-1-

WARNING
!!

PLEASE NOTE THAT YOU ARE NOT ALLOWED TO TAKE THIS INTO THE NHBRC EXAM

FOLLOW THE FOLLOWING SIMPLE

INSTRUCTIONS BELOW IN ORDER TO
GUARANTEE YOURSELF A PASS IN THE
NHBRC TECHNICAL EXAM!!

1. First, scroll down to the “SELF-ASSESSMENT-TEST” that begins on pages 37 to

68 below.

2. Print out the “SELF-ASSESSMENT-TEST” and take your time to answer the
multiple-choice questions before looking at the answers provided on pages 2 to
36.

3. Mark yourself & then pay close attention to those questions which you got wrong
until you get them correct.

4. The above process is the most guaranteed and effective way to pass your
NHBRC exam using the materials provided here.

5. We now wish you good luck with your NHBRC exam!!!

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1) The Geo-technical solution shall be designed by a ……… Engineer?

a) Structural Engineer
b) Civil Engineer
c) Geo – Technical Engineer (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 5)
d) NHBRC Competent Person
.

2) Which competent person shall inspect the works during the implementation of the solution?
a) NHBRC Home Inspector
b) Structural engineer
c) Geotechnical engineer
d) Architect

3) A dolomite feature that manifests as a hole in the ground is referred to as?

a) A sinkhole (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 9, Par 3.40)
b) A mine
c) A shaft
d) All of the above

4) What is the purpose of a geotechnical site investigation in the home building sector?
a) To create more work for engineering geologists & geotechnical engineers
b) To document the parameters upon which the design of the foundation is to be
based: (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 11, par 4.2.1)
c) Help council of geoscience and NHBRC collect information
d) Increase the cost of the house

5) What types of soil are good for construction?

a) Rock soil (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 11, Table 1)
b) Peat
c) Clay
d) Sand and gravel

6) In terms of the NHBRC soil class classification, what is a "P" soil type classification?
a) Rock
b) Clays
c) Sand
d) Contaminated soil, fill & marshes (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 11, Table 1)

7) Which one of the following soils expands considerably when water is added?
a) Clay soil site classification 'H"(SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 11, Table 1)
b) Rocks site classification "R"
c) Dolomitic areas site classification "P"
d) None of the above

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8) What is the minimum founding depth for slab on the ground foundation type?
a) 500mm
b) 1500mm
c) 300mm (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 16, fig. a)
d) 400mm
.

9) Except founded on rock, the minimum founding depth for a strip footing below natural ground
level shall not be less than
a) 150mm
b) 400mm (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 16 Fig. b or Page 17 Table 3)
c) 600mm
d) 300mm

10) The minimum width of a strip foundation for a single storey building with a tiled or sheeted roof
in stable soil conditions for an external & internal wall shall be …. respectively?
a) 200mm for the external wall & 400mm for the internal wall
b) 400mm for the external wall & 200mm for the internal wall
c) 500mm for the external wall & 400mm for the internal wall (SANS10400-H Foundation:
Page 17, Table 3)
d) 400mm for the external wall & 500mm for the internal wall
.

11) What is the minimum width of a non-continuous strip foundation to an internal masonry non
load bearing wall or a timber framed wall supporting a roof with class A or class Cl?
a) 100mm
b) 400mm (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 17, Table 3)
c) 600mm
d) 700mm

12) What is the minimum slab thickness of a strip foundation?

a) 150mm
b) 200mm (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 17, Par [Link].1ac)
c) 400mm
d) 600mm
.

13) What is the minimum internal & external width of a strip foundation C, H, R and S soil
classification sites on reinforced concrete roofs?
a) 400mm & 500mm
b) 750mm internal & 600mm external (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 17, Table 3)
c) 800mm & 1000mm
d) 1000mm & 1200mm

14) Strip Foundations on C, H, R and S Sites, what is the width of strip foundation for
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single storey building on the above-mentioned site classes, External Walls (Soil)?
a) 600
b) 450
c) 550
d) 400

15) Dolomite area designation D1 requires the following precautionary measures

a) General precautionary measures that are intended to prevent concentrated ingress of
water into the ground
b) No precautionary measures are required to support development
c) Precautionary measures in addition to those pertaining to the prevention of
concentrated ingress of water into the ground are required (SANS10400-H
Foundation, Page 31 Footnote 2)
d) Both B and C

16) What does the dolomite condition mean?

a) A white mineral often tinted by impurities, found in sedimentary rocks and veins. It is used
in the manufacture of cement and as a building stone (marble)
b) An acidic type of soil
c) A rock formed from volcanic conditions
d) Sinkhole (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 31, Par A.7.3.1)
.

17) On dolomite area designated as D3, what type of foundation shall be provided?
a) A strip foundation
b) Soil Mattress or reinforced concrete (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 33, Par
A.7.3.4)
c) A dolomite foundation
d) A pad foundation

18) What are the requirements for the modified normal construction for site class designated as
H1?
a) A strip foundation
b) Articulated joints provided at all internal & external door openings
c) A dolomite foundation
d) A pad foundation

19) Why is the engineer's inspection and site monitoring necessary in the construction of
a house?
a) To ensure compliance with the design
b) Undertakes responsibility to provide necessary documentation and overseeing
construction
c) To instruct the builder on technical issues
d) All of the above
.

20) Which foundation type is recommended for heaving soil, of site class designation between
H2 and H3:(1) Raft foundation (11) Reinforced strip foundation (111) Soil Raft, (IV)
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Unreinforced strip foundation (V) Piled foundation?

a) 11 and IV
b) I Only
c) 1,11 and V (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 51, Table c.2)
d) All of the above
.

21) According to the NHBRC, a wall crack of more than 25 mm is classified as?
.

a) Very severe (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 52 & SANS 10400B - 2012 Table 4 Page
17)
b) Severe
c) Moderate
d) Mild

22) An area extending to …. mm beyond the perimeter of the housing unit shall be cleared
of refuse & vegetation including bushes, shrubs & trees
a) 1500mm (SANS10400-H Foundation: Page 53, Par b)
b) 750mm
c) 1000mm
d) 1200mm

23) The upper surface/finished floor level shall not be less than …. above ground level?
a) 250mm
b) 350mm
c) 150mm
d) 100mm

24) ….. is when a housing unit has a floor level of less than 150mm above finished surface level
a) Raft slab
b) Upper surface
c) Slab on the ground
d) Semi basement

25) Steps in foundation shall be provided within ........... from corners?

a) 2,0 Meters
b) 1,0 Meters
c) 1,5 Meters
d) 3,0 Meters
.

26) Who is the competent person that should inspect the civil works during the implementation
of the solution?

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a) Geotechnical engineer
b) Civil engineer
c) NHBRC inspector
d) None of the above

27) "ENGINEERING FILL" are materials?

a) In shallow fills which provide adequate bearing capacity for slabs
b) In fills which have been compacted within a defined moisture range, in layers and
compacted to a defined density requirement which provides adequate bearing
capacity for foundations & slabs
c) Consisting of soil mixed with cement or lime
d) Sourced immediately from quarry
.

28) What is the minimum required width of a wooden floor?

a) 50mm (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 5, Par 3.7)
b) 140mm
c) 600mm
d) 900mm

29) What is the maximum required width of a wooden floor?

a) 50mm
b) 140mm (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 5, Par 3.7)
c) 600mm
d) 900mm
.

30) On suspended timber floors, what is the minimum clearance between a greed and a joist?
a) 150mm
b) 250mm
c) 450mm (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 10, Par 4.3.3)
d) 550mm

31) What is the minimum height above ground level for timber floor joists?
a) 150mm
b) 250mm
c) 350mm
d) 450mm (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 10, Par 4.3.3)

32) Fill shall be placed in uncompacted layers not exceeding …. Mm in respect of compaction
by mechanical means?
a) 400mm
b) 150mm (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 11, Par 4.4.6)
c) 250mm
d) 350mm
.

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33) Compaction by hand shall be in layers not exceeding?

a) 100mm (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 11, par 4.4.6)
b) 150mm
c) 250mm
d) 350mm

34) Compaction by mechanical means shall be in layers not exceeding?

a) 100mm
b) 150mm (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 11, par 4.4.6)
c) 250mm
d) 350mm
.

35) Backfill and bedding shall be placed in layers.......... (mechanical compaction).

a) Of 200mm thickness
b) Of 150mm thickness (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 11, par 4.4.6)
c) Not exceeding 100mm
d) Of 500mm thickness
.

36) The maximum height of fill beneath floor slab and slab on the ground foundation measured at
the lowest point shall not exceed. .. mm unless certified by a competent person.
a) 200mm
b) 400mm (SANS10400-J Flooring: Page 11, Par 4.4.7)
c) 300mm
d) 500mm

37) What is the NHBRC required thickness of brick force?

a) 2.5mm
b) 3.2mm
c) 2.8mm (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 4, Par 3.8)
d) 5.0mm

38) What is the maximum height of a foundation wall that is not acting as a retaining wall?
a) 1,0 M
b) 1,5 M (SANS10400–K Walling: Page 10, par [Link] (10))
c) 2,0 M
d) 2,5 M

39) What happens to the space in between hollow bricks when that type of brick is used?
a) Can be filled with mortar
b) Can be filled with concrete
c) Can be filled with iron bars for reinforcement
d) Any of the above

40) What happens to the cavities of hollow blocks where the masonry is required to spread
concentrated loads?
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a) The openings can be filled with concrete

b) The openings can be filled with grout
c) The openings can be filled with mortar
d) All of the above

41) In hollow bricks used for cavity wall foundations, what should the grading of mortar be?
a) 3.0 Mpa & 10.0 Mpa
b) 3.0 Mpa & 7.0 Mpa (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 10, Par [Link] a4)
c) 1.0 Mpa & 10.0 Mpa
d) None of the above

42) What is the prescribed mix proportion for class two mortar using common cement?
a) 50kg cement, 1 wheelbarrow loose sand
b) 50kg cement, 2 wheelbarrow loose sand
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

43) In rules set out for the single storey buildings: The average compressive strength of the hollow
and solid masonry units is not less than … MPa and …. MPa?
a) 2,0 and 5,0
b) 3, 0 and 4, 0 (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 10, Par [Link] a4)
c) 6,0 and 7,0
d) 7,0 and 10,0

44) In rules set out for the lower storey in double storey buildings: The average compressive
strength of the hollow and solid masonry units is not less than ... Mpa and… Mpa?
a) 2,0 and 5,0
b) 3,0 and 7,0
c) 6,0 and 7,0
d) 7,0 and 10,0 (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 11, Par [Link].b7)

45) What is the average compressive strength for the solid masonry units for a double storey
construction?
a) 11Mpa
b) 15Mpa
c) 16Mpa
d) 10Mpa (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 11, Par [Link].b7)

46) What is the minimum difference in ground levels (h) for 110 -110 cavity retaining wall?
a) 600mm
b) 700mm
c) 1000mm (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 27, Table 8)
d) 1200mm

47) What is the maximum height of a masonry foundation wall where the fill is retained behind a
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220mm nominal wall thickness?

a) 0,4 M
b) 0,7 M (SANS10400-k: Walling: Page 27, Table 8)
c) 0,9 M
d) 1,8 M

48) What is the maximum height of masonry foundation wall where the fill is retained behind the
22mm wide collar jointed wall?
a) 1200mm
b) 700mm (SANS10400-k: Walling: Page 27, Table 8)
c) 500mm
d) 800mm

49) What is the minimum height of balustrade and parapet walls to a flat roof top with
no restriction of access?
a) 1 500mm
b) 500mm
c) 150mm
d) 1 000mm (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 46, Par [Link])

50) In burnt clay masonry units, control joints shall generally be provided at minimum intervals of?
a) 4mm wide
b) 6mm wide
c) 10mm wide (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 48, Par [Link])
d) 12mm wide

51) Where shall the vertical control joint be provided?

a) Where there is a storey height change in the height of the external walling
b) Where there is a storey height change in the height of the external walling and where
setbacks produce a return on a plan of less than 800mm
c) Be provided between 05mm and 15mm where walls are constructed using burnt clay masonry
units.
d) None of the above

52) What is the maximum distance between a backfill & a concrete slab?
a) 600mm
b) 700mm
c) 1000mm (SANS10400-K Walling: Page 77, par kk9b)
d) 1300mm

53) Which institution is responsible for the technical assessment & approval of innovative systems
& products where no national standards exist?
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a) South African National Standards (formerly SABS)

b) CSIR
c) Agrement South Africa (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 5, Paragraph 3.1)
d) NRCS

54) The minimum strength of concrete for reinforced concrete members & precast items such as
flagstones should be?
a) 15 Mpa
b) 25 Mpa
c) 30 Mpa (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 12, Par 4.2.6)
d) 35 Mpa

55) What is the expected grade/strength of infill concrete in an unreinforced cavity wall?
a) 5 MPa
b) 10 Mpa (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 13, Par 4.1.8 a)
c) 15 Mpa
d) 25 Mpa

56) In the cavity wall, what is the strength of concrete infill in the first course?
a) 5 MPa
b) 10 MPa (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 13, Par 4.1.8)
c) 15 MPa
d) 25 MPa

57) What is the expected grade/strength of infill concrete in a reinforced cavity wall?
a) 5 MPa
b) 10 Mpa
c) 15 Mpa
d) 25 Mpa (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 13, Par 4.1.8 b)
.

58) We can use cement bricks to lift the surface bed rebar/mesh as long as the bricks are cut
in half?
a) True
b) False
c) Makes no difference
d) False, the bricks have to be full length

59) Mortar shall be used within …. of mixing?

a) 1 Hour
b) 2 Hour (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 20, Par [Link])
c) 3 Hour
d) 4 Hour
.

60) Mortar in which initial set has occurred (i.e., thumbprint hard) shall be?
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a) Used for infill concrete

b) Used under supervision of component person
c) Not be used (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 20, Par [Link])
d) Used within two hours of mixing

61) Masonry walling shall not overhang concrete slab of raft foundations by more than
a) 10mm
b) 15mm
c) 20mm (SANS2001 –CM1: Masonry Walling, Page 21, Par [Link])
d) 30mm

62) Which of the following bricks should be wetted before placed?

a) Concrete bricks
b) Sand lime bricks
c) Clay bricks (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 21, [Link])
d) None of the above

63) Cement bricks and clay bricks can be mixed in masonry construction?
a) True
b) False (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: page 22, Par 4.3.7)
c) If wetted
d) None of the above

64) Masonry walls shall not be laid when the temperature is?
a) Less than 0 degrees Celsius (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 22, Par 4.3.5)
b) Less than 5 degrees Celsius
c) More than 15 degrees celsius
d) More than 25 degrees celsius

65) Masonry walls shall be laid at the ....... of strip footings/ strip foundation?
a) Outer side
b) Centre
c) Inner side
d) Anywhere on top
.

66) Masonry units may be laid on edge as a means by which the lower course of foundation
masonry may be brought up to level.
a) True
b) False
c) None of the above
d) All of the above

67) What is the nominal minimum width of mortar, perpend & bedding joints?
a) 5mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 22, Par [Link])
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b) 50mm
c) 150mm
d) 200mm
.

68) What is the nominal maximum width of mortar, perpend & bedding joints?
a) 20mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 22, Par [Link])
b) 50mm
c) 100mm
d) 200mm
.

69) All perpend and bed joints shall have a nominal thickness of?
a) 15mm
b) 10mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 22, Par [Link])
c) 25mm
d) 6mm

70) What is the minimum thickness of the first bed joint above a supporting element
(Foundation, slab or lintel)?
a) 5mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 22, Par [Link])
b) 10mm
c) 15mm
d) 35mm

71) The maximum thickness of the first bed joint must not be more than?
a) 35mm
b) 30mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 22, Par [Link])
c) 60mm
d) None of the above

72) Toothing of masonry shall

a) be permitted only at corners.
b) Be permitted at window openings.
c) Not be permitted. (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 25, Par 4.4.5)
d) Be filled with mortar.

73) Toothing-in, of masonry is not permitted as a means of?

a) Bonding the wall of more than 12mm in length
b) Joining clay and concrete bricks together
c) Joining two intersecting walls together (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 25,
Par 4.4.5)
d) None of the above

74) Be filled with mortar in the cavity wall construction, the cavity shall not be less than?
a) 50mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 31, Par 4.5.1)
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b) 110mm
c) 150mm
d) 200mm

75) In the cavity wall construction, the cavity shall not exceed?
a) 50mm
b) 110mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 31, Par 4.5.1)
c) 150mm
d) 200mm

76) In cavity wall construction, weep holes shall at least be required to be spaced horizontally with
a maximum spacing of?
a) 0,5 Meters
b) 1,0 Meters (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 31, Par 4.5.2)
c) 1,5 Meters
d) 2,0 Meters

77) When is damp proof course not required to be provided above all window & door openings
in cavity walls?
a) The house is built in dry part of the country (e.g., Musina, Upington etc.)
b) If the roof overhangs by more than 750mm
c) If the distance between the top of the window frame & the wall plate is less than 700mm
d) B & C (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 36, Par [Link])
.

78) All horizontal damp proof courses shall protrude … from the external face of the wall?
a) 5mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 36, Par [Link])
b) 10mm
c) 20mm
d) 40mm

79) What is the name given to a horizontal mortar joint in a masonry wall?
a) A perpend joint
b) A vertical chase
c) A control joint
d) A bedding joint (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 43, Par [Link])
.

80) What is the name given to a vertical mortar joint in a masonry wall?
a) A perpend joint (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 43, Par [Link])
b) A vertical chase
c) A control joint
d) A bedding joint

81) Vertical chases in solid units shall not exceed………or leaf?

a) 1/4 of the thickness of the wall

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b) 1/3 of the thickness of the wall (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 45, Par 4.12.4)
c) 1/2 of the thickness of the wall
d) None of the above

82) Horizontal chases in solid units shall not exceed…dig into the thickness of the wall?
a) 1/6 (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 45, Par 4.12.4)
b) 1/5
c) 1/4
d) 1/3

83) Lugs for door/window frames shall extend approximately …. into the masonry wall?
.

a) 100mm
b) 250mm
c) 300mm
d) 450mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 46, Par 4.15.2)

84) The minimum bearing of concrete floors on load bearing walls are?
a) 90mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 46, Par 4.17 a)
b) 75mm
c) 50mm
d) 20mm
.

85) The minimum end bearing for concrete lintel/ masonry staircases shall be
a) Not less than 90mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 48, Par 4.20)
b) Not less than 220mm
c) Not less than 35mm
d) None of the above

86) The permissible deviation (PD) for perpend joint thickness in housing units is?
a) -5 + 20mm
b) -10 + 15mm
c) -5 + 15mm
d) -5 + 10mm (SANS2001-CM1 Masonry Walling: Page 53, Table 13)

87) What is the vertical spacing requirement of the tie in the cavity wall construction?
a) 250mm
b) 450mm
c) 600mm
d) 950mm
.

88) What is the horizontal spacing requirement of the tie in cavity wall construction?
a) 250mm
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b) 450mm
c) 600mm
d) 950mm
.

89) External walls of buildings located in areas of prolonged heavy rain, wind driven rain
and or where condensation is high shall be of construction?
a) Single leaf
b) Double leaf
c) Cavity wall
d) Non - Plastered 90mm wall thick
.

90) What is the minimum slab thickness for a non - load bearing wall?
a) 150mm
b) 200mm
c) 250mm
d) 400mm
.

91) To consistently control & monitor the levelness of masonry construction you will make use of?
a) Dumpy level
b) Builder's square
c) Spirit level
d) Profile & gauge lines
.

92) Backfill material shall exclude stones and rock fragments of maximum dimensions larger than
a) 50mm
b) 100mm (SANS2001-DP6 Water Pipes: Page 8, Par 4.1.2.1b)
c) 200mm
d) 150mm

93) Fill material shall not contain more than … of rock or hard fragments
a) 5%
b) 10% (SANS2001-DP6 Water Pipes: Page 8, Par 4.1.2.1c)
c) 15%
d) 50%

94) Where a water pipe is to be laid underground horizontally next to a sewer or other services,
it should at least be …. away from the drain?
a) 300mm
b) 500mm (SANS2001-DP6 Water Pipes: Page 12, Par 4.2.2)
c) 1000mm
d) 1500mm
.

95) What is the minimum distance between drain pipes laid underground horizontally/parallel
to pipe conveying water intended for general household use?

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a) No limit
b) 500mm (SANS2001-DP6 Water Pipes: Page 13, Par 4.2.2)
c) 600mm
d) 1500mm
.

96) What should the minimum clearance be when a drinking water pipe crosses a sewer line?
a) 100mm (SANS2001-DP6 Water Pipes: Page 13, Par 4.2.2)
b) 500mm
c) 600mm
d) 1000mm
.

97) Service trenches shall not be excavated parallel to buildings within how many meters?
a) 1,0 Meters
b) 1,5 Meters (SANS2001-DP6 Water Pipes: Page 13, Par 4.2.1)
c) 2,0 Meters
d) 2,5 meters
.

98) What is the minimum soil cover over the outside of the drain pipes?
a) 50mm
b) 100mm
c) 150mm
d) 300mm (SANS10400-P Drainage: Page 50, Par 4.22.5 a)
.

99) Concrete anchor block shall be provided if the drain pipes

a) Are encased in concrete
b) Are made of cast iron
c) Are of UPVC plastic
d) Have a gradient exceeding 1 in 5 (SANS10400-P Drainage: Page 50, Par 4.22.4d)
.

100) What should the minimum soil cover be when precast or cast in situ concrete is placed
over above the drain
a) 50mm
b) 100mm (SANS10400-P Drainage: Page 50, Par 4.22.5b)
c) 150mm
d) 300mm

101) What is the maximum gradient for sloped trenches in strip foundations?
a) 1:10
b) 1:20
c) 1:40
d) 1;80
.

102) What is the minimum strength of concrete on an unreinforced foundation for a single
storey home?
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a) 10 Mpa
b) 15 Mpa
c) 20 Mpa
d) 25 Mpa

103) The strength of the concrete should not be less than on the lower level of reinforced double
storey building?
a) 5 Mpa
b) 15 Mpa
c) 20 Mpa
d) 25 Mpa
.

104) Concrete shall be a minimum strength of …. MPa on unreinforced or reinforced slabs?

a) 5 Mpa
b) 10 Mpa
c) 15 Mpa
d) 30 Mpa
.

105) The compressive strength gained by concrete after 28 days with respect to any grade?
a) 80%
b) 99%
c) 100%
d) None of the above

106) Basic uncomplicated foundations should be constructed with concrete that has a
compressive strength of at least Mpa at 28 days in the ratio?
a) 5MPa, 1:2:2 Cement: Sand: Stone
b) 10MPa, 1:4:5 Cement: Sand: Stone
c) 15 MPa, 1:1:1 Cement: Sand: Stone
d) 25 MPa, 2:1:2 Cement: Sand: Stone
.

107) What will help increase the strength of concrete?

a) Decrease the water/concrete ratio
b) Decrease the amount of void in concrete by upgrading the concrete
c) Cure the concrete well
d) All of the above
.

108) What does a slump test indicate about concrete properties on site?
.

a) Workability (SANS2001-CC1 Structural Concrete: Page 7, par 3.3.11)

b) Strength
c) Creep properties
d) Tensile

109) Generally, props are provided at …. centers and are left in place for a period of at least
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…. days?
a) 1,2 m for 7 days
b) 2,0 m for 5 days
c) 1,5 m for 7 days (SANS2001-CC1 Structural Concrete: Page 20, Table 2)
d) 1,0 m for 3 days
.

110) Lintels over garage openings shall be adequately supported for a period of not less than
a) 4 days
b) 7 days (SANS2001-CC1 Structural Concrete: Page 20, Table 2)
c) 2 days
d) None of the above

111) After how many days can props/ lintels be removed on side walls, columns & vertical faces
of beams?
a) Between 2 to 4 days or as per engineer's discretion (SANS2001-CC1: Page 20, Table 2)
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days

112) All reinforcements at the time of placing shall be free from?

a) Hardened mortar
b) Binding wires
c) Soft concrete
d) Rust, scale, oil (SANS2001-CC1 Structural Concrete: Page 21, Par [Link])

113) What are the elements that can adversely affect or reduce the bond with the infill concrete?
a) Hardened mortar
b) Binding wires
c) Soft concrete
d) Mud & oil

114) Concrete curing methods include?

a) Plastic sheeting
b) Water curing
c) None of the above
d) All of the above (SANS2001-CC1 Structural Concrete: Page 33, Par 4.7.13)
.

115) How can concrete be protected from losing moisture?

a) Damp sand, cover it with plastic and spray the surface with water (SANS2001-CC1
Structural Concrete: Page 34, Par 4.7.13.7b&c)
b) Damp sand, cover it with a cloth and spray the surface with water
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
.

116) All concrete shall be protected from moisture loss, by means of?
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a) Ponding the exposed surface with water, covering with concrete with sand, or mat
(SANS2001-CC1 Structural Concrete: Page 34, Par 4.7.13.7b&c)
b) Adding more cement
c) Adding screed immediately after casting
d) C and D

117) Bags of cement should be stacked to a height not exceeding …. bags?

a) 8
b) 10
c) 12 (SANS2001-CC2 Minor Concrete: Page 6, Par [Link] Note 2)
d) 20

118) Cover to reinforcement shall not be less than …. mm for enclosed surfaces on a 20 class of
concrete?
a) 25mm
b) 50mm (SANS2001-CC2 Minor Concrete: Page 8, Par 4.4.3)
c) 75mm
d) 100mm

119) What is the minimum cover of concrete over reinforcement … for moderate exposure
condition for class 20 concrete, measured from the outside of any bar or stirrup?
a) 25mm
b) 50mm (SANS2001-CC2 Minor Concrete: Page 8, Par [Link])
c) 30mm
d) 10mm

120) The concrete shall be of such workability that it can readily be readily compacted into the corners
of the formwork and around reinforcement without……?

a) The loss of steel reinforcement

b) Cracking of hardened concrete
c) Segregation of the materials or excessive bleeding of water at the surface
(SANS2001-CC2 Minor Concrete: Page 10, Par 4.7.2)
d) The need for curing for 3 days

121) Mixing of materials for concrete shall be conducted by…?

a) The bricklayers
b) The experienced operator (SANS2001 – CC1 Par 4.7.8.1a)
c) The general laborer’s
d) The architect

122) What is the concrete mix proportion for use with a 13mm (class 32.5) stone for 10 Mpa?
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a) 1 Bag cement (50kg), 2 wheelbarrow sand, 2 wheelbarrows stone, 80 L water

b) 1 Bag cement (50kg), 1,5 wheelbarrow sand, 1,5 wheel barrows of stone, 30 L water
c) 2 Bags cement (100 kg), 4.5 wheel barrow sand, 3 wheelbarrow stone, 66L water
(SANS2001-CC2 Minor Concrete: Page 11 Table 6)
d) 2 bag cement, 2 wheelbarrows of sand, 2 wheelbarrows of stone, 55L water

123) What is the concrete mix proportion for use with a 19mm stone for 25 Mpa?
a) 1 Bag cement (50kg), 2 wheelbarrow sand, 2 wheelbarrows stone, 80 L water
b) 1 Bag cement (50kg), 1,5 wheelbarrow sand, 1,5 wheel barrows of stone, 30 L water
c) 2 Bags cement (100 kg), 3 wheel barrow sand, 3 wheelbarrow stone, 55L water
(SANS2001-CC2 Minor Concrete: Page 11 Table 6)
d) 2 bag cement, 2 wheelbarrows of sand, 2 wheelbarrows of stone, 55L water

124) Reinforcement splicing shall be at least

a) 300mm
b) 500mm
c) 600mm
d) 1000mm
.

125) Honey combing in concrete occurs because of the following

a) Congested reinforcement
b) Poor vibration
c) Poor placement
d) All of the above

126) Why is concrete compacted?

a) To eliminate bubble and void as well as to sustain a level surface
b) To make it harder
c) To soften it for mixing
d) All of the above

127) What quality of water is used for concrete mixing?

a) Drinking (potable) water (SANS2001-EM1 Plastering: Page 5, Par 4.1.4)
b) Gray water
c) Blackish water
d) River water

128) A bag of common cement has a mass of 50 kg & a volume of approximately … when
packed under air pressure at the factory?
a) 33 litres (SANS2001-EM1 Plastering: Page 6, [Link] Note)
b) 66 litres
c) 99 litres
d) None of the above
.

129) Plaster mixed materials which are not applied to wall within two hours of mixing shall be?
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a) Remixed with cement

b) Remixed with water
c) Discarded (SANS2001-EM1 Plastering: Page 7, Par [Link])
d) All of the above
.

130) Cement plaster not applied within 2 hours on walls shall be?
a) Used after more water is added
b) Discarded ((SANS2001-EM1 Plastering: Page 7, Par [Link])
c) Used after more water and cement is added
d) None of the above
.

131) Reinforcing should be clean of …. before casting concrete?

a) Rust layers and oil paint (SANS2001-EM1 Plastering: Page 7, Paragraph [Link])
b) Water & Dirt
c) Moisture & Dirt
d) All of the above

132) Plaster can be applied to masonry and concrete not exceeding …. for masonry units
and in concrete surfaces?
a) 22mm & 16mm (SANS2001-EM1 Plastering: Page 8, Par [Link])
b) 10mm & 15mm
c) 15mm & 20mm
d) 25mm & 35mm

133) Which one of the following are common defects in plaster?

a) Grinning
b) Debonding
c) Lack of hardness caused by applying plaster too much sun and wind
d) All of the above (SANS2001-EM1 Plastering: Page 14, Annexure C)

134) When properly laid, it will provide a highly effective impermeable barrier against the ingree
of wind driven rain and dust. It should therefore provide on all tile and slated roofs,
irrespective of the slope and if ceilings are not installed. What is this construction material
called?
a) DPC (Damp Proof Course)
b) DPM (Damp Proof Material)
c) Under tile membrane (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 12, Table 2 Note 2)
d) Fiber cement
.

135) What is the purpose of floor underlays in timber structures?

a) To serve as bracing for floor joists
b) To serve as noise dampener
c) To provide a vapor barrier to prevent moisture from coming in
d) All of the above
.

136) The under-floor membrane shall have a thickness of not less than …. mm?
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a) 0,25mm
b) 0,50mm
c) 0,35mm
d) 10,0mm
.

137) The lapping of under floor membranes shall not be less than?
a) 100mm
b) 300mm
c) 200mm
d) 450mm
.

138) What’s the lapping lengths of underfloor membranes at joints?

a) Not less than 1000mm
b) Not less than 200mm
c) More than 150mm
d) There is no minimum lapping length

139) What is the minimum depth of floor board underlays placed to avoid moisture intake from the
surface ground?
a) 450mm
b) 550mm
c) 650mm
d) 850mm
The following information and tables could not be found in the SANS Manual however, we found it in
the old SANS Manual and managed to reference answers on questions on form works that follow
below.

A lintel is a structural horizontal block that spans the space or opening between two vertical
supports. It is often found over doors and windows. Care should be taken when handling or
transporting lintels, especially the longer lengths. They are easily damaged by untrained or
negligent forklift drivers. Longer lengths should always be supported in at least 3 places and
preferably transported and stored on their side until used. Lintels must always be laid with the
hollow side uppermost, and never upside down. Lintels should be laid singly or side by side
depending on the thickness of the walls. The biggest mistakes made by most builders when
building in lintels are not using a sufficient number of support props and not leaving the support
props in place for enough days.

Please follow the guidelines below.

General length of lintel support/span 1.5M (1.5M - 2.5M

2.5M)
*Bearing on each side, minimum 150mm 250mm 350mm
Brick courses above lintel, minimum 4 4 5
Support/props every x Metres 1M 1.5M 1.5M
*Days support required 7days 7days 7days
*(Ref: NHBRC Part 3, Sec 3 Feb 1999

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Type of Formwork Formwork Removal Time

Sides of Walls, Columns and Vertical faces of 24 hours to 48 hours (as per engineer’s
beam decision)

Slabs (props left under) 3 days

Beam soffits (props left under) Garages 7 days

Removal of Props of Slabs:

i) Slabs spanning up to 4.5m 14 days

ii) Slabs spanning over 4.5m 14 days

.Re

Removal of props for beams and arches

Lintels – Formwork Stripping Times

Table – 2: Formwork Stripping Time (When Ordinary Cement is used):

i) Span up to 6m 14 days

ii) Span over 6m 21 days

140) What is a minimum lintel bearing for spans greater than or equal to 2,5m?
a) 50mm
b) 350mm
c) 220mm
d) 600mm

141) Lintels supporting roof trusses with a span less than or equal to 1,5m shall have
a minimum bearing of
a) 150mm
b) 350mm
c) 100mm
d) 75mm
.

142) Lintels supporting roof trusses with a span between 1,5m & 2,5m shall have a
minimum bearing of?
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a) 150mm
b) 250mm
c) 350mm
d) 75mm
.

143) What is the minimum Precast prestressed concrete lintels bearing for the span
between 1,5m and 2,5m?
a) 150mm
b) 350mm
c) 250mm ([Link].5 b 2 Part k, Precast prestressed lintels)
d) 450mm

144) What is the minimum Precast prestressed concrete lintels bearing for span greater
than or equal to 2,5m?
a) 150mm
b) 350mm ([Link].5 b 2 Part K, Precast prestressed lintels)
c) 250mm ([Link].5 b 2 Part k, Precast prestressed lintels)
d) 450mm

145) After what period can props be removed for lintels with a bearing span between 1,5 m to 2,5
m?
a) Between 2 to 4 days or as per engineer's discretion
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days
.

146) After what period can props be removed for beam soffits and arches with a span equal or
greater than 4,5m?
a) Between 2 to 4 days or as per engineer’s discretion
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days
.

147) After what period can props be removed for beams spanning over 6m?
a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days

148) For lintels supporting roof trusses with a span less than or equal to 1,5m, the lintels shall be
set in mortar and have a minimum bearing of mm?
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a) 100mm
b) 150mm
c) 450mm
d) 350mm
.

149) Minimum height of underside lintel level for windows, doors etc. above finished floor level is
a) 2 100mm
b) 2 600mm
c) 2 400mm
d) 2 000mm
.

150) What is the minimum height of a window from roof to the upper top of the window?
a) 450mm
b) 600mm
c) 800mm
d) 1100mm
.

151) The external sills at windows should be

a) Level
b) Slopped towards
c) Slopped inwards
d) curved
.

152) Steel door frames and built-in window frame surrounds shall have a minimum thickness of
not less than …. mm?
a) 1,0mm
b) 2,5mm
c) 3,5mm
d) 4,5mm
.

153) What is the nominal height of a masonry above window openings where roof trusses
are supported?
a) 1000mm high
b) 300mm high
c) Not less than 400mm
d) Any height is acceptable

The following table is not available in the latest SANS Home Builder’s Manual however, we sourced
it from the previous SANS Home Builder’s manual and it answers the questions below.

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154) What is the minimum area for the whole floor area of a habitable dwelling?
a) 15 m2
b) 30 m2
c) 45 m2
d) 60 m2
.

155) What is the minimum height of all habitable rooms in a house?

a) 1,8 M
b) 2,1 M
c) 2,4 M
d) 6,0 M
.

156) What is the minimum floor area for a habitable room other than a kitchen, scullery or laundry?
a) 1,8 M
b) 2,1 M
c) 2,4 M
d) 6,0 M
.

157) What is the minimum headroom at any point on any stairway?

a) 1200mm high
b) 1800mm high
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c) 2100mm high (SANS10400-M Stairways: Page 6, Par 4.2.5)

d) 2400mm high
.

158) What is the maximum height/rise of a stair case?

a) 100mm
b) 150mm
c) 200mm (SANS10400-M Stairways: Page 6, Par 4.2.5)
d) 300 mm
.

159) The minimum width of the stair treads shall be …. mm and with minimum of …. mm risers to
a maximum of …. risers?
a) 250, 170, 200mm (SANS10400-M Stairways: Page 6, Figure 2)
b) 150, 120, 150mm
c) 300, 400, 450mm
d) None of the above

160) What is the minimum headspace above a stair case measured vertically from the pitch line
to the ceiling?
a) 1,5 meters measure vertically from the pitch line
b) 2,1 M vertically from the pitch line (SANS10400-M Stairways: Page 6, Figure 1)
c) 2,5 meters measure vertically from the pitch line
d) 3,0 meters measure vertically from the pitch line
.

161) What is the importance of a DPC?

a) To prevent mist & fog into the house?
b) To allow moisture penetration
c) To prevent rising dam through walls
d) All of the above
.

162) A strip of approved DPC sheeting 150mm wide should be placed length wise under the
ridge tiles, over lapping the top course of tiling on each side by 25mm. Lapped ends
must be supported underneath and the overlap should not be less than?
a) 75mm
b) 80mm
c) 85mm
d) 150mm
.

163) When is a damp-proof course used on a cavity wall that is prone to rainfall?
a) In higher moisture content conditions
b) In low moisture content
c) During the rainy season
d) All the time
.

164) What type of wall ties are used on a damp area?

a) Butterfly wall & fish tail wall ties
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b) Remedial wall ties

c) Block wall ties
d) Stainless steel wall ties
.

165) What is the minimum wire diameter of butterfly type wall ties
a) 1,20mm
b) 2,80mm
c) 3,15mm
d) 2,20mm
.

166) What is the minimum lap length for 12mm diameter bar?
a) 560mm
b) 660mm
c) 700mm
d) 800mm

167) Wall ties used 30km from the coastline shall be?
a) Galvanized wire
b) Stainless steel of grade 816
c) Either of the above
d) None of the above
.

168) Which method can be used to join walls at an intersection?

a) Galvanized steel & wires
b) Wall ties & mortar
c) Steel wires
d) All of the above
.

169) What does Y10 stand for?

a) 10mm diameter steel bar and is of mild steel.
b) 10mm diameter steel bar and is of high tensile
c) 10mm diameter steel bar and is of low yield steel
d) 10mm diameter steel bar and is of average yield steel
.

170) Rebars are available in different shapes and sizes. What type of rebar is depicted in the
below picture?

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a) Mild rebar
b) Hot rolled high yield stress
c) Finned rebar
d) M type rebar
.

171) What is used to cover reinforced wires (rebar)/ wire mesh placed within concrete?
a) Silicon
b) Rubber
c) Mortar
d) Nothing
.

172) If an electrical conduit pipe is fitted through the DPM, what's used to fill the openings?
a) A PVC
b) A bituminous felt membrane
c) A polythene plastic
d) Self - adhesive tape
.

173) What is the name given to a horizontal member attached to an unplaced

material perpendicular to a rafter in order to support the roof sheeting?
a) Purlin (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 7, Par 3.24)
b) A beam
c) A rafter
d) A joist
.

174) What is the name given to a vertical member attached to an unplaced material
perpendicular to a purlin in order to support the roof sheeting?
a) Purlin
b) A beam
c) A rafter (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 7, Par 3.26)
d) Joist

175) What is the minimum angle/slope/pitch of concrete/clay roof tiles?

a) 7 degrees
b) 27 degrees
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c) 13 degrees
d) 17 degrees (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 12, Table 2)

176) What is the minimum fall toward the external gutter or roof edge for a flat roof?
a) 1 : 25
b) 1 : 80 (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 13, Par [Link])
c) 1 : 70
d) 1: 45

177) Where must the drips provided on concrete roofs be, and at what depth?
a) Inside roof trusses and at 15mm depth
b) At roof overhangs and 12mm depth (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 14, Par [Link])
c) Option 1 & 2 are correct
d) None of the above
.

178) Where are drips inserted on concrete roofs?

a) On top of the under layment at all rakes, and below or on top of the underlayment at the
eaves
b) Underneath the underlayment at all rakes and above of the underlayment in eaves
(SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 14, Par [Link])
c) Any of the above
d) None of the above

179) Who shall install a water proofing system on top of a flat roof?
a) Main Contractor’s supervisor
b) Architect
c) A competent person strictly in accordance with manufacturers instruction
(SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 14, Par [Link])
d) NHBRC structural engineer, in accordance with architect’s instruction

180) The specialist water proofing contractor shall provide a home builder with at least
… guarantee?
a) 6 Months
b) 12 Months
c) 3 years
d) 5 years (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 14, Par [Link])

181) What are the minimum dimensions of a wall plate supporting the tie beam & rafters?
a) 38 x 114 x 76mm (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 18, Par [Link].5)
b) 40 x 120 x 80mm
c) 60 x 100 x 100mm
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d) 60 x 120 x 80mm

182) Roof trusses shall be tied down to the supporting walls and columns by means of?
a) 4mm brick force
b) Galvanized steel straps or galvanized steel wires that is built into the wall
(SANS10400-L: Page 26, Par [Link].5)
c) Roof wire drilled into the wall
d) Galvanized steel wires & drilled into the wall

183) In timber frame structures what is a stud?

a) Is the vertical elements in the wall frames (SANS10400-L Roofing: Page 29 fig.A)
b) Is the bracing pieces installed in between studs
c) Is the timber element that is installed below the wall plate
d) None of the above

184) Purlins and rafter splices should not be put within … from gable ends?
a) 0,5 m
b) 1,0 m
c) 1,5 m (SANS2001-CT2 Roofing: Page 16, Par 4.7.4)
d) 2,0 m

185) What is the size of ceiling brandering to support gypsum plasterboard?

a) 45 x 45mm
b) 38 x 38mm (SANS2001-CT2 Roofing: Page 16, Par 4.8)
c) 48 x 48mm
d) 60 x 60mm
.

186) The minimum size of purlins supporting sheeting materials is?

a) 76 x 50mm
b) 70 x 70mm
c) 80 x 80mm
d) 50 x 50mm
.

187) What is the minimum size of the temporary timber bracing for trusses?
a) 38mm x 38mm timber
b) 38mm x 114mm timber
c) 76mm x 38mm timber
d) 50mm x 76mm timber

188) The trusses, rafters and purlin beams shall be supported on wall plates of minimum …. or
similar flat bearing surfaces which are levelled and positioned so as to ensure that the ends
of such members are vertically aligned
a) 38mm x 38mm
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b) 38mm x 114mm
c) 38mm x 76mm
d) 50mm x 76mm

189) Wall plate shall have a minimum height of …. from floor slab?
a) 2 600mm
b) 2 100mm
c) 2 400mm
d) 2 700mm
.

190) What is the name given to a filling of brick between the roof timber situated from wall plate
to roof covering, that is used to prevent the entry of birds?
a) A beam filling
b) Engineering filling materials
c) Sand filling
d) None of the above
.

191) Wall plate level shall have a minimum height of …. from floor slab?
a) 2 600mm
b) 2 100mm
c) 2 400mm
d) 2 700mm
.

192) What is the top part of the timber framed structure called?
a) A ridge board or Apex
b) Rafter
c) Purlin
d) Joist

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193) What is the maximum center distance of flashing gutters placed at alternate flutes?
a) 75mm
b) 150mm
c) 300mm
d) 600mm
.

194) What's the minimum flashing for valley gutter?

.

a) 100mm
b) 300mm
c) 200mm
d) 410mm
.

195) Flashing shall be fixed with an end lap of not less than….mm?
a) 150
b) 120
c) 90
d) 60
.

196) Down pipes, if provided, shall discharge into concrete lined drainage channels, which
discharge the water at least 1,5M away from the building in dolomitic areas designated
as being D2 & D3?
a) True
b) Partially true
c) False
d) None of the above

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197) What is the minimum anchor embedment for a heavy roof type on a solid unit?
a) 150mm
b) 300mm (Table 30 Part K)
c) 400mm
d) 600mm
.

198) What is the minimum anchor (Roof ties) embedment to masonry for heavy roofs?
a) 300mm
b) 150mm
c) 120mm
d) B and C
.

199) Why is it necessary to use graded timber in roof truss construction?

a) Because timber without an appropriate grade mark & certification is considered
nonstructural?
b) Graded timber is expensive
c) Graded timber is used by experienced builders/contractors
d) All of the above
.

200) Black cross (ungraded) timber may only be used in timber structure assembly as?
a) Purlins for sheeted roofs
b) Battens for tiled roofs
c) Battens for ceilings
d) None of the above
.

201) What is the minimum depth of penetration for perspective treatment as required by
SANS timber and of practice?
a) Fully penetrated
b) 50mm
c) 20mm
d) 100mm

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202) Confirm where the timber hazard classification of H3 for timber may be applied?
a) Internal applications only
b) Exterior above ground applications only
c) In ground contact applications
d) Fresh water and heavy wet soil applications
.

203) Class H4 – H6 it’s for timber hazard bio classification?

a) Hazard very high
b) Medium Hazard
c) Low Hazard
d) Not applicable to soil class

204) What is logging on timber frame structure?

a) Logging is the process of cutting, skidding and processing trees to produce timber and
pulp to supply the world's markets for construction & other products
b) It is the process of treating trees with insecticides to avoid termites from eating through
the woods
c) It is the process of drying trees for charcoal making
d) All of the above
.

205) Which material can be used as sheathing in timber frame structures?

a) OSB (Oriental Standard Board)
b) Hard Board (Engineered Timber)
c) Ply wood
d) All of the above
.

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206) In single storey buildings of masonry construction: the span of roof trusses/ rafter
between supporting walls does not exceed …. M?
a) 15
b) 10
c) 9
d) 8
.

207) The thickness of galvanized roof sheeting shall not be less than?
a) 0,2mm
b) 2,0mm
c) 5,0mm
d) 0,5mm
.

208) Who is responsible for all the structural drawings of a home?

a) A civil engineer
b) A competent person
c) An architecture
d) A geotechnical manager
.

209) Which of the following architectural design drawing paper size indicates the biggest paper
size?
a) A5
b) A4
c) A3
d) A0
.

210) Which one is the acceptable method of bracing a timber frame in terms of SABS 082?
a) Solid timber brace
b) Metal angle
c) Flat metal brace
d) All of the above
.

211) An enrolment certificate cannot be cancelled at what stage?

a) Before construction commence
b) During construction stage
c) After the occupation date
d) If strip foundations are used
.

212) Any person in the business of home building can register with the?
a) SABS
b) NHBRC
c) CIDB
d) SARS

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SELF-ASSESSMENT TEST
1) The Geo-technical solution shall be designed by a ……… Engineer?
a) Structural Engineer
b) Civil Engineer
c) Geo – Technical Engineer
d) NHBRC Competent Person
.

2) Which competent person shall inspect the works during the implementation of the solution?
a) NHBRC Home Inspector
b) Structural engineer
c) Geotechnical engineer
d) Architect

3) A dolomite feature that manifests as a hole in the ground is referred to as?

a) A sinkhole
b) A mine
c) A shaft
d) All of the above

4) What is the purpose of a geotechnical site investigation in the home building sector?
a) To create more work for engineering geologists & geotechnical engineers
b) To document the parameters upon which the design of the foundation is to be
based
c) Help council of geoscience and NHBRC collect information
d) Increase the cost of the house

5) What types of soil are good for construction?

a) Rock soil
b) Peat
c) Clay
d) Sand and gravel

6) In terms of the NHBRC soil class classification, what is a "P" soil type classification?
a) Rock
b) Clays
c) Sand
d) Contaminated soil, fill & marshes

7) Which one of the following soils expands considerably when water is added?
a) Clay soil site classification 'H"
b) Rocks site classification "R"
c) Dolomitic areas site classification "P"
d) None of the above
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8) What is the minimum founding depth for slab on the ground foundation type?
a) 500mm
b) 1500mm
c) 300mm
d) 400mm
.

9) Except founded on rock, the minimum founding depth for a strip footing below natural ground
level shall not be less than
a) 150mm
b) 400mm
c) 600mm
d) 300mm

10) The minimum width of a strip foundation for a single storey building with a tiled or sheeted roof
in stable soil conditions for an external & internal wall shall be …. respectively?
a) 200mm for the external wall & 400mm for the internal wall
b) 400mm for the external wall & 200mm for the internal wall
c) 500mm for the external wall & 400mm for the internal wall
d) 400mm for the external wall & 500mm for the internal wall
.

11) What is the minimum width of a non-continuous strip foundation to an internal masonry non
load bearing wall or a timber framed wall supporting a roof with class A or class Cl?
a) 100mm
b) 400mm
c) 600mm
d) 700mm

12) What is the minimum slab thickness of a strip foundation?

a) 150mm
b) 200mm
c) 400mm
d) 600mm
.

13) What is the minimum internal & external width of a strip foundation C, H, R and S soil
classification sites on reinforced concrete roofs?
a) 400mm & 500mm
b) 750mm internal & 600mm external
c) 800mm & 1000mm
d) 1000mm & 1200mm

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14) Strip Foundations on C, H, R and S Sites, what is the width of strip foundation for
single storey building on the above-mentioned site classes, External Walls (Soil)?
a) 600
b) 450
c) 550
d) 400

15) Dolomite area designation D1 requires the following precautionary measures

a) General precautionary measures that are intended to prevent concentrated ingress of
water into the ground.
b) No precautionary measures are required to support development.
c) Precautionary measures in addition to those pertaining to the prevention of
concentrated ingress of water into the ground are required.
d) Both B and C.

16) What does the dolomite condition mean?

a) A white mineral often tinted by impurities, found in sedimentary rocks and veins. It is used
in the manufacture of cement and as a building stone (marble)
b) An acidic type of soil
c) A rock formed from volcanic conditions
d) Sinkhole
.

17) On dolomite area designated as D3, what type of foundation shall be provided?
a) A strip foundation
b) Soil Mattress or reinforced concrete
c) A dolomite foundation
d) A pad foundation

18) What are the requirements for the modified normal construction for site class designated as
H1?
a) A strip foundation
b) Articulated joints provided at all internal & external door openings
c) A dolomite foundation
d) A pad foundation

19) Why is the engineer's inspection and site monitoring necessary in the construction of
a house?
a) To ensure compliance with the design
b) Undertakes responsibility to provide necessary documentation and overseeing
construction
c) To instruct the builder on technical issues
d) All of the above

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.

20) Which foundation type is recommended for heaving soil, of site class designation between
H2 and H3:(1) Raft foundation (11) Reinforced strip foundation (111) Soil Raft, (IV)
Unreinforced strip foundation (V) Piled foundation?
a) 11 and IV
b) I Only
c) 1,11 and V
d) All of the above
.

21) According to the NHBRC, a wall crack of more than 25 mm is classified as?
.

a) Very severe
b) Severe
c) Moderate
d) Mild

22) An area extending to …. mm beyond the perimeter of the housing unit shall be cleared
of refuse & vegetation including bushes, shrubs & trees
a) 1500mm
b) 750mm
c) 1000mm
d) 1200mm

23) The upper surface/finished floor level shall not be less than …. above ground level?
a) 250mm
b) 350mm
c) 150mm
d) 100mm

24) ….. is when a housing unit has a floor level of less than 150mm above finished surface level
a) Raft slab
b) Upper surface
c) Slab on the ground
d) Semi basement

25) Steps in foundation shall be provided within ........... from corners?

a) 2,0 Meters
b) 1,0 Meters
c) 1,5 Meters
d) 3,0 Meters

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26) Who is the competent person that should inspect the civil works during the implementation
of the solution?
a) Geotechnical engineer
b) Civil engineer
c) NHBRC inspector
d) None of the above

27) "ENGINEERING FILL" are materials?

a) In shallow fills which provide adequate bearing capacity for slabs
b) In fills which have been compacted within a defined moisture range, in layers and
compacted to a defined density requirement which provides adequate bearing
capacity for foundations & slabs
c) Consisting of soil mixed with cement or lime
d) Sourced immediately from quarry
.

28) What is the minimum required width of a wooden floor?

a) 50mm
b) 140mm
c) 600mm
d) 900mm

29) What is the maximum required width of a wooden floor?

a) 50mm
b) 140mm
c) 600mm
d) 900mm
.

30) On suspended timber floors, what is the minimum clearance between a greed and a joist?
a) 150mm
b) 250mm
c) 450mm
d) 550mm

31) What is the minimum height above ground level for timber floor joists?
a) 150mm
b) 250mm
c) 350mm
d) 450mm

32) Fill shall be placed in uncompacted layers not exceeding …. Mm in respect of compaction
by mechanical means?
a) 400mm
b) 150mm
c) 250mm
d) 350mm
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33) Compaction by hand shall be in layers not exceeding?

a) 100mm
b) 150mm
c) 250mm
d) 350mm

34) Compaction by mechanical means shall be in layers not exceeding?

a) 100mm
b) 150mm
c) 250mm
d) 350mm
.

35) Backfill and bedding shall be placed in layers.......... (mechanical compaction).

a) Of 200mm thickness
b) Of 150mm thickness
c) Not exceeding 100mm
d) Of 500mm thickness
.

36) The maximum height of fill beneath floor slab and slab on the ground foundation measured at
the lowest point shall not exceed. .. mm unless certified by a competent person.
a) 200mm
b) 400mm
c) 300mm
d) 500mm

37) What is the NHBRC required thickness of brick force?

a) 2.5mm
b) 3.2mm
c) 2.8mm
d) 5.0mm

38) What is the maximum height of a foundation wall that is not acting as a retaining wall?
a) 1,0 M
b) 1,5 M
c) 2,0 M
d) 2,5 M

39) What happens to the space in between hollow bricks when that type of brick is used?
a) Can be filled with mortar
b) Can be filled with concrete
c) Can be filled with iron bars for reinforcement
d) Any of the above

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40) What happens to the cavities of hollow blocks where the masonry is required to spread
concentrated loads?
a) The openings can be filled with concrete
b) The openings can be filled with grout
c) The openings can be filled with mortar
d) All of the above

41) In hollow bricks used for cavity wall foundations, what should the grading of mortar be?
a) 3.0 Mpa & 10.0 Mpa
b) 3.0 Mpa & 7.0 Mpa
c) 1.0 Mpa & 10.0 Mpa
d) None of the above

42) What is the prescribed mix proportion for class two mortar using common cement?
a) 50kg cement, 1 wheelbarrow loose sand
b) 50kg cement, 2 wheelbarrow loose sand
c) All of the above
d) None of the above

43) In rules set out for the single storey buildings: The average compressive strength of the hollow
and solid masonry units is not less than … MPa and …. MPa?
a) 2,0 and 5,0
b) 3, 0 and 4,0
c) 6,0 and 7,0
d) 7,0 and 10,0

44) In rules set out for the lower storey in double storey buildings: The average compressive
strength of the hollow and solid masonry units is not less than ... Mpa and… Mpa?
a) 2,0 and 5,0
b) 3,0 and 7,0
c) 6,0 and 7,0
d) 7,0 and 10,0

45) What is the average compressive strength for the solid masonry units for a double storey
construction?
a) 11Mpa
b) 15Mpa
c) 16Mpa
d) 10Mpa

46) What is the minimum difference in ground levels (h) for 110 -110 cavity retaining wall?
a) 600mm
b) 700mm
c) 1000mm
d) 1200mm
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47) What is the maximum height of a masonry foundation wall where the fill is retained behind a
220mm nominal wall thickness?
a) 0,4 M
b) 0,7 M
c) 0,9 M
d) 1,8 M

48) What is the maximum height of masonry foundation wall where the fill is retained behind the
22mm wide collar jointed wall?
a) 1200mm
b) 700mm
c) 500mm
d) 800mm

49) What is the minimum height of balustrade and parapet walls to a flat roof top with
no restriction of access?
a) 1 500mm
b) 500mm
c) 150mm
d) 1 000mm

50) In burnt clay masonry units, control joints shall generally be provided at minimum intervals of?
a) 4mm wide
b) 6mm wide
c) 10mm wide
d) 12mm wide

51) Where shall the vertical control joint be provided?

a) Where there is a storey height change in the height of the external walling
b) Where there is a storey height change in the height of the external walling and where setbacks
produce a return on a plan of less than 800mm
c) Be provided between 05mm and 15mm where walls are constructed using burnt clay masonry
units.
d) None of the above

52) What is the maximum distance between a backfill & a concrete slab?
a) 600mm
b) 700mm
c) 1000mm
d) 1300mm

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53) Which institution is responsible for the technical assessment & approval of innovative systems
& products where no national standards exist?
a) South African National Standards (formerly SABS)
b) CSIR
c) Agrement South Africa
d) NRCS

54) The minimum strength of concrete for reinforced concrete members & precast items such as
flagstones should be?
a) 15 Mpa
b) 25 Mpa
c) 30 Mpa
d) 35 Mpa

55) What is the expected grade/strength of infill concrete in an unreinforced cavity wall?
a) 5 MPa
b) 10 Mpa
c) 15 Mpa
d) 25 Mpa

56) In the cavity wall, what is the strength of concrete infill in the first course?
a) 5 MPa
b) 10 MPa
c) 15 MPa
d) 25 MPa

57) What is the expected grade/strength of infill concrete in a reinforced cavity wall?
a) 5 MPa
b) 10 Mpa
c) 15 Mpa
d) 25 Mpa
.

58) We can use cement bricks to lift the surface bed rebar/mesh as long as the bricks are cut
in half?
a) True
b) False
c) Makes no difference
d) False, the bricks have to be full length

59) Mortar shall be used within …. of mixing?

a) 1 Hour
b) 2 Hour
c) 3 Hour
d) 4 Hour
.

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60) Mortar in which initial set has occurred (i.e., thumbprint hard) shall be?
a) Used for infill concrete
b) Used under supervision of component person
c) Not be used
d) Used within two hours of mixing

61) Masonry walling shall not overhang concrete slab of raft foundations by more than
a) 10mm
b) 15mm
c) 20mm
d) 30mm

62) Which of the following bricks should be wetted before placed?

a) Concrete bricks
b) Sand lime bricks
c) Clay bricks
d) None of the above

63) Cement bricks and clay bricks can be mixed in masonry construction?
a) True
b) False
c) If wetted
d) None of the above

64) Masonry walls shall not be laid when the temperature is?
a) Less than 0 degrees Celsius
b) Less than 5 degrees Celsius
c) More than 15 degrees celsius
d) More than 25 degrees celsius

65) Masonry walls shall be laid at the ....... of strip footings/ strip foundation?
a) Outer side
b) Centre
c) Inner side
d) Anywhere on top
.

66) Masonry units may be laid on edge as a means by which the lower course of foundation
masonry may be brought up to level.
a) True
b) False
c) None of the above
d) All of the above

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67) What is the nominal minimum width of mortar, perpend & bedding joints?
a) 5mm
b) 50mm
c) 150mm
d) 200mm
.

68) What is the nominal maximum width of mortar, perpend & bedding joints?
a) 20mm
b) 50mm
c) 100mm
d) 200mm
.

69) All perpend and bed joints shall have a nominal thickness of?
a) 15mm
b) 10mm
c) 25mm
d) 6mm

70) What is the minimum thickness of the first bed joint above a supporting element
(Foundation, slab or lintel)?
a) 5mm
b) 10mm
c) 15mm
d) 35mm

71) The maximum thickness of the first bed joint must not be more than?
a) 35mm
b) 30mm
c) 60mm
d) None of the above

72) Toothing of masonry shall

a) be permitted only at corners.
b) Be permitted at window openings.
c) Not be permitted.
d) Be filled with mortar.

73) Toothing-in, of masonry is not permitted as a means of?

a) Bonding the wall of more than 12mm in length
b) Joining clay and concrete bricks together
c) Joining two intersecting walls together
d) None of the above

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74) Be filled with mortar in the cavity wall construction, the cavity shall not be less than?
a) 50mm
b) 110mm
c) 150mm
d) 200mm

75) In the cavity wall construction, the cavity shall not exceed?
a) 50mm
b) 110mm
c) 150mm
d) 200mm

76) In cavity wall construction, weep holes shall at least be required to be spaced horizontally with
a maximum spacing of?
a) 0,5 Meters
b) 1,0 Meters
c) 1,5 Meters
d) 2,0 Meters

77) When is damp proof course not required to be provided above all window & door openings
in cavity walls?
a) The house is built in dry part of the country (e.g., Musina, Upington etc.)
b) If the roof overhangs by more than 750mm
c) If the distance between the top of the window frame & the wall plate is less than 700mm
d) B & C
.

78) All horizontal damp proof courses shall protrude … from the external face of the wall?
a) 5mm
b) 10mm
c) 20mm
d) 40mm

79) What is the name given to a horizontal mortar joint in a masonry wall?
a) A perpend joint
b) A vertical chase
c) A control joint
d) A bedding joint
.

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80) What is the name given to a vertical mortar joint in a masonry wall?
a) A perpend joint
b) A vertical chase
c) A control joint
d) A bedding joint

81) Vertical chases in solid units shall not exceed………or leaf?

a) 1/4 of the thickness of the wall
b) 1/3 of the thickness of the wall
c) 1/2 of the thickness of the wall
d) None of the above

82) Horizontal chases in solid units shall not exceed…dig into the thickness of the wall?
a) 1/6
b) 1/5
c) 1/4
d) 1/3

83) Lugs for door/window frames shall extend approximately …. into the masonry wall?
.

a) 100mm
b) 250mm
c) 300mm
d) 450mm

84) The minimum bearing of concrete floors on load bearing walls are?
a) 90mm
b) 75mm
c) 50mm
d) 20mm
.

85) The minimum end bearing for concrete lintel/ masonry staircases shall be
a) Not less than 90mm
b) Not less than 220mm
c) Not less than 35mm
d) None of the above

86) The permissible deviation (PD) for perpend joint thickness in housing units is?
a) -5 + 20 mm
b) -10 + 15 mm
c) -5 + 15 mm
d) -5 + 10 mm

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87) What is the vertical spacing requirement of the tie in the cavity wall construction?
a) 250mm
b) 450mm
c) 600mm
d) 950mm

88) What is the horizontal spacing requirement of the tie in cavity wall construction?
a) 250mm
b) 450mm
c) 600mm
d) 950mm
.

89) External walls of buildings located in areas of prolonged heavy rain, wind driven rain
and or where condensation is high shall be of construction?
a) Single leaf
b) Double leaf
c) Cavity wall
d) Non - Plastered 90mm wall thick
.

90) What is the minimum slab thickness for a non - load bearing wall?
a) 150mm
b) 200mm
c) 250mm
d) 400mm
.

91) To consistently control & monitor the levelness of masonry construction you will make use of?
a) Dumpy level
b) Builder's square
c) Spirit level
d) Profile & gauge lines
.

92) Backfill material shall exclude stones and rock fragments of maximum dimensions larger than
a) 50mm
b) 100mm
c) 200mm
d) 150mm

93) Fill material shall not contain more than … of rock or hard fragments
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 50%

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94) Where a water pipe is to be laid underground horizontally next to a sewer or other
services, it should at least be …. away from the drain?
a) 300mm
b) 500mm
c) 1000mm
d) 1500mm
.

95) What is the minimum distance between drain pipes laid underground horizontally/parallel
to pipe conveying water intended for general household use?
a) No limit
b) 500mm
c) 600mm
d) 1500mm
.

96) What should the minimum clearance be when a drinking water pipe crosses a sewer line?
a) 100mm
b) 500mm
c) 600mm
d) 1000mm
.

97) Service trenches shall not be excavated parallel to buildings within how many meters?
a) 1,0 Meters
b) 1,5 Meters
c) 2,0 Meters
d) 2,5 meters
.

98) What is the minimum soil cover over the outside of the drain pipes?
a) 50mm
b) 100mm
c) 150mm
d) 300mm
.

99) Concrete anchor block shall be provided if the drain pipes

a) Are encased in concrete
b) Are made of cast iron
c) Are of UPVC plastic
d) Have a gradient exceeding 1 in 5
.

100) What should the minimum soil cover be when precast or cast in situ concrete is placed
over above the drain
a) 50mm
b) 100mm
c) 150mm
d) 300mm

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101) What is the maximum gradient for sloped trenches in strip foundations?
a) 1:10
b) 1:20
c) 1:40
d) 1;80
.

102) What is the minimum strength of concrete on an unreinforced foundation for a single
storey home?
a) 10 Mpa
b) 15 Mpa
c) 20 Mpa
d) 25 Mpa

103) The strength of the concrete should not be less than on the lower level of reinforced double
storey building?
a) 5 Mpa
b) 15 Mpa
c) 20 Mpa
d) 25 Mpa
.

104) Concrete shall be a minimum strength of …. MPa on unreinforced or reinforced slabs?

a) 5 Mpa
b) 10 Mpa
c) 15 Mpa
d) 30 Mpa
.

105) The compressive strength gained by concrete after 28 days with respect to any grade?
a) 80%
b) 99%
c) 100%
d) None of the above

106) Basic uncomplicated foundations should be constructed with concrete that has a
compressive strength of at least…. Mpa at 28 days in the ratio?
a) 5MPa, 1:2:2 Cement: Sand: Stone
b) 10MPa, 1:4:5 Cement: Sand: Stone
c) 15 MPa, 1:1:1 Cement: Sand: Stone
d) 25 MPa, 2:1:2 Cement: Sand: Stone
.

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107) What will help increase the strength of concrete?

a) Decrease the water/concrete ratio
b) Decrease the amount of void in concrete by upgrading the concrete
c) Cure the concrete well
d) All of the above
.

108) What does a slump test indicate about concrete properties on site?
.

a) Workability
b) Strength
c) Creep properties
d) Tensile

109) Generally, props are provided at …. centers and are left in place for a period of at least
…. days?
a) 1,2 m for 7 days
b) 2,0 m for 5 days
c) 1,5 m for 7 days
d) 1,0 m for 3 days
.

110) Lintels over garage openings shall be adequately supported for a period of not less than
a) 4 days
b) 7 days
c) 2 days
d) None of the above

111) After how many days can props/ lintels be removed on side walls, columns & vertical faces
of beams?
a) Between 2 to 4 days or as per engineer's discretion
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days

112) All reinforcements at the time of placing shall be free from?

a) Hardened mortar
b) Binding wires
c) Soft concrete
d) Rust, scale, oil

113) What are the elements that can adversely affect or reduce the bond with the infill concrete?
a) Hardened mortar
b) Binding wires
c) Soft concrete
d) Mud & oil

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114) Concrete curing methods include?

a) Plastic sheeting
b) Water curing
c) None of the above
d) All of the above
.

115) How can concrete be protected from losing moisture?

a) Damp sand, cover it with plastic and spray the surface with water
b) Damp sand, cover it with a cloth and spray the surface with water
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
.

116) All concrete shall be protected from moisture loss, by means of?
a) Ponding the exposed surface with water, covering with concrete with sand, or mat
b) Adding more cement
c) Adding screed immediately after casting
d) C and D

117) Bags of cement should be stacked to a height not exceeding …. bags?

a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 20

118) Cover to reinforcement shall not be less than …. mm for enclosed surfaces on a 20 class of
concrete?
a) 25mm
b) 50mm
c) 75mm
d) 100mm

119) What is the minimum cover of concrete over reinforcement … for moderate exposure
condition for class 20 concrete, measured from the outside of any bar or stirrup?
a) 25mm
b) 50mm
c) 30mm
d) 10mm

120) The concrete shall be of such workability that it can readily be readily compacted into the corners
of the formwork and around reinforcement without……?

a) The loss of steel reinforcement

b) Cracking of hardened concrete
c) Segregation of the materials or excessive bleeding of water at the surface
.
d) The need for curing for 3 days
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121) Mixing of materials for concrete shall be conducted by…?

a) The bricklayers
b) The experienced operator
c) The general laborer’s
d) The architect

122) What is the concrete mix proportion for use with a 13mm (class 32.5) stone for 10 Mpa?
a) 1 Bag cement (50kg), 2 wheelbarrow sand, 2 wheelbarrows stone, 80 L water
b) 1 Bag cement (50kg), 1,5 wheelbarrow sand, 1,5 wheel barrows of stone, 30 L water
c) 2 Bags cement (100 kg), 4.5 wheel barrow sand, 3 wheelbarrow stone, 66L water
d) 2 bag cement, 2 wheelbarrows of sand, 2 wheelbarrows of stone, 55L water

123) What is the concrete mix proportion for use with a 19mm stone for 25 Mpa?
a) 1 Bag cement (50kg), 2 wheelbarrow sand, 2 wheelbarrows stone, 80 L water
b) 1 Bag cement (50kg), 1,5 wheelbarrow sand, 1,5 wheel barrows of stone, 30 L water
c) 2 Bags cement (100 kg), 3 wheel barrow sand, 3 wheelbarrow stone, 55L wate
d) 2 bag cement, 2 wheelbarrows of sand, 2 wheelbarrows of stone, 55L water

124) Reinforcement splicing shall be at least

a) 300 mm
b) 500 mm
c) 600 mm
d) 1000 mm
.

125) Honey combing in concrete occurs because of the following

a) Congested reinforcement
b) Poor vibration
c) Poor placement
d) All of the above

126) Why is concrete compacted?

a) To eliminate bubble and void as well as to sustain a level surface
b) To make it harder
c) To soften it for mixing
d) All of the above

127) What quality of water is used for concrete mixing?

a) Drinking (potable) water
b) Gray water
c) Blackish water
d) River water

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128) A bag of common cement has a mass of 50 kg & a volume of approximately … when
packed under air pressure at the factory?
a) 33 litres
b) 66 litres
c) 99 litres
d) None of the above
.

129) Plaster mixed materials which are not applied to wall within two hours of mixing shall be?
a) Remixed with cement
b) Remixed with water
c) Discarded
d) All of the above
.

130) Cement plaster not applied within 2 hours on walls shall be?
a) Used after more water is added
b) Discarded
c) Used after more water and cement is added
d) None of the above
.

131) Reinforcing should be clean of …. before casting concrete?

a) Rust layers and oil paint
b) Water & Dirt
c) Moisture & Dirt
d) All of the above

132) Plaster can be applied to masonry and concrete not exceeding …. for masonry units
and in concrete surfaces?
a) 22mm & 16mm (SANS2001-EM1 Plastering: Page 8, Par [Link])
b) 10mm & 15mm
c) 15mm & 20mm
d) 25mm & 35mm

133) Which one of the following are common defects in plaster?

a) Grinning
b) Debonding
c) Lack of hardness caused by applying plaster too much sun and wind
d) All of the above

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134) When properly laid, it will provide a highly effective impermeable barrier against the ingree
of wind driven rain and dust. It should therefore provide on all tile and slated roofs,
irrespective of the slope and if ceilings are not installed. What is this construction material
called?
a) DPC (Damp Proof Course)
b) DPM (Damp Proof Material)
c) Under tile membrane
d) Fiber cement
.

135) What is the purpose of floor underlays in timber structures?

a) To serve as bracing for floor joists
b) To serve as noise dampener
c) To provide a vapor barrier to prevent moisture from coming in
d) All of the above
.

136) The under-floor membrane shall have a thickness of not less than …. mm?
a) 0,25mm
b) 0,50mm
c) 0,35mm
d) 10,0mm
.

137) The lapping of under floor membranes shall not be less than?
a) 100mm
b) 300mm
c) 200mm
d) 450mm
.

138) What’s the lapping lengths of underfloor membranes at joints?

a) Not less than 1000mm
b) Not less than 200mm
c) More than 150mm
d) There is no minimum lapping length

139) What is the minimum depth of floor board underlays placed to avoid moisture intake from the
surface ground?
a) 450mm
b) 550mm
c) 650mm
d) 850mm

140) What is a minimum lintel bearing for spans greater than or equal to 2,5m?
a) 50mm
b) 350mm
c) 220mm
d) 600mm
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141) Lintels supporting roof trusses with a span less than or equal to 1,5m shall have
a minimum bearing of
a) 150mm
b) 350mm
c) 100mm
d) 75mm
.

142) Lintels supporting roof trusses with a span between 1,5m & 2,5m shall have a
minimum bearing of?
a) 150mm
b) 250mm
c) 350mm
d) 75mm
.

143) What is the minimum Precast prestressed concrete lintels bearing for the span
between 1,5m and 2,5m?
a) 150mm
b) 350mm
c) 250mm
d) 450mm

144) What is the minimum Precast prestressed concrete lintels bearing for span greater
than or equal to 2,5m?
a) 150mm
b) 350mm
c) 250mm
d) 450mm

145) After what period can props be removed for lintels with a bearing span between 1,5 m to 2,5
m?
a) Between 2 to 4 days or as per engineer's discretion
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days
.

146) After what period can props be removed for beam soffits and arches with a span equal or
greater than 4,5m?
a) Between 2 to 4 days or as per engineer’s discretion
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days
.

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147) After what period can props be removed for beams spanning over 6m?
a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 21 days

148) For lintels supporting roof trusses with a span less than or equal to 1,5m, the lintels shall be
set in mortar and have a minimum bearing of mm?
a) 100mm
b) 150mm
c) 450mm
d) 350mm
.

149) Minimum height of underside lintel level for windows, doors etc. above finished floor level is
a) 2 100mm
b) 2 600mm
c) 2 400mm
d) 2 000mm
.

150) What is the minimum height of a window from roof to the upper top of the window?
a) 450mm
b) 600mm
c) 800mm
d) 1100mm
.

151) The external sills at windows should be

a) Level
b) Slopped towards
c) Slopped inwards
d) curved
.

152) Steel door frames and built-in window frame surrounds shall have a minimum thickness of
not less than ….?
a) 1,0mm
b) 2,5mm
c) 3,5mm
d) 4,5mm
.

153) What is the nominal height of a masonry above window openings where roof trusses
are supported?
a) 1000mm high
b) 300mm high
c) Not less than 400mm
d) Any height is acceptable

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154) What is the minimum area for the whole floor area of a habitable dwelling?
a) 15 m2
b) 30 m2
c) 45 m2
d) 60 m2
.

155) What is the minimum height of all habitable rooms in a house?

a) 1,8 M
b) 2,1 M
c) 2,4 M
d) 6,0 M
.

156) What is the minimum floor area for a habitable room other than a kitchen, scullery or laundry?
a) 1,8 M
b) 2,1 M
c) 2,4 M
d) 6,0 M
.

157) What is the minimum headroom at any point on any stairway?

a) 1200mm high
b) 1800mm high
c) 2100mm high
d) 2400mm high
.

158) What is the maximum height/rise of a stair case?

a) 100mm
b) 150mm
c) 200mm
d) 300mm
.

159) The minimum width of the stair treads shall be …. mm and with minimum of …. mm risers to
a maximum of …. risers?
a) 250, 170, 200mm
b) 150, 120, 150mm
c) 300, 400, 450mm
d) None of the above

160) What is the minimum headspace above a stair case measured vertically from the pitch line
to the ceiling?
a) 1,5 meters measure vertically from the pitch line
b) 2,1 M vertically from the pitch line
c) 2,5 meters measure vertically from the pitch line
d) 3,0 meters measure vertically from the pitch line
.

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161) What is the importance of a DPC?

a) To prevent mist & fog into the house?
b) To allow moisture penetration
c) To prevent rising dam through walls
d) All of the above
.

162) A strip of approved DPC sheeting 150mm wide should be placed length wise under the
ridge tiles, over lapping the top course of tiling on each side by 25mm. Lapped ends
must be supported underneath and the overlap should not be less than?
a) 75mm
b) 80mm
c) 85mm
d) 150mm
.

163) When is a damp-proof course used on a cavity wall that is prone to rainfall?
a) In higher moisture content conditions
b) In low moisture content
c) During the rainy season
d) All the time
.

164) What type of wall ties are used on a damp area?

a) Butterfly wall & fish tail wall ties
b) Remedial wall ties
c) Block wall ties
d) Stainless steel wall ties
.

165) What is the minimum wire diameter of butterfly type wall ties
a) 1,20 mm
b) 2,80 mm
c) 3,15 mm
d) 2,20 mm
.

166) What is the minimum lap length for 12mm diameter bar?
a) 560 mm
b) 660 mm
c) 700 mm
d) 800 mm

167) Wall ties used 30km from the coastline shall be?
a) Galvanized wire
b) Stainless steel of grade 816
c) Either of the above
d) None of the above
.

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168) Which method can be used to join walls at an intersection?

a) Galvanized steel & wires
b) Wall ties & mortar
c) Steel wires
d) All of the above
.

169) What does Y10 stand for?

a) 10mm diameter steel bar and is of mild steel.
b) 10mm diameter steel bar and is of high tensile
c) 10mm diameter steel bar and is of low yield steel
d) 10mm diameter steel bar and is of average yield steel
.

170) Rebars are available in different shapes and sizes. What type of rebar is depicted in the
below picture?

a) Mild rebar
b) Hot rolled high yield stress
c) Finned rebar
d) M type rebar
.

171) What is used to cover reinforced wires (rebar)/ wire mesh placed within concrete?
a) Silicon
b) Rubber
c) Mortar
d) Nothing
.

172) If an electrical conduit pipe is fitted through the DPM, what's used to fill the openings?
a) A PVC
b) A bituminous felt membrane
c) A polythene plastic
d) Self - adhesive tape
.

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173) What is the name given to a horizontal member attached to an unplaced

material perpendicular to a rafter in order to support the roof sheeting?
a) Purlin
b) A beam
c) A rafter
d) A joist
.

174) What is the name given to a vertical member attached to an unplaced material
perpendicular to a purlin in order to support the roof sheeting?
a) Purlin
b) A beam
c) A rafter
d) Joist

175) What is the minimum angle/slope/pitch of concrete/clay roof tiles?

a) 7 degrees
b) 27 degrees
c) 13 degrees
d) 17 degrees

176) What is the minimum fall toward the external gutter or roof edge for a flat roof?
a) 1 : 25
b) 1 : 80
c) 1 : 70
d) 1: 45

177) Where must the drips provided on concrete roofs be, and at what depth?
a) Inside roof trusses and at 15mm depth
b) At roof overhangs and 12mm depth
c) Option 1 & 2 are correct
d) None of the above
.

178) Where are drips inserted on concrete roofs?

a) On top of the under layment at all rakes, and below or on top of the underlayment at the
eaves
b) Underneath the underlayment at all rakes and above of the underlayment in eaves
c) Any of the above
d) None of the above

179) Who shall install a water proofing system on top of a flat roof?
a) Main Contractor’s supervisor
b) Architect
c) A competent person strictly in accordance with manufacturers instruction
d) NHBRC structural engineer, in accordance with architect’s instruction

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180) The specialist water proofing contractor shall provide a home builder with at least
… guarantee?
a) 6 Months
b) 12 Months
c) 3 years
d) 5 years

181) What are the minimum dimensions of a wall plate supporting the tie beam & rafters?
a) 38 x 114 x 76mm
b) 40 x 120 x 80mm
c) 60 x 100 x 100mm
d) 60 x 120 x 80 mm

182) Roof trusses shall be tied down to the supporting walls and columns by means of?
a) 4mm brick force
b) Galvanized steel straps or galvanized steel wires that is built into the wall
c) Roof wire drilled into the wall
d) Galvanized steel wires & drilled into the wall

183) In timber frame structures what is a stud?

a) Is the vertical elements in the wall frames
b) Is the bracing pieces installed in between studs
c) Is the timber element that is installed below the wall plate
d) None of the above

184) Purlins and rafter splices should not be put within … from gable ends?
a) 0,5 m
b) 1,0 m
c) 1,5 m
d) 2,0 m

185) What is the size of ceiling brandering to support gypsum plasterboard?

a) 45 x 45mm
b) 38 x 38mm
c) 48 x 48mm
d) 60 x 60mm
.

186) The minimum size of purlins supporting sheeting materials is?

a) 76 x 50mm
b) 70 x 70mm
c) 80 x 80mm
d) 50 x 50mm
.

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187) What is the minimum size of the temporary timber bracing for trusses?
a) 38mm x 38mm timber
b) 38mm x 114mm timber
c) 76mm x 38mm timber
d) 50mm x 76mm timber

188) The trusses, rafters and purlin beams shall be supported on wall plates of minimum …. Or
similar flat bearing surfaces which are levelled and positioned so as to ensure that the ends
of such members are vertically aligned
a) 38mm x 38mm
b) 38mm x 114mm
c) 38mm x 76mm
d) 50mm x 76mm

189) Wall plate shall have a minimum height of …. from floor slab?
a) 2 600mm
b) 2 100mm
c) 2 400mm
d) 2 700mm
.

190) What is the name given to a filling of brick between the roof timber situated from wall plate
to roof covering, that is used to prevent the entry of birds?
a) A beam filling
b) Engineering filling materials
c) Sand filling
d) None of the above
.

191) Wall plate level shall have a minimum height of …. from floor slab?
a) 2 600mm
b) 2 100mm
c) 2 400mm
d) 2 700mm
.

192) What is the top part of the timber framed structure called?
a) A ridge board or Apex
b) Rafter
c) Purlin
d) Joist

193) What is the maximum center distance of flashing gutters placed at alternate flutes?
a) 75mm
b) 150mm
c) 300mm
d) 600mm
.

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194) What's the minimum flashing for valley gutter?

.

a) 100mm
b) 300mm
c) 200mm
d) 410mm
.

195) Flashing shall be fixed with an end lap of not less than….mm?
a) 150
b) 120
c) 90
d) 60
.

196) Down pipes, if provided, shall discharge into concrete lined drainage channels, which
discharge the water at least 1,5M away from the building in dolomitic areas designated
as being D2 & D3?
a) True
b) Partially true
c) False
d) None of the above

197) What is the minimum anchor embedment for a heavy roof type on a solid unit?
a) 150mm
b) 300mm
c) 400mm
d) 600mm
.

198) What is the minimum anchor (Roof ties) embedment to masonry for heavy roofs?
a) 300mm
b) 150mm
c) 120mm
d) B and C
.

199) Why is it necessary to use graded timber in roof truss construction?

a) Because timber without an appropriate grade mark & certification is considered
nonstructural?
b) Graded timber is expensive
c) Graded timber is used by experienced builders/contractors
d) All of the above
.

200) Black cross (ungraded) timber may only be used in timber structure assembly as?
a) Purlins for sheeted roofs
b) Battens for tiled roofs
c) Battens for ceilings
d) None of the above
.

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201) What is the minimum depth of penetration for perspective treatment as required by
SANS timber and of practice?
a) Fully penetrated
b) 50mm
c) 20mm
d) 100mm

202) Confirm where the timber hazard classification of H3 for timber may be applied?
a) Internal applications only
b) Exterior above ground applications only
c) In ground contact applications
d) Fresh water and heavy wet soil applications
.

203) Class H4 – H6 it’s for timber hazard bio classification?

a) Hazard very high
b) Medium Hazard
c) Low Hazard
d) Not applicable to soil class

204) What is logging on timber frame structure?

a) Logging is the process of cutting, skidding and processing trees to produce timber and
pulp to supply the world's markets for construction & other products
b) It is the process of treating trees with insecticides to avoid termites from eating through
the woods
c) It is the process of drying trees for charcoal making
d) All of the above
.

205) Which material can be used as sheathing in timber frame structures?

a) OSB (Oriental Standard Board)
b) Hard Board (Engineered Timber)
c) Ply wood
d) All of the above
.

206) In single storey buildings of masonry construction: the span of roof trusses/ rafter
between supporting walls does not exceed …. M?
a) 15
b) 10
c) 9
d) 8
.

207) The thickness of galvanized roof sheeting shall not be less than?
a) 0,2mm
b) 2,0mm
c) 5,0mm
d) 0,5mm
.

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.

208) Who is responsible for all the structural drawings of a home?

a) A civil engineer
b) A competent person
c) An architecture
d) A geotechnical manager
.

209) Which of the following architectural design drawing paper size indicates the biggest paper
size?
a) A5
b) A4
c) A3
d) A0
.

210) Which one is the acceptable method of bracing a timber frame in terms of SABS 082?
a) Solid timber brace
b) Metal angle
c) Flat metal brace
d) All of the above
.

211) An enrolment certificate cannot be cancelled at what stage?

a) Before construction commence
b) During construction stage
c) After the occupation date
d) If strip foundations are used
.

212) Any person in the business of home building can register with the?
a) SABS
b) NHBRC
c) CIDB
d) SARS

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