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Lab Technician Exam Questions 2021

Q: Explain the importance of using iodine as a mordant in Gram staining and the consequences of omitting this step.

Iodine is crucial as a mordant in Gram staining because it forms a complex with crystal violet dye, which becomes more firmly anchored to the bacterial cell wall. This step is essential for differentiating between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. Omitting iodine would result in the inability to distinguish between these bacteria, as the primary stain wouldn't be fixed in the cell walls, leading to false-negative results where Gram-positive bacteria may appear Gram-negative if the dye washes out during the decolorization step .

Q: Why is a pH of 9.0 in a urine specimen particularly concerning, and what should be done if this is observed?

A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0 should be concerning because it's outside the normal urine pH range, which typically falls between 4.5 and 8. If such a pH is observed, it may indicate bacterial contamination or improper storage leading to ammonia production. As a result, the specimen should be recollected to ensure accurate diagnostic evaluation and to avoid erroneous test results that could mislead the clinician into a wrong diagnosis or patient management .

Q: What is the reason for storing reagent strips in an opaque bottle, and what could potentially happen if this guideline is not followed?

Reagent strips are stored in opaque bottles to protect them from light exposure, which can degrade the chemicals on the strips, compromising their accuracy and effectiveness. If this guideline is not followed, the integrity of the reagent strips could be compromised, leading to inaccurate test results. Proper storage in opaque bottles helps maintain the sensitivity and specificity of the tests performed with these strips .

Q: What is the role of red blood cells in oxygen transport, and how do they accomplish it?

Red blood cells (RBCs) play a crucial role in transporting oxygen from the lungs to various tissues and organs throughout the body. They accomplish this by binding oxygen molecules to the hemoglobin contained within them. Hemoglobin is a protein rich in iron, allowing it to bind and release oxygen efficiently. Thus, red blood cells effectively transport oxygen where it is needed and facilitate the process of gas exchange necessary for cellular respiration .

Q: What factors might affect the enzymatic reactions during testing if a specimen is not brought to room temperature?

Enzymatic reactions can be adversely affected if the specimen is not brought to room temperature since these reactions are highly sensitive to temperature variations. Cold temperatures can slow down enzyme activity, leading to incomplete or inaccurate chemical reactions required for proper analysis. Consequently, this can cause incorrect test results, affecting diagnostic conclusions and patient management. Therefore, it's vital to bring specimens to room temperature to ensure the accuracy of enzymatic assays .

Q: How does the presence of ketone bodies in urine relate to metabolic states, and what implications might this have for diagnosing medical conditions?

The presence of ketone bodies in urine is indicative of altered metabolic states, commonly associated with conditions such as uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, starvation, or ketogenic dieting. These conditions cause the body to break down fats for energy due to insufficient carbohydrate metabolism, producing ketones as a by-product. Detecting ketonuria can therefore aid in diagnosing and managing these metabolic disorders, providing insight into the adequacy of glycemic control and nutritional status .

Q: Why is a specific gauge of needle preferred for venipuncture, and what complications might arise from using an incorrect gauge?

A 21-gauge needle is commonly preferred for venipuncture because it provides an optimal balance between ease of blood flow and patient comfort. Using too large a gauge might cause patient discomfort or even injury, while too small a gauge can lead to hemolysis, where red blood cells may be damaged during drawing, potentially compromising test results. Thus, using an appropriate gauge ensures both the safety and accuracy of blood collection procedures .

Q: How does the absence of clotting factors differentiate serum from blood plasma, and what implications does this have for medical testing?

Serum is the liquid portion of blood that remains after blood has clotted, thus lacking clotting factors such as fibrinogen, which are present in plasma. This distinction is critical in medical testing, as serum is used to analyze various biochemical parameters without the interference of clotting proteins. The absence of clotting factors makes serum an ideal sample for immunoassays and other diagnostic tests that require non-coagulated testing mediums .

Q: Discuss the rationale behind the use of autoclaving as a method for sterilizing culture media and its effectiveness compared to other sterilization methods.

Autoclaving is a preferred sterilization method for culture media because it uses saturated steam under pressure to achieve temperatures of 121°C for a specific duration (usually 15 minutes), effectively killing all vegetative cells, spores, and viruses. It is more effective than methods like dry heat or pasteurization, which do not achieve the necessary temperature or offer the same penetration efficiency required to ensure complete sterilization. Autoclaving ensures that all microbial life forms that can contaminate culture media are destroyed, thereby securing the accuracy and reliability of microbiological assessments .

Q: What are the implications of having 45% red blood cells by volume in the whole blood, and how does this relate to health or disease states?

Red blood cells constituting about 45% of whole blood volume, a condition known as hematocrit, indicates a normal range that is essential for adequate oxygen transport and viscosity of the blood. Deviations from this percentage can suggest health or disease states; for instance, a hematocrit below this range could indicate anemia, leading to inadequate oxygenation of tissues, while a higher hematocrit could signify polycythemia, which may increase blood viscosity and raise risks for thrombosis and related complications .

The document is a test booklet for a lab technician exam containing 100 questions divided into two parts. It provides important instructions for candidates regarding handling the test booklet and answer sheet, duration of the exam, marking scheme, and prohibited items. Candidates are advised to carefully read and follow the instructions for appearing in the exam.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

556 views17 pages

Lab Technician Exam Questions 2021

Uploaded by

Anjali Joshi

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Test Booklet

Series Written Test Paper, 2021 Test Booklet No.

Paper No.
A LAB TECHNICIAN
29 (MLT)

Name of Applicant ............................................................ Answer Sheet No. ....................................

Application No. : SVSU/2020/Estt/NT/ ......................... Signature of Applicant : ............................

Date of Examination: 25 / 12 / 2021 Signature of the Invigilator(s)

1. ..................................................
Time of Examination : .......................................
2. ..................................................

Duration : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 100 (Hundred) questions. All questions
are compulsory. Each question carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only
one is correct.
(ii) On receipt of the Test-Booklet (Question Paper), the candidate should immediately check it and
ensure that it contains all the pages, i.e., 100 questions (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B). Discrepancy,
if any, should be reported by the candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test-
Booklet.
(iii) A separate Answer-Sheet is provided with the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. On this sheet there are
100 rows (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B) containing four circles each. One row pertains to one question.
(iv) The candidate should write his/her Application number at the places provided on the cover page of
the Test-Booklet/Question Paper and on the Answer-Sheet and NOWHERE ELSE.
(v) No second Test-Booklet/Question Paper and Answer-Sheet will be given to a candidate. The candidates
are advised to be careful in handling it and writing the answer on the Answer-Sheet.
(vi) For every correct answer of the question One (1) mark will be awarded. For every unattempted
question, Zero (0) mark shall be awarded. There is no Negative Marking.
(vii) Marking shall be done only on the basis of answers responded on the Answer-Sheet.
(viii) To mark the answer on the Answer-Sheet, candidate should darken the appropriate circle in the row
of each question with Blue or Black pen.
(ix) For each question only one circle should be darkened as a mark of the answer adopted by the
candidate. If more than one circle for the question are found darkened or with one black circle any
other circle carries any mark, the question will be treated as cancelled.
(x) The candidates should not remove any paper from the Test-Booklet/Question Paper. Attempting to
remove any paper shall be liable to be punished for use of unfair means.
(xi) Rough work may be done on the blank space provided in the Test-Booklet/Question Paper only.
(xii) Mobile phones (even in Switch-off mode) and such other communication/programmable devices are
not allowed inside the examination hall.
(xiii) No candidate shall be permitted to leave the examination hall before the expiry of the time.

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.

1 [P.T.O.
29 / 1
2
PART–A

1. What is the life span of RBC? 5. Blood cells are produced in

(A) 120 (A) kidney

(B) 100 (B) lungs

(C) 200 (C) bone marrow

(D) 80 (D) glands

2. What is the recommended cleaner for 6. By volume, the red blood cells constitute
removing all oil from objective lens? about _____% of whole blood.

(A) 70% alcohol or lens cleaner (A) 15

(B) xylene (B) 25

7. Which constituent of blood fight against

3. Serum differs from blood as it lacks
infections?
(A) antibodies
(A) red blood cells
(B) clotting factors
(B) white blood cells
(C) albumins (C) plasma
(D) globulins (D) platelets

4. Oxygen is supplied from lungs to tissues 8. The pH value of blood is normally between
and organs by _____ and _____.
(A) red blood cells (A) 6.0, 6.5
(B) white blood cells (B) 7.0, 7.35
(C) plasma (C) 7.35, 7.45
(D) platelets (D) 7.45, 7.98

3 [P.T.O.
29 / 2
9. An average adult person has about _____ 13. Sample used for Platelet counting is :
liters of blood by volume.
(A) serum
(A) 5
(B) plasma
(B) 5.5
(C) EDTA blood
(C) 6
(D) citrate blood
(D) 6.5

14. Rh typing is based on the D-antigen

10. What mordant is used in Gram staining? present in:

(A) crystal violet (A) platelet

(B) safranin (B) rbc

(C) acid-alcohol (C) lymphocyte

(D) iodine (D) eosinphils

11. RFT Includes: 15. ESR equipment is known as

(A) electrolytes (A) sahli's tube

(B) total protein (B) centrifuge

(C) ast (C) vacutainer

(D) alt (D) westegren's tube

12. Microscopic examnation of urine is done to 16. The reagent used in estimation of
find out: Glucose is:

(A) rbc (A) urease

(B) pus cells (B) hexokinase

(C) cast (C) jaffe

(D) All the above (D) None of the above

4
17. The commonly used fixative for slide 21. Confirmatory test for AID's is:
preparation is:
(A) elisa
(A) benedict reagent
(B) clia
(B) distilled water
(C) western blot
(C) formalin
(D) chromatography
(D) None of the above

22. The basic component of Leishman stain is:

18. Which one of the following does not include
routine liver function test? (A) eosin

(A) bilirubin (B) methylene blue

(B) bile acid (C) malachite green

(C) sgot (D) safrenin

(D) alkaline phosphatase

23. Which of the following is Romanowsky

stain?
19. CSF samples are collected by:
(A) Leishman
(A) lab tech
(B) giemsa
(B) staff nurse

(C) physician (C) jenners

(D) ward boy (D) All the above

20. All the following are motile bacteria except: 24. Which of these is not a lipid?

(A) [Link] (A) Fats

(B) klebsiella (B) Oils

(C) vibrio (C) Proteins

(D) proteus (D) Waxes

5 [P.T.O.
29 / 3
25. Which of the following is usually not found 29. The most significant reagent strip test that is
in the urine? associated with a positive ketone result is:
(A) Magnesium (A) Glucose
(B) Urea (B) Protein
(C) Uric acid (C) pH
(D) Glucose (D) Specific gravity

26. Testing a refrigerated specimen that has not 30. A specific gravity of 1.005 would produce
warmed to room temperature will adversely the reagent strip color:
affect: (A) Blue
(A) Enzymatic reactions (B) Green
(B) Dye-binding reactions (C) Yellow
(C) The sodium nitroprusside reaction (D) Red
(D) Diazo reactions

31. The coagulase is done to differentiate:

27. All of the following are important to protect (A) Staphylococcus aureus from
the integrity of reagent strips except: Staphylococcus epidermidis
(A) Removing the desiccant from the (B) Staphylococcus epidermidis from
bottle Neisseria meningitidis
(B) Storing in an opaque bottle (C) Streptococcus pyogenes from
(C) Storing at room temperature Enterococcus faecalis
(D) Resealing the bottle after removing a (D) Streptococcus pyogenes from
strip Staphylococcus aureus

28. A urine specimen with a pH of 9.0: 32. Cardiac markers are:

(A) Indicates metabolic acidosis (A) ck, ckmb, tropi
(B) Should be recollected (B) ast, alt, protein
(C) May contain calcium oxalate crystals (C) carbohydrate
(D) Is seen after drinking cranberry juice (D) glucose

6
33. To which of the following would the term 37. What is PPE in laboratory?
"white cell" NOT be applied?
(A) personnel protective equipment
(A) erythrocyte
(B) pipette per equipment
(B) leucocyte
(C) professional pipetter
(C) lymphocyte
(D) None of them
(D) monocyte

38. The liquid portion of blood remaining after

34. Which individuals can receive any type a clot has formed is called:
of blood and are considered universal
recipients? (A) plasma

(A) A+ (B) serum

(B) O– (C) tissue

(C) AB+ (D) lymph

(D) B–

39. Which test cannot be performed on a serum

sample?
35. What is found in blood serum that is also in
blood plasma? (A) Iron
(A) blood cells (B) Vitamin B 12
(B) platelets (C) Total lipids
(C) plasma proteins (D) Clotting factors
(D) clotting factors

40. A suction device used to draw up liquids

36. Tumor markers: is a:

(A) CA125 (A) flask

(B) CA19.9 (B) cylinder

(C) CEA (C) beaker

(D) All the above (D) safety bulb

7 [P.T.O.
29 / 4
41. Which one of the following is NOT a blood 45. Hay's test detects ___________ in urine.
component?
(A) bile salts
(A) Fresh frozen plasma
(B) blood
(B) Hemolysate
(C) ketone bodies
(C) Platelet concentrate
(D) bile pigment
(D) Plasma

46. What is the gauge of the needle commonly

42. What is the normal hemoglobin used for venipuncture?
concentration in adult male?
(A) 26
(A) 13-20 g/dl
(B) 20
(B) 13 - 17 g/dl
(C) 21
(C) 13- 15 g/dl
(D) 18
(D) 11- 15 g/dl

47. Which of the following parasite is found in

43. Which one of the following is NOT the site
urine specimen?
selected for collection of the blood?
(A) Taenia sps
(A) Spleen
(B) Trichomonas vaginalis
(B) Arteries

(C) Capillaries (C) Trichuris trichiura

(D) Veins (D) Round worm

44. Which one of the following tests is NOT 48. What is the eosinophil count present in a
used to detect renal function? normal DLC smear?

(A) Blood sugar (A) 1-10%

(B) Blood urea (B) 6-10%

(C) Serum creatinine (C) 1-6%

(D) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (D) 5-10%

8
49. Which of the following type of cholesterol 53. Cholesterol estimation is done by the
is called as good cholesterol? following method:
(A) HDL (A) Molisch method
(B) Chylomicrons (B) Benedict's method
(C) VLDL (C) Zak's ferric chloride method
(D) LDL (D) Jaffes method

50. Which of the following is a gram negative

54. Coma shaped bacteria are known as
bacilli?
(A) Staphylococci
(A) Staphylococcus aureus
(B) Staphylococcus citreus (B) Streptococci

(C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) Vibrio

(D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa (D) Bacillus

51. What is the colour of normal CSF? 55. A positive tuberculin test is indicated by
and area of induration of:
(A) Colourless
(B) Yellow (A) < 5 mm in diameter

(C) Light green (B) 6-9 mm in diameter

(D) Brown (C) 10 mm in diameter

(D) No induration

52. Normal reticulocyte count in adults 56. Diagnostic test used for TB is .....
is __________.
(A) Mantoux test
(A) 3-6%
(B) Dick Test
(B) 0.5-2.5%
(C) Shick test
(C) 1-5%
(D) Widal test
(D) 2-10%

9 [P.T.O.
57. Acid fast staining is used to detect 61. Name the anticoagulant present in purple
coloured vacutainer tube
(A) Mycobacterium TB
(A) Heparin
(B) Ctetani
(B) EDTA
(C) HIV/AIDS
(C) Sodium citrate
(D) Meningococci
(D) None of these

58. Method of sterilization used for culture

media is... 62. Ketone bodies in urine are:

(A) Autoclave (A) Acetone

(B) Hot air oven (B) Beta hydroxy butyric acid

(C) Pasteurization (C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above (D) None of these

59. Shape of cocci 63. Serum electrolytes are analysed using

(A) Rod (A) Calorimeter

(B) Spherical (B) Flamephotometer

(C) Comma (C) Spectrophotometer

(D) Spiral (D) None of these

60. VDRL is used in the diagnosis of 64. Temperature range used for autoclaving is....

(A) Syphilis (A) 100°C for 10 min

(B) HIV (B) 100°C for 30 min

(C) Typhoid (C) 121°C for 15 min

(D) Tuberculosis (D) 121°C for 30 min

10
65. The only cell in normal CSF is 68. Specific gravity of urine normally varies
between ________.
(A) Neutrophil
(A) 1.010–1.040
(B) Lymphocyte
(B) 1.010–1.015
(C) Manocyte
(C) 1.010–1.030
(D) None of these
(D) 1.030–1.040

66. The solution used to fix a pap smear is: 69. Name the test used to detect the presence
(A) wright stain of glucose in urine :

(B) hematoxylin (A) Fouchet's test

(B) Benedict's test
(C) physiological saline
(C) Hay's test
(D) cytospray
(D) Rothera's test

67. Presence of red blood cells in the urine is

70. A compound microscope has how many
referred to as:
lenses
(A) Hematuria (A) 1
(B) Hemoglobinuria (B) 2
(C) Anuria (C) 3
(D) Chyluria (D) 4

11 [P.T.O.
PART–B

71. 25 : 37 : : 49 : ? 74. Rakesh ranks 13th in the class of 33

students. There are 5 students below Mahesh
(A) 41 rankwise. How many students are there
(B) 65 between Rakesh and Mahesh ?
(A) 12
(C) 56
(B) 14
(D) 60
(C) 15
(D) 16
72. Find the missing character?

75. QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, _____

(A) UAV
(B) UAT
(C) TAS
(D) TAT

(A) 10C 76. Choose the word which is different from

the rest.
(B) 12C
(A) Pear
(C) 13C
(B) Apple
(D) 7C (C) Litchi
(D) Orange
73. Pointing at a photo, Dinesh said, "His father
is only son of my mother." The photo 77. Before you gave answers, sir .................
belongs to : them to us.
(A) Dinesh (A) sent

(B) Dinesh's brother (B) will send

12
78. Look, a new missile .................... 82. He reminds us ...................... Paul Walker.
(A) is launched (A) about
(B) of
(B) is launch
(C) for
(C) is being launch
(D) with
(D) is being launched
83. Find the minimum number of straight lines
79. The paths of glory lead .................... to the required to make the given figure.
grave.
(A) straight
(B) but
(C) in
(A) 13
(D) directly
(B) 15
(C) 17
80. You haven't had your lunch yet, ................ (D) 19
you?
(A) are 84. Select the figure that does NOT belong in
the following group.
(B) aren't
(C) have
(D) haven't

81. Which sequence makes a correct sentence?

(A) B
1. tea (B) A
2. have (C) D
3. that (D) C

4. some
85. P, Q, R and S are four friends. P is shorter
5. before than Q but taller than R who is shorter
(A) 43251 than S. Who is the shortest among all?
(B) 24315 (A) P
(B) Q
(C) 24153
(C) R
(D) 52431
(D) S

13 [P.T.O.
86. Select the Answer figure that fits in the blank 89. A train running at 90 km/hr crosses a
space in the given problem figure. pole in 10 seconds. What is the length of
Problem Figure train?
(A) 250 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 900 m
(D) None of these
Answer Figure

90. Which is in ascending order?

(A) 1/3, 2/5, 3/5, 6/7
(A) D (B) 2/5, 1/3, 3/5, 6/7
(B) C
(C) 1/3, 2/5, 6/7, 3/5
(C) B
(D) A (D) 3/5, 6/7, 1/3, 2/5

87. From the given alternatives, select the word

91. The average of four consecutive odd
which CANNOT be formed using the letters
numbers is 24. Find the largest number.
of the given word.
Demonstration (A) 25
(A) Moon (B) 27
(B) Most
(C) 29
(C) Train
(D) Damage (D) 31

88. If white is called black, black is called red, 92. Sum of a rational number and its reciprocal
red is called yellow, yellow is called green, is 13/6. Find the number
green is called blue, blue is called violet
and violet is called orange, what would be (A) 2
the colour of human blood? (B) 3/2
(A) green
(C) 4/2
(B) black
(C) red (D) 5/2
(D) yellow

14
93. Half of 1 percent written as decimal is 97. Who has been appointed as the Chief of
Staff Committee, following the demise of
(A) 5
General Bipin Rawat?
(B) 0.5
(A) M.M. Naravane
(C) 0.05
(B) Karambir Singh
(D) 0.005 (C) R.K.S. Bhadauria
(D) Vijay Kumar Singh
94. A person incurs a loss of 5% be selling a
watch for Rs. 1140. At what price should
98. Which state after Haryana has recently
the watch be sold to earn 5% profit.
announced 75% reservation in private sector
(A) Rs. 1200 jobs for locals?
(B) Rs. 1230 (A) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Rs. 1260 (B) Rajasthan

(D) Rs. 1290 (C) Uttarakhand

(D) Jharkhand

95. A fungal disease named 'Mucormycosis' is

registered in COVID-19 patients of which 99. The first-ever Haryana Sahitya Sangam has
state? started in which city?

(A) Kerala (A) Faridabad

(B) Gujarat (B) Panchkula

(C) Bihar (C) Gurgaon

(D) Karnal
(D) Assam

100. The Ministry of Labour recently launched

96. "Energy Conservation Week" is observed
India's first national database on unorganised
every year in which month?
workers on which portal?
(A) October (A) e-Shram portal
(B) November (B) Samadhan portal
(C) December (C) Atma Nirbhar Bharat portal
(D) January (D) None of the above

15 [P.T.O.
ROUGH WORK

16
ANSWER KEY- Lab Technician MLT Answer Key

1. A 26. A 51. A 76. D

2. A 27. A 52. B 77. C

3. B 28. B 53. C 78. D

4. A 29. A 54. C 79. B

5. C 30. A 55. C 80. C

6. D 31. A 56. A 81. C

7. B 32. A 57. A 82. B

8. C 33. A 58. A 83. A

9. A 34. C 59. B 84. A

10. D 35. C 60. A 85. C

11. A 36. D 61. B 86. D

12. D 37. A 62. C 87. D

13. C 38. B 63. B 88. D

14. B 39. D 64. C 89. A

15. D 40. D 65. B 90. A

16. B 41. B 66. D 91. B

17. C 42. B 67. A 92. B

18. B 43. A 68. C 93. D

19. C 44. A 69. B 94. C

20. B 45. A 70. C 95. B

21. C 46. C 71. B 96. C

22. B 47. B 72. A 97. A

23. D 48. C 73. D 98. D

24. C 49. A 74. B 99. B

25. D 50. D 75. A 100. A

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