[Link] R = qs4. When s=8, R=16. When s=10, R is equal to a. 11 b. 14 c. 20 d. 21 Answer-d 2. If 272/3 81-1/2 = 3x, the value of x is a. -1 b. 0 c. 1 d.

. 2 Answer -b 3. 0.333 .... 0.444 .... is equal to a. 0.148148148 .... b. 0.777 .... c. 0.121212 .... d. 1.333 .... Answer-a 4. On converting the following base-2 numeral in base ten, 1101101, we get a. 96 b. 104 c. 108 d. 109 Answer-d 5. The number of prime factors of (6)10(7)17(55)27 a. 54 b. 64 c. 81 d. 91 Answer-d 6. A train crosses a pole in 15 seconds, while it crosses 100 meter long platform in 25 seconds. The length of the train is a. 125m b. 135 m c. 159 m d. 175 m Answer-c [Link] taps A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 15 minutes respectively. If both the taps are opened simultaneously and the tap A is closed after 3 minutes, then how much more time will it take to fill the tank by tap B? a. 7 min & 15 sec b. 7 min & 45 sec c. 8 min & 5 sec

d. 8 min & 15 sec Answer-d 8. The milk and water in two vessels A and B are in the ratio 4:3 and 2:3 respectively. In what ratio, the liquids be mixed in both the vessels so that the new liquid contains half milk and half water? a. 7:5 b. 1:2 c. 2:1 d. 6:5 Answer-a 9.A car covers a distance of 715 km at a constant speed. If the speed of the car would have been 10 km/hr more, then it would have taken 2 hours less to cover the same distance. What is the original speed of the car? a. 45 km/hr b. 50 km/hr c. 55 km/hr d. 65 km/hr Answer-c 10.A is 50% as efficient as B. C does half of the work done by A and B together. If C alone does the work in 40 days, then A, B and C together can do the work in 11. A person covered some distance in 12 hours. He covered half the distance by rail @ 75 km per hour and the rest by car @ 45 km/hr. The total distance covered by him was a. 450 km b. 675 km c. 337.5 km d. 1350 km Answer-b 12. A sum of Rs. 427 is to be divided among A, B and C in such a way that 3 times A's share, 4 times B's share and 7 times C's share are all equal. The share of C is a. Rs. 84 b. Rs. 147 c. Rs. 196 d. Rs. 240 Answer-a 13. A and B entered into a partnership investing Rs. 12000 and Rs. 9000 respectively. After 3 months C also joined them with a capital of Rs. 15000. The share of C in the half yearly profit of Rs. 9500 is a. Rs. 3500 b. Rs. 3000 c. Rs. 2500 d. Rs. 4000 Answer-c

14.A can do a piece of work in 12 days and B can do it in 18 days. They started the work together but A left 3 days before the completion of the work. The total number of days to complete the work is [Link] ratio of income of A and B is 5:4 and their expenditure is as 3:2. If at the end of the year, each saves Rs. 800, then the income of A is a. Rs. 1700 b. Rs. 1800 c. Rs. 2000 d. Rs. 2200 Answer-c 16.A and B can together finish a work in 30 days. They worked at it for 10 days together and then B left. The remaining work was done by A alone in 30 more days. B alone can finish the work in a. 48 days b. 60 days c. 75 days d. 90 days Answer-d [Link] ratio between the curved surface area and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder is 1:2. If the total surface is 616 sq. cm, the volume of the cylinder is a. 1848 cm3 b. 1232 cm3 c. 1078 cm3 d. 980 cm3 Answer-c 18.A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent in the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is a. 30 cm b. 60 cm c. 72 cm d. 108 cm Answer-b 19.A man walking at the rate of 6km per hour crosses a square field diagonally in 9 seconds. The area of the field isa. 125 sq. cm b. 112.5 sq. cm c. 110 sq. cm d. 1002 sq. m Answer-b 20.A rectangular carpet has an area of 240 sq. cm. If its diagonal and the longer side are together equal to five times the shorter side, the length of the carpet is a. 10 cm b. 24 cm c. 26 cm

d. 27.5 cm Answer-b [Link] ratio of 435 : 25 is same as a. 4 : 1 b. 2 :1 c. 7 : 5 d. 7 :10 Answer-a 22. A sphere and a cube have equal surface areas. The ratio of the volume of the sphere to that of the cube is a. : 6 b. : 6 c. : 3 d. 6 : Answer-d [Link] marked price of a table is Rs. 3000 and is available at successive discounts of 20% and 10% respectively. If there is an additional discount of 5% on cash payment, then what is the cash price of the table? a. Rs. 2400 b. Rs. 2160 c. Rs. 2100 d. Rs. 2052 Answer-d 24.A trader marks his goods 25% above the C.P. but discounts 15% on the marked price. His gain percent in the deal is25. A certain sum becomes Rs. 5290 in 2 years and Rs. 6083.50 in 3 years at C.I. The rate of interest per annum is a. 10% b. 12% c. 15% d. 16 % Answer-c 26.A person borrowed Rs. 500@ 3% per annum S.I and Rs. 600 @4% per annum on the agreement that the whole amount will be returned only when the total interest becomes Rs. 126. The number of years, after which the borrowed sum is to be returned, is a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 Answer-b 27.A sum of Rs. 12,000 doubles in 5 years at C.I. What will be the amount after 20 years? a. Rs. 1,20,000

b. Rs. 1,92,000 c. Rs. 1,24,000 d. Rs. 96,000 Answer-b 28. A person sold 320 mangoes for the C.P. of 400 mangoes. His gain percent is a. 10% b. 15% c. 12% d. 25% Answer-d [Link] selling each of the rwo radios for Rs. 5000, a person neither gained nor lost. If he had sold one radio at 25% gain, then at what percent loss did he sell the other radio? 30. A person bought some oranges @ Rs. 10 per dozen and bought the same amount of oranges @ Rs. 8 per dozen. He sold these oranges @ Rs. 11 per dozen and gained Rs. 120. The total number of oranges bought by him was a. 30 dozen b. 40 dozen c. 50 dozen d. 60 dozen Answer-d [Link] selling a certain commodity for Rs. 425, there is as much gain as loss on selling it for Rs. 355. The C.P. of the commodity is a. Rs. 370 b. Rs. 385 c. Rs. 390 d. Rs. 400 Answer-c 32.A sum of Rs. 800 amounts to Rs. 920 in three years at S.I. If the rate of interest is increased by 5% then the amount will increase to a. Rs. 950 b. Rs. 980 c. Rs. 1010 d. Rs. 1040 Answer-d [Link] the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number is a. 24 b. 36 c. 17 d. 72 Answer-d 34.A house owner wants to get his house painted. He is told that this would require 25 kg of

paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming that the paint is available in 2kg tins, the number of tins required for painting the house is a. 15 b. 12 c. 10 d. 20 Answer-a [Link] of food grains have risen by 10% and of other items of consumption by 15%. If the ratio of an employee's expenditure on food grains and other items is 2:5, by how much should his salary be increased so that he may maintain the same level of consumption as before, assuming that his present salary is Rs. 3500? a. Rs. 300 b. Rs. 350 c. Rs. 375 d. Rs. 475 Answer-d

1. a c c a b c a b c b c c 1. b a c c 2. b c c a 3. c b c a 4. c c b a 5. c a b c 2. b b c b c a b b a b c a 1. b c a b 2. a c b b 3. a b c b 4. c a b b 5. a d b c 3. x x y x x x x y x x x x y x 1. y x y y 2. y x x x 3. x y x x 4. x y y y 5. x x x y 4. a a c a b c a b c a a b 1. c a a b 2. a a c b 3. b a a c 4. b a c a 5. None of these 5. c c b c b a c c a c b a 1. b c a c 2. a b c c 3. c c b a

4. a c b c 5. None of these 6. A is Bs sister, C is Bs mother, D is Cs father and E is Ds mother. What is the relationship of A with E? 1. Daughter 2. Grand daughter 3. Grandson 4. Grandmother 5. Sister 7. If yesterdays tomorrow was Wednesday, then yesterdays day-after-tomorrow will be 1. Wednesday 2. Thursday 3. Friday 4. Saturday 5. Sunday 8. Which of the following groups of letters is different from the other groups of letters? 1. FETE 2. GAME 3. HUGE 4. LOVE 5. SMALL 9. Which of the following series is without any law/pattern? 1. FHKOT 2. CEHLP 3. IKNRW 4. LNQUZ 5. INTKR 10. In a row of the six members sitting, P is sitting to the left of Q but to the right of Y. R is sitting to the right of X but to the left of Q who is to the left of Z. The members sitting in the middle are 1. PR 2. RQ 3. XQ 4. PS 5. None of these 11. Select an item from those given in alternatives that has the same property as the one in question 697, 888, 945 1. 146 2. 934 3. 879 4. 555 5. 584 12. Find the missing term in the series BYAZ, ? , DWCX, EVDW 1. AXBY 2. CXBY 3. AZDW 4. CYBX 5. CDBY

13. Find the missing term in the series CEHLQ, FHKOT, ?, LNQUZ 1. GILPU 2. JLOSX 3. IKMQV 4. IKNRW 5. LKMST 14. A boat is going against the stream in a river and it first turns to exact right and then again a second time exactly to the right to its direction of motion. Assuming that the boat is propelled at constant velocity from the start, how will the speed be effected now? 1. Will increase or decrease 2. Will remain the same 3. Will increase 4. Will decrease 5. None of these 15. Select an item from those given as alternatives that has the same property as the one in question. 914, 703, 813 1. 611 2. 789 3. 870 4. 120 5. 154 Directions (Q 1623): Find out the next term in the given series: 16. 9, 12, 21, 48, ? 1. 69 2. 84 3. 102 4. 129 5. 125 17. 95, 115.5, 138, ? 1. 162.5 2. 163.5 3. 164.5 4. 167.5 5. 125.5 18. 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, ? 1. 21 2. 23 3. 25 4. 29 5. 24 19. 563, 647, 479, 815, ? 1. 143 2. 279 3. 386 4. 672 5. 786 20. 79, 68, 57, 46, ? 1. 17 2. 27

3. 35 4. 66 5. 65 21. 5, 1/5, 17, 1/17, 29, 1/29, ? 1. 34 2. 39 3. 41 4. 49 5. 40 22. 18, 27, 6, 9, 2, 3, ? 1. 1 2. 1/3 3. 2/3 4. 1/2 5. 1/4 23. 4, 2, 8, 4, 24, 12, 96, ? 1. 24 2. 36 3. 40 4. 48 5. 50 Directions (Q 2430): Which one is different from others? 24. Calf, Colt, Puppy, Cat, Cub 1. Calf 2. Colt 3. Puppy 4. Cat 5. Cub 25. Ox, Peacock, Lion, Hen, Tiger 1. Lion 2. Ox 3. Peacock 4. Hen 5. Tiger 26. Copper, Diamond, Silver, Gold, Platinum 1. Diamond 2. Gold 3. Silver 4. Copper 5. Platinum 27. Diet, Died, Tied, Tide, Fried 1. Tide 2. Diet 3. Tied 4. Died 5. Fried 28. 16, 22, 30, 45, 52, 66 1. 30 2. 45

3. 52 4. 66 5. 16 29. 8754, 9786, 7986, 3243, 1245 1. 8754 2. 9786 3. 7986 4. 3243 5. 1245 30. 1622, 2540, 3840, 5786, 5453 1. 5786 2. 3840 3. 2540 4. 1622 5. 5453

1. A passive threat to computer security is (1) Malicious Intent (2) Sabotage (3) Accident Errors (4) Espionage Agents (5) None of these 2. The Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) specification (1) is a notice, issued and verified by a certificate authority, that guarantees a user or Web site is legitimate (2) provides private-key encryption of all data that passes between a client and a server (3) allows users to choose an encryption scheme for the data that passes between a client and a server (4) uses a public-key encryption to secure credit-card transaction systems (5) None of these 3. allows wireless mobile devices to access the Internet and its services such as the Web and e-mail (1) TCP/IP (2) Ethernet (3)WAP (4) Token ring (5) None of these

4. 'DOS' floppy disk does not have (1) A Boot Record (2) A File Allocation Table (3) A Root Directory (4) Virtual Memory (5) BIOS 5. 'MICR' technology used for clearance of cheques by banks refers to (1) Magnetic Ink Character Recognition (2) Magnetic Intelligence Character Recognition (3) Magnetic Information Cable Recognition (4) Magnetic Insurance Cases Recognition (5) None of these 6. All the information collected during database development is stored in a (1) repository (2) data warehouse (3) RAD (4) CASE (5) None of these 7. [Link] is used by the data analyst to create the queries that access the database. (1) data extraction (2) end-user query tool (3) end-user presentation tool (4) data store (5) None of these 8. A (n).allows network users to share a single copy of software, which resides on the network server. (1) single-user license agreement (2) network site license (3) end-user license agreement (4) business software license (5) None of these 9. A polymorphic virus (1) modifies its program code each time it attaches itself to another program or file (2) is a malicious-logic program that copies itself repeatedly in memory or on a disk drive until no memory or disk space remains (3) a malicious-logic program that hides within or looks like a legitimate program (4) infects a program file, but still reports the size and creation date of the original,

uninfected program (5) None of these 10. Microwave transmission is used in environments where installing physical transmission media is (1) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable (2) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is unavailable (3) difficult or impossible and where line-of-sight transmission is available (4) easy or promising and where line-of-sight transmission is available (5) None of these 11. Which is NOT a good Web security strategy? (1) Restrict access to the Web server; keep a minimum number of ports open (2) Limit the users who can load software, edit or add files. (3) Add demo programs, so users can test system without accessing production data. (4) Remove unnecessary compilers and interpreters. (5) None of these 12. The altering of data so that it is not usable unless the changes are undone is (1) Biometrics (2) Compression (3) Encryption (4) Ergonomics (5) None of these 13. The word FIP stands for (1) File Translate Protocol (2) File Transit Protocol (3) File Typing Protocol (4) File Transfer Protocol (5) None of these 14. Voice mail (1) is the exchange of text messages and computer files transmitted via a communications network such as a local area network or the Internet (2) permits users to converse in real time with each other via the computer while connected to the Internet (3) functions much like an answering machine, allowing callers to leave a voice message for the called party (4) involves using video and computer technology to conduct a meeting between participants at geographically separate locations (5) None of these 15. A communication processor that connects dissimilar networks by providing the

translation from one set of protocol to another is (1) Bridge (2) Gateway (3) Router (4) Modem (5) All of these 16. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web? (1) VB Script (2) Java Script (3) CSS (4) Java (5) None of these 17. This.............tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and provides access to data. (1) Client (2) Applications/Web server (3) Enterprise server (4) DBA (5) None of these 18. RSA is (1) Symmetric Cryptosystem (2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem (3) Block Cypher (4) Digital Signature (5) None of these 19. A DVD-RAM is similar to aexcept it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB. (1) CD-R (2) floppy disk (3) CD-RW (4) hard disk (5) None of these 20. When you are selecting a mouse for a particular computer system, what is the most important consideration? (1) The type of drivers that come with the mouse (2) The length of the mouse cord (3) The type of connector the mouse is equipped with (4) The number of buttons the mouse has (5) None of these

21. How is power supplied to a low-power USB device? (1) Through a power cable (2) From an external power supply (3) Directly from the computer's power supply (4) Through the USB cable (5) None of these 22. All of the following are basic principles of net works,except (1) each computer must have a network card (2) there must be communications media connecting the network hardware devices (3) there must be at least one connecting device (4) each computer must have software that supports the movement of information (5) None of these 23. [Link] mining technique derives rules from real-world case examples. (1) Rule discover (2) Signal processing (3) Neural nets (4) Case-based reasoning (5) None of these 24. .are used to identify a user who returns to a Website. (1) Cookies (2) Plug-ins (3) Scripts (4) ASPs (5) None of these 25. Which one of the following objects is passed to a Java Bean when one of its properties is set via a JSP action? (1) Servlet Request (2) Http Servlet Request (3) Servlet Response (4) Http Servlet Response (5) None of these 26. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ translates and executes program at run time line by line 1) Compiler 2) Interpreter 3) Linker 4) Loader 5) None 27. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ is an OOP principle 1) Structured programming 2) Procedural programming 3) Inheritance 4) Linking 5) None

28. COBOL is widely used in _ _ _ _ _ _ _ applications 1) Commercial 2) Scientific 3) Space 4) Mathematical 5) None 29. RAM stands for 1) Random origin money 2) Random only memory 3) Read only memory 4) Random access memory 5) None 30. 1 Byte = ? 1) 8 bits 2) 4 bits 3) 2 bits 4) 9 bits 5) None 31. SMPS stands for 1) Switched mode power supply 2) Start mode power supply 3) Store mode power supply 4) Single mode power supply 5) None 32. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as 1) Modem 2) Multiplexer 3) Modulator 4) Demodulator 5) None 33. VDU is also called 1) Screen 2) Monitor 3) Both 1 & 2 4) printer 5) None 34. BIOS stands for 1) Basic Input Output system 2) Binary Input output system 3) Basic Input Off system 4) all the above 5) None 35. Father of C programming language 1) Dennis Ritchie 2) Prof Jhon Kemeny 3) Thomas Kurtz 4) Bill Gates 5) None 36. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has 1) 16 address lines 2) 16 Buses 3) 16 Data lines 4) 16 routes 5) None 37. Data going into the computer is called 1) Output 2) algorithm 3) Input 4) Calculations 5) flow chart 38. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network? 1) LAN 2) DSL 3) RAM 4) USB 5) CPU 39. Microsoft Office is 1) Shareware 2)Public domain software 3) Open-sourse software 4) A vertical market application 5) An application suite 40. How many options does a BINARY choice offer

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) it depends on the amount of memory on the computer 5) It depends on the speed of the computers processor 41. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called 1) Operating System 2) Computer 3) Office 4) Compiler 5) Interpreter 42. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can 1) run faster 2) go on line 3) share information and /or share peripheral equipment 4) E-mail 5) None 43. Information travels between components on the mother board through 1) Flash memory 2) CMOS 3) Bays 4) Buses 5) Peripherals 44. How are data organized in a spreadsheet? 1) Lines & spaces 2) Layers & Planes 3) Height & Width 4) Rows & Columns 5) None 45. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the 1) mouse 2) logo 3) hand 4) palm 5) cursor

ANSWERS : 1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (3) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (3) 36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (1) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (5)

1. BE' is related to 'GJ' in the same way as 'PS' is related to 1) UY 2) UX 3) UZ 4) VY 5) None of these Ans. 1 (2)

2. Among P, Q, R, S and T, each having scored different marks, R scored more marks than P and T. Q scored less marks than T. S did not score the highest marks. Who among them scored the highest? 1) P 2) T 3) R 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans. 2 (3) 3. Pointing to a girl, Nidhi said, 'She is the daughter of my grandmother's only child.' How is the girl related to Nidhi? 1) Sister 2) Self 3) Cousin sister 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.3 (4) 4. In a certain code MOAN is written as 5%3$ and NEWS is written as $1@8. How is SOME written in that code? 1) 8%o51 2) 85%8 3) 8@51 4) 8%31 5) None of these Ans.4 (1) 5. In a certain code language 'how many books' is written as 'sa da na' and 'many more days' is written as 'ka pa da'. How is 'books' written in that code language? 1) sa 2) na 3) sa or na 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.5 (3) 6. In a certain code MAJORITY is written as 'PKBNXSHQ'. How is SANCTION written in that code? 1) TBODMNHS

2) 3) 4) 5)

DOBTMNHS TBODSHNM DOBTOPJU None of these

Ans.6 (2) 7. The position of the first and the sixth digits in the number 5120397468 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the fourth digit from the right end after the rearrangement? 1) 1 2) 5 3) 7 4) 9 5) None of these Ans.7 (1) 8. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word OROANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans. 8 (3) 9. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ITRM using each letter only once in each word? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans. 9 (2) 10. The position of how many digits in the number 8247531 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number? 1) None 2) One 3) Two

4) Three 5) More than three Ans.10 (3) 11. In a row of twenty-five children facing North, W is fifth to the right of R, who is sixteenth from the right end of the row. What is W's position from the right end of the row? 1) Eleventh 2) Tenth 3) Twelfth 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.11 (1) Directions (Q. 12-14): Study the following, information carefully and answer the questions, which follow: Five plays A, B, C, D and E were organised in a week from Monday to Saturday with one play each day and no play was organised on one of these days. Play D was organised before Thursday but after Monday. Play E was organised on Saturday. Play C was not organised on the first day. Play B was organised on the next day on which play C was organised. Play A was organised on Tuesday. 12. On which day was play B organised? 1) Thursday 2) Friday 3) Wednesday 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.12 (2) 13. On which day was no play organised? 1) Monday 2) Wednesday 3) Thursday 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.13 (1) 14. Which play was organised on Wednesday? 1) A

2) 3) 4) 5)

C D Data inadequate None of these

Ans.14 (3) 15. If means '+'; 'x' means '-',; '+' means 'x and '-' means '', then 24 -46 x3+4 =? 1) 36 2) 24 3) 8 4) 4 5) None of these Ans.15 (5) 16. What should come next in the following number series? 98761234598712345987123498 1) 7 2) 1 3) 2 4) 5 5) None of these Ans.16 (2) 17. Each consonant in the word CORDIAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and the letters so obtained are rearranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following will be the second from the right end after the rearrangement? 1) Q 2) K 3) P 4) B 5) None of these Ans.17 (3) 18. Meena correctly remembers that her father's birthday is after eighteenth May but before twentysecond May. Her brother correctly remembers that their father's Birthday is before twenty-fourth May but after Twentieth May. On which date in May was definitely their father's birthday? 1) Twentieth

2) 3) 4) 5)

Nineteenth Eighteenth Cannot be determined None of these

Ans.18 (5) Directions (Q. 19-20): Study the following information and answer the questions given below: (i) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'. (ii) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'. (iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'. (iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'. 19. Which of the following means 'M is maternal uncle of T? 1) MK+T 2) M x K+T 3) M x K-T 4) M K - T 5) None of these Ans.19 (4) 20. Which of the following means 'H is paternal grandfather of T? 1) H +J+T 2) T x K + H 3) H +J x T 4) H - J + T 5) None of these Ans.20 (1) Directions (Q. 21-25): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below: 832 965 748 259 614 21. Which of the following is the third digit of the second lowest number? 1) 2 2) 5 3) 8 4) 9 5) 4 Ans. 21 (5)

22. Which .of the following is the sum of the first' and the second digits of the highest number? 1) 11 2) 15 3) 10 4) 7 5) None of these Ans.22 (2) 23. If the positions of the second and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the last digit of the lowest number? 1) 5 2) 1 3) 6 4) 4 5) 3 Ans.23 (1) 24. If the positions of the first and the second digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, which of the following will be the second digit of the second highest number? 1) 8 2) 6 3) 7 4) 5 5) None of these Ans.24 (5) 25. Which of the following is the difference between the first and the third digits of the third highest number? 1) 6 2) 4 3) 1 4) 7 5) None of these Ans.25 (3) Directions (Q. 26-31): In each of the questions below is given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and m. You have to take the given statements to

be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. 26. Statements:All stones are poles. All poles are desks. Some desks are nets. All nets are days. Conclusions: I. Some nets are stones. [Link] desks are stones. [Link] days are desks. 1) 2) 3) 4) 5) Only I and II follow Only I and III follow Only II and III follow All I, II and III follow None of these

Ans.26 (3) 27. Statements: Some months are weeks. Some weeks are years. All years are buses. All buses are trains. Conclusions: I. Some trains are weeks. II. Some buses are weeks. [Link] trains are months. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only II and III follow 3) Only I and III follow 4) All, I, II and III follow 5) None of these Ans.27 (1) 28. Statements: Some stations are rails. All rails are rivers. All rivers are papers. Some papers are cards. Conclusions: I. Some cards are stations. [Link] rivers are stations. III. Some cards are rivers. 1) Norte follows 2) Only I follows

3) Only II follows 4) Only III follows 5) Only II and III follow Ans.28 (3) 29. Statements: All windows are roofs. All roofs are glasses. Some glasses are plates. Some plates are carpets. Conclusions: I. Some plates are windows. II. Some glasses are windows. III. Some carpets are roofs. 1) None follows 2) Only I follows 3) Only II follows 4) Only III follows 5) Only I and II follow Ans.29 (3) 30. Statements: All trees are jungles. All jungles are houses. All houses are buildings. All buildings are villages. Conclusions: I. Some villages are houses. II. Some buildings are jungles. III. Some houses are trees. 1) Only I and II follow 2) Only II and III follow 3) Only I and III follow 4) All I, II and III follow 5) None of these Ans.30 (4) 31. Statements: Some books are calendars. No calendar is a paper. All papers are pencils. Some pencils are chairs. Conclusions: I. Some chairs are books. II. No chair is a book. III. Some pencils are calendars. 1) None follows

2) 3) 4) 5)

Only Only Only Only

either I or II follows either I or II and III follow III follows n follows

Ans.31 (2) Directions (Q. 32-37): Study the following arrangement and answer the questions given below: M5%PU2A$43ZEK 19QRI@D7F88WN6#VJ*Y 32. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth from the right end of the above arrangement? 1) N 2) $ 3)4 4) W 5) None of these Ans.32 (1) 33. Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the sixth to the left of W in the above arrangement? 1) U 2) D 3) E 4) 5) None of these Ans.33 (5) 34. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and immediately followed by a number? 1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three Ans.34 (3) 35. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately followed by a symbol but not immediately preceded by a number? 1) None

2) 3) 4) 5)

One Two Three More than three

Ans.35 (3) 36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? 1) P5A 2) 4AE 3) QIK 4) F8@ 5) VN* Ans.36 (5) 37. If all the symbols and the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the twelfth from the left end? 1) E 2) K 3) Z 4) D 5) None of these Ans.37 (5) Directions (Q. 38-43): In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by four combinations of letters numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following coding system and the conditions that follow and mark the number of that combination as your answer. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols, mark (5), ie 'None of these' , as your answer. Digit/Symbol : 5 @ 3 9 8 % 8 1 4 2 $ # 7 6 * Letter Code : P I MAE G F J H B D. N R QTU. Conditions: (i) If the first unit is a symbol and the last unit is an even digit both are to be coded as the code for the even digit. (ii) If the first unit is all even digit and the last unit is an odd digit their codes are to be interchanged. (iii) If the first unit is an odd digit and the last unit is a symbol both at e 1:0 be coded as the code for the symbol. (iv) If both the first and the last units are symbols both are to be coded as Z.

38. 9@374% 1) EIMQBF 2) FBQMIE 3) ZIMQBZ 4) FIMQBF 5) None of these Ans.38 (4) 39. 29$#1 1) HEANRD 2) DEANRH 3) DEANRD 4) HEANRH 5) None of these Ans.39 (1) 40. *479@ 1) UBQEIA 2) ZBQEIA 3) ZBQEIZ 4) ABQEIU 5) None of these Ans.40 (3) 41. % 286$3 1) FDGTNF 2) FDGTNM 3) FGDTNM 4) WGTNZ 5) None of these Ans.41 (2) 42. 54#*@6 1) PBURIT 2) PBRUIP 3) TBRUIP 4) TBRUIT 5) None of these Ans.42 (5)

43. $6394 1) NTMAEN 2) BTMAEB 3) ZTMAEB 4) NTMAEB 5) None of these Ans.43 (2) Directions (Q. 44-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre. F is second to the right of A and third to the left of C. B is second to the left of C and fourth to the right of H. D is second to the right of G 44. Who is to the immediate left of D? 1) H 2) C 3) G 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.44 (2) 45. Who is second to the right of E? 1) B 2) G 3) H 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.45 (1) 46. Who is third to the left of B? 1) E 2) H 3) F 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these Ans.46 (5) 47. What is the position of G with respect to A?

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)

Third to the left Third to the right Fifth to the left Fourth to the right Fifth to the right

Ans.47 (4) 48. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting in between the first and the second persons? 1) BGC 2) EFB 3) DAH 4) AEF 5) GCD Ans.48 (3) Directions (Q. 49-54): In the following questions, the symbols @, , $, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below: 'P $ Q' means 'P is not greater than Q'. 'P@Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q'. 'P # Q' means' P is not smaller than Q'. 'P Q' means 'P is neither greater than nor equal to Q'. 'P % Q' means 'P is neither smaller than nor greeter than Q'. Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 49. Statements: D # K K @ T, T $ M,. M '% .T Conclusions: I. J @ T II. J%T III. D@T 1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only either I or II is true 4) Only IV is true 5) Only either I or II and III are true Ans.49 (5) 50. Statements: R@N,ND, O$J, J#B Conclusions: I. R @ J II. J@N

III. B@D 1) None is true 2) Only I is true 3) Only II is true 4) Only III is true 5) Only I and III are true Ans.50 (3) 51. Statements: W B, B % V, V $ R, R@K Conclusions: I. K B II. R#B III.V@W 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) AII I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans.51 (3) 52. Statements: H $ M, M # T, T @ D, D R Conclusions: I. D M II. R@M III. H$T 1) None is true 2) Only I is true 3) Only II is true 4) Only III is true 5) Only I and II are true Ans.52 (2) 53. Statements: B % J, J @ K, K T, T $ F Conclusions: I. F @ K II. B@K III.B@F 1) Only I and II are true 2) Only I and III are true 3) Only II and III are true 4) All I, II and III are true 5) None of these Ans.53 (1)

54. Statements: F # B, B $ M, M @ K, J< e N Conclusions: I. N @ M II. F$M III. KB 1) Only I is true 2) Only II is true 3) Only III is true 4) Only II and III are true 5) None is true Ans.54 (5) Directions (55-60): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an. input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. Input : sale data 1823 for 95 then 38 Step I : data sale 1823 for 95 then 38 Step II : data 95 sale 18 23 for then 38 Step III : data 95 for sale 18 23 then 38 Step IV : data 95 for 38 sale 18 23 then Step V : data 95 for 38 sale 23 18 then Step VI : data 95 for 38 sale 23 then 18 and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement of the above input. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. 55. Input: year 39 stake47 house full 94 55 How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Five 2) Six 3) Four 4) Seven 5) None of these Ans.55 (2) 56. Step II of an input is: car 83 lost ever 324674 now How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement? 1) Three 2) Four

3) Five 4) Six 5) None of these Ans.56 (2) 57. Step III of an input is : and 79 code 27 18 new goal 34 Which of the following will definitely be the input? 1) code and 79 27 18 new goal 34 2) code 27 18 new goal 34 and 79 3) code 27 and 1879 new goal 34 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these Ans.57 (4) 58. Input: water full never 35 78 16 height 28 Which of the following steps will be the last? 1) VI 2) VII 3) VIII 4) IX 5) None of these Ans.58 (1) 59. Step II of an input is: high 69 store pay 36 43 15 there Which of the following will be step VI? 1) high 69 pay 43 store 36 there 15 2) high 69 pay 43 store 36 15 there 3) high 69 pay 36 43 store 15 there 4) There will be no such step 5) None of these Ans.59 (4) 60. Input: train more 2953 fast gear 3784 Which of the following steps will be the last but one? 1) IX 2) VIII 3) VII 4) VI 5) None of these

Ans.60 (5) Directions (Q. 61-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Following are the conditions for selecting Assistant General Manager-HR in an organisation. The candidate must (i) be at least 40 years and not more than 50 years old as on 01-05-2010. (ii) be postgraduate in Personnel Management /HR with at least 60 per cent marks. (iii) have post-qualification work experience of at least fifteen years out of which at least five years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation. (iv) have successfully implemented HR-System in his/ her organisation sometime during the past three years. (v) have secured at least 45 per cent marks in the selection process. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT at (A) (ii) above but has secured at least 50 per cent marks in postgraduation and at least 65 per cent marks in the selection process, the case is to be referred to Executive Director. (B) (iii) above but has at least twelve years' post qualification work experience out of which at least eight years as Senior Manager-HR in an organisation, the case is to be referred to Chairman. In each question below details of one candidate are given. You have to take one of the courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and subconditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01-0572010. Mark answer 1) if the candidate is to be selected. Mark answer 2) if the candidate is not to be selected. Mark answer 3) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision. Mark answer 4) if the case is to be referred to Executive Director. Mark answer 5) if the case is to be referred to Chairman. 61. Pranab Ghosh was born on 8th March 1968. He has been working for the past eighteen years in an organisation out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He had successfully implemented HR-System last year in his organisation. He has secured 50 per cent marks in the selection process. 62. Sheetal Jha has been working in an organisation for the past twenty years out of which ten years as Senior Manager-HR after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 70 per cent marks. She was born on 2nd December 1965. She has secured 45 percent marks in the selection process.

63. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963. He has secured 65 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past fifteen years in an organisation, out of which twelve years as Senior Manager HR, after completing his post graduation in HR with 55 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the last two years. 64. Shailesh Kumar has been working in an organisation for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He was born on 15th September 1968. He has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization two years back. 65. Navin Chopra was born on 12th June 1967. He has been working for the past sixteen years, out of which seven years as Senior Manager-HR after completing his post-graduation in Personnel Management with 75 per cent marks. He has secured 44 per cent marks in the selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation last year. 66. Meera Kulkarni has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which eight years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing her postgraduation in Personnel Management with 66 per cent marks. She has successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation during the last two years. She has secured 49 per cent marks in the selection process. She was born on 14th December 1971. 67. Akash Shastri was born on 12th April 1967. He has been. working for the past sixteen years, out of which six years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 58 per cent marks. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organization last year. He has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process. 68. Shekhar Jena has been working for the past fifteen years, out of which last seven years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation after completing his postgraduation in HR with 68 per cent marks. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th. 69. Sunetra Govil was born on 5th April 1964. She has been working for the past seventeen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, in an organisation. She has secured 48 per cent marks in the selection process. She has also secured 69 per cent marks in her post- graduation in Personnel Management. She successfully implemented HR-System in her organisation last year. 70. Mohit Saxena was born on 27th July 1963. He has been working for the past thirteen years, out of which nine years as Senior Manager-HR, after completing his post- graduation in HR with 67 per cent marks. He has secured 49 per cent marks in

the Selection process. He has successfully implemented HR-System in his organisation during the past three years. Answers :(Q.61-70) [Link]. Person (i) (ii)/(A) (iii)/(B) (iv) (V) Ans 61. Pranab 1 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. Prabir () 4 Shailesh () 5 Navin 2 Meera 2 Akash () 4 Shekhar 1

70. Mohit () 5

Directions (Q. 71-75): Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer 1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect. Mark answer 2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect. Mark answer 3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes. Mark answer 4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes. Mark answer 5) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause. 71. (A) The Govt has marginally increased the procurement price of wheat for the current crop. (B) The current wheat crop is expected to be twenty per cent more than the previous wheat crop. Ans.71 (1) 72. (A) The municipal authority demolished the tea stall located on the footpath on the busy road. (B) A large number of people have been taking their evening tea at the tea stall located on the footpath on the main road, blocking pedestrian movement. Ans.72 (2)

73. (A) Majority of the students left the local school as the school building was in a dilapidated condition. (B) The school authority decided to close down the school immediately and shift the remaining students to a make-shift school. Ans.73 (1) 74. (A) The braking system of the tourist bus carrying 40 passengers failed while negotiating a stiff climb on a hilly road. (B) The tourist bus fell into the gorge killing at least ten passengers and seriously injuring all the remaining. Ans.74 (1) 75. (A) The state govt has decided to boost English language education in all the schools from the next academic year. (B) The level of English language of the school students of the State is comparatively lower than that of the neighbouring states. Ans.75 (2)

Direction: Complete the following series with the alternatives provided in each question. 1. E P Y E J ? ? (a) U, V (b) B, M (c) W, X (d) J, M (e) None of these

2. b a _ b a _ _ b b a a a _ b b b _ _ a a (a) b a a b a b (b) b a b b a b (c) b b b a a a (d) b a b b a a (e) b a b a b a

Direction: Complete the following number series with the alternatives provided in each question. 3. 8, 1, 9, 10, 19, 29, ?, 27 (a) 38 (b) 48 (c) 40 (d) 52 (e) 32

4. 55, 54, 52, 49, ?, ? (a) 48, 46 (b) 45, 40 (c) 45, 39 (d) 45, 38 (e) 46, 35

Direction: Study the following alpha-numeric arrangement and answer the question given below. B84CRM9NPDKWFA2EJ7XUQHLTY6GS 5. Complete the following sequence with reference to the above arrangement. BRC, 8MR, 49M, ? (a) CNP (b) 4PN (c) 4N9 (d) None of these (e) 7XU

Direction: Answer the question with reference to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below. 2PJ@8$LB1V#Q6&GW 9KCD3=f5FR7AY4 6. How many symbol and number is there in the sequence which are either immediately preceded or followed by the letter from the first half of the English alphabet? (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 10 (e) 9

Direction: Answer the following one is similar in relation to their position right symbol/letter/number. Now, how many letters are there in the sequence which are immediately followed by a number and immediately preceded by a symbol? EKM3P5RTVZ9DIFQX46GHJ28W 7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regard to their position in the above sequence. Which is unlike the other four? (a) 3E (b) 73 (c) F9 (d) 4A (e) 4H

8. ACDE : OGHI : : ESTU : ? (a) ABCD (b) EPQU (c) XYZE (d) HKGO (e) PQAB

9. Coal is related to heat in the same ways as wax is related to (a) Honey (b) Bee (c) Light (d) Energy (e) Candle

10. Clay is to pottery, as gold is to (a) Women (b) Goldsmith (c) Ornaments (d) Metal (e) Diamond

Direction: Find the odd one among the following. 11. (a) H G F E (b) P O N M (c) D C B A (d) M S T U (e) None of these

Direction: Find the odd one out. 12. (a) 2397 (b) 3729 (c) 4578 (d) 9732 (e) 8327

Direction: Find the odd one out. 13. (a) Lung 14. (a) Maize (b) Kidney (b) Wheat (c) Liver (c) Rice (d) Eyes (d) Sugarcane (e) None of these (e) None of these

Direction: Study the codes given below and based on the same code, solve the question that follows.

15. If 135*604 = 43056 and 27*698 = 82976, then 32*864 = ? (a) 43682 (b) 43628 (c) 82643 (d) 82634 (e) 82682

Direction: Study the code given below for CIRULATED and based on the same coede, draw up codes for the following words. Word: Code: 16. HATED/HATEDLY CIRCULATED ektwncx

(a) icufemz

(b) jcxna

(c) jcvgfna

(d) icuxmz

(e) ijfezm

Direction: Given below are combinations of an operation and an operand. (A) means 3 (C) means - 3; (E) means 2; (G) means - 1; (B) means 3; (D) means + 3; (F) means 2; (H) means + 2;

Select the appropriate choice to replace the question mark in the equations. 17. 18 3 2 + 3 < 27 (?) (a) (D) followed by (A) (c) (D) followed by (G) (e) None of these Direction: In a certain code, the symbol for 0 (zero) is & and for 1 (one) is $. There is no other number than one. The numbers greater than 1 are to be written only by using the two symbols given above. The value of the symbols for 1 doubles itself every time it shifts one place to the left. Study the following example. 0 is written as &; 1 is written as #; 2 is written as #&; 3 is written as ##; and 4 is written as #&& and so on. 18. Which of the following numbers will be represented by ##&#? (a) 8 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 12 (e) None of these (b) (A) followed by (G) (d) (D) followed by (H)

Direction: In each question below, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each underlined letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. Find the code for the underlined letter. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently. 19. PRISM (a) r (b) o (c) h (d) q (e) i

20. A is the father of X. B is the mother of Y. The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of the following statements is definitely not true? (a) B is the wife of A (c) Y is the son of A (e) B is the mother of Z Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below. (i) There are six people in a family (A, B, C, D, E, F). (ii) C is the wife of B and the mother of F. (iii) F is the granddaughter of E. (iv) D is the grandmother of A and the mother of B. (b) B has one daughter (d) X is the sister of Z

(v) There are two married couples in the family. 21. Which of the following is true? (a) A is the sister of F (c) B has two daughters (e) F is father of A Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below. (i) A, B, C, D, E, and F are six members of a family (ii) One is a student, one housewife, one doctor, one teacher, one lawyer, and one engineer. (iii) There are two married couples in the family. (iv) B is a teacher and the mother of C. (v) D is the grandmother of C and is a housewife. (vi) F is a lawyer and is the father of A. (vii) C is the brother of A. E is the father of F and is a doctor. (viii) E is the father of F and is a doctor. 22. Which of the following statements is definitely true? (a) A is an engineer (c) D is the mother of the teacher (e) C is the father of the engineer Direction: Using the following information, answer the questions given below. (i) In a family of six (1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6), there are two married couples. (ii) 4 is the grandmother of 1 and the mother of 2. (iii) 3 is the wife of 2 and the mother of 6. (iv) 6 is the granddaughter of 5. 23. Which of the following is true? (a) 1 is the sister of 6 (c) 2 has two daughters (e) 3 is sister of 6 24. Vandana starts walking towards the east and, after covering a distance of 20 m, she turns left and runs for 15 m. She then turns to her right and moves 25 m. From here, she again turns right and walks for 15 m. How far is she from the starting point? (a) 40 m (b) 45 m (c) 50 m (d) 60 m (e) 20 m (b) 1 is the brother of 6 (d) 4 has two grandchildren (b) E is the father of the teacher (d) F is the father of the engineer (b) A is the brother of F (d) none of these

25. Rohit is as much younger to Neelu as he is older to Prince. If the sum of the ages of Neelu and Prince is 48 years, how old is Rohit?

(a) 20

(b) 24

(c) 28

(d) 32

(e) 22

Direction: There are 125 cubes of similar size arranged in the form of a bigger cube (5 cubes on each side, that is, 5*5*5). From one corner of the top layer of this cube, four smaller cubes (2*2*1) are removed. From the column on the opposite side, two cubes (1*1*2) are removed. From the third corner too, three cubes (1*1*3) are removed, and from the fourth column four cubes (1*1*4) are removed. All exposed faces of the block thus formed are coloured red. 26. A cube is painted green on all sides. It is then cut into 64 cubes of equal size. How many of these smaller cubes are painted on one side only? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 24 (e) 12

Direction: Answer the following questions based on the letter-number sequence given gelow. EKM3P57RTVZ9D1FQX46GHJ28W 27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between the seventh letter/number from the left end and the ninth letter/number from the right end of the above sequence? (a) D (c) 1 (e) None of these 28. If only the consonants in the word MEAT are changed in such a way that each of them becomes the next letter in the English alphabet and the remaining letters are kept unchanged, then how many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in a word? (a) None (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1 (e) None of these (b) 9 (d) there is no such letter/number

Direction: Answer the following questions based on the symbol-letter-number sequence given below. 2PJ@8$LB1V#Q6dGW9KCD3.D5FR7AY4 29. How many symbols and numbers are there in the sequence which are ei-there immediately preceded or immediately followed by the letter which is from the first half of the English alphabet? (a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9 (e) None of these

30. In the word CONTRACTUAL, the positions of the first and the eleventh letters and interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and tenth letters are interchanged and so on upto the positions of fifth and seventh letters are interchanged keeping the position of sixth letter unchanged. Which letter will be the third to the right of the sixth letter from the left end? (a) T (b) N (c) U (d) A (e) None of these

Direction: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both are statements and give answer (i) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (ii) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (iii) if the data either in statement I or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (iv) if the data in both the statement together is not sufficient to answer the question. Given answer (v) if the data in both statements I and II together and needed to answer the question. 31. Who among Satish, Vilas, Jayant and Naresh is the tallest? I. Satish is taller than Jayant who is not as tall as Vilas but is taller than Naresh. II. Vilas is not taller than Satish. (a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (e) (v)

Direction: In an office there are eight sections named I, II, III, IV, VI, VII, and VIII. No visitor is allowed to visit one section for more than an hour. If a visitor has to visit more than one section he has to come back to the security officer to get a fresh visitors pass by surrendering the earlier sections pass. Every hour the security officer generates seven passwords for all sections by choosing a set of seven words, which is used for Section I which is the reception-cum-visitors hall. Following is an illustration of the generation of seven passwords for each section: Section I : sri am cue way meat fro le II : le cue am way meat fro sri III : cue le way am meat sri cue IV : fro way le am meat sri cue V : way fro am le meat cue sri and so on till Section VIII. 32. A visitor wanted to visit Section VI but he was wrongly given the password for Section IV ear two it rye sit he wu. What would be his correct password for Section VI, if hourly password remains the same? (a) he rye ear it sit wu two (c) wu it two rye siot he ear (e) None of these 33. From a point, Rajneesh started walking towards east and walked 35 m. He then turned towards his right and walked 20m and he again turned right and walked 35 m. Finally he turned to his left and walked 20 m and he reached his destination. Now, how far is he from his starting point? (a) 50 m (b) 55 m (c) 20 m (d) 40 m (e) None of these (b) two ear rye it sit wu he (d) rye he it ear sit two wu

34. Manish remembers that his father had called him after the 16th but before the 21st of the month, while Suresh remembers that father had called after the 19th but before the 22nd. On which date had father called? (a) 10th (b) 17th (c) 20th (d) 19th (e) None of these

35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group? (a)Kanpur (b) Chennai (c) Dispur (d) Kolkata (e) Jaipur

36. A man walks 30 m towards south, then turning to his right, he walks 30 m. Then turning to his left, he walks 20 m. Again he turns to his left and walks 30 m. How far is he from his initial position? (a) 80 m (b) 60 m (c) 30 m (d) 20 m (e) None of these

Direction: Study the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) and answer the following question: (A) 1, 5, 9 means You better go. (B) 1, 6, 7 means Better come here. (C) 5, 6, 7 means You come here. (D) 1, 5, 6 means Better you here. (E) 3, 7, 9 means Come and go. 37. Which of the following group of minimum statements are necessary to find the code number for better? (a) A and B (b) D and E (c) C and D (d) B and E (e) None of these

38. Ram walks 10 m south from his house, turns left and walks 25, again turns left and walks 40 m, then turns right and walks 5 m to reach his school. In which direction is the school from his house? (a) South-west (b) North-east (c) East (d) North (e) South-east

Direction: Read the following and answer the questions given below it. In a certain code language: (i) 481 means Sky is blue; (ii) 246 means Sea is deep; and (iii) 698 means Sea looks blue. 39. What number is the code for looks? (a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 9 (e) 2

40. Shivanis mother was three times older than Shivani 5 years ago. After 5 years, she will be twice as old as Shivani. How old is Shivani today? (a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 15 years (d) 12 years (e) 18 years

41. A directional post is erected on a crossing. In an accident, it was turned in such a way that the arrow which was first showing east is now showing sough. A passerby went in a wrong direction thinking it is west. In which direction is he actually traveling now? (a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West (e) South-east

Direction: Select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship to each other as the words in the given pair. 42. Cells: Cytology (a) Worm: Ornithology (c) Disease: Anatomy (e) None of these Direction: In the following questions, three similar words have been given. Choose a suitable description for these words from the options provided. 43. Sandy rock, Lime rock, Coal (a) These are made of metamorphic rocks (b) These are chemical minerals (c) These are situated on the banks of rivers (d) These are made of sedimentary rocks (b) Insect: Entomology (d) Tissue: Physiognomy

(e) None of these Direction: Find the odd man out. 44. (a) Earth (b) Moon (c) Venus (d) Mars (e) Uranus

Direction: Find the missing number in each of the following question. 45. 0, 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, ? (a) 48 (b) 42 (c) 40 (d) 36 (e) 38

Direction: Choose the alternative which has the same relationship as the first two pairs. 46. Chromate : Chromium : : Ilmenite : ? (a) Lime (b) Cobalt (c) Manganese (d) Titanium (e) Alluminium

47. Rams age was square of a number last year and it will be cube of a number next year. How long must he wait before his age is again the cube of a number? (a) 39 years (b) 10 years (c) 38 years (d) 64 years (e) 32 years

48. Arrange the following in a meaningful order: Doctor, Fever, Medicine, Medical Shop (a) Medical Shop, Medicine, Fever, Doctor (b) Fever, Doctor, Medical Shop, Medicine (c) Doctor, Medical Shop, Medicine, Fever (d) Medicine, Doctor, Medical Shop, Fever (e) Medical Shop, Medicine, Doctor, Fever 49. TLRIA is related to Would in the same way as YBVLKA is related to (a) Matter (b) Before (c) Beyond (d)Normal (e) After

50. I am facing the North East-direction. I turn 90o clockwise, then 180o anticlockwise, and then another 90o in the same direction. Which direction am I facing now? (a) West (b) South (c) South-west (d) South-east (e) East

Answer of these Questions:-

1 D 11 D 21 D

2 D 12 C 22 D

3 B 13 C 23 A

4 B 14 D 24 B

5 C 15 B 25 B

6 C 16 B 26 D

7 E 17 D 27 D

8 B 18 C 28 E

9 C 19 A 29 C

10 C 20 C 30 C

31 E 41 A

32 A 42 B

33 D 43 D

34 C 44 B

35 A 45 A

36 E 46 D

37 A 47 C

38 B 48 B

39 D 49 C

40 C 50 C

IBPS Clerk Practice Paper / Sample Paper Subject: Mathematics 1. The difference between the place values of 7 in the numeral 574873 is (a) 69930 (b) 59930 (c) 96390 (d) 69305 (e) None of these

2. (387*387+114*114+2*387*114) = (?) (a) 250001 (b) 251001 (c) 260110 (d) 261001 (e) None of these

3. A trader has three types of oils: 400 litres and 465 litres, respectively. If he wants to fill them separately in tins of equal capacity, what is the least number so tins required? (a) 42 (b) 21 (c) 7 (d) 84 (e) None of these

4. The length and breadth of a room are 13m and 7.5m, respectively. The floor of the room is to be paved with square tiles of uniform size. Determine the length of the largest possible size of the tile. (a) 1.0 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 5.0 (e) 6.0

5. If the unit digit in the product (459*46*28?*484) is 2, the digit in place of ?is (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) None of these

6. Which one of the following numbers is not a square of any natural number? (a) 17956 (b) 18225 (c) 53361 (d) 63592 (e) None of these

7. A third of Vinods marks in mathematics exceeds a half of his marks in social studies by 30. If he got 240 marks in the two subjects together, how many marks did he get in social studies? (a) 40 (b) 60 (c) 80 (d) 90 (e) None of these

8. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till 1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this interval. After every period, 5 minutes are given free to the students. The exact duration of each period is (a) 42 minutes (b) 48 minutes (c) 51 minutes (d) 53 minutes (e) None of these

9. If (64)2-(36)2= 20z, the value of z is (a) 70 (b) 180 (c) 120 (d) 50 (e) None of these

10. What number should replace both the asterisks in (?/21*?/189) = 1? (a) 21 (b) 63 (c) 147 (d) 3969 (e) 4968

11. Which one of the following fractions is the smallest? (a) 13/16 (b) 15/19 (c) 17/21
th rd

(d) 7/8

(e) None of these

12. If the difference between the 4/5 part and 1/3 (a) 60 (b) 100 (c) 80

part of a number is 4 what is the number? (d) 120 (e) None of these

13. If x and y are +ive integers such that (3x+7y) is a multiple of 11, then which of the following will also be divisible by 11? (a0 4x+6y (b) x+y+4 (c) 9x+4y (d) 4x-9y (e) None of these

14. If x and y are the two digits of the number 653 xy such that this number is divisible by so, then x+y is equal to (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) None of these

15. What is the smallest number by which 3600 be divided to make it a perfect cube? (a) 9 (b) 50 (c) 300 (d) 450 (e) 500

16. What may be substracted from 39468 to make it perfect square? (a) 192 17. 1399*1399=? (a) 1687401 (b) 1901541 (c) 1943211 (d) 1957201 (e) None of these (b) 264 (dc) 246 (d) 280 (e) None of these

18. The product of two numbers is y/x. IF one of the numbers is x/y2, then the other one is (a) y3/x2 (b) y2/x3 (c) x2/y (d) x/y2 (e) x2/y2

19. Mukesh has twice as much money as Sohan and Sohan has 50% more money than what Pankaj has. If the average money with them is Rs 110, then Mukesh has (a) Rs 55 (b) Rs 60 (c) Rs 90 (d) Rs 180 (e) Rs 200

20. A cricketer has a certain average for 9 innings. In the tenth inning, he scores 100 runs, thereby increasing his average by 8 runs. His new average is (a) 20 runs (b) 24 runs (c) 28 runs (d) 32 runs (e) None of these

21. A number when divided by 296 gives a remainder 75. What will be the remainder when the same number is divided by 37? (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 6 (e) 8

22. What will be the sum of all odd numbers between 30 and 50? (a) 625 (b) 400 (c) 225 (d) 500 (e) 600

23. In an election between two candidates, a candidate who gets 40 percent of total votes is defeated by 15000 votes. The number of votes polled by the winning candidate is

(a) 6000

(b) 10000

(c) 22500

(d) 45000

(e) 10% increase

24. The population of a town increases by 15 percent annually. If its population was 8000 in 1995, what would it be in 1997? (a) 9200 (b) 10400 (c) 9600 (d) 10580 (e) None of these

25. What will be the sum of all the even numbers between 1 and 60? (a) 870 (b) 960 (c) 840 (d) 720 (e) None of these

26. Find the largest number of five digits which is divisible by 17. (a) 99999 (b) 99960 (c) 99994 (d) 10013 (e) 10014

27. A sum of money was divided between A, B and C, such that when A gets Re 1 then B gets 65 paise and C gets 40 paise. If Cs share be Rs 40 then what is that sum of money? (a) Rs 82 (b) Rs 126.15 (c) Rs 105 (d) Rs 205 (e) Rs 305

28. Marks obtained by Komal in English are equal to 1/3rd of marks obtained by her in Music. Total marks obtained by her in both the subjects is 160. How many marks did she secure in Music? (a) 120 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 90 (e) 100

29. How many numbers up to three digits are divisible by 19? (a) 48 (b) 47 (c) 25 (d) 52 (e) 54

30. What is the largest prime number by which 871 is exactly divisible? (a) 13 (b) 1 (c) 67 (d) 871 (e) None of these

31. Vivek purchased 120 tables at a price of Rs 110 per table. He sold 30 tables at a profit of Rs 12 per table and 75 tables at a profit of Rs 14 per table. The remaining tables were sold at a loss of Rs 7 per table. What is the average profit per table? (a) Rs 12.875 (b) Rs 10.04 (c) 10.875 (d) Rs 12.80 (e) Rs 13.80

32. A book dealer allows 16 per cent discount to a retailer and the retailer allows 10 per cent discount to a customer. These both discounts are given on the printed price of the book. If the customer pays Rs 270 for a book and the dealer makes a profit of 5 per cent what is the cost price of the book for the dealer? (a) Rs 252 (b) Rs 243 (c) Rs 240 (d) Rs 250 (e) Rs 350

33. The difference between the greatest and the least numbers of eight digits which begin with 8 and end with 6 is (a) 99999999 (b) 10000000 (c) 80000006 (d) 9999996 (e) None of these

34. If a*b=a2+b2 then 3*5 is equal to (a) 16 (b) 34 (c) 8 (d) 15 (e) 18

35. The Simple interest on a sum of money at 8 per cent per annum for 6 years is half the sum. The sum is (a) Rs 4800 (b) Rs 6000 (c) Rs 8000 (d) Rs 7000 (e) Data inadequate

36. How long will it take a sum of money invested at 5 per cent per annum simple interest to increase its value by 40 per cent? (a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) 7 years (d) 8 years (e) 10 years

37. A number, when successively divided by 3 and 5, leaves remainder of 2 and 1, when the same number is divided by 15, the remainder is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 10

38. The numbers 1, 3, 5, ., 25 are multiplied together. The numbers of zeros at the right end of the product is (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 8

39. What will be the compound interest on Rs 240 for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum? (a) Rs 19.20 (b) Rs 9.60 (c) Rs 19.18 (d) Rs 19.58 (e) Rs 20.58

40. Find the compound interest on Rs 15000 at 8 per cent per annum payable half-yearly for 1 year. (a) Rs 1500 (b) Rs 1432 (c) Rs 1200 (d) Rs 1224 (e) Rs 1324

41. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The number of days taken by A alone to finish the work, is (a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) 42 (e) 50

42. A and B can do a work in 10 days. B and C in 12 days while C and A in 15 days. How long would they take if all the three work together? (a) 5days (b) 4 days (c) 7 days (d) 8 days (e) 10 days

43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by B in (a) 18 min (b) 27 min (c) 38 min (d) 9 min (e) 10 min

44. In how many seconds a cyclist will pass a distance of 100 metres at the speed of 10 km/hr. (a) 25 sec (b) 36 sec (c) 40 sec (d) 42 sec (e) 50 sec

45. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of (a) 120o (b) 125o (c) 130o (d) 135o (e) 140o

46. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in a day? (a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 44 (d) 48 (e) 50

47. Today is Tuesday. After 62 days it will be (a) Wednesday (b) Monday (c) Thursday (d) Sunday (e) Tuesday

48. The day on March of 5 of a year is the same day on what date of the same year? (a) 5th August (b) 5th October (c) 5 November (d) 5 December (e) None of these

49. A garden is 70 m long and 30 m wide. It is surrounded by a footpath 5 m wide outside. What is the area of the path? (a) 2200 m2 (b) 1100 m2 (c) 550 m2 (d) 625 m2 (e) 700 m2

50. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is (a) 81 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 54 cm (d) 36 cm (e) 40 cm

Answer of these Questions:-

10

A 11 B 21 C 31 C 41 B

B 12 D 22 B 32 C 42 D

A 13 B 23 D 33 D 43 A

B 14 D 24 D 34 B 44 B

C 15 D 25 A 35 D 45 C

D 16 B 26 C 36 D 46 C

D 17 D 27 D 37 C 47 B

B 18 A 28 A 38 B 48 C

D 19 D 29 D 39 D 49 B

B 20 C 30 C 40 D 50 A

Bank Clerk Sample Paper / Practice Paper Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error, the answer is E (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any). 1. Hardly he reached/A) to his seat /B) than he /C) was called back by his boss/D). No error/E) 2. Baba Saheb Ambedakar rose/A) more highly than /B) his comtemporary political leaders/C) by sheer dint of merit/D). No error/E) 3. Politicians always are/A) indulged in/B) controversies/C) of sorts/D). No error/E) 4. Its only later/A) that shes been/B) well enough /C) to go out/D). No error/E) 5. She usually learns/A) language very quickly/B) but she did not seem/C) able to learn Sanskrit/D). No error/E) Directions (Q. 6 to 10): Each question below consists of a word printed in capital leters. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitalized letters. 6. FIASCO (a)empathy (c) Swindle (e) Petulance 7. ALTRUISM (a) Surrogate (c) Selfishness (e) Savagery 8. PERFUNCTORY (a) Prohibited (c) Thorough (e) Brazen (b) mean (d) petty (b) discord (d) anarchy (b) animosity (d) success

9. DEFINTE (a) Indirect (c) Separate (e) Perfect 10. PLACID (a) Depressed (c) Trifling (e) Ruffled Directions (Q. 11 to 15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is nay error in it. Each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The error, if any, will be is one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer, if there is no error, the answer is E. (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any). 11. He will be/A) released from/b) the/C) prison after/D) a week. No error/E) 12. Finally/A), the government has succeeded to bring/B) about/C) consensus over/D) economic reforms. No error/E) 13. She knew/A) that/B) what her mother was/C) saying is/D) correct. No error/E) 14. Prof. Narayanans/A) command/B) both of his subject and his language/C) is/D) perfect. No error/E) 15. There was/A) violent protests against/B) Religious places bill both in/C)Delhiand/D) inlucknow. No error/E) Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Read each of the following sentences, some part or all the sentence is underlined. Below each sentence is given five ways of phrasing. Select the answer from among the five options which produces the most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact. 16. When the Mughal empire was on the decline, among the casualties it claimed, was hundreds of Nawabs. (a) Among the casualties it claimed, was hundreds of Nawabs. (b) Among the casualties, it claimed, were hundreds of Nawabs. (c) Among the casualties it claimed, was the hundreds of Nawab. (d) Among the casualties it claimed, were the hundreds of Nawab. (e) Among the casualties it had claimed, was the hundreds of Nawabs. 17. Promod Mahajan is more vocal but not as competent as his senior party leaders. (a) Is more vocal but not as competent as (b) Is more vocal but not competent as (c) Is more vocal than not competent as (d) Is more vocal than but not as competent as (e) More vocal but least competent than 18. Khushwant Singh was never come out from his sex obsession, his new novel. In company of women is nothing than a fiction on cheap sex. (b) feign (d) swayed (b) vague (d) acute

(a) Is nothing than a fiction on cheap sex? (b) Has nothing than a fiction about cheap sex? (c) Is nothing of a fiction on cheap sex? (d) Is nothing but a fiction on cheap sex? (e) Is about noting than a fiction on cheap sex. 19. Whether Suzuki will make a bid to the government stake will have to be weighed. (a) A bid to the government stake will have to be weighed. (b) A bid for the government stake will have to be weighed. (c) A bid to the government stake will be weighed. (d) A bid for the government stake will have weighed. (e) A bid on the government stake will be weighed. 20. For some reason, womens contribution to science, technology and literature are considerably lower than man. (a) Are considerably lower than men. (b) Are considerably lower to men. (c) Is considerably lower than men. (d) Is considerably lower than that of men. (e) Are considerably lower to that of men. Directions (Q. 21 to 25): Each of the questions below has a phrase/clause underlined. From the given options choose the word that is similar in meaning to the underlined part. 21. Please leave the door slighty open. (a) Lewd (c) Astray (e) Chasm 22. The swindler used a series of false names. (a) Delinquencies (c) Masons (e) Alibi 23. Ill tempered bus conductor had brief noisy argument with a passenger. (a) Transgression (c) Anodyne (e) (An) altercation (b) burlesque (d) parachronism (b) aliases (d) mates (b) inclinatory (d) ajar

24. This situation is in every way different from the earlier situation. (a) Enviably (c) Specially (e) Banefully 25. Creation of rural character and atmosphere in drawing room is in vogue today. (a) Amalgamation (c) Ambience (e) Arrangement Directions (Q. 26 to 30): Arrange the following b, c, d and e sentences between (a) and (f) in a logical sequence in order to construct a logical coherent paragraph. 26. a. There is one but truly serious problem and that is suicide. (b) muddle (d) modesty (b) altogether (d) eternally.

b. Judging whether life is worth living or not amounts to answering the fundamental problem of our existence. c. As for me, I have come to believe that to die well requires greater moral stamina than to live well. d. Heroism consists in facing death with equanimity. e. Since in the beginning people have debated whether it is natural or perverse to escape from lifes difficulties. f. And this reflects the highest qualities of a well resolved life. (a) abcdef (c) adbcef (e) aebdcf 27. a, One such faith which seems well developed and has many oral texts that are beautiful is the faith of the tribals of Arunachal Pradesh. (b) acbdef (d) abecdf

b. Only the name is new. c. They have in them the magic that lends itself graciously to piety. d. Today the tribes have given it a name Donyipoloism. e. Their sacred texts called a abhangs are as old as the hills. f. It has served them well in the difficult conditions on the eastern Himalayas where the life is hard and cold. (a) abcdef (c) adbecf (e) abedcf 28. a. Blame it on the cow or on the sun. (b) acbdef (d) aebdcf

b. Australian scientists doing an inventory of green house gasses came up recently with methane emission. c. Belching and flatulence in cows and sheep produce an estimated 90 percent ofAustralias methane emission in agricultural sector.

d. To every ones astonishment they traced the source to Australias cattles which produce a six and half billion of methane annually, emitted largely through burps. e. Never before has a hot environmental issue like global warning generated 50 many studies that seem intent on placing onus for our heated planet on sources ranging from the cattle to the cosmos. f. Methane is said to be 25 percent more potent than carbon dioxide (CO2) in contributing to global warming. (a) abcdef (c) adbcef (e) acdebf 29. a. understandably, high profile business barons have begun lobbying for a change in SEBIs takeover code. (b) acbdef (d) aebdcf

b. This flies in the face of the logic. c. Promoters are not required to hold 100 percent equity in a company to control it. d. One of the suggestions is that raiders should be asked to make an open offer for 100 percent of the targets equity, not just 20 percent. e. Why should raiders be asked to do so? f. Besides, it would become prohibitively expensive for potential predators to dislodge managements, regardless of their performance, and be a body blow to shareholders democracy. (a) abcdef (c) acdebf (e) adecbf 30. a. The Indian hand-knoted carpet industry is a traditionally rural based cottage industry. (b) acbdef (d) adbcef

b. It is highly labour intensive and almost entirely export oriented. c. It is when the migration of skilled craftsomer from Persia and Afghanistan took place. d. The present dominant tradition of pile carpet goes back to 16th centery. e. The patronage extended by Mughal rulers enabled the craft to take its root and flourish in India. f. The newly revived carpet industy in India had to follow the traditional oriental style to compete in the market. (a) abcdef (c) abdecf (e) abdcef Directions (Q. 31 to 35): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words/ phrases. Choose a pair of words /phrases that fits into the blanks to give a meaningful sentence. 31. India was up for grabs and the only block was the English-who also-imperial ambitions. (a) Impeding; promoted (c) Stumbling; fostered (b) solid; encouraged (d) limping; nurtured (b) acbdef (d) adbcef

(e) Mature; having 32. Aof guides surrounded me, all offering their services to me around the temple. (a) Flock; tour (c) Bundle; guide (e) Huddle; follow 33. Much love and had gone into one of the most undignified diseases known to man. (a) Devotion; submerging (c) Sympathy; overpowering (b) care; enduring (d) discipline; defeating (b) gaggle; escort (d) multitude; chase

34. And it was Clive who was given the job of -the that was to become known as the black hole of Calcutta. (a) Avenging; tragedy (c) Placating; nawab (e) Managing; comedy 35. Then he my hand and kissed it repeatedly found it all immensely . (a) Held; quavering (c) Caught; inspiring (e) Swayed; annoying. Directions (Q. 36 to 40): Each of the sentences below has one or more blank spaces. Each blank indicating that a word has been omitted. Beneath each sentence five words or set of words are given. Which, when inserted in the sentence, best fit in the meaning of the sentence as a whole. 36. We admired the triumphant but we did not what we knew we could not -. (a) Visualize; attain (c) Estimate; examine (e) Follow; target 37. They are making the new ball a lot this morning. (a) Elevate (c) turn-away (e) Raise 38. One likes to have an -of books on their self. (a) Illustration (c) Outline (e) Abode 39. We turn again to him in the expectation that some thing profoundly will be said to us. (b) array (d) extension (b) transcend (d) swerve (b) envy; emulate (d) aggrandize; suppress (b) grabbed; embarrassing (d) gobbled; sophisticated (b) revenging; incidence (d) punishing; hooligans

(a) Agrarian (c) Belligerent (e) Palatable

(b) illuminating (d) pliable

40. The falling water plashed with a -sound as soft as a sleep. (a) Devilish (c) Murmurous (e) Mute Directions (Q. 41 to 50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. With the economy experiencing lower real growth than anticipated by some, higher inflation, incomplete adjustment to external (oil) price shocks and sluggish reforms, there is renewed pressure on the rupee. The RBI has often proclaimed that it is not interested in pegging the value of the rupee with respect to the dollar at any particular level but only in minimizing volatility. Thus, a policy of leaning against the wind: if rupee value moves too fast, various policy measures are unleashed. These range from talking to dealers, implicitly taxing locked in export earnings, intervening in the foreign exchange market and changing the bank rate. Surely, the current point blank refusal of the RBI alter the bank rate is part of the set of policies to soften the pressures on the rupee. At the same time, the sluggish growth of the economy has prompted calls for loosening monetary policy. It is important to understand the implications of this against the background of the chosen exchange rate regime and other instruments of policy, especially fiscal policy. The word over, being part of an internationally integrated financial system has made the variable-peg exchange rate regime difficult to practice, particularly for developing countries. Countries are moving either in the direction of an immutable fix (currency boards, dollarisation) or managed floating. The RBI appears to have moved decisively in the direction of managed float. However, its professed objective of minimizing volatility has often been understood as pegging, especially because the exchange value of the rupee against the dollar has a definite downward trend. A move toward either a variable peg or managed float vis-vis a dominant currency like the dollar in the context of highly integrated capital markets has serious implications for the conduct of monetary policy. These go beyond the simple dictums of the Mundell-Flemming model: with a fixed exchange rate you give up independent monetary policy whereas with a managed float, the efficacy of fiscal policy is compromised. With a managed float both the interest rate and the exchange rate become part of the monetary transmission mechanism. Thus, a pure interest rate shock (say a fall) will have complex effects. In addition to the standard income effect (a fall in the rate implies lower income from savings thus lowering current consumption) and substitution effect (a fall in the interest rate decreases the attractiveness of postponing consumption) there will be effects on asset prices and value of debt stocks of different term structures and associated risks. The inclusion of exchange rate in the transmission mechanism adds another layer of uncertainty. An expansionary monetary policy would lead to a weaker rupee. This would shift consumption away from imports (the substitution effect) and should have direct pass-through effects on the prices of exports, imports and substitutes for imports and exports. However, a weaker rupee would turn the terms of trade against us, which would reduce spending. Increase in the domestic resource cost of financing external debt repayments, consequent upon a weaker rupee, will have a wealth effect and also discourage spending. These effects would tend to reduce the expansionary impact of the postulated loose monetary policy. With complementary exchange and interest rate movements, interest rates will have to fall less to effect any desired level of monetary expansion. Consequently, domestic bond prices do not rise by enough in response to monetary expansion. If such bonds then become the basis for further (b) shallow (d) appreciative

domestic credit expansion then the expansionary expectations from monetary profligacy would have been belied. Also, the smaller fall in interest rates will not lower the cost of servicing the internal debt as much as expected and would not be able to stimulate private investment by as much. However, the lower value for the rupee would make domestic producers more competitive so that the trade deficit might narrow. As a consequence the foreign debt may not go up at least on this count. A fiscal policy that arrests the fall in the value of the rupee and permits sufficient drop in the interest rate would be the obvious antidote in this situation. A natural corollary would be that if monetary policy is directed primarily toward price stabilization, then fiscal policy should be used for correcting the external imbalance. But such a fiscal policy becomes difficult to pursue if exchange rate expectations are volatile. Volatile expectations are rational if exchange rates overshot equilibrium values in response to a monetary shock. In addition, financial markets (domestic and international) are subject to bubble like behaviour. Each such bubble would correspond to markets reacting to news that could not be justified as rational by subsequent events. Examples would include the recent overvaluation of technology stocks as well as the strength of the yen in early 1995. Such sharp changes in asset values would reverberate in currency markets. Even if interest rate movements offset the implied changes in currency values, there would be an effect on anticipated inflation (through prices of imports and exports) in an economy that is getting increasingly integrated with the world economy. This would again impact on the monetary transmission mechanism. For these reasons countries look for capital controls as a way to ease the pressure on monetary and fiscal policy when international capital markets are highly integrated. Thus, China, Malaysia, Russia and others have opted for some forms of capital controls. Chile experimented with a much-studied form of capital controls and India shelved its plans for capital account convertibility. However, the danger with capital controls is that they tend to become porous over time. Further, they may, like most controls, be misused. All these tend to make the choice of fixed exchange rate regime, which can be changed when needed (a variable peg), look attractive. 41. Exchange rate mechanism adopted by RBI for rupee is (a) Immutable fixed exchange rate. (b) Managed-floating exchange rate. (c) Free-floating exchange rate. (d) Any of the above, depending upon the prevailing over-all economic situation. (e) None of the above 42. What is related to Mundell-Flemming model? (a) A country has to give up its independent monetary policy in fixed exchange rate mechanism. (b) With a managed float exchange rate mechanism effectiveness of the fiscal policy is at stakes. (c) Managed float exchange rate mechanism is most appropriate (d) Both A and B (e) None of the above 43. What possible effect might depreciating rupee have on foreign debt? (a) Foreign debt is likely to increase. (b) Foreign debt is likely to remain unaffected

(c) Foreign debt is likely to decrease. (d) The foreign-trade deficit might increase (e) None of the above 44. Which of the following trend might be considered as not healthy for Indian economy? (a) A relatively stable rupee (b) A low interest rate. (c) A volatile rupee in foreign exchange market (d) A monetary policy directed towards domestic price stablilsation. (e) Only C and D 45. What is implied by leaning against the wind mentioned in the first paragraph? (a) That RBI is interested in maintaining a fixed price of rupee with respect to dollar. (b) That monetary policy is dependent upon fiscal policy (c) That RBI will intervene in currency market if slide in value of rupee is too fast (d) That Government of India (Gol) will only regulate policies to minimize untoward fluctuations in foreign currency market. (e) None of the above. 46. Which policy measures is not adopted by RBI to control the value of rupee in the currency exchange market? (a) Regulation of bank rate. (b) Fixation of value of rupee at a desired level with respect to dollar. (c) Taxing locked in export earnings. (d) By directly intervening in the foreign exchange market. (e) None of the above 47. If the bank rates are decreased substantially what effect it would have on rupee in foreign currency exchange market? (a) The value of rupee will appreciate. (b) The value of rupee will depreciate. (c) Indian rupee will remain unaffected. (d) Value of rupee depends upon multiple of other factors and its effects would be difficult to predict. (e) Only A and D 48. What is meant by bubble like behaviour? (a) Reverberations in currency market because of sharp changes in asset value. (b) Over valuation of technology stocks. (c) Irrational behavior of financial market leading to occasional boom-bust cycle.

(d) Unjustified strength of yen in mid 1990s. (e) All of the above 49. Why do some countries opt for some form of capital controls to regulate the value of their currency in foreign exchange? (a) To ease the pressure on monetary and fiscal policy in globalised capital market. (b) To control capital account convertibility of currency (c) To make capital control more porous. (d) Only A and C (e) All the above 50. What is the suggestion of the author regarding monetary transmission mechanism for India? (a) Rupee should be made fully convertible on capital account. (b) Fixed exchange rate regime is best suited for India (c) Indias managed float mechanism is best in present circumstance (d) Rupees value should be fixed to a basket of international currency. (e) All of the above Answer these Questions:-

1 C

4 A

7 C

10 E

B A

C D

C B

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 D B D C A B D D B D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 D B E B C D C D D E

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 C B E D B B D B B C

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 B D A C C B D C A C

Bank Clerk Sample Paper / Practice Paper Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part of the sentence. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error the answer is E. (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any). 1. A planning of the hospital/A) and its surroundings/B) is drawn on the hoarding/C) outside the hospital-site/D). No error/E)

2. He asked me/A) when and where/B) had I planned/C) to spend my holidays? / D) No error / E) 3. The NATO had miserably/A) failed in anticipating/B) the out come of /C) airstrikes on Yugoslavia/D). No error/E) 4. The fleeing refuges/A) are at risk to get/B) caught in/C) heavy cross fire/D). No error/E) 5. I have been/A) really/B) looking forward to/C) visit you again/D). No error/E) Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of word/phrases. Choose a pair of words/phrases that fits into the blanks to give a meaningful sentence. 6. Star TV makes a last ditch attempt to revive its even as the over all TV scenario remains in the (a) Capital; difficulty (c) Luck; lurch (e) Luck; store 7. In west Bengal, the public health system has away and -government hospitals are run by party sponsored unions. (a) Withered; imitating (c) Plucked; absurb (e) Burnished; dilapidated 8. The editor claims they have only removed mistakes that in while but other accuse them of changing meaning. (a) Blurred; imitating (c) Braced; writing (e) Crept; transcribing 9. A former chief minister, pariah by his party boss has a word of to supporters who might wish to dive with him, Dont. (a) Renounced; advice (c) Disowned; caution (e) Ceded; help 10. He was -with the -task of putting up a defence for Jeans, the country official submission for the Best Foreign Film Oscar. (a) Saddled; unenviable (c) Mustered; absurd (e) referred; uncanny Directions (Q. 10 to 15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. Each sentence has four underlined parts. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error, the answer is E (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any). 11. We all/A) had some/B) of the cakes/C), she probably ate most/D). No error/E) 12. The/A) fire doesnt/B) seem to be giving out/C) much/D) heat. No error/E) (b) burdened; impartial (d) pestered; unsuitable (b) rendered; advice (d) abjured; promise (b) bombarded; shooting (d) brooded; copying (b) plundered; robust (d) pondered; rapacious (b) chance; fraction (d) fortunes; doldrums

13. Nobody /A) but/B) she /C) could be so/D) selfish. No error/E) 14. My father is in/A) the /B) CBI team which/C) is investigating the/D) security scam. No error/E) 15. No sooner did/A) the news of his murder flash/B) when/C) the violence erupted/D). No error/E) Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Read each of the following sentences, some part or all the sentence is underlined. Below each sentence is given five ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the answer which produces most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact. 16. The government may soon have no alternative except to increase the prices of petroleum. (a) No alternative except to increase the prices of petroleum. (b) No alternative but to increase the prices of petroleum. (c) No alternative for the increase of the prices of petroleum. (d) No alternative for increasing the prices of petroleum. (e) No alternative other than to increase the prices of petroleum. 17. Even the choice of a Deputy CM may prove to be a problematic because it is likely to set about intense factionalism in the party. (a) Because it is likely to set about intense factionalism (b) Because it like to set forth intense factionalism. (c) That it is likely to set an intense factionalism. (d) Because it is likely to set off intense factionalism. (e) But it would like to set about an intense factionalism. 18. It was obviously Mr. Basus stature which enabled him to get out with this act of indiscipline for which a junior member would have had to pay a heavy price. (a) Which enabled him to get out with this act of indiscipline? (b) Which enabled him to get away with this act of indiscipline? (c) That allowed him to get away with this act of indiscipline. (d) That allowed him to get out with this act of indiscipline. (e) Which enabled him to get off with this act of indiscipline? 19. While Mahatma has suffered many martayrdoms at our hands when he was slain by Godse. (a) When he was slain by Godse. (c) Since he was slain by Godse. (e) Because he was slain by Godse. 20. Monarchy, democray and communism have all failed, so go the argument. (a) Have all failed, so go to the argument. (b) Have all failed, so goes to the argument. (b) Than he was slain by Godse. (d) When he had been slain by Godse.

(c) Are all failed so go the argument. (d) Has all been failed, so goes the argument?

(e) All have failed, so is the argument. Directions (Q. 21 to 25): Each of sentences below has one or more blank spaces. Each blank indicating that a word has been omitted. Beneath each sentence five words or set of words are given. Choose one word or set of words, which when inserted in the sentence best fits in the meaning of the sentence, as a whole. 21. We paced the pavement for a time in on friends and books. (a) Adventure (b) appraisement (c) discourse (d) exaggeration (e) collusion

22. She shook the money box so as to make it . (a) Hallow (b) surge (c) secure (d) rattle (e) corrupt

23. The only money box with virtue is a box out of which one can get money when one wants it. (a) Consonant (b) obsolete (c) dozy (d) whimsical (e) impious

24. There is a vast -of birds of the crow family. (a) Consignment (b) grime (c) dump (d) eddy (e) concourse

25. Exercise is a with many writers on health and longevity. (a) Contest (b) freak (c) fetish (d) terror (e) stupor

Directions (Q. 26 to 32): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. It has been a long hot summer and almost everyone seems to be having fun criticising the economic reforms. The congress party has taken leave of its lenses and wants to undo all the good work of its worthiest member, Manmohan Singh. The RSS continues to make noises against globalization. The left parties want to protect the labour aristocracy in the public sector against the interests of the labouring masses. Sharad Yadav has shamelessly given away free telephones to all telephone company employees. That leaves only the Prime Minister to fight for Indias future all alone, with only a handful of reformers to depend upon. The reforms are anti-poor this is the constant refrain of the critics. Talk of the poor, I am convinced, confuses the debate on reforms. In the short term, the reforms will have no impact on the poor. In the longer run, the reforms will pull up the poor into the middle class. In any society, the top 15 per cent of the people will do well and look after themselves. The bottom 15 per cent will fail and will need to be looked after. In between is the 70 per cent or the vast majority or the people, which in successful economies becomes the middle class. Our real tragedy in the last 50 years is not our poverty but that we did not create the middle class. Our socialist policies suppressed initiative, jobs, economic growth and middle class opportunities. Hence, our middle class was barely eight per cent of the population in 1980. After the economy started seriously growing from the 1980s, the middle class has tripled, according to the National Council of Applied Economic Research, and is now 18 per cent of a much larger population. Given the right incentive system, the middle class invariably pulls itself up through hard work, self-help and education in a competitive society and the task of the economic reforms is precisely to create such an incentive system. If the reforms are successful, they will succeed in making a majority of Indias population middle class within a generation. And then, it will also be easier to look after the poor when they are 15 per cent of the population rather then forty. Who have the reforms hurt so far? Scrapping licensing has only hurt the corrupt bureaucrat and businessman. It does not immediately affect the poor. Similarly, opening the economy to trade and investment has only hurt the inefficient Indian producer and his labour. Neither of them are the wretchedly poor. Reducing controls on the economy has only brought efficiency, removed monopolies, and liberated new entrepreneurs. It is true that the second

phase of reforms will cause job losses and pain. But these jobs belong to our pampered organized labour, primarily in inefficient public sector companies. This labour has amongst the lowest productivity in the world, is insensitive to consumers, and gives Indian industry a bad name. By no stretch of the imagination can we call it poor. Nor will cutting subsidies significantly hurt the poor. Experts are unanimously agreed that over 75 per cent of the subsidies do not reach the poor. Fertiliser and power subsidies are enjoyed by the rich and the middle class farmers the rural poor are mainly landless labour. Similarly, the food subsidy through the PDS does not reach the poor, especially in Bihar and UP. Food subsidy has largely been enjoyed by the urban middle class. Economists around the world have been arguing that subsidies are the worst way to help the poor because they distort the price mechanism for the whole economy and misallocate societys scarce resource. Instead of subsidies it is beter to give money to the poor (which, of course, has its own problems, for all Indians, including millionaires, will stand in a queue to be counted among the poor). The reforms, thus, do not hurt the poor. Unlike our past policies, the reforms focus on prosperity and not on poverty. They assume that the poor do not want handouts; they want viable jobs so that they can pull themselves up into the middle class. By making the economy efficient and productive the reforms will create jobs, growth, and the middle class. Our politicians need to understand this, and proclaim from the rooftops: The reforms are not anti-poor! Meanwhile, the experts in the academia, the NGOs, and the development institutions need to dig deeper into the explosive growth in our middle class to gauge the success of the reforms (and not be mesmerized by our controversial poverty figures). Finally, let us remember what Aristotle said: The most perfect political community is one in which the middle class is in control and outnumbers both of the other classes. 26. Since 50 years of independence, we failed to (a) Bring-up poor above poverty line. (b) Accelerate economic growth. (c) Create a middle class. (d) To bridge the gap between rich and poor. (e) None of the above 27. In any society, a middle class grows when (a) The policy of economic reform is successfully pursued. (b) Proper opportunities are provided. (c) Socialistic pattern of economy is withdrawn. (d) Fifteen percent well to do looks after the rest. (e) None of the above 28. According to author, the worst hits by reforms are (a) Middle class and new entrepreneurs. (b) Corrupt bureaucrats and businessmen and inefficient producers and labours. (c) The poor. (d) Only A & B

(e) Only B & C 29. According to author, subsidies should be scrapped because (a) Most of the fertilizer and power subsidies are enjoyed by rich and middle class farmers and the rural poor mainly constitute landless labour. (b) The food subsidies through PDS does not reach poor but enjoyed by urban middle class. (c) Subsidies are the worst way to help poor because they distort the price mechanism and misallocate the scarce resources of the state. (d) Only A & B (e) All the above 30. According to author, which one of the following is not true about reforms? (a) Reforms are not anti-poor but focused on prosperity, not on poverty. (b) It does not intend to help poor by hand outs but by providing better opportunity and viable jobs. (c) Reforms are successful only when it creates vast majority of population into middle class. (d) It does not let the 15 per cent of population to pull up into middle class. (e) It brings efficiency, removes monopoly and creates new entrepreneurs. 31. According to author, what should be the task of economic reforms? (a) To create job opportunities for unemployed. (b) To pull the people into middle class. (c) To create the right incentive system. (d) To create such a situation so that the benefits of reforms reach the poorest of the poor. (e) None of the above 32. According to the author, in India, the success of reforms can be gauged from the fact that (a) The Govt. has reduced the subsidies. (b) The Govt. has started the second phase of reforms. (c) Since 1980, the growth in our middle class has tripled from 8 to 18 percent. (d) A much larger population under poverty line has pulled themselves up. (e) None of the above Directions (Q. 33 to 37): Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitalized letters. 33. ALIGHT (a) Light 34. ADVERSITY (a) Adherent (b) occasion (c) fondness (d) ease (e) dimple (b) remain (c) prevail (d) reduce (e) mount

35. HUSBANDRY (a) Munificence (b) consort (c) riddle (d) convocation (e) rectitude

36. APPROPRIATE (a) Partial 37. METICULOUS (a) Bourgeois (b) foolish (c) gypsy (d) careless (e) antagonistic (b) unsuitable (c) convenient (d) conscious (e) horrible

Directions (Q. 38 to 42): Each sentence or phrase given below is followed by five words. Pick the word which is closest in meaning to the preceeding phrase or sentence. 38. Having a strong sharp taste and smell. (a) Gruesome (b) pungent (c) frivolous (d) opalescent (e) mortifying

39. An extremely large number (a) Impetus (b) inconceivable (c) urge (d) myraid (e) surmise

40. A painful experience which is difficult to endure. (a) Frustration (b) rage (c) ordeal (d) perturbation (e) idiosyncrasy

41. Love without sensual desire. (a) Triumph (b) Devine (c) platonic (d) debauches (e) facsimile

42. To mix at random, as playing cards. (a) puzzle (b) poach (c) synchronise (d) emulate (e) suffle

Directions (Q. 43 to 45): Arrange the sentences b, c, d, e to form a logical sequence between sentences (a) and (f). 43. a. Once the problem is diagnosed the prescription follows logically.

b. The solution must be to create a strong body of opinion among the constituents in favour of reforms. c. And as experience, has shown once political class has brought around to your side, the bureaucracy, ever willing to sway with the wind will following suit. d. In a democratic polity if this were to happen, the politicians would have to fall in line or face marginalization by electorate. e. The real task before PM, therefore, is to build a conseusus in favour of reforms not just among a handful of ministers, but among the people of India whom the reforms are meant to serve. more imperative. (a) abcdef 44. (b) abdcef (c) acbedf (d) aecbdf (e) acbdef f. It is admittedly a more demanding task than campaigning to ones own kind but it is more rewarding and

a. If the higher rate of inflation could have been explained by higher fuel costs alone, there might not have been much cause for worry.

b. In a dramatic reversal of past trend, prices of primary articles as well as manufactured articles have registered an increase during the week-in question. c. Agreed, it is the non food category within the primary group that has recorded the sharpest increase, but that is small comfort.

d. Unfortunately, however that is not the case. e. And while the rise in the prices of manufactured articles is quite nominal, it is difficult to be sanguine about the rise in primary article. f. Price rises here are bound to feed through to the rest of the economy and none of this bodies well for consumer or for the government either. (a) abcdef 45. (b) acbdef (c) abdcef (d) adbecf (e) aecdbf

a. With the passing of the information technology bell, India is now poised to become one of the first few nations to have such legislation.

b. a digital signature is equivalent to a physical signature and is unique to an individual. c. The IT bill seeks to give legal validity to digital signatures and certificates. d. Any digital document carrying this signature has signed it and it will now hold in a court of law. e. A digital signature not only authenticates a user but also ensures confidentiality and integrity of message. f. The backbone of this technology is crytography. (a) abcdef (b) acbedf (c) acbdef (d) aedbcf (e) adecbf

Directions (Q. 46 to 50): Four incomplete sentences are given below. They can be meaningfully completed by the words given below. You have to choose the word that fits maximum number of blank. 46. I. Father advised his daughter not to boy friend after 7.P.M

II. It is hard to your explanation for being late to work. III. Please the children with your stories and jokes. IV. It was hard for Mr. Sinha to the notion that he would retire next Monday. (a) Accept 47. (b) consider (c) entertain (d) receive (e) digest

I. He was so hungry that he everything served to him.

II. The plot in the novel was so interesting that I it in one siting. III. The forest fire every thing that came into its way. IV. She was by intense hatered to destroy him. (a) Exhumed 48. (b) devoured (c) ate (d) destroyed (e) consume

I. An interesting-of rural life is simplicity.

II. After the skirmish events began to take a more sinister III. The worst -of the holocaust was that millions of people were killed. IV. You should look at the problem from every (a) Feature 49. (b) turn (c) point of view (d) consideration (e) aspect

I. Three people were -on charges of murder.

II. Adequate preventive measures the spread of malaria. III. Delicate miniature sculpture on the temple wall our attention.

IV. Police -a thief stealing valuable from the house. (a) Caught 50. (b) arrested (c) stopped (d) checked (e) seized

I. They a virulent campaign against their political opponents.

II. New model of the car will be at the end of Independence Day. III. New air craft carrier is unlikely to be in next five years. IV. He has himself on a carrier in property dealing. (a) Instituted (b) started (c) initiated (d) launched (e) made available

Answer these Questions:-

1 A 11 C 21 C 31 C 41 C

2 C 12 C 22 D 32 C 42 E

3 B 13 C 23 A 33 E 43 B

4 B 14 A 24 E 34 D 44 D

5 D 15 C 25 C 35 A 45 C

6 D 16 B 26 C 36 B 46 C

7 A 17 D 27 A 37 D 47 B

8 E 18 B 28 B 38 B 48 E

9 B 19 C 29 E 39 D 49 B

10 A 20 b 30 D 40 C 50 D

51. in a class, except 18 all are above 50 years. 15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there (a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 36 (d) none of these. Ans. (d) 52. If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40 km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream ? (a) 13 km/hr (b) 26 km/hr (c) 34 km/hr (d) none of these Ans. A

53. Find the value of ( 0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.001 ) / ( 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.075 + 0.01) (a) 0.845 (b) 1.908 (c) 2.312 (d) 0.001 Ans. A 54. A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together ? (a) 3 days (b) 8/9 days (c) 4 days (d) can't say Ans. B 55. A car travels a certain distance taking 7 hrs in forward journey, during the return journey increased speed 12km/hr takes the times 5 [Link] is the distance travelled (a) 210 kms (b) 30 kms (c) 20 kms (c) none of these Ans. B 56. Instead of multiplying a number by 7, the number is divided by 7. What is the percentage of error obtained ? 57. Find (7x + 4y ) / (x-2y) if x/2y = 3/2 ? (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) data insufficient Ans. C 58. A man buys 12 lts of liquid which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is water. He then mixes it with 10 lts of another mixture with 30% of [Link] is the % of water in the new mixture? 59. If a man buys 1 lt of milk for Rs.12 and mixes it with 20% water and sells it for Rs.15, then what is the percentage of gain? 60. Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 mins and Pipe B can fill it in 28 [Link] 3/4th of the tank is filled by Pipe B alone and both are opened, how much time is required by both the pipes to fill the tank completely ? 61. If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now give 10% discount then what is the profit percentage. (a) 40% (b) 55% (c) 35% (d) 30% Ans. D

62. A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally? (a) 110 men (b) 130 men (c) 100 men (d) none of these Ans. A 63. In simple interest what sum amounts of Rs.1120/- in 4 years and Rs.1200/- in 5 years ? (a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 900 Ans. C 64. If a sum of money compound annually amounts of thrice itself in 3 years. In how many years will it become 9 times itself. (a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 Ans A 65. Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him. What is the length of faster train ? (a) 100m (b) 75m (c) 120m (d) 50m Ans B 66. How many mashes are there in 1 squrare meter of wire gauge if each mesh is 8mm long and 5mm wide ? (a) 2500 (b) 25000 (c) 250 (d) 250000 Ans B 67. x% of y is y% of ? (a) x/y (b) 2y (c) x (d) can't be determined Ans. C

68. The price of sugar increases by 20%, by what % should a housewife reduce the consumption of sugar so that expenditure on sugar can be same as before ? (a) 15% (b) 16.66% (c) 12% (d) 9% Ans B 69. A man spends half of his salary on household expenses, 1/4th for rent, 1/5th for travel expenses, the man deposits the rest in a bank. If his monthly deposits in the bank amount 50, what is his monthly salary ? (a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1500 (c) Rs.1000 (d) Rs. 900 Ans C 70. The population of a city increases @ 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of 4% of the population due to the influx of job seekers, find the % increase in population after 2 years ? 71. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3:2 Out of these 10% the boys and 25% of girls are scholarship holders. % of students who are not scholarship holders.? 72. 15 men take 21 days of 8 hrs. each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hrs. each would it take for 21 women if 3 women do as much work as 2 men? (a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 29 Ans. A 73. A cylinder is 6 cms in diameter and 6 cms in height. If spheres of the same size are made from the material obtained, what is the diameter of each sphere? (a) 5 cms (b) 2 cms (c) 3 cms (d) 4 cms Ans C 74. A rectangular plank (2)1/2 meters wide can be placed so that it is on either side of the diagonal of a square shown below.(Figure is not available)What is the area of the plank? Ans :7*(2)1/2 75. The difference b/w the compound interest payble half yearly and the simple interest on a certain sum lent out at 10% p.a for 1 year is Rs 25. What is the sum? (a) Rs. 15000 (b) Rs. 12000 (c) Rs. 10000 (d) none of these Ans C 76. What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a

perfect square ? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 Ans. C 77. A father is 30 years older than his son however he will be only thrice as old as the son after 5 years what is father's present age ? (a) 40 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 50 yrs (d) none of these Ans. A 78. An article sold at a profit of 20% if both the cost price and selling price would be Rs.20/- the profit would be 10% more. What is the cost price of that article? 29. If an item costs Rs.3 in '99 and Rs.203 in '[Link] is the % increase in price? (a) 200/3 % (b) 200/6 % (c) 100% (d) none of these Ans. A 80. 5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day. a job requires 3 men and 5 women to finish the job in 10 days how many woman are required to finish the job in 14 days. a) 10 b) 7 c) 6 d) 12 Ans 7 81. A simple interest amount of rs 5000 for six month is rs 200. what is the anual rate of interest? a) 10% b) 6% c) 8% d) 9% Ans 8% 82. In objective test a correct ans score 4 marks and on a wrong ans 2 marks are --. a student score 480 marks from 150 question. how many ans were correct? a) 120 b) 130 c) 110 d) 150 Ans130.

83. An artical sold at amount of 50% the net sale price is rs 425 .what is the list price of the artical? a) 500 b) 488 c) 480 d) 510 Ans 500 84. A man leaves office daily at 7pm A driver with car comes from his home to pick him from office and bring back home One day he gets free at 5:30 and instead of waiting for driver he starts walking towards home. In the way he meets the car and returns home on car He reaches home 20 minutes earlier than usual. In how much time does the man reach home usually?? Ans. 1hr 20min 85. A works thrice as much as B. If A takes 60 days less than B to do a work then find the number of days it would take to complete the work if both work together? Ans. 22?days 86. How many 1's are there in the binary form of 8*1024 + 3*64 + 3 Ans. 4 87. In a digital circuit which was to implement (A B) + (A)XOR(B), the designer implements (A B) (A)XOR(B) What is the probability of error in it ? 88. A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the game he loses Re 1. He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5. Find the number of ways in which this is possible? Ans. 16 89. If there are 1024*1280 pixels on a screen and each pixel can have around 16 million colors Find the memory required for this? Ans. 4MB 90. On a particular day A and B decide that they would either speak the truth or will lie. C asks A whether he is speaking truth or lying? He answers and B listens to what he said. C then asks B what A has said B says "A says that he is a liar" What is B speaking ? (a) Truth (b) Lie (c) Truth when A lies (d) Cannot be determined Ans. (b) 91. What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when time is 8:30 Ans. 75(approx) 92. A student is ranked 13th from right and 8th from left. How many students are there in totality ?

93. A man walks east and turns right and then from there to his left and then 45degrees to his [Link] which direction did he go Ans. North west 94. A student gets 70% in one subject, 80% in the other. To get an overall of 75% how much should get in third subject. 95. A man shows his friend a woman sitting in a park and says that she the daughter of my grandmother's only son. What is the relation between the two Ans. Daughter 96. How many squares with sides 1/2 inch long are needed to cover a rectangle that is 4 ft long and 6 ft wide (a) 24 (b) 96 (c) 3456 (d) 13824 (e) 14266 97. If a=2/3b , b=2/3c, and c=2/3d what part of d is b/ (a) 8/27 (b) 4/9 (c) 2/3 (d) 75% (e) 4/3 Ans. (b) 2598Successive discounts of 20% and 15% are equal to a single discount of (a) 30% (b) 32% (c) 34% (d) 35% (e) 36 Ans. (b) 99. The petrol tank of an automobile can hold g [Link] a liters was removed when the tank was full, what part of the full tank was removed? (a)g-a (b)g/a (c) a/g (d) (g-a)/a (e) (g-a)/g Ans. (c) 100. If x/y=4 and y is not '0' what % of x is 2x-y (a)150% (b)175% (c)200% (d)250%

Ans. (b) [Link] of the following is my secret word:AIM DUE MOD OAT [Link] the list in front of you, if I were to tell you any one of my secret word, then you would be able to tell me the number of vowels in my secret [Link] is my secret word? [Link] [Link] the following figure:A B C D E F G H I Each of the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 is: a)Represented by a different letter in the figure above. b)Positioned in the figure above so that each of A + B + C,C + D +E,E + F + G, and G + H + I is equal to 13. Which digit does E represent? Ans.E is 4 [Link] of Mr. Horton,his wife,their son,and Mr. Horton's mother is a doctor and another is a lawyer. a)If the doctor is younger than the lawyer, then the doctor and the lawyer are not blood relatives. b)If the doctor is a woman, then the doctor and the lawyer are blood relatives. c)If the lawyer is a man, then the doctor is a man. Whose occupation you know? [Link]. Horton:he is the doctor. [Link] the following figure: A D B G E C F Each of the seven digits from 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 is: a)Represented by a different letter in the figure above. b)Positioned in the figure above so that A*B*C,B*G*E, and D*E*F are equal. Which digit does G represent? Ans.G represents the digit 2. [Link]. and Mrs. Aye and Mr. and Mrs. Bee competed in a chess [Link] the three games played: a)In only the first game werethe two players married to each other. b)The men won two games and the women won one game. c)The Ayes won more games than the Bees. d)Anyone who lost game did not play the subsequent game. Who did not lose a game? [Link] did not lose a game.

[Link] piles of chips--pile I consists one chip, pile II consists of chips, and pile III consists of three chips--are to be used in game played by Anita and [Link] game requires: a)That each player in turn take only one chip or all chips from just one pile. b)That the player who has to take the last chip loses. c)That Anita now have her turn. From which pile should Anita draw in order to win? [Link] II [Link] Abdul, Binoy, and Chandini: a)Each member belongs to the Tee family whose members always tell the truth or to the El family whose members always lie. b)Abdul says ''Either I belong or Binoy belongs to a different family from the other two." Whose family do you name of? [Link]'s family--El. [Link] a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls A.y/(x + y) B.x/xy C.x/(x + y) D.y/xy Ans.C

[Link] is the maximum number of half-pint bottles of cream that can be filled with a 4-gallon can of cream(2 pt.=1 qt. and 4 qt.=1 gal) A.16 B.24 C.30 D.64 Ans.D

[Link] the operation,^ is defined by the equation x ^ y = 2x + y,what is the value of a in 2 ^ a = a ^ 3 A.0 B.1 C.-1 D.4 Ans.B

12.A coffee shop blends 2 kinds of coffee,putting in 2 parts of a 33p. a gm. grade to 1 part of a 24p. a [Link] the mixture is changed to 1 part of the 33p. a gm. to 2 parts of the less expensive grade,how much will the shop save in blending 100 gms. [Link].90 [Link].1.00 [Link].3.00 [Link].8.00 Ans.C

[Link] are 200 questions on a 3 hr [Link] these questions are 50 mathematics [Link] is suggested that twice as much time be spent on each maths problem as for each other [Link] many minutes should be spent on mathematics problems A.36 B.72 C.60 D.100 Ans.B

[Link] a group of 15,7 have studied Latin, 8 have studied Greek, and 3 have not studied [Link] many of these studied both Latin and Greek A.0 B.3 C.4 D.5 Ans.B

[Link] 13 = 13w/(1-w) ,then (2w)2 = A.1/4 B.1/2 C.1 D.2

Ans.C

16. If a and b are positive integers and (a-b)/3.5 = 4/7, then (A) b &lt; a (B) b &gt; a (C) b = a (D) b &gt;= a Ans. A

17. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average? A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 Ans. C

18. M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift/ A. D/(M-3) B. MD/3 C. M/(D-3) D. 3D/(M2-3M) Ans. D

19. A company contracts to paint 3 houses. [Link] can paint a house in 6 days while [Link] would take 8 days and [Link] 12 days. After 8 days [Link] goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take [Link] to complete the contract? A. 7 B. 8 C. 11 D. 12 Ans.C 20. 2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was? A. 30 B. 40 C.58 D. 60

Ans. B 21. If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ? A.-5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 Ans. D 22. There are 5 red shoes, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe Ans 5c1/ 9c1

23. What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned Ans: Rs 66/-

24. 1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to canteen. Ans: Cannot be determined.

25. The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100% Ans: 42.857%

26. There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the area of circle to square. Ans. 11/14 27. There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles . Ans: 3 hours. 28. If M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ? 29. If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ? 30. If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST . Ans: 1:2

31. The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling price ? Ans: Rs 13.86/32. There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the probability of getting red shoes Ans: 6c2/10c2 33. To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol. Ans : 15% 34. A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week. What is the total amount paid for that worker ? Ans : 57.50 35. If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest? (a) x (b) x2 (c) -x (d) 1/x Ans : (d) 36. If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey? Ans: 48kmph 37. A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay? Ans: 6% 38. An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it? Ans: 9 39. If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ? Ans : 9B 40. Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase? Ans : 300% 41. Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance? Ans : 315 feet. 42. Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take? Ans: 360 times 43. 20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution Ans: 36% 44City A's population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population? Ans: 130 years 45Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet?

Ans: 3/2 hours 46A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won't able to buy 3 paise stamps. Ans: 9 47There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls. 48Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3 (a) 22/62 (b) 15/46 (c) 2/3 (d) 1 Ans: (b) 49There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle? Ans: 1 : 2 50Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively. How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quntities of band c are equal a)70,15,15 b)50,25,25 c)60,20,20 d)40,30,30
Ans. (b)

* In A,B,C are having some marbles with each of them. A has giben B and C the same number of marbles they already have to each of them. then, B gave C and A the same no. of marbles they have, then C gave A and B the same no. of marbles they have. At the end A,B,and C have equal no. of marbles. (i) If x,y,z are the marbles initially with A,B,C respectively. then the no of marbles B have at the end (a) 2(x-y-z) (b) 4(x-y-z) etc.

(ii)If the total no. of marbles are 72, then the no. of marbles with A at the starting a. 20 b. 30 c. 32 * If a car starts from A towards B with some velocity due to some problem in the engine after travelling [Link] the car goes with 4/5 th of its actuval velocity the car reaches B 45min later to the actual time. If the car engine fails ofter travelling 45km, the car reaches the destination B 36min late to the actual time , what is the initial velocity of car and what is the distance between A and B in km ans) 20 & 130.

* In a certain company 20% of the men and 40% of the women attended the annual company [Link] 35% of all the emplo-yees are men .What % of all the employee went to the picnic? (Ans is 33%) * During a given week a programmer spend 1/4 of his time preparing charts,3/8 of his time for coding,rest of his time for debugging the [Link] he had 48 hrs during the week how many hours did he spend debugging the program. (Ans is 18hrs) * A 16 story building has 12000ft on each floor. Company A rents 7 floors and company B rents 4 floors. What is the number of square feet of unrented floor space? (Ans is 60000 sqft) * The average salary of three employee is [Link] [Link] one employee earns 115 and other earns 65 rupees. how much will third be earn? (Ans is 105Rs) * A company instaled 36 punching machines at the begining of the [Link] the spring they instaled 9 additional m/c's and then discontinued 18 in the [Link] many were still installed at the end of the year? (Ans is 9)check * A man owns 2/3 of a computer service buroue business and sells 3/4 of his share for $[Link] is the value of the business. (Ans is 150,000) * In A,B,C are having some marbles with each of them. A has giben B and C the same number of marbles they already have to each of them. then, B gave C and A the same no. of marbles they have, then C gave A and B the same no. of marbles they have. At the end A,B,and C have equal no. of marbles. (i) If x,y,z are the marbles initially with A,B,C [Link] the no of marbles B have at the end (a) 2(x-y-z) (b) 4(x-y-z) etc.

(ii)If the total no. of marbles are 72, then the no. of marbles with A at the starting a. 20 b. 30 c. 32

* In a computer tape library there are two racks with 40 tapes per [Link] a given day 30 tapes are in use . What fraction remains in the rack? (Ans is 5/8) * The dimensions of certain IBM m/c are 48"*30". If the size of the m/c is increased proportionally until the sum of its dimensions equals to 156".What will be the increase in the shortest side? (Ans is 30) * If a card punch operator can process 80 cards in half an hour How many cards can this process in 7hr30min? (Ans is 1200) * A computer printer produces 176400 lines in a given day. If the printer was in operation for 7hrs during the day how many lines did it print per minute? (Ans is 420) * From its total income a company spent $20000 for advertising half of the remainder on salaries and had $6000 [Link] was the total income? (Ans is $32000) * In 1978, a kg of paper was sold at Rs25/-. I f the paper rate increases at 1.5% more than inflation rate which is of 6.5% a year , then what wil be the cost of a kg of paper after 2 years? a)29.12 (b) 29.72 (c) 30.12 (d) 32.65 (e) none of these * In 1978, a kg of paper was sold at Rs25/-. I f the paper rate increases at 1.5% more than inflation rate which is of 6.5% a year , then what wil be the cost of a kg of paper after 2 years? a)29.12 (b) 29.72 (c) 30.12 (d) 32.65 (e) none of these * A person has Rs 100/- in his pocket, he can as 25 pencils or [Link] kept 15% of the money for travelling expenses and purchased 5 [Link] how many books he can purchase with the remaining money. * What is the size of the plate i.e. side a.17 b.14 c.13

* In a square , all the mid points are joined. the inner square is shaded. If the area of the square is A, what is the shaded area? * A 16 story building has 12000ft on each floor. Company A rents 7 floors and company B rents 4 floors. What is the number of square feet of unrented floor space? (Ans is 60000 sqft) * A square plot of some size , at four corners equal squares of some size are cut and is formed as open box. If this open box carries 128ml of oil. * person has Rs 100/- in his pocket, he can as 25 pencils or [Link] kept 15% of the money for travelling expenses and purchased 5 [Link] how many books he can purchase with the remaining money. * A boy multiplied a number with 10 and got 100,insted of dividing it . If he devided it what would be the answer? (Ans is 1)

*In a computer institute 9 languages can taught. The module is of 6 months duration and only six languages each of one month can be taught. In addition to that BASIC is always there and should be in first month itself word perfect is to be taught in the preceeding week of word star. FORTRAN can not be taught until COBAL is coarsed prior to that BINO, FIFO never be taught in single module languages are BASIC, WORD STAR, WORD PERFECT, FORTRAN, COBAL, BINO,FIFO, LOTUS, C i. Of the following which module is possible based on above conditions. ii) If word star is in 3rd month , what could be in 6th month. iii) If COBAL is in the 2nd month and BINO in 6th month are there in addition to the above condition, FORTRAN will be in which month. * In a class , except 18 all are above 50 years. 15 are below 50 years ofage. how many people are there a) 30 b) 33 c) 36 d) none of these. * If 12 shell cup board requires 18ft of wall space then 30 much wall space? (Ans is 45) " " " " how

* The values of shares A,B and C from january to june are as follows.

month JAN FEB MAR APR MAY JUNE

A 30 35 45 40 55 50

B 60 65 75 75 75 75

C 80 85 65 82 85 80

i) During this period which share has undergone max fluctuation? ii) In which month it is possible to buy B and C selling A? iii) In which month the share values are very low? iv) By purchasing one share of A and 4 each of B and C in the beginning of the period , to get max profit when this shares should be sold? * If 12 shell cup board requires 18ft of wall space then much wall space? (Ans is 45) *A man owns 2/3 of a computer service buroue business and sells 3/4 of his share for $[Link] is the value of the business. (Ans is 150,000) * A computer printer produces 176400 lines in a given [Link] the printer was in operation for 7hrs during the day how many lines did it print per minute? (Ans is 420 30 " " " " how