1.

One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphical representation must indicate the ____
direction for proper orientation of the scene.
a. North
b. West
c. East
d. South
2. Information gathered upon initiative of the investigator from informants, vendors, taxicab
driver, GRO, and others.
a. Grapevine Sources
b. Cultivated Sources
c. Regular Sources
d. Cognitive interview
3. The truth of information
a. Reliability
b. Credibility
c. Pertinence
d. Accuracy
4. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable
course of action of foreign nations?
a. Combat intelligence
b. National intelligence
c. Police intelligence
d. Strategic intelligence
5. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to be photographed after its removal
from the crime scene?
a. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds
c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
d. All of the above
6. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
b. Evidence must be properly documented
c. Maintain its chain of custody
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
7. The term used for the object of surveillance is subject while the investigator conducting the
surveillance is:
a. Rabbit
b. Surveillant
c. decoy
d. Target
8. In counterintelligence, surveillance is categorized according to intensity and sensitivity. When
there is intermittent observation varying in occasions, then this surveillance is called:
a. Loose
b. open
c. Discreet
d. Close
9. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence
the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be
waived?
a. At the time of custodial investigation
b. During the actual questioning
 c. During the announcement that he is under arrest
d. At the moment that he is invited for questioning
10. Such articles and evidences which assists the investigator in locating the suspect.
a. Physical evidence
b. Material evidence
c. Associative evidence
d. Tracing evidence
11. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to preserve the specimen?
a. Formaldehyde
b. Saline solution
c. Alcohol
d. Distilled water
12. In determining whether a driver is under the influence of alcoholic drinks, what is that last test
to be conducted?
a. Balance Test
b. Symons test
c. Walk and turn test
d. Field Sobriety Test
13. A physical phenomenon relating to the manner in which vehicles impede each other's
progression as demand for limited road space approaches full capacity.
a. Heavy traffic
b. Traffic congestion
c. Bottleneck
d. Blocked-up traffic
14. What is best applied to a clumsy and nervous person, where the investigators choosing
propitious moments shout out a pertinent question and appears as though they themselves are
in rage?
a. Pretense
b. Bolt
c. Bluff
d. Jolt
15. What is the slang term used in referring a narrow portion of the roadway due to traffic
congestion or where "build up" usually occurs?
a. Congestion
b. Bottleneck
c. Traffic Jam
d. Gridlock
16. Marks left on the roadway by tires due to fast moving of vehicle on a curve road.
a. Scuff arks
b. Skid marks
c. Centrifugal marks
d. Debris
17. What is the Validity period of Ordinance Violations Receipt upon issuance?
a. 48 hours
b. 72 hours
c. 96 hours
d. 120 hours
18. The double solid white line:
a. Doesn’t allow lane changing
b. Allows lane changing
c. Allows overtaking
 d. Allows parking
19. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic law violator, what would not be his basis
for such action?
a. Detention is necessary to avoid continued violation
b. The offender would attend the hearing
c. The offense is serious
d. There is reasonable doubt that the person will not appear in the court
20. When sketching traffic accident, the point of reference on the road should be anything which
are fixed or permanent in nature, while for the motor vehicles involved, the point of reference
should be:
a. Corner of the edges of the vehicle
b. Corner of the rear and from bumper
c. Edge of the tire
d. Center of the axle (axis)
21. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.
a. Tetrahydrocannabinnol
b. Cocaine hydrochloride
c. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
d. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
22. The possession of equipment, instrument, apparatus and other paraphernalia fit or intended for
any of the purposes enumerated under R.A. 9165 shall be:
a. Probable cause that the possessor has smoked, consumed, administered to himself/herself,
injected, ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed to have violated
Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of dangerous drugs
b. Prima facie evidence that the possessor has smoked, consumed, administered to
himself/herself, injected, ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed to
have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of dangerous drugs
c. Conclusive evidence that the possessor has smoked, consumed, administered to
himself/herself, injected, ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed to
have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of dangerous drugs
d. Circumstantial evidence that the possessor has smoked, consumed, administered to
himself/herself, injected, ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed to
have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of dangerous drugs
23. What drug classification are solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances that
are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
a. Depressants
b. Tranquilizers
c. Energizers
d. Inhalants
24. The policy making body and strategy making body in the planning and formulation of policies
and program on drug prevention and control.
a. DDB
b. PPA
c. PNP-ANU
d. PDEA
25. Within how many hours that a confiscated dangerous drug be submitted to the PDEA forensic
laboratory for a qualitative and quantitative examination.
a. 72 hr
b. Anytime in 24 hr
c. 48 hr
d. Within 24 hr
26. What drug is known as the “the king of all drugs” for being the most abused drugs in the world
a. Cigarette
b. Solvent
c. Amphetamine
d. Alcohol
27. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try drug cases?
a. Heinous crime court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
b. Special court designated by SC
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Special court designated by SC among the existing RTC
28. This part of the world is considered as the principal source of all forms of cocaine
a. Southeast asia
b. South America
c. Middle east
d. Southwest asia
29. A degree of intoxication wherein the mind is confused, behaviour is irregular, and the
movement in uncontrolled. The speech is thick and coordinated. The behaviour is uncontrolled.
a. Slight inebriation
b. Moderate inebriation
c. Drunk
d. Coma
30. Source of Cocaine which is a hardy plant cultivated in Bolivia and first used by the Incas of Peru.
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
b. Papaver somniferum
c. Amphetamine
d. Erythroxylon coca
31. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct system which automatically closes to
restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
a. fire exit
b. damper
c. fire trap
d. fire alarm
32. Most arson cases are proved by__________________ evidence rather than that direct evidence.
a. Circumstantial
b. Documentary
c. Testimonial
d. Physical
33. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the total insurance carried on the building and/or
goals is more than ________ of the value of such building and/or goods at the time of the fire.
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 80%
d. 90%
34. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids.
a. Sulfides
b. Nitrates
c. Sulfur
d. Ammonia
35. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
a. simultaneous fire
b. thick reddish smoke
 c. faulty electric wiring
d. unexplained explosion
36. A strong oxidizing organic compound which releases oxygen readily. It causes fire when in
contact with combustible materials especially under conditions of high temperature.
a. Hypergolic fuel
b. Organic peroxide
c. Halon
d. Fulminate
37. The clearing of smoke and heated gases at the highest point of the roof is referred to as:
a. vertical ventilation
b. cross ventilation
c. forced ventilation
d. horizontal ventilation
38. What are the cross members between the beam and used in climbing the ladder called?
a. hanger
b. beams
c. rungs
d. braces
39. This is normal behaviour of fire in a building:
a. It moves vertically
b. It has circular movement
c. It moves horizontally
d. It has a circular movement while moving horizontally
40. What color of smoke is present when the materials burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay?
a. Black
b. White
c. Yellow
d. Blue
41. Types of hacker which strive to operate in the public’s best interest, rather than to create
turmoil. Many white hat hackers work doing penetration, hired to attempt to break into the
company’s networks to find and report on security vulnerabilities. The security firms then help
their customers mitigate security issues before criminal hackers can exploit them.
a. white hacker
b. blue hacker
c. black hacker
d. gray hacker
42. JOJO is hired by spa col . corporation as one of their IT expert. JOJO is tasked to fix the system of
the corporation for better security .
a. black hacker
b. white hacker
c. gray hacker
d. blue hacker
43. A crime in which an imposter obtains key pieces of personally identifiable information, such as
Social Security or driver’s license numbers, in order to impersonate someone else.
a. extortion
b. identity theft
c. bank fraud
d. carding
44. It involves gaining access illegally to a computer system or network and in some cases making
unauthorized use of this access. Hacking is also the act by which other forms of cyber-crime
(e.g.,fraud, terrorism) are committed.
 a. cyber stalking
b. phishing
c. email bombing
d. unauthorized access
45. Series of numbers assigned by an internet service provider to an internet user when it connects
to the internet.
a. ISP
b. IP address
c. website
d. ICT
46. The criminal follows the victim by sending emails, and frequently entering the chat rooms that
causes an intentional, substantial and unreasonable intrusion into the private life of the person.
a. cracking
b. hacking
c. cyber stalking
d. worm
47. type of viruses that spread itself to other computers without needing to be transferred as part
of a host
a. computer virus
b. cyrus
c. worm
d. logic bomb
48. any physical harm done to the computer set
a. battery
b. computer vandalism
c. economic crime
d. criminal
49. JOWEL posted a libelous message against PUROY mayor of ISLA puting bato may be hel liable for
cybercrime. However, a netizen name MOSANG reacted to the libelous post on facebook by
clicking heart reaction may be held liable for the said act?
a. yes, because RA 10175 punishing or abetting cybercrime
b. yes. because his reaction is part of the original post
c. no, because RA 10175 does not punishing aiding or abetting
d. no because there is another law punishing the said acT
50. if the commission of the cybersex involves lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual
activity of a child , the offender may be prosecuted for child pornography. How should the court
appreciate the use of the computer system in the said cyber-sex involving a child.
a. it shall be mitigate
b. it shall be used as qualifying circumstance in the offense
c. it shall be used as a justifying circumstance
d. it shall exempt the accused from the civil liability
51. These are reports that cover all the exact and exhaustive narration of facts. These reports are
classified as Initial or Advance, progress or Follow-up, and Final or Closing Reports.
a. Spot report
b. Basic report
c. Special report
d. Formal report
52. These are reports that are mostly related with ordinary, miscellaneous incidents, usually in letter
or memorandum form.
a. Spot report
b. Basic report
 c. Special report
d. Formal report
53. This is written by a police unit or office based from a directive or instruction from higher police
officers. This type of report follows the memorandum format of correspondence.
a. Spot report
b. Basic report
c. Special report
d. Formal report
54. This is a verbal or written report done within twenty-four hours after an important incident. This
report is written to inform an immediate chief or those in higher position of particular
occurrences in his command responsibility
a. Spot report
b. Basic report
c. Special report
d. Formal report
55. Using the notice on wanted person, this report is about those persons who are by the police.
a. Beat Inspection report
b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report
56. This is one of the widely practiced written forms of communication in a station. This is a routine
report because the duty beat supervisor submits this report daily.
a. Beat Inspection report
b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report
57. This is a report that documents all the events in arresting a suspect including personal
information, jail bookings, information about control and release of prisoners, and court
proceedings. This report is based on information received, ensuring probable cause for warrant/
warrantless arrest.
a. Beat Inspection report
b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
d. Crime report
58. This is the part indicating the summary of the result of the whole investigation process. The
summary should be supported by facts basing from the order of statement of allegations.
a. Matters investigated
b. Facts of the case
c. Discussion
d. Conclusion
59. This is a written narration of facts developed by the investigator in the course of the follow-up
investigation. This is a report on subsequent details which are very vital to the case but have not
been incorporated in the initial report.
a. Progress report
b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report
60. This is advance information on a new or fresh case an investigator; the data in this report is not
yet complete, but it is written and immediately submitted after the preliminary investigation of
the case.
a. Progress report
 b. Final report
c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report
61. A type o report that has written in a style that eliminates personal pronouns, carefully
structured, objective and organized
a. Formal report
b. Informal report
c. Proposal report
d. Progress report
62. Hank is writing a report about an incident that occurred in his area o responsibility and stated
the complete names of the involved parties without being vague as to their identities. He is
observing a requisite of being:
a. Brief
b. Specific
c. Timely
d. Impartial
63. Exact narration of facts that are discovered during criminal investigation and serves as record for
future reference.
a. Report
b. Police report
c. Investigative report
d. Situation report
64. Narration is effective in writing police report. Therefore,___ tone is preferred in writing police
report. It is an impersonal style of writing and doesn’t include the information about the writer.
a. Subjective
b. Narrative
c. Objective
d. Persuasive
65. It is report that maybe rendered after every successful police operation that leads to the arrest
of any member or some members of syndicated crime
a. After operation report
b. Final report
c. Accomplishment report
d. Investigation report
66. If the client reporting an incident to a desk officer is found to be illiterate what does the DO
NEEDS TO DO?
a. Fill out the form base on his instinct
b. Let a close relative fill out instead
c. Tell the client to call a person
d. Fill out the form on clients behalf
67. The type of police issuance deals with subject such explanations or classification of certain rules
or regulation which are to be complied with or executed by PNP personnel.
a. Special order
b. Order
c. Memorandum circular
d. Memorandum
68. Refers to issuance directed to particular office officials or employees concerning matters on
assignment, details transfer of personnel, for compliance by all concerned.
a. Special order
b. Orders
c. Memorandum circular
 d. Memorandum
69. Used when PNP is communication outside organization, such as with the Office of the President,
Department Secretaries, Governors etc.
a. Daily bulletin
b. Civilian letter
c. PNP-memorandum circular
d. Special order
70. This refers to any government agency or office that has the power to issue a specific official
document.
a. Addressee
b. Signatories
c. Issuing authority
d. Head of office
71. An act of one who has executed a deed, in going before some competent officer or court and
declaring it to be his act or deed
a. Jurat
b. Acknowledgement
c. Affidavit
d. Contract
72. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene
a. Verification of death
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
d. Cordon the crime scene
73. A type of lividity in which the blood is still in fluid form inside blood vessel, changes as position
of the body changes.
a. Hypostatic lividity
b. Diffusion lividity
c. Post mortem lividity
d. Post mortem rigidity
74. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of the dead body found in a burned structure,
this will be strong circumstantial evidence that the person
a. Was dead before the fire began
b. Was killed by someone else during the flame
c. Was alive before the fire
d. Died due to suffocation
75. It is a complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost all brain
functions of an organism. It is usually pronounced by a physician or other members of the
family.
a. Somatic death
b. Molecular death
c. Apparent death
d. Death
76. It is the state of temporary cessation of vital activities of the body or vital processes were
depressed to the minimum compatible with life. This condition is not actually death although
classified under the kinds of death, because the person or organism is still alive although it
seems that there are no signs of life.
a. Somatic death
b. Molecular death
c. Apparent death
d. Death
77. Is the stiffening of certain group of muscles occurring at the moment of death, usually
associated with violent death due to extreme nervous tension, or even fatigue.
a. Rigidity
b. Heat stiffening
c. Cold stiffening
d. Cadaveric spasm
78. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in court; it should be taken from ____.
a. General View
b. Close-up view
c. Mid-range
d. General to Specific
79. What kind of Sketch gives picture of the scene of the crime and its environs, including
neighboring buildings, roads, etc.?
a. Sketch of Locality
b. Sketch of Environs
c. Sketch of the Ground
d. Sketch in Details
80. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable
course of action of foreign nations?
a. Combat intelligence
b. National intelligence
c. Police intelligence
d. Strategic intelligence
81. What is evaluation of the intelligence report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which is “Fairly
Reliable and doubtfully true information?
a. D-4
b. C-4
c. C-5
d. D-5
82. What is the court process requiring a person to bring documents in his possession to the courts?
a. summon
b. subpoena ducestecum
c. subpoena testificandum
d. bill of particulars
83. What is the evaluation of an intelligence report which is “the information comes from a
completely reliable source and is probably true”?
a. B-2
b. A-2
c. A-3
d. A 1
84. PAT. JUNELLL evaluated the information gathered as “completely reliable, source probably
true”. What is the type of evaluation?
a. A-5
b. A-1
c. A-4
d. A-2
85. It refers to the combination of all analyzed data to form a logical picture or theory.
a. Integration
b. Evaluation
c. Deduction
d. Interpretation
86. Refers to the observations of person’s movements is generally refers to as?
a. Plant
b. Stakeout
c. None
d. Tailing or Shadowing
87. Phase of intelligence covering the activity devoted in destroying the effectiveness of hostile
foreign activities and the protection of information against espionage, subversion and sabotage.
a. Passive Intelligence
b. Counter Intelligence
c. Line Intelligence
d. Demographic Intelligence
88. Softening of tissues due to the action of autolytic and proteolytic enzymes in the absence of
bacteria. Frequently observed in the death of the fetus in the uterus.
a. Saponification
b. adipocere
c. Maceration
d. sugilation
89. Normally, how many hours until the stomach empty its contents?
a. 3-4
b. 4-5
c. 5-6
d. 6-8
90. A test for blood which determines whether blood is a human or non-human origin, and if non-
human, the specific animal family from which it originated.
a. Solubility test
b. takayama test
c. Teichman test
d. precipitin test
91. Test for blood in which positive result color blue (1:300,000 dilution) This is an extremely
sensitive test that can be applied to minute stain.
a. Gualacum test
b. Benzidine test
c. Phenolphtalein test
d. Wagenhaar
92. What is the form of abrasion where several lines of injuries which are parallel to one another?
a. Linear abrasion
b. confluent abrasion
c. Multilinear abrasion
d. multiple abrasion
93. Also known as gooseflesh, pale puckered and contracted skin due to contraction of erector pili
muscles.
a. Cutis anserina
b. champignon de ocume
c. Adipocere
d. washer woman’s hands
94. Rape is committed under any of the following circumstance, EXCEPT:
a. through the use of force, threat or intimidation
b. when the offended party is deprived of reasons or otherwise unconscious
c. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave abuse of authority
d. it is an exclusive offense committed by man to a woman
95. A person who died of a communicable disease must be buried with:
 a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health officer permits otherwise
b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officer permits extension
c. 24 hours after death, unless the health officer permits extension
d. 48 hours after death, unless the health officer permits extension
96. If, on the occasion or by reason of the robbery, somebody is killed, and there are also physical
injuries inflicted by reason or on the occasion of the robbery
a. Robbery with homicide and physical injury
b. Robbery with homicide and the physical injury shall be aggravating
c. Robbery with physical injury, homicide is separate crime
d. Only robbery, homicide and physical injury aggravate the crime.
97. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of
a. Interview
b. Surveillance
c. Investigation
d. Interrogation
98. It refers to establishing a good communication in order to proceed a cognitive interview.
a. case review
b. build rapport
c. simple question
d. avoid implied answers
99. These are witnesses who are prone to exaggerate, adding irrelevant or new matters to their
narration.
a. Deceitful Witness
b. Honest Witnesses
c. Timid Witnesses
d. Talkative Type
100. All but one are the Purposes/Objectives of Interrogation
a. To obtain valuable facts.
b. Eliminate the innocent.
c. To determine the veracity of the statement of the subject
d. Identify the guilty party; and
e. Obtain confession/admission