea effect
61. Vilde's high self-esteem results in greater motivation for work as
compared to her coworkers. Which theory explains the correlation between
self-esteem and motivation and who is its proponent? *
A. Self-generated motivation; Nox and Lucis
B. Intrinsic motivation theory; Deci and Ryan
C. Consistency Theory; Korman
D. ERG; Aldefer
62. In Herzberg's Two Factor theory, job-elements that directly involve the job
itself belong to what category? *
A. Hygiene factors/ Job context
B. Hygiene factors/ Job content
C. Motivators/ Job context
D. Motivators/ Job content
63. What is NOT a component of motivation potential? *
A. Task Significance
B. Autonomy
C. Task Identity
D. None of the above
64. Which is NOT a weakness of Maslow's needs theory in the context of
industrial/organizational psychology? *
A. He proposed too many levels of needs
B. Contrary to Maslow's theory, not everyone progresses up the needs hierarchy.
C. Even if lower needs are satisfied, higher needs do not necessarily become the most
important in reality.
D. It does not give recommendations as to how employee motivation can be increased
65. What is the major difference between Maslow's and Aldefer's theories
besides the number of levels proposed? *
A. Aldefer's needs cannot be over satisfied
B. Maslow concentrated on different kinds of motivators while Aldefer focused on needs
directly relevant to the industrial setting
C. Aldefer's theory allows for individuals to skip levels.
D. Maslow's theory is structured into a hierarchy, whereas Aldefer's wasn't.
66. Willie likes to take on challenging tasks. He dislikes being grouped with
other people and prefers to have control over the decision-making process.
What need is he high and low in? *
A. Affiliation; Achievement
B. Achievement; Affiliation
C. Power; Affiliation
D. Power; Achievement
67. How would people with strong intrinsic motivation likely react to being paid
for their work? *
A. They would increase their inputs to balance out with the output that they are
receiving
B. They would be less motivated to work
C. They would try to increase the outputs of those that are externally motivated
D. It would further increase their motivation to work
68. Which of the following is TRUE? *
A. Hygiene factors are necessary and sufficient for job satisfaction and motivation.
B. Recognition programs and awards satisfy self-actualization needs
C. The Job Characteristics theory states that a meaningful job and good feedback are
sufficient to increase employee motivation
D. Realistic job previews reduce applicant pools but also decrease the chance of hiring
employees who will become dissatisfied in the future
69. I. According to the goal-setting theory, 'Improve teamwork' and 'Work as
quickly as possible' are examples of motivating goals II. Allowing employees
to participate in the process of setting goals improves their motivation. III.
Challenging goals will result in greater performance only if employees accept
them IV. Feedback accompanying goal attainment encourages better job
performance *
A. I and III are FALSE
B. Only IV is TRUE
C. III and IV are TRUE
D. II, III, and IV are TRUE
70. According to the Equity theory, people experiencing underpayment
inequity will least likely? *
A. Look for other people to compare themselves to.
B. Increase the effort and input that they put into their work.
C. Leave their company altogether
D. Confront their superiors and ask for a pay raise
71. According to Huseman et al., there are individual differences in the
perception of equity. Some people are more affected by imbalances than
others. This is called? *
A. Equity sensitivity
B. Equity moderator
C. Equity ratio
D. Equity expectancy
72. "If I go to the moon, I will get promoted," Howard thinks. What component
of Vroom's theory is manifested? *
A. Expectancy
B. Instrumentality
C. Valence
D. Value
73. Ingrid is highly motivated to finish the project that her boss had given her
due to the highly prestigious award that she could gain. According to the
Expectancy Theory of motivation, her awareness of the presence of
consequences is referred to as? *
A. Expectancy
B. Instrumentality
C. Valence
D. Reinforcement
74. A manager makes sure to praise employees whenever they perform well.
What reinforcement schedule is the manager using? *
A. Fixed Interval
B. Fixed Ratio
C. Variable Interval
D. Variable Ratio
E. Continuous
75. A manager rewards high-performing employees by letting them serve less
crowded areas of the restaurant during rush hour. This method of giving
incentives is called? *
A. Shaping
B. Peter Principle
C. Premack Principle
D. Merit performance
76. Jackson is paid for every piece of artwork he creates in a day. What
incentive plan is used? *
A. Merit pay
B. Earnings-at-risk
C. Base Rates
D. Gainsharing
77. Bob has been working for Krab Burgers for 10 years. He enjoys his work
and gets along with his coworkers, believes in the company's goals, and
doesn't mind working overtime. The type of commitment that Bob has is? *
A. Normative
B. Collective
C. Continuance
D. Affective
78. Robin always hears his mentor, Bruce, complain about problems in the
company. Eventually, Robin begins to share the sentiments of his mentor.
What theory would explain the situation? *
A. Equity theory
B. Transactional Theory
C. Social Information Processing Theory
D. Peer Influence Theory
79. Bana and Nana are competing for a supervisory position. They had
rigorous tests and assessments. Bana eventually got the job, but Nana
complained that Bana was hired simply because he could talk louder. What is
Nana's complaint about? *
A. Procedural injustice
B. Distributive injustice
C. Interactional injustice
D. Decisive injustice
80. Sasha works at the assembly section of an automobile company. To make
him motivated and satisfied, his manager allows him to decide what car to
[Link] makes him feel trusted. What is shown? *
A. Job Rotation
B. Job Enlargement
C. Job Enrichment
D. Job Crafting
81. If Sasha's manager allowed him to assemble both the car exterior and
interior instead of deciding what car to work on, this would show? *
A. Job Rotation
B. Job Enlargement
C. Job Enrichment
D. Job Crafting
82. Negative information is hardly communicated inside a company due to the
discomfort and stress of delivering such messages. Rosen and Tesser called
this phenomenon as? *
A. Minimize Unpleasant Messages Effect
B. Communication Avoidance Effect
C. Serial Communication
D. Censorship Effect
83. At work, Kacey has no idea what everyone is talking about. She did not
hear about the recent office gossip since she was at a conference. What is
Kacey called? *
A. Dead-ender
B. Isolate
C. Liason
D. Outlier
84. Which is NOT a channel of downward communication? *
A. Intranet
B. Bulletin Boards
C. Focus groups
D. Policy Manuals
85. Gabbie is overwhelmed by the constant ringing of the office telephone.
She tries to deal with all the messages but eventually commits mistakes. On
the other hand, Becky deals with the constant ringing by simply ignoring the
calls until she is available to take them. What techniques are Gabbie and
Becky using to overcome communication overload? *
A. Omission and Cueing
B. Cueing and Escape
C. Escape and Error
D. Error and Omission
86. When Shaniqua interviews politicians, she often uses a strategy to avoid
being overwhelmed by their answers. She would only take note of key points
and would leave out unimportant information. What is she doing? *
A. Leveling
B. Sharpening
C. Blurring
D. Assimilating
87. Which of the following is FALSE? *
A. People high in conscientiousness, extraversion, and openness and low in
neuroticism are more likely to emerge as leaders.
B. More intelligent people are more likely to emerge as leaders than less intelligent
people.
C. High self-monitors emerge as leaders more often than low self-monitors.
D. None of the above
88. Andrew knows that being a project manager will increase his standing in
the company. Thus he volunteers for the position. What type of leadership
motivation is he showing? *
A. Non-calculative motivation
B. Calculative motivation
C. Affective Identity motivation
D. Social-normative motivation
89. In the movie ‘A Star is Born’, Allie is a capable singer and songwriter who
was initially unwilling to perform with her fellow singer, Jack. Considering the
Situational Leadership theory, how did Jack convince her to sing? *
A. Through coaching
B. Through delegating
C. Through directing
D. Through supporting
90. Three candidates are vying to be the next CEO of Missswiss. Leo is the
most experienced and has the highest educational attainment in the company.
Sisa is well-loved among her colleagues, and the majority of the employees
are rooting for her. Felix is the company's vice president and would naturally
take the position if not for the other two. Leadership through power would tell
us that? *
A. Although Sisa is well-liked, she would not be able to secure the loyalty and respect
of her followers.
B. Leo will influence others using legitimate power because he is the most 'legitimate' or
qualified person for the job.
C. Although Felix is the vice president, his power to persuade his employees would still
be weak
D. Leo has the best chance of being CEO, and Sisa has the worst.
91. When a new leader or chief executive suddenly introduces a radical and
drastic change such as merging with another company or a reorganization of
departments, this is termed as? *
A. Transactional change
B. Evolutionary change
C. Revolutionary change
D. Transformational change
92. In the development of a team, this is the stage where team members
begin to ease conflict and accept their roles and responsibilities. *
A. Norming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Forming
E. Adjusting
93. Jessie is soft-spoken and timid. He does not go to social events and
keeps to himself. He was tasked to endorse the company to 500 graduating
students at a university. According to research on audience effect, what would
happen? *
A. Nothing, the audience effect was disproved.
B. There would be an increase in Jessie's performance
C. There would be a decrease in Jessie's performance
D. It would depend on the composition of the audience and the length of his exposure
on stage
94. In a group, this is the person who always asks questions or disagrees with
the group. *
A. Know-it-all
B. Devil's Advocate
C. Nuisance
D. Sniper
95. When you perceive that someone is keeping you from achieving your
goals or is restricting your behaviors, you would experience? *
A. Conflict
B. Reactivity
C. Dissidence
D. Disengagement
96. Which of the following tasks is least likely performed by a human resource
officer? *
A. Recruit through social media platforms
B. Provide counseling and therapy to troubled employees
C. Make promotion decisions based on performance evaluations
D. Conducting team-building activities
97. This is the stage in organizational change wherein employees start
ditching their old ways and habits and start accepting the change. *
A. Adaptation
B. Internalization
C. Unloading
D. Discarding
98. These are employees who only change when necessary but do not
instigate or welcome change openly. *
A. Reluctant Changers
B. Change Resisters
C. Change Analysts
D. Change Skeptics
99. I. Continued exposure to high noise levels can raise the blood pressure of
employees doing complicated tasks. II. People can eventually adapt to
extreme temperatures and perform tasks close to how they would perform in
normal conditions III. Cynicism towards the organization and colleagues is a
behavioral symptom of burnout. IV. Employees involved in workplace violence
are typically men between the age of 20 and 50 whose self-esteem is tied to
their job. *
A. II and IV are FALSE
B. I, III and IV are TRUE
C. All are FALSE
D. All are TRUE
100. Which of the following is FALSE about the effects of loud noises? *
A. It increases the blood pressure and heart rate of people with Type A personalities
B. Loud noises generally cause people to be less helpful
C. Loud noises that sound familiar and constantly peak our attention and are likely
more distracting than unfamiliar noise
D. Walking faster and avoiding eye contact is related to the presence of noise