Chapter 1 Quiz

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An experimental study in which subjects were randomly selected
is an example of what level of study?

1. Level II
1. Level II
2. Level IV

3. Level VI

4. Level VII
Why should the registered nurse practicing bedside nursing be
concerned about research for the delivery of quality nursing care?

1. Research provides the nurse with knowledge needed to make

sound clinical decisions.
1. Research provides the nurse with knowledge needed to make
2. One study can change nursing practice dramatically.
sound clinical decisions.
3. The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organi-
zations requires all nurses to be consumers of research.

4. Traditional nursing care is no longer appropriate for 21st century

nursing.
Which research process steps may be noted in an article's ab-
stract? (Select all that apply)

- Identifying the methods

- Identifying the methods
- Research question study purpose
- Research question study purpose
- Literature review
- Results
- Results
- Conclusion
- Legal-ethical issues
- Data collection procedure
The nurse researcher is critically reading a quantitative research
article and is most interested in obtaining information about the
theoretical framework utilized. The researcher does not note a
separate section in the article giving information about the the-
oretical framework. It is therefore most likely to be located in the:

1. literature review. 1. literature review.

2. purpose.

3. problem.

4. introduction.
A nurse reads a research article and asks other graduate students
to study the same article using the same criteria. The nurse is
most likely using which stage of the critical reading process?

1. Preliminary understanding
3. Analysis understanding
2. Comprehensive understanding

3. Analysis understanding

4. Synthesis understanding
The nurse researcher wants to summarize several studies that
focus on early detection of ovarian cancer. The nurse intends to
use specific statistical methods that will allow conclusions to be
drawn by the focus area. In this case, which is the best systematic
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review to choose?

1. Meta-analysis

2. Integrative review 1. Meta-analysis

3. Meta-synthesis

4. Meta-summary
What must a nurse researcher do before beginning to analyze a
study?

1. Synthesize the material.

2. Comprehensively understand the study.
2. Comprehensively understand the study.

3. Apply recommendations to practice.

4. Read other similar studies.

What is an accurate description of a critique?
(Select all that apply)

- It requires some knowledge of the subject matter.

- It requires some knowledge of the subject matter.
- The process of critical appraisal that objectively and critically
evaluates content of an article.
- The process of critical appraisal that objectively and critically
evaluates content of an article.
- The process of creating standards used to judge an article.

- It is an executive summary of an article.

- It serves to explain the link between theory and application.

The nurse researcher is critiquing a quantitative research article
and is interested in finding additional information on the findings
that were obtained. Where would the researcher be most likely to
find this information if it is not in the results section?

1. Methods
4. Discussion
2. Instruments

3. Procedures

4. Discussion
Which is the best way for a nurse to use research appropriately?

1. Follow the study researcher's recommendations.

2. Read many studies in the same content area and follow the
recommendations of the studies with similar findings. 3. Explore the strength of the evidence available.

3. Explore the strength of the evidence available.

4. Replicate studies in their own settings to make sure recom-

mendations are contextually appropriate.
Which study title indicates the use of qualitative methodology?

1. Comparison of Nursing Assessment Techniques in Hospitals

and Home Care Settings

2. The Relationship between Numbers of Errors Made and Edu-

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cational Preparation

3. The Effectiveness of Patient Teaching Pre- and Postoperatively 4. The Experience of Mother-Child Bonding in Inner-City Popula-
tions
4. The Experience of Mother-Child Bonding in Inner-City Popula-
tions
The nurse researcher is interested in gaining additional informa-
tion about a study's sampling technique. This information is most
likely found in which section of the research report?

1. Procedures
3. Methodology
2. Data analysis

3. Methodology

4. Reliability
The nurse is critically reading a research study and writes cues,
the relationships of concepts, and questions on a photocopy
version of the study. This would most likely be included in which
step of the critical reading process?

1. Preliminary understanding
3. Analysis understanding
2. Comprehensive understanding

3. Analysis understanding

4. Synthesis understanding
The nurse in an intensive care unit is engaged in nursing practice
that is evidence based. The nurse recognizes which sequence of
steps that will culminate in evidence-based practice?

1. Evaluate, act, appraise and assess, gather, and ask

3. Ask, gather, assess and appraise, act, and evaluate
2. Appraise and assess, act, ask, gather, and evaluate

3. Ask, gather, assess and appraise, act, and evaluate

4. Gather, ask, evaluate, act, and appraise and assess

For which research question would qualitative methods be most
appropriate?

1. Which pain medications decrease the need for sleep medica-

tion in elderly patients?

2. What is the meaning of health for migrant farmworker women? 2. What is the meaning of health for migrant farmworker women?

3. Under what conditions does a decubitus ulcer heal most quick-

ly?

4. How does frequency of medication administration affect the

degree of pain experienced following knee replacement surgery?
Which is the best strategy for a nurse researcher to use in order
to read a research study critically?

1. Read the study through once very thoroughly.

2. Use a research text to clarify unfamiliar terms.
2. Use a research text to clarify unfamiliar terms.

3. Underline the study's findings.

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4. Use the abstract to select the parts of the study needing closer
perusal.
The nurse researcher is critiquing a qualitative research article.
Where in the report would the researcher be most likely to find
information about the phenomenon that is being investigated?

1. Abstract
1. Abstract
2. Introduction

3. Method

4. Procedures
Which phrase would be found in a report of a quantitative study?

1. "A convenience sample was chosen."

2. "The phenomenon studied was __."

1. "A convenience sample was chosen."
3. "Data were analyzed and interpreted."

4. "Researchers sought to explore the meaning of the hospital

experience."
A nurse researcher is searching for the purpose of a study in a
research report. Where is the most likely place to find the purpose
in the report?

1. At the end of the research design section

2. At the end of the literature review section
2. At the end of the literature review section

3. At the end of the sampling section

4. At the end of the conclusion section

What is the most accurate term for making patient-care decisions
on the basis of research findings?

1. Critical reflection
2. Evidence-based practice
2. Evidence-based practice

3. Applied research

4. Research implications
What are the critiquing criteria used to judge the worth of a
research study? (Select all that apply)
- Measures
- Measures
- Standards
- Objectives
- Evaluation guides
- Standards
- Questions
- Effectiveness
- Evaluation guides
- Questions
Why should the average consumer of health care be concerned
about nursing research?

1. Research provides evidence that nursing care makes a differ-

ence.

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2. The nursing profession needs to define its place in the health
care system.

3. Accrediting agencies must determine how best to use the 1. Research provides evidence that nursing care makes a differ-
technology needed to provide nursing care. ence.

4. Nurses must justify the cost of their services for reimbursement

purposes.
The best way to determine that a research study met ethical
standards is by locating which information?

1. The reliability and validity of each measure were discussed.

3. The study was approved by an institutional review board.
2. The data analysis procedures are thoroughly discussed.

3. The study was approved by an institutional review board.

4. The sampling techniques used were discussed.

To be important to nursing practice, which best supports nursing
theory?

1. Educational environment
2. Nursing research
2. Nursing research

3. Patient outcomes

4. Expansive body of science

When does the strength of the scientific evidence available influ-
ence changes in nursing practice?

1. Studies in the area have used quantitative methodology.

2. Studies in the content area show similar results.
2. Studies in the content area show similar results.

3. Each study uses small, highly controlled samples of subjects.

4. Selective bias is built into the research design.

Which phrase would be found in a report of a qualitative study?

1. "The hypothesis of this study is __."

2. "Perceived pain was measured using the Abbott pain scale." 4. "Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain."

3. "The control group received no instruction."

4. "Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain."

The nurse researcher is critically reading a research study and
states the main idea of the article in his or her own words. This
would most likely be included in which step of the critical reading
process?

1. Preliminary understanding
2. Comprehensive understanding
2. Comprehensive understanding

3. Analysis understanding

4. Synthesis understanding

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Characteristics of a quantitative research design include:

1. lack of a hypothesis either stated or implied.

2. use of variables measured by instruments. 2. use of variables measured by instruments.

3. use of snowball sampling techniques.

4. lack of a focus on numerical analysis.

What is the goal of qualitative research?

1. Test relationships

2. Describe phenomena 3. Look for meaning

3. Look for meaning

4. Assess differences
The nurse is attempting to locate the legal-ethical issues of a
qualitative research study. The best place for the nurse to look for
this in the study is where?

1. Discussion section
2. Procedure section
2. Procedure section

3. Design section

4. Sample section
How can a nurse researcher achieve a comprehensive under-
standing of any research report?

1. Skim the entire report for a general overview.

2. Study the abstract to learn the main components of the study. 3. Seek assistance for unclear content

3. Seek assistance for unclear content.

4. Review the conclusion to link the content with the research

question.
What can a nurse researcher determine by reading the abstract,
introduction, major headings, and conclusions of a study?

1. Relevance of the study to nursing practice

4. Study's main theme
2. Appropriateness of methods used

3. Need for further study

4. Study's main theme

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 Research Self Test Questions
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A researcher sends out a questionnaire over the Internet and tells
people not to put identifying information on their responses

a. anonymity a
b. confidentiality
c. debriefing
d. informed consent
a researcher tells people that their participation in. a study is
purely voluntary and they can withdraw at any time.

a. anonymity d
b. confidentiality
c. debriefing
d. informed consent
a researcher tells people being interviewed in-depth about their
ICU experiences that their responses will not be individually di-
vulged and their identities will be masked
b
a. anonymity
b. confidentiality
c. debriefing
d. informed consent
a researcher meets with participants after data have been col-
lected to tell them more about the study and to ask if they have
questions or concerns
c
a. anonymity
b. confidentiality
c. debriefing
d. informed consent
children with leukemia are interviewed about their experiences.
After receiving information about the study, parents are asked
to sign an authorization, and the children are asked about their
willingness to participate
d
a. anonymity
b. confidentiality
c. debriefing
d. informed consent
Children of parents in a special weight management program
were significantly less likely to be obese at the end of the study
period than children who's parents were not in the program
c
a. Introduction
b. method section
c. results section
d. discussion
the research team's inability to recruit a sufficiently large sample
may have contributed to the ambiguous pattern of findings in this
study
d
a. Introduction
b. method section
c. results section
d. discussion
the approach used to explore the patients experiences of living
with end stage renal disease was phenomenologic, using the
methods described by Colaizzi b

a. Introduction
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 Research Self Test Questions
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b. method section
c. results section
d. discussion
the purpose of this study was to explore the complex communi-
cation needs of hospitalized patients with cerebral palsy

a. Introduction a
b. method section
c. results section
d. discussion
the sample was composed of 119 women who underwent total
abdominal hysterectomy in a large academic medical center

a. Introduction b
b. method section
c. results section
d. discussion
High density lipoprotein (HDL) exerts a cardioprotective function
b
a. appropriate for a research lit review
b. inappropriate for a research lit review
several studies have found a relationship between depression and
memory loss in elderly populations
a
a. appropriate for a research lit review
b. inappropriate for a research lit review
people with multiple sclerosis have a low perceived quality of life
b
a. appropriate for a research lit review
b. inappropriate for a research lit review
women who suppress their anger tend to have high blood pres-
sure
b
a. appropriate for a research lit review
b. inappropriate for a research lit review
a systematic review suggests that the amount of information
parents give children prior to surgery affects children's coping
a
a. appropriate for a research lit review
b. inappropriate for a research lit review
Letts studied the effect of uncertainty among spouses caring for
their spouses in their homes on their treatment decisions
a
a. nursing model or framework
b. nonnursing model or framework
munter tested a smoking cessation intervention that was individ-
ualized based on participants motivational readiness for change
b
a. nursing model or framework
b. nonnursing model or framework
Hill studied the health beliefs of women in relation to their practice
of breast self-examination
b
a. nursing model or framework
b. nonnursing model or framework
lucas tesed the effect of a nursing intervention on the self-efficacy
b
of diabetic pateints with regard to their self care

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 Research Self Test Questions
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Pecora studied the health-promoting activities of women diag-
nosed with osteoporosis
a
a. nursing model or framework
b. nonnursing model or framework
turner randomly assigned 50 men and 50 women smokers who
responded to a recruitment notice to a smoking cessation inter-
vention or to a control group
a
a. nonprobability
b. probability
Solomans studied circadian rhythms in a sample of 45 pregnant
women consecutively admitted to a hospital in the first 6 months
of 2016 because of severe preeclampsia
a
a. nursing model or framework
b. nonnursing model or framework
kane sampled every 25th nurse on a roster of licensed nurses
in Florida to study their use of personal digital assistants. The
starting number of 12 was selected at random
b
a. nursing model or framework
b. nonnursing model or framework
Casey randomly assigned 152 elders recruited from five nursing
homes to a foot massage or wait-list group to assess effects on
levels of depression
a
a. nursing model or framework
b. nonnursing model or framework
Marshall randomly selected 250 students from a large university
to study their use of drugs and alcohol
b
a. nursing model or framework
b. nonnursing model or framework
kendall randomly assigned postsurgical patients to aromatherapy
(oil of peppermint) or usual care, to assess effects of nausea
a
a. experimental
b. quasi-experimental
c. nonexperimental
madden compared levels of agitation in two groups of nursing
home residents, one group living in a home where they received
a daily foot massage for two weeks, the other in a home without
massages
b
a. experimental
b. quasi-experimental
c. nonexperimental
dean studied faily pain ratings over a 10-week period for a group
of patients with rheumatoid arthritis who began a Tai Chi program
in week 5
b
a. experimental
b. quasi-experimental
c. nonexperimental
Abraham compared pregnant women who did or did not have a
miscarriage in terms of subsequent marital satisfaction
c
a. experimental

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b. quasi-experimental
c. nonexperimental
Theriault compared patients who were assigned at random to a
program to manage urinary incontinence or to a wait list group
who received the program 6 months later
a
a. experimental
b. quasi-experimental
c. nonexperimental
Rocco administered her self-efficacy scale to 50 patients twice, 1
week apart. The coefficient between the two sets of scores was
.82
a
a. reliability
b. validity
Rogers examined the relationship between scores on a self-report
insomnia scale and sleep efficacy indexes as measured by an
Actiwatch wristband
b
a. reliability
b. validity
Sheeley compared the degree of agreement in the scoring of two
independent observers on a new scale to measure agitation in
the elderly
a
a. reliability
b. validity
Pfortmiller assessed the degree to which the 12 items on his
resilience scale measured a unitary attribute; he calculated a
coefficient of .91
a
a. reliability
b. validity
Pulley compared the scores on her Breastfeeding anxiety scale
for two groups; women in their first pregnancy and women who
were lactation consultants
b
a. reliability
b. validity
Quinn studied the experience of learning about a parent's cancer
diagnosis, from the perspective of adolescents aged 15 to 18
years old
b
a. ethnography
b. phenomenology
c. grounded theory
Petrik studied end-of-life caregiving for elders living on a Hopi.
Reservation in Arizona
a
a. ethnography
b. phenomenology
c. grounded theory
Futterer studied the meaning of the. respite experience of family
caregivers of patients with dimentia
b
a. ethnography
b. phenomenology
c. grounded theory

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Viator explored how pregnant women managed the process of
deciding on and arranging a home birth
c
a. ethnography
b. phenomenology
c. grounded theory
Neumann's study focused on reciprocal care-seeking and care-
giving behavior among patients within the culture an in-patient
mental health care facility
a
a. ethnography
b. phenomenology
c. grounded theory
armer explored nightmares in hospitalized children and recruited
both boys and girls from different socioeconomic and ethic back-
grounds
b
a. convenience or snowball
b. purposive
c. theoretical
Dinsmore's grounded theory study involved sampling patients
whose experiences helped to better understand the emerging
category of lost control
c
a. convenience or snowball
b. purposive
c. theoretical
Oppenheim, in his study of regret among patients who had had
genetic testing, asked early participants to refer friends with sim-
ilar experiences
a
a. convenience or snowball
b. purposive
c. theoretical
Skaine's study of eating patterns and self-esteem in adolescents
involved interviews with both anorexic and obese teenagers aged
14-17
b
a. convenience or snowball
b. purposive
c. theoretical
In her study of injection drug users' use of health care facilities,
Meagher recruited participants by posting a notice on a homeless
shelter bulletiin board
a
a. convenience or snowball
b. purposive
c. theoretical
In a study of the culture of an infertility clinic, Horneck's analysis
focused on the domain of shared responsibility
a
a. ethnographic
b. phenomenologic/hermeneutic
c. grounded theory
In her study of the process of recovering from a stillbirth, Lucas
began her analysis using open coding
c
a. ethnographic

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b. phenomenologic/hermeneutic
c. grounded theory
MacGregor integrated materials from poems about love and death
in a study of the experience of being a young widow or widower
b (phenomenologic)
a. ethnographic
b. phenomenologic/hermeneutic
c. grounded theory
Schumacher and colleagues searched for paradigm cases in their
study of the experience of memory loss in nursing home residents
b (hermeneutic)
a. ethnographic
b. phenomenologic/hermeneutic
c. grounded theory
In a study of stress in operating room nurses, Casey identified the
core category as moral reckoning
c
a. ethnographic
b. phenomenologic/hermeneutic
c. grounded theory
Miller conducted in-depth interviews with 15 people with chronic
illness and used the data to develop and test a scale to measure
"inner strength"
c
a. Quan -> qual
b. QUAL + QUAN
c. qual ->QUAN
Rosen conducted an RCT to test the effects of a health promotion
intervention and then conducted in-depth interviews with a sub-
sample of 15 people whose behaviors had not improved
a
a. Quan -> qual
b. QUAL + QUAN
c. qual ->QUAN
De Sio used unstructured observation of autistic toddlers as a ba-
sis for the design and rigorous testing of a parent communication
intervention to improve social engagement in these children
c
a. Quan -> qual
b. QUAL + QUAN
c. qual ->QUAN
Wait administered three psychological scaled to patients with
chronic migraine headaches immediately after interviewing them
in-depth about their migraine experiences
b
a. Quan -> qual
b. QUAL + QUAN
c. qual ->QUAN
Gallagher did a sruvey of 500 nurses to assess their attitudes
toward EBP and then had in-depth follow-up interviews with 20 of
them 3 months later to explore barriers to EBP in their hospital
settings
a
a. Quan -> qual
b. QUAL + QUAN
c. qual ->QUAN
In a study of hope in critically ill patients, Futterer gathered data
from patients, nurses and family members

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 Research Self Test Questions
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a. triangulation
b. member checking a
c. peer review
Smerud gathered data about the culture of an NICU by interview-
ing nursing staff and by observing parent-infant and parent-nurse
interactions
a
a. triangulation
b. member checking
c. peer review
In a study of nurses experience of having made a medication
error, Horsch asked 4 of the 12 participants to reveiw key themes
that emerged in the analysis
b
a. triangulation
b. member checking
c. peer review
In a study of nurses experience of having made a medication er-
ror, Horsch asked a patient safety expert and a phenomenologist
to review the themes
c
a. triangulation
b. member checking
c. peer review
In a study of nurses experience of having made a medication
error, Horsch and his colleague Corbaccio independently coded
five interviews and collaborated in the analysis
a
a. triangulation
b. member checking
c. peer review
Chodos used Noblit and Hare's approach to integrating findings
on the experience of being a young adult cancer survivor
b
a. meta-analysis
b. metasynthesis
Zavlunov created a forest plot of effect size estimates in his
synthesis of research on the effect of hospital noise on patient
well-being and length of stay
a
a. meta-analysis
b. metasynthesis
Wilkes used d as her effect size index in synthesis of studies test-
ing the benefits of a stimulation program on cognitive functioning
in older adults
a
a. meta-analysis
b. metasynthesis
Martins used a fixed effects model in a synthesis of studies on
the relationship between oxygen saturation and memory perfor- a
mmance
Goldberg calculated frequency effect sizes in a synthesis of stud-
ies examining medication management in patients with multiple
health problems
b
a. meta-analysis
b. metasynthesis

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 NUR 302 - Chapter 10
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Sampling may be defined as which of the following?
A) Selection of an accessible population for a study
B) Selection of a subset of a population to represent the entire
population B
C) Assignment of study participants to treatment groups
D) Technique for ensuring that every element in the population
has an equal chance of being included in the study
Bias in a sample for a quantitative study refers to which of the
following?
A) Lack of heterogeneity in the population on the attribute of
interest
D
B) Sample selection using nonprobability-type sampling methods
C) The margin of error in the data obtained from samples
D) Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a key attribute
vis-a-vis the population
Strata are incorporated into the design of which of the following
sampling approaches?
A) Systematic
C
B) Purposive
C) Quota
D) Consecutive
Which of the following is a probability sampling method?
A) Convenience sampling
B) Systematic sampling B
C) Consecutive sampling
D) Quota sampling
The sampling design that would be especially likely to yield a
representative sample is which of the following?
A) Consecutive
A
B) Convenience
C) Purposive
D) Quota
Which of the following types of sample is considered to be the
weakest for quantitative studies?
A) Convenience
A
B) Quota
C) Purposive
D) Systematic
A researcher used a systematic sampling plan. The sample size
was 200. The sampling interval was 250. The first element drawn
was 196. The second element would be:
A) 396 C
B) 45
C) 446
D) 646
Which of the following is the most widely used data collection
method by nurse researchers?
A) Records
B
B) Self-reports
C) Observation
D) Biophysiologic measures
A major advantage of closed-ended questions is that they do
which of the following?
A) Are easy to construct
B
B) Are analyzed in a straightforward manner
C) Encourage in-depth responses
D) Are not subject to response biases
Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because of
which of the following?
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A) They are less expensive
B) They yield data that are easier to analyze
C
C) The quality of the data tends to be higher
D) They require less training of research personnel
Questionnaires have the advantage of which of the following?
A) Offering the possibility of anonymity
B) Having high response rates A
C) Reducing the possibility of response set biases
D) Being suitable for all types of study participants
On a five-point Likert scale, a person who strongly agreed with a
statement would be scored as which of the following?
A) 1
D
B) 3
C) 5
D) Cannot be determined
On a 20-item Likert scale with five response categories, the range
of possible scores is which of the following?
A) 0 to 100
C
B) 20 to 80
C) 20 to 100
D) 0 to 50
A self-report method used to measure subjective experiences
such as pain and fatigue is which of the following?
A) Observation
C
B) In vivo measurements
C) Visual analog scales
D) Likert scales
The social desirability response set bias is least likely to be a
problem on scales incorporated into which of the following?
A) Mailed anonymous questionnaires
A
B) Face-to-face interviews
C) Telephone interviews
D) All options are equally susceptible
A person who marked "strongly agree" to all or most items on a
Likert scale would best be described as which of the following?
A) Socially desirable respondent
D
B) Biased participant
C) Nay-sayer
D) Yea-sayer
When an observer is not concealed, the findings may be biased
because of which of the following?
A) Reactivity
A
B) Ethical problems
C) Lack of mobility
D) Acquiescence response set bias
Which of the following are advantages of using biophysiologic
measures in nursing studies? Select all that apply.
A) They are relatively accurate and precise
B) They effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain
A, C, D
and fatigue
C) They are objective, requiring minimal inference
D) They are typically cost effective because they are available for
clinical purposes
Which of the following statements describes a population?
A) All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive
care unit during January 2012
A
B) Four hundred nurses selected from a membership list of Amer-
ican Nurses' Association (ANA) members
C) Selected members of families of clients undergoing surgery

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D) A sample of clients diagnosed with COPD and who currently
smoke
Which of the following results from a sample size that is too small?
A) Low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two
groups
A
B) Lack of control over extraneous variables
C) Limits to random sampling
D) A weak questionnaire survey tool
Which procedure describes a probability sampling method?
A) Identification of community organizations and churches in an
urban setting and recruiting participants
B) Identification of individuals demonstrating the variable(s) of
interest to the researcher and recruiting participants
C) Identification of the accessible population and selecting study D
participants based upon the researcher's belief that the partici-
pant is representative of the accessible population
D) Identification of a sampling frame for an accessible population,
writing element names on paper, placing the written names in a
bowl, and drawing a select number of names from the bowl
Which statement regarding sampling error and sampling bias is
accurate?
A) Sampling bias may be defined as the difference between data
obtained from a simple random sample and the data that would
be obtained if an entire population were measured.
D
B) Sampling bias occurs by chance.
C) Sampling error and sampling bias are synonymous.
D) Sampling error may be contained in sample data even when
the most careful random sampling procedure has been used to
obtain the sample.
Which group represents a convenience sample?
A) The patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one
afternoon in February
B) One hundred male BSN nurses recruited by the original study
subjects who are currently in leadership roles A
C) Middle-class Caucasian females chosen as representatives of
the accessible population
D) Twenty male subjects and twenty female subjects chosen for
a study on gender differences
Which sampling method would be most practical and provide the
most reliable data to study the medication errors by registered
nurses who work in city, county, and federal prisons?
A) Purposive sampling B
B) Stratified random sampling
C) Quota sampling
D) Simple random sampling
If a target population contains 10,600 elements and the re-
searcher seeks a systematic random sample of 50, the sampling
interval would be which of the following?
A) 116 C
B) 600
C) 212
D) 53
When is a small sample size appropriate for a research study?
A) Many uncontrolled variables are present.
B) The population is very homogenous.
C
C) Large differences are expected in members of the population
on the variable of interest.
D) The population must be divided into subgroups.

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A survey question asks subjects to respond to the following state-
ment: "The overall hospital experience that I received during my
hospital stay considered my needs as an individual." They were
asked to identify, on a five-point scale, the degree to which they
agreed or disagreed with the statement. This is an example of
B
which scale?
A) Social scale
B) Likert scale
C) Visual analog scale
D) Differential scale
The nurse researcher is conducting a study on a nonpharmaco-
logic nursing intervention for the treatment of pain. Which data
collection instrument would provide the most sensitive measure-
ment of pain?
D
A) Differential scale
B) Physiologic measures
C) Likert scale
D) Visual analog scale
Which of the following is an advantage of observation as a method
of data collection in a study?
A) Subjects may be anxious because they are being observed.
D
B) Respondents can remain anonymous.
C) It is less time consuming than a questionnaire.
D) It directly captures an event and behaviors.
Which of the following are advantages to biophysiologic mea-
sures?
A) Biophysiologic measurements are subjective and accurate.
B) Patients cannot distort the measurements and have objective B
measures.
C) Biophysiologic measurements are self-reported.
D) Biophysiologic measurements effectively indicate pain levels.

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 N420- CHAPTER 6
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The study aimed to explore the experience of living with the stigma
of being a suicide survivor.
A. Purpose statement
The sentence indicates that the aim or purpose of the qualitative
A. Purpose statement
(phenomenological) study was to explore what it is like to be
B. Research question
suicide survivor.
C. Research hypothesis
D. Nullhypothesis
The quality of life of people with chronic hepatitis C is the same
as that of people without chronic hepatitis C.
D. Null Hypothesis.
The statement predicts that there is no relationship between a
A. Purpose statement
person having chronic hepatitis C and his or her quality of life; this
B. Research question
is the basis for a statistical test, not an actual research hypothesis.
C. Research hypothesis
D. Nullhypothesis
Does the physical health of older incarcerated men improve or
deteriorate during the course of their imprisonment?
B. Research question.
This is the specific question that the researcher wanted to answer-
A. Purpose statement
most likely in a quantitative study in which health status would be
B. Research question
measured over time.
C. Research hypothesis
D. Nullhypothesis
Smokers who participate in a nurse-led smoking cessation pro-
gram are as likely to smoke 2 months later as smokers who do
D. Null hypothesis.
not participate.
The statement predicts that there is no relationship between a
person's participation in a smoking cessation program and his or
A. Purpose statement
her subsequent smoking; this is the basis for a statistical test, not
B. Research question
the actual research hypothesis.
C. Research hypothesis
D. Nullhypothesis
Patients who have had diabetes for longer periods of time (10+
years) are more likely to report symptoms of acute coronary
syndrome than patients with diabetes for shorter periods. C. Research hypothesis.
The statement predicts that there is a relationship between symp-
A. Purpose statement toms of ACS and the length of time of having diabetes: It is a
B. Research question directional hypothesis.
C. Research hypothesis
D. Nullhypothesis
The statement of purpose makes an argument to conduct a new
study.
False. The problem statement articulates the research problem
and makes an argument to conduct a new study.
True
False
A hypothesis involves two or more variables.
True. A hypothesis always involve at least two variables and pos-
True sibly more.
False

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A set of logically interrelated propositions is associated with which
of the following?
A) Schematic model
C
B) Conceptual model
C) Classical theory
D) Descriptive theory
The power of theories lies in their ability to do which of the
following?
A) Explain large segments of human experience
B) Minimize the number of words required to explain phenomena
D
and, thereby, eliminate semantic problems
C) Prove conclusively that relationships exist among the phenom-
ena studied
D) Articulate the nature of relationships among phenomena
The building blocks of theory are which of the following?
A) Frameworks
B) Relationships C
C) Concepts
D) Hypotheses
Every study has which of the following?
A) Theory
B) Schematic model C
C) Framework
D) Conceptual model
Which of the following is true of both theories and conceptual
models?
A) They are invented or created, not discovered.
B) They need to be borrowed from other disciplines for nursing A
studies.
C) They contain a set of logically interrelated propositions.
D) They are different words for exactly the same thing.
The Health Promotion Model would best be described as which
of the following?
A) Descriptive theory
D
B) Borrowed theory
C) Grounded theory
D) Middle-range theory
Which of the following are central concepts in conceptual models
of nursing? Select all that apply.
A) Human beings
A, C, D
B) Social support
C) Health
D) Environment
The nurse-theorist Roy developed which of the following?
A) Uncertainty in Illness Model
B) Health Promotion Model C
C) Adaptation Model
D) Theory of Stress and Coping
The nurse-theorist Pender developed which of the following?
A) Adaptation Model
B) Social Cognitive Theory D
C) Health Belief Model
D) Health Promotion Model
The nurse-theorist Mishel developed which of the following?
A) Uncertainty in Illness Theory
B) Health Promotion Model A
C) Adaptation Model
D) Transtheoretical Model

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The Theory of Stress and Coping is an example of which of the
following?
A) A nursing model
C
B) A grand theory
C) A borrowed theory
D) A grounded theory
Self efficacy is a widely-used construct that was originally devel-
oped within which of the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
C
B) The Health Promotion Model
C) Social Cognitive Theory
D) The Uncertainty in Illness Theory
Stages of change is a construct that was developed within which
of the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
B
B) The Transtheoretical Model
C) Health as Expanding Consciousness Model
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
A grounded theory often has as a theoretical underpinning which
of the following?
A) An ideational theory
B
B) Symbolic interactionism
C) Phenomenology
D) The Theory of Human Becoming
The belief that a child with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
will learn appropriate behaviors from continued positive reinforce-
ment of acceptable behavior patterns can generate a research
hypothesis. This generalization of the relationship between phe-
nomena is known as which of the following? B
A) Null Hypothesis
B) Theory
C) Model
D) Framework
The connection of phenomena through a loosely structured ap-
proach not directly linking them in a logically deductive manner is
which of the following?
A) Middle range theory C
B) Theoretical framework
C) Conceptual model
D) Research question
Identify the type of research that often fails to formally acknowl-
edge the conceptual underpinnings or framework of the study
since it is not necessarily part of the research tradition.
A) Quantitative research A
B) Qualitative research
C) Pilot study
D) Mixed method research
Which of the following concepts are central to nursing models?
Select all that apply.
A) Human beings
A, B, C
B) Environment
C) Health
D) Nutrition
Research on the recovery process of young adults following
post-traumatic amputation of a lower extremity would best be
furthered by using which of the following conceptual models of
D
nursing?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
B) Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model

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C) Becker's Health Belief Model
D) Sister Callista Roy's Adaptation Model
Which of the following is a non-nursing conceptual model fre-
quently used in nursing research and can be considered a shared
theory?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory A
B) Pender's Health Promotion Model
C) Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
D) Beck's Theory of Postpartum Depression
Which of the following are overall objectives of the use of theories
in research? Select all that apply.
A) To provide a mechanism for deducing hypotheses
B) To stimulate new research A, B, C
C) To explain relationships among phenomena
D) To determine the research design and methods of data collec-
tion
Conceptual models of nursing are used by nurse researchers as
an inspiration in formulating research questions and directing re-
search hypotheses. Some of the concepts that form these models
include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A, B, C
A) Health promotion
B) Unified whole
C) Adaptation
D) Self-efficacy
Theories are created and invented as opposed to being discov-
ered. Theories are built inductively from which of the following?
A) Observations
A
B) Correlations
C) Research questions
D) Research problems
Visual representation of the relationships among phenomena
used in both quantitative and qualitative research is known as
which of the following?
A) Descriptive theory D
B) Framework
C) Shared theory
D) Conceptual map
The five stages of change of the Transtheoretical Model include
which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Precontemplation
A, B, D
B) Action
C) Evaluation
D) Maintenance
Which of the following theories are usually adopted by ethnog-
raphers in the conduction of qualitative research? Select all that
apply.
A) Ideational theories A, B
B) Materialistic theories
C) Substantive theories
D) Preexisting theories
Lazarus and Folkman's Theory of Stress and Coping has been
used in nursing research to correlate the relationship between
stress and anxiety in primary caregivers of patients with dementia.
This is an example of which of the following?
C
A) Conceptual model
B) Framework
C) Shared theory
D) Grounded theory

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 NUR 302 - Chapter 8, Research Ch 8, Research- Chapter 8
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Nursing theories that are more restricted in their generality and
set out to explain a smaller focus of the human experience are
known as which of the following?
A) Grand theories B
B) Middle-range theories
C) Classical theories
D) Propositions
What is a broad abstract characterization of phenomena?
Theory
Descriptive theory Theory
Grand theory
Middle-range theories
The power of theories lies in the ability to do what?
Capture the complexity of human nature by the richness of the
operational definitions associated with the variables.
Minimize the number of words required to explain phenomena
Specify the nature of the relationships that exist among phenom-
and, thereby, eliminate semantic problems.
ena and offer explanations.
Prove conclusively that relationships exist among the phenomena
studied.
Specify the nature of the relationships that exist among phenom-
ena and offer explanations.
What thoroughly describes a phenomenon?
Theory
Descriptive theory Descriptive theory
Grand theory
Middle-range theories
What attempt to describe large segments of the human experi-
ence?
Theory
Grand theory
Descriptive theory
Grand theory
Middle-range theories
What are the building blocks of theory?
Propositions
Relationships Concepts
Hypotheses
Concepts
What is the major similarity between theories and conceptual
models?
Use concepts as their building blocks.
Use the deductive reasoning process almost exclusively. Use concepts as their building blocks.
Contain a set of logically interrelated propositions.
Provide a mechanism for developing new propositions from the
original propositions.
What are conceptual maps?
Stimulate new research with the use of a schematic model.
Explain phenomena and relationships among them with a map.
Graphic, theory-driven representations of phenomena and their
Map the integration of knowledge into coherent systems to explain
relationships using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use of
the key relationships that exist.
words.
Graphic, theory-driven representations of phenomena and their
relationships using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use of
words.
Which model explains and predicts the health promotion compo-
nent of lifestyle?
Adaptation Model
Health Promotion Model
Conservation Model
Health Promotion Model
Self-Care Model

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Several conceptual models and grand theories of nursing have
been developed. Which concept is not central to models for nurs-
ing?
Human beings Social support
Environment
Health
Social support
Which model finds humans as adaptive systems that cope with
change through adaptation?
Adaptation Model
Adaptation Model
Conservation Model
Health Promotion Model
Self-Care Model
Whose major conceptual model of nursing is used by re-
searchers?
Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings
Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
Watson's Theory of Caring
Rizzo's Theory of Human Becoming
Which is an example of a borrowed theory?
Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
Watson's Theory of Caring
Rizzo's Theory of Human Becoming
What did the nurse theorist Roy develop?
Adaptation Model
Theory of Caring Adaptation Model
Science of Unitary Human Beings
Health Care Systems Model
What did the nurse theorist Neuman develop?
Adaptation Model
Theory of Caring Health Care Systems Model
Science of Unitary Human Beings
Health Care Systems Model
Which type of theory is often a precursor to predictive theories?
Explanatory theory
Grand theory Explanatory theory
Middle-range theory
Situation-specific theory
What is an example of a nursing theory that has been described
as a grand theory?
Adaptation Model
Theory of Human Becoming
Theory of Caring
Science of Unitary Human Beings
Theory of Human Becoming
Theories differ in their level of generality and abstraction. What
type of theory purports to describe and explain large segments of
the human experience?
Explanatory theory Grand theory
Grand theory
Middle-range theory
Situation-specific theory
Theories differ in their level of generality and abstraction. What
type of theory attempts to explain such phenomena as decision
making, stress, comfort, health promotion, and unpleasant symp-
Middle-range theory
toms?
Explanatory theory
Grand theory

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Middle-range theory
Situation-specific theory
All research studies have a framework. What type of framework is
used in a research study based on a theory?
Schematic framework
Theoretical framework
Practice framework
Theoretical framework
Conceptual framework
The key to Rogers' conceptual framework are her principles of
homeodynamics, which represent a way of viewing unitary human
beings and provide guidance to nursing practice. The principles
include integrality, helicy, and resonancy. What is resonancy?
-Nonlinear domain without temporal or spatial attributes
Continuous change from lower- to higher-frequency wave pat-
-Concerns the continuous and mutual processes between human
terns in human and environmental energy fields.
and environmental fields
-Continuous and innovative diversity of human and environmental
field patterns
-Continuous change from lower- to higher-frequency wave pat-
terns in human and environmental energy fields.
A theory that thoroughly describes a (single) phenomenon, based
Descriptive theory
on rich observations of it
A theory that attempts to explain large aspects of human experi-
Grand theory
ences
A theory that focuses on a specific aspect of human experience
Middle-range theory
(ex. stress)
What are the four concepts central to models of nursing? Human beings, Environment, Health, Nursing
-Neuman's Health Care Systems Model
-Newman's Health as Expanding Consciousness
Conceptual Models of Nursing that have been used in nursing -Orem's Self-Care Deficit Nursing Theory
research include: -Parse's Theory of Human Becoming
-Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings
-Roy's Adaptation Model
-Pender's Health Promotion Model (HPM)
Examples of middle-range theories developed by nurses include: -Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
-Johnson's Self-Regulation Theory
-Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
-Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model
Examples of non-nursing models used by nurse researchers in-
-Becker's Health Belief Model (HBM)
clude:
-Ajzen's Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB)
-Lazarus and Folkman's Theory of Stress and Coping
Ans: C
In the classical use of theory, researchers test hypotheses de-
A set of logically interrelated propositions is associated with which
duced from an existing theory. An emerging trend is the testing of
of the following?
theory-based interventions. Concepts are also the basic elements
A) Schematic model
of conceptual models, but concepts are not linked in a logical-
B) Conceptual model
ly ordered, deductive system. Schematic models (or conceptual
C) Classical theory
maps) are graphic representations of phenomena and their in-
D) Descriptive theory
terrelationships using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use of
words. Descriptive theory thoroughly describes a phenomenon.
Ans: D
The power of theories lies in their ability to do which of the
A theory is an abstract generalization that systematically explains
following?
relationships among phenomena, but does not prove these re-
A) Explain large segments of human experience
lationships conclusively. Schematic models (or conceptual maps)
B) Minimize the number of words required to explain phenomena
are graphic representations of phenomena and their interrelation-
and, thereby, eliminate semantic problems
ships using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use of words.
C) Prove conclusively that relationships exist among the phenom-
Grand theories (or macro theories) attempt to describe large
ena studied
segments of the human experience, but this is not true of all
D) Articulate the nature of relationships among phenomena
theories.

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Ans: C
As classically defined, theories consist of concepts and a set of
The building blocks of theory are which of the following?
propositions that form a logically interrelated system, providing a
A) Frameworks
mechanism for deducing hypotheses from the original proposi-
B) Relationships
tions. Schematic models (or conceptual maps) visually represent
C) Concepts
relationships among phenomena, and are used in both qualitative
D) Hypotheses
and quantitative research. Like theories, conceptual models can
serve as springboards for generating hypotheses.
Ans: C
Every study has which of the following? A framework is the conceptual underpinning of a study. Not every
A) Theory study is based on a theory or conceptual model, but every study
B) Schematic model has a framework. Schematic models (or conceptual maps) are
C) Framework graphic representations of phenomena and their interrelationships
D) Conceptual model using symbols or diagrams and a minimal use of words; not every
study has a schematic model.
Ans: A
Which of the following is true of both theories and conceptual
Theories and conceptual models are invented or created, not
models?
discovered. A theory, but not a conceptual model, consists of
A) They are invented or created, not discovered.
concepts and a set of propositions that form a logically interrelated
B) They need to be borrowed from other disciplines for nursing
system, providing a mechanism for deducing hypotheses from
studies.
the original propositions. Several conceptual models of nursing
C) They contain a set of logically interrelated propositions.
have been used in nursing research, so they do not need to be
D) They are different words for exactly the same thing.
borrowed from other disciplines.
Ans: D
Examples of middle-range theories that have been used in re-
search include Beck's (2012) Theory of Postpartum Depression;
the Theory of Unpleasant Symptoms (Lenz et al., 1997), Kolca-
The Health Promotion Model would best be described as which ba's (2003) Comfort Theory, Pender's Health Promotion Model,
of the following? and Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory (1990). Middle-range
A) Descriptive theory theories are specific to certain phenomena. Descriptive theory
B) Borrowed theory thoroughly describes a phenomenon. Non-nursing models used
C) Grounded theory by nurse researchers (e.g., Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory)
D) Middle-range theory are referred to as borrowed theories; when the appropriateness
of borrowed theories for nursing inquiry is confirmed, the theories
become shared theories. Some qualitative researchers seek to
develop grounded theories, data-driven explanations to account
for phenomena under study through inductive processes.
Which of the following are central concepts in conceptual models
of nursing? Select all that apply. Ans: A, C, D
A) Human beings The concepts central to models of nursing are human beings, en-
B) Social support vironment, health, and nursing. Social supports are not a concept
C) Health central to models of nursing.
D) Environment
Ans: C
An example of a model of nursing used by nurse researchers is
Roy's Adaptation Model. Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
The nurse-theorist Roy developed which of the following?
(Mishel, 1990) focuses on the concept of uncertaintyóthe inability
A) Uncertainty in Illness Model
of a person to determine the meaning of illness-related events.
B) Health Promotion Model
Nola Pender's (2006) Health Promotion Model (HPM) focuses on
C) Adaptation Model
explaining health-promoting behaviors, using a wellness orienta-
D) Theory of Stress and Coping
tion. Lazarus and Folkman's (1984, 2006) Theory of Stress and
Coping offers an explanation of people's methods of dealing with
stress.
Ans: D
The nurse-theorist Pender developed which of the following? Pender's (2006) Health Promotion Model (HPM) focuses on ex-
A) Adaptation Model plaining health-promoting behaviors, using a wellness orientation.
B) Social Cognitive Theory An example of a model of nursing used by nurse researchers is
C) Health Belief Model Roy's Adaptation Model. The Social Cognitive Theory was devel-
D) Health Promotion Model oped by Bandura, and the Health Belief Model was developed by
Becker.

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Ans: A
Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory (Mishel, 1990) focuses on
The nurse-theorist Mishel developed which of the following?
the concept of uncertaintyóthe inability of a person to determine
A) Uncertainty in Illness Theory
the meaning of illness-related events. Pender's (2006) Health
B) Health Promotion Model
Promotion Model (HPM) focuses on explaining health-promoting
C) Adaptation Model
behaviors, using a wellness orientation. An example of a model
D) Transtheoretical Model
of nursing used by nurse researchers is Roy's Adaptation Model.
Prochaska developed the Transtheoretical Model.
Ans: C
An example of a model of nursing used by nurse researchers
is Roy's Adaptation Model. Grand theories (or macro theories)
The Theory of Stress and Coping is an example of which of the attempt to describe large segments of the human experience.
following? Non-nursing models used by nurse researchers (e.g., Bandura's
A) A nursing model Social Cognitive Theory) are referred to as borrowed theories;
B) A grand theory when the appropriateness of borrowed theories for nursing inquiry
C) A borrowed theory is confirmed, the theories become shared theories. The Theo-
D) A grounded theory ry of Stress and Coping is an example of a borrowed theory.
Some qualitative researchers seek to develop grounded theories,
data-driven explanations to account for phenomena under study
through inductive processes.
Ans: C
Social Cognitive Theory (Bandura, 1985, 2001), which is some-
times called self-efficacy theory, offers an explanation of human
Self efficacy is a widely-used construct that was originally devel- behavior using the concepts of self-efficacy, outcome expecta-
oped within which of the following? tions, and incentives. Becker's Health Belief Model (HBM) is a
A) The Health Belief Model framework for explaining people's health-related behavior, such
B) The Health Promotion Model as health-care use and compliance with a medical regimen. Nola
C) Social Cognitive Theory Pender's (2006) Health Promotion Model (HPM) focuses on ex-
D) The Uncertainty in Illness Theory plaining health-promoting behaviors, using a wellness orientation.
Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory (Mishel, 1990) focuses on
the concept of uncertaintyóthe inability of a person to determine
the meaning of illness-related events.
Ans: B
In the Transtheoretical Model (Prochaska et al., 2002), the core
construct is stages of change, which conceptualizes a continuum
of motivational readiness to change problem behavior. Becker's
Stages of change is a construct that was developed within which
Health Belief Model (HBM) is a framework for explaining people's
of the following?
health-related behavior, such as health-care use and compliance
A) The Health Belief Model
with a medical regimen. The Theory of Planned Behavior (TPB;
B) The Transtheoretical Model
Ajzen, 2005), which is an extension of another theory called the
C) Health as Expanding Consciousness Model
Theory of Reasoned Action, offers a framework for understand-
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
ing people's behavior and its psychological determinants. Rosa
(2011) based her study of the process of transformative nursing
practice in caring for patients with a chronic illness in Margaret
Newman's (1997) Theory of Health as Expanding Consciousness.
Ans: B
Some qualitative researchers seek to develop grounded theories,
data-driven explanations to account for phenomena under study
through inductive processes. A popular theoretical underpinning
A grounded theory often has as a theoretical underpinning which
of grounded theory research is symbolic interaction (or interac-
of the following?
tionism), which has three underlying premises (Blumer, 1986). In
A) An ideational theory
some qualitative research traditions (e.g., phenomenology), the
B) Symbolic interactionism
researcher strives to suspend previously held substantive theories
C) Phenomenology
of the specific phenomena under study, but each tradition has rich
D) The Theory of Human Becoming
theoretical underpinnings. Ideational theories, a type of cultural
theory, suggest that cultural conditions and adaptation stem from
mental activity. The Theory of Human Becoming (Parse, 1999) has
been called a nursing grand theory.
Ans: B
The belief that a child with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
Classically, theory is defined as an abstract generalization that
will learn appropriate behaviors from continued positive reinforce-
explains how phenomena are interrelated. The relationships in
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ment of acceptable behavior patterns can generate a research this case are between the concepts of ADHD and positive re-
hypothesis. This generalization of the relationship between phe- inforcement. Models are more loosely structured than theories
nomena is known as which of the following? and deal more in abstracts. Frameworks relate to the conceptual
A) Null Hypothesis underpinnings of a study. A null hypothesis suggests that no
B) Theory relationship exists between concepts. In this case, we are looking
C) Model at the relationship between ADHD and positive reinforcement with
D) Framework the hypothesis that a relationship does exist.
Ans: C
Conceptual models focus on abstracts and therefore are loosely
The connection of phenomena through a loosely structured ap-
structured, presenting an understanding of the phenomena and a
proach not directly linking them in a logically deductive manner is
philosophical view of the design. They do not link concepts in a
which of the following?
logically derived deductive system. Middle-range theories, com-
A) Middle range theory
pared with grand theories, are more specific and more amenable
B) Theoretical framework
to empirical testing. In a study based on a theory, the framework is
C) Conceptual model
called the theoretical framework. A research question specifically
D) Research question
poses the research problem being studied, such as the following:
Does hand washing reduce hospital-acquired infections?
Ans: A
Identify the type of research that often fails to formally acknowl-
Quantitative studies look at the research problem, research ques-
edge the conceptual underpinnings or framework of the study
tion, and hypothesis from a statistical approach, which does not
since it is not necessarily part of the research tradition.
necessarily have a conceptual framework basis. In qualitative
A) Quantitative research
studies, the framework is part of the research tradition in which
B) Qualitative research
the study is based. A pilot study can be of either a quantitative,
C) Pilot study
qualitative, or mixed-method approach, thereby having some ac-
D) Mixed method research
knowledgement of the conceptual framework.
Which of the following concepts are central to nursing models? Ans: A, B, C
Select all that apply. Human beings, environment, and health are three of the four con-
A) Human beings cepts central to models of nursing, with nursing being the fourth,
B) Environment as opposed to nutrition. These conceptual models have been
C) Health defined and linked in diverse ways to emphasize the relationship
D) Nutrition among them.
Ans: D
In the Adaptation Model, humans are considered adaptive sys-
tems that cope with change through adaptation. A patient with an
amputation of a lower extremity would have the need to cope with
Research on the recovery process of young adults following this loss and adapt to the change in mobility resultant from the
post-traumatic amputation of a lower extremity would best be trauma. Social Cognitive Theory (Bandura, 1985, 2001), which is
furthered by using which of the following conceptual models of sometimes called self-efficacy theory, offers an explanation of hu-
nursing? man behavior using the concepts of self-efficacy, outcome expec-
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory tations, and incentives. Self-efficacy concerns people's belief in
B) Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model their own capacity to carry out particular behaviors (e.g., smoking
C) Becker's Health Belief Model cessation). In the Transtheoretical Model (Prochaska et al., 2002),
D) Sister Callista Roy's Adaptation Model the core construct is stages of change, which conceptualizes a
continuum of motivational readiness to change problem behavior.
Becker's Health Belief Model (HBM) is a framework for explaining
people's health-related behavior, such as health-care use and
compliance with a medical regimen.
Which of the following is a non-nursing conceptual model fre-
quently used in nursing research and can be considered a shared
Ans: A
theory?
Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory is one of the five non-nursing
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
models or theories frequently used in nursing studies. All of the
B) Pender's Health Promotion Model
other choices are considered nursing models.
C) Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
D) Beck's Theory of Postpartum Depression
Ans: A, B, C
Which of the following are overall objectives of the use of theories
Classically, theory is defined as an abstract generalization that
in research? Select all that apply.
explains how phenomena are interrelated. As classically defined,
A) To provide a mechanism for deducing hypotheses
theories consist of concepts and a set of propositions that form a
B) To stimulate new research
logically interrelated system, providing a mechanism for deducing
C) To explain relationships among phenomena
hypotheses from the original propositions. Theories can also help

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to stimulate research by providing both direction and impetus.
D) To determine the research design and methods of data collec- The research design and methods of data collection are directly
tion related to the research problem and research question and are
not primarily determined by the theory.
Conceptual models of nursing are used by nurse researchers as
an inspiration in formulating research questions and directing re- Ans: A, B, C
search hypotheses. Some of the concepts that form these models Health promotion, unified whole, and adaptation are conceptual
include which of the following? Select all that apply. models theorized by Pender, Rogers, and Roy, respectively, all
A) Health promotion nurse theorists. Self-efficacy comes out of Bandura's Social Cog-
B) Unified whole nitive Theory and is considered a non-nursing theory frequently
C) Adaptation used in nursing studies.
D) Self-efficacy
Ans: A
Theory and research have a reciprocal relationship. Theories are
Theories are created and invented as opposed to being discov-
built inductively from observations, and research is an excellent
ered. Theories are built inductively from which of the following?
source for those observations. The theory, in turn, must be tested
A) Observations
by subjecting deductions from it (hypotheses) to systematic in-
B) Correlations
quiry. Thus, research plays a dual and continuing role in theory
C) Research questions
building and testing. Correlations, research questions, and re-
D) Research problems
search problems are part of the research designs that validate or
test the relationship between concepts.
Visual representation of the relationships among phenomena
Ans: D
used in both quantitative and qualitative research is known as
Conceptual maps or schematic models link concepts and repre-
which of the following?
sent them graphically through boxes, arrows, or other symbols.
A) Descriptive theory
Although theories and frameworks build through concepts they
B) Framework
are not necessarily always depicted through a schematic repre-
C) Shared theory
sentation.
D) Conceptual map
The five stages of change of the Transtheoretical Model include
Ans: A, B, D
which of the following? Select all that apply.
Precontemplation, action, and maintenance are all part of the
A) Precontemplation
Transtheoretical Model. The second and third stages are contem-
B) Action
plation and preparation. Evaluation is not a stage of change in this
C) Evaluation
model.
D) Maintenance
Ans: A, B
Which of the following theories are usually adopted by ethnog-
Ethnographers adopt one of two cultural theories, ideational the-
raphers in the conduction of qualitative research? Select all that
ories, which suggest that cultural conditions and adaptation stem
apply.
from mental activity and ideas, or materialistic theories, which
A) Ideational theories
view material conditions as the source of cultural development.
B) Materialistic theories
Substantive theory is a conceptualization of the target phenom-
C) Substantive theories
enon being studied and can be used in any qualitative approach.
D) Preexisting theories
Preexisting theories are frequently used in quantitative research.
Lazarus and Folkman's Theory of Stress and Coping has been Ans: C
used in nursing research to correlate the relationship between The Theory of Stress and Coping is one of five non-nursing
stress and anxiety in primary caregivers of patients with dementia. models or theories that have frequently been used in nursing
This is an example of which of the following? studies, thus making it a shared theory. Grounded theory is a
A) Conceptual model tradition of qualitative research. Concepts are the building blocks
B) Framework of theories. Theories can serve as the basis of a framework in a
C) Shared theory study although there is no specific indication above that it was
D) Grounded theory used in a specific research study.
Ans: B
Nursing theories that are more restricted in their generality and
Middle-range theories explain a portion of the human experience
set out to explain a smaller focus of the human experience are
such as decision-making or infant attachment. Grand theories or
known as which of the following?
macro-theories explain large segments of human experience and
A) Grand theories
tend to be more general. Classically defined, theories consist of
B) Middle-range theories
concepts and a set of propositions that form a logically interre-
C) Classical theories
lated system, providing a mechanism for logically deducing new
D) Propositions
statements from original propositions.

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Why should the registered nurse practicing nursing at the bedside
be concerned about research for the delivery of quality nursing
care? A
A) Research provides the nurse with knowledge needed to make
sound clinical decisions.
Clinical decisions should be based on knowledge about patient
B) One study can change nursing practice dramatically. outcomes, not just tradition. Option B, C, and D are incorrect:
Practice should never change on the basis of just one study. The
C) The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organi- Joint Commission regulates health care settings, not the practice
zations requires all nurses to be consumers of research. of nursing. Much of "traditional" practice has been found to lead
to positive patient outcomes.
D) Traditional nursing care is no longer appropriate for twenty-first
century nursing.
Why should the average consumer of health care be concerned
about nursing research?
A
A) Research provides evidence that nursing care makes a differ-
ence.

B) The nursing profession needs to define its place in the health Nursing is accountable to consumers when they can demonstrate
care system. the safety and effectiveness of nursing care. Options B and C
focus on the nursing profession, not the consumer, and therefore
C) Accrediting agencies must determine how best to use the do not answer the question. Nursing research builds knowledge
technology needed to provide nursing care. about effective nursing interventions, as well as the cost-effec-
tiveness of nursing care.
D) Nurses must justify the cost of their services for reimburse-
ment purposes.
A nurse in an intensive care unit is engaged in nursing practice
that is evidence based. The nurse recognizes which sequence of
steps that will culminate in evidence-based practice?
A) Evaluate, act, appraise and assess, gather, and ask
C) Ask, gather, assess and appraise, act, and evaluate
B) Appraise and assess, act, ask, gather, and evaluate

C) Ask, gather, assess and appraise, act, and evaluate

D) Gather, ask, evaluate, act, and appraise and assess

To be important to nursing practice, nursing theory must be sup-
ported by what?
A) Educational environment
B) Nursing research
B) Nursing research
C) Patient outcomes
D)Expansive body of science
A nurse researcher is searching for the purpose of a study in a
research report. Where is the most likely place to find the purpose
in the report?
A) At the end of the research design section
B- end of literature review section
B) At the end of the literature review section

C) At the end of the sampling section

D) At the end of the conclusion section

The best way to determine that a research study met ethical
C
standards is by locating which information?
A) The reliability and validity of each measure were discussed.
Approval of the study by an institutional review board ensures that
B) The data analysis procedures are thoroughly discussed.
the study met ethical standards. Although the discussion of the
reliability and validity of instruments, the procedures used for data
C) The study was approved by an institutional review board.

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analysis, and the sampling techniques used are important, they
D) The sampling techniques used were discussed. do not indicate that the study met ethical standards.
The nurse researcher wants to summarize several studies that
focus on early detection of ovarian cancer. The nurse intends to
use specific statistical methods that will allow conclusions to be
drawn by the focus area. In this case, which is the best systematic
review to choose? A) Meta-analysis
A) Meta-analysis
B) Integrative review
C) Meta-synthesis
D) Meta-summary
For which research question would qualitative methods be most
appropriate?
A) Which pain medications decrease the need for sleep medica-
tion in elderly patients?

B) What is the meaning of health for migrant farmworker women?

B) What is the meaning of health for migrant farmworker women?
C) Under what conditions does a decubitus ulcer heal most quick-
ly?

D) How does frequency of medication administration affect the

degree of pain experienced following knee replacement surgery?
The nurse is attempting to locate the legal-ethical issues of a
qualitative research study. The best place for the nurse to look for
this in the study is where?
A) Discussion section B) procedure section
B) Procedure section
C) Design section
D) Sample section
Which is the best strategy for a nurse researcher to use in order
to read a research study critically?
A) Read the study through once very thoroughly.

B) Use a research text to clarify unfamiliar terms.

B) Use research text to clarify unfamiliar terms
C) Underline the study's findings.

D) Use the abstract to select the parts of the study needing closer
perusal.
Which is the best way for a nurse to use research appropriately?
C- explore the strength of the evidence available
A) Follow the study researcher's recommendations.

B) Read many studies in the same content area and follow the
It is important to determine all evidence available and the strength
recommendations of the studies with similar findings.
of the evidence before changing practice. Practice decisions
should never be made on the basis of one study alone. Studies
C) Explore the strength of the evidence available.
in the same content area may not represent the best knowledge
in the area. Nurses do not need to replicate studies before making
D) Replicate studies in their own settings to make sure recom-
practice decisions.
mendations are contextually appropriate.
A nurse reads a research article and asks other graduate students
to study the same article using the same criteria. The nurse is
most likely using which stage of the critical reading process?
A) Preliminary understanding C) Analysis understanding
B) Comprehensive understanding
C) Analysis understanding
D) Synthesis understanding
What can a nurse researcher determine by reading the abstract,
introduction, major headings, and conclusions of a study?
A) Relevance of the study to nursing practice
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B) Appropriateness of methods used
C) Need for further study D - study's main theme
D) Study's main theme
How can a nurse researcher achieve a comprehensive under-
standing of any research report?
A) Skim the entire report for a general overview.

B) Study the abstract to learn the main components of the study.

C) seek assistance for unclear content
C) Seek assistance for unclear content.

D) Review the conclusion to link the content with the research

question.
What must a nurse researcher do before beginning to analyze a
B
study?
What is the most accurate term for making patient-care decisions
on the basis of research findings?
A) Critical reflection
B
B) Evidence-based practice
C) Applied research
D) Research implications
When does the strength of the scientific evidence available influ-
ence changes in nursing practice?
A) Studies in the area have used quantitative methodology.
B
B) Studies in the content area show similar results.
C) Each study uses small, highly controlled samples of subjects.
D) Selective bias is built into the research design.
An experimental study in which subjects were randomly selected
is an example of what level of study?
A) Level II
A
B) Level IV
C) Level VI
D) Level VII
Which phrase would be found in a report of a qualitative study?
A) "The hypothesis of this study is ______."

B) "Perceived pain was measured using the Abbott pain scale."

D
C) "The control group received no instruction."

D) "Subjects were asked to relate their perceptions of pain."

Which phrase would be found in a report of a quantitative study?
A) "A convenience sample was chosen."
B) "The phenomenon studied was _____."
A) "A convenience sample was chosen"
C) "Data were analyzed and interpreted."
D) "Researchers sought to explore the meaning of the hospital
experience."
Which study title indicates the use of qualitative methodology?

A) Comparison of Nursing Assessment Techniques in Hospitals

and Home Care Settings

B) The Relationship between Numbers of Errors Made and Ed-

D
ucational Preparation

C) The Effectiveness of Patient Teaching Pre- and Postoperatively

D) The Experience of Mother-Child Bonding in Inner-City Popu-

lations

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The nurse is critically reading a research study and writes cues,
the relationships of concepts, and questions on a photocopy
version of the study. This would most likely be included in which
step of the critical reading process?
C) analysis understanding
A) Preliminary understanding
B) Comprehensive understanding
C) Analysis understanding
D) Synthesis understanding
The nurse researcher is critically reading a research study and
states the main idea of the article in his or her own words. This
would most likely be included in which step of the critical reading
process?
B) comprehensive understanding
A) Preliminary understanding
B) Comprehensive understanding
C) Analysis understanding
D) Synthesis understanding
Characteristics of a quantitative research design include:
A) lack of a hypothesis either stated or implied.
B) use of variables measured by instruments. B
C) use of snowball sampling techniques.
D) lack of a focus on numerical analysis.
What is the goal of qualitative research?
A) Test relationships
B) Describe phenomena C
C) Look for meaning
D) Assess differences
The nurse researcher is interested in gaining additional informa-
tion about a study's sampling technique. This information is most
likely found in which section of the research report?
A) Procedures C) Methodology
B) Data analysis
C) Methodology
D) Reliability
The nurse researcher is critiquing a qualitative research article.
Where in the report would the researcher be most likely to find
information about the phenomenon that is being investigated?
A) Abstract A) Abstract
B) Introduction
C) Method
D) Procedures
The nurse researcher is critiquing a quantitative research article
and is interested in finding additional information on the findings
that were obtained. Where would the researcher be most likely to
find this information if it is not in the results section?
D
A) Methods
B) Instruments
C) Procedures
D) Discussion
The nurse researcher is critically reading a quantitative research
article and is most interested in obtaining information about the
A) literature review
theoretical framework utilized. The researcher does not note a
separate section in the article giving information about the the-
oretical framework. It is therefore most likely to be located in the:
The theoretical framework is most likely to be included with the
A) literature review.
literature review if it is not given its own section in the research
B) purpose.
report.
C) problem.
D) introduction.
What is an accurate description of a critique? (Select all that
apply.)

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A) It requires some knowledge of the subject matter.
A, B
B) The process of critical appraisal that objectively and critically
evaluates content of an article.
A critique is the process of critical appraisal that objectively and
critically evaluates content of an article. A critique requires the use
C) The process of creating standards used to judge an article.
of previously set critiquing criteria and standards. An executive
summary is a detailed summary of a large amount of data. A
D) It is an executive summary of an article.
critique is conducted for the purpose of objectively evaluating all
aspects of a research report not just theory and application.
E) It serves to explain the link between theory and application.
Which research process steps may be noted in an article's ab-
stract? (Select all that apply.)
A) Identifying the methods
A, B, D
B) Research question study purpose
C) Literature review
Identifying the methods, the research question study purpose,
D) Results
and the results may be noted in the abstract.
E) Conclusion
F) Legal-ethical issues
G) Data collection procedure
What are the critiquing criteria used to judge the worth of a
research study? (Select all that apply.)
A, C, E, F
A)Measures
B)Objectives
Measures, standards, evaluation guides, and questions are used
C) Standards
to judge the worth of a research study. Objectives and effective-
D) Effectiveness
ness are not used to judge the worth of a research study.
F) Evaluation guides
G) Questions
What is the first step in carrying out an EBP project?
A)Select a topic.
B)Retrieve evidence. A
C)Resolve problem-focused issues.
D)Grade existing evidence.
What is an example of a problem-focused trigger?
A) An increased incidence of diabetes mellitus
B) Pain management A
C) Prevention of skin breakdown
D) Use of saline to maintain patency of arterial lines
What is an example of a knowledge-focused trigger?
A) A sudden increase in cost of catheter equipment
B) An increased risk for nosocomial infections D
C) Medical errors
D) Assessing placement of nasogastric tubes
Once evidence is retrieved, the articles that provide information
regarding the state of the science are known as what?
A) Clinical articles
D
B) Theory articles
C) Systematic review articles
D) EBP guidelines
Before critiquing research, the first category of articles to read in
order to understand the state of the practice is what?
A) Systematic review articles
D
B) EBP guidelines
C)Theory articles
D) Clinical articles
How does a summary table assist a researcher?
A) Collecting a broad array of literature
B) Summarizing the weaknesses of studies D
C) Tracking the generalizability of studies
D) Synthesizing information from studies

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An example of a problem-focused trigger is:
A) length of bed rest after femoral artery catheterization.
B) treatment of heart failure.
D
C) prevention of nosocomial pressure ulcers.
D) increased incidence of central line occlusion in pediatric on-
cology patients.
The first step of evaluation for evidence-based projects is:
A) use data to assist staff in modifying or integrating the change.
B) design data collection forms. D
C) determine methods and frequency of data collection.
D) identify process and outcome variables of interest.
The final step of evaluation for evidence-based projects is:
A) use data to assist staff in modifying or integrating the change.
B) design data collection forms. A
C) determine methods and frequency of data collection.
D) identify process and outcome variables of interest.
Which domain and element for systems to grade the strength
of evidence consists of the extent to which similar findings are
reported using similar and different study designs?
A) Quality C
B) Quantity
C) Consistency
D) Relevance
Which domain and element for systems to grade the strength
of evidence consists of the magnitude of effect, the numbers of
studies, and sample size or power?
A) Quality B
B) Quantity
C) Consistency
D) Relevance
A nurse recognizes the need to change practice on the basis of a
review of current research conducted in the practice area. What
is this an example of? (Select all that apply.)
B,D
A) Conceptually driven use of research evidence
B) Evidence-based practice (EBP) decisions Correct
C) Problem-focused practice Incorrect
D) Decision-driven use of research evidence Correct
It is essential to engage key stakeholders in an EBP project for
which reason? (Select all that apply.)

A) Stakeholders provide non-nursing perspectives.

B) Stakeholders may impede adoption of the EBP if they are not B, C, D
included.
C) Stakeholders will be directly affected by the implementation of
the EBP.
D) Stakeholders are the resistors to change.
What should the nurse researcher address when grading the
evidence of a study? (Select all that apply.)
A) The source of the information
B, D
B) The quality of the individual research
C) Instrumentation that is available D) The strength of the body of
evidence
Limitations of EBP guidelines may include what? (Select all that
apply.)
A) Age of guidelines
A, B
B) Inappropriate retrieval methods
C) Level II evidence Incorrect
D) History of being tested in practice Incorrect

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A group approach to the critique of research is useful for which
reason? (Select all that apply.)
A) The risk of biased review is lower.
B, C
B) It provides novice researchers the chance to review research.
C) The workload is distributed.
D) Some nurses are more expert than others.
Which statement about hypotheses is most accurate?
A) Hypotheses represent the main idea to be studied and are the
foundations of research studies.

B) Hypotheses help frame a test of the validity of a theory. B

C) Hypotheses provide the means to test nursing theory.

D) A hypothesis can also be called a problem statement.

A nurse wants to study the effectiveness of meditation for people
with anxiety disorder. Which variable would be most relevant to
explore in the literature on the topic?
A) Use of meditation during childbirth B
B) Meditation techniques found to be effective
C) Pain management for people with various disorders
D) Outcomes of meditation when used by elderly populations
Which is a characteristic of an independent variable?
A) It is the variable that is predicted to change.
B) It varies with a change in the dependent variable. C
C) It is manipulated by the researcher.
D) The dependent variable implies the causal relationship.
Which statement is most accurate regarding hypotheses?
A) Hypotheses operationally define the dependent variables.
B) Hypotheses are statements about the relationships among
variables. B
C) Hypotheses describe the effect of the dependent variable on
the independent variable.
D) Hypotheses are formulated after the study is conducted.
A research question can be converted into a declarative state-
ment that predicts an expected outcome through the use of what?
A) Hypothesis
A
B) Variable
C) Theory
D) Operational definition
What is a characteristic of a hypothesis?
A) It flows from interpretation of the data collected.
B) It operationally defines the variable to be studied. D
C) It eliminates the need to designate a dependent variable.
D) It implies a causative or associative relationship.
During the research process, a hypothesis should be developed
by the researcher at what point?
A) Before development of the research question
B
B) After development of the research question
C) After a research design is determined
D) Before any statistical analysis
Which research hypothesis as written is most testable?
A) There is a relationship between meditation and anxiety disor-
ders.
B) Patients with anxiety disorders who learn meditation tech- D
niques have less anxiety than those who do not.
C) Teaching one meditation technique to patients with anxiety
disorders will be better than teaching multiple techniques.

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D) The ability to meditate causes lower anxiety in patients with
anxiety disorder than those who do not meditate.
What is a characteristic of a directional hypothesis?
A) It specifies the expected relationship between dependent and
independent variables.
B) It describes causality of the dependent variable on the inde-
pendent variable. A
C) It is one of several hypotheses arising from a complex research
question.
D) It is more objective and impartial than nondirectional hypothe-
ses.
What is a characteristic of a statistical hypothesis?
A) It is a null hypothesis.
B) It predicts a positive relationship among variables. A
C) It is a complex hypothesis.
D) It describes data-analysis methods.
When should the nurse researcher reject the null hypothesis?
A) When there is no association among variables
B) When there is evidence of significance C
C) When the independent and dependent variables are related
D) When the research hypothesis is rejected
The nurse researcher is participating in a quasi-experimental
study. Which level is characteristic of the strength of the evidence
provided in regard to the results of such a study?
A) Level I C
B) Level II
C) Level III
D) Level IV
The nurse researcher writes the research question, "What was it
like to be diagnosed with breast cancer?" This is considered to be
which type of research question?
A) Comparative quantitative B
B) Grounded theory qualitative
C) Correlational quantitative
D) Experimental quantitative
What is the purpose of including a summary of the theoretical and
scientific background of a study in a research report?
A) To operationalize the variables used in the study
B) To differentiate the purpose of the study and the research
question C
C) To inform the reader about how the research question was
developed
D) To allow the reader to determine the testability of the hypoth-
esis
The nurse develops the following hypothesis: Elderly women re-
ceive less aggressive treatment for breast cancer than do younger
women. Which variable would be considered the dependent vari-
able?
A
A) Degree of treatment received
B) Age of the patient
C) Type of cancer being treated
D) Use of inpatient treatment
The nurse researcher is reviewing a study that has a research
question formatted as "Is there a difference in the dependent
variable between people who have the independent variable and
those who do not have the independent variable?" How is this B
question formatted?
A) Correlational
B) Comparative

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C) Experimental
D) Phenomenology
The nurse researcher is reviewing a clinical question and identi-
fies an aspect of health care that is of interest to the nurse. The
clinical question is under which component?
A) Population B
B) Intervention
C) Comparison
D) Outcome
The nurse researcher is reviewing a clinical question and identi-
fies the group of patients with a particular health care problem
that is being studied. This area of the clinical question is the:
A) population A
B) intervention
C) comparison
D) outcome
The nurse researcher is working with a clinical situation that does
not lend itself to being resolved with a ready solution. Which is D
most appropriate for the nurse researcher to develop?
A) Directional hypothesis
B) Nondirectional hypothesis Clinical questions often arise from clinical situations for which
C) Research question there are no ready answers.
D) Clinical question
Which hypothesis is indicative of an experimental research de-
sign? (Select all that apply.)
A) Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters will be positively related
to urinary tract infections.

B) The incidence of urinary tract infections will be greater in

patients whose Foley catheters are irrigated frequently than in
B, D
those whose Foley catheters are irrigated less frequently.

C) Frequent irrigation of Foley catheters is associated with urinary

tract infections.

D) The incidence of urinary tract infections will not differ between

patients with or without Foley catheters.
Which criteria are used to judge the soundness of a stated re-
search question? (Select all that apply.)
A) A relationship between two or more variables
A, C, D
B) An operational definition of each variable
C) The nature of the population being tested
D) The possibility of empirical testing (observation)
Which criteria are used to determine testability of a hypothesis?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Use of quantifiable words such as greater than or less than

B) A hypothesis stated in such a way that it can be clearly

A, B
supported or not supported

C) The use of value-laden words in a hypothesis

D) Data collection efforts that prove the validity of the hypothesis

The nurse participating in a research project recognizes which
factors are advantages to using directional hypotheses? (Select
all that apply.)
A, B
A) The indication of the use of a theory base to derive the
hypothesis
B) The provision of a specific theoretical frame of reference

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C) Assurance that findings will be generalizable
D) The indication of a nonbiased selection of subjects
The nurse researcher is writing a clinical question. What do ele-
ments of such a question include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Population
A, B, C
B) Intervention
C) Outcome
D) Evaluation
The nurse researcher notes that the hypothesis for a research
study states that there is no relationship between the dependent
and independent variables. This is most commonly known as
(Select all that apply.)
A, C
A) Statistical hypothesis
B) Directional hypothesis
C) Null hypothesis
D) Nondirectional hypothesis
A nurse researcher chooses to use a secondary source in a
research study. What is an example of such a source?
A) A chapter in a book critiquing research conducted on visual
impairment in diabetics.

B) A state-specific Nurse Practice Act, describing that state's

A
scope of practice for nurses.

C) A doctoral dissertation that studied depression in adolescents.

D) A published research report from 10 years ago, written by the

original researcher.
A nurse researcher chooses a primary source in a research study.
What is an example of such a source?
A) A published commentary on the findings of another study.
B) A doctoral dissertation that critiques all research on atten-
D
tion-deficit disorder.
C) A textbook of medical-surgical nursing.
D) A journal article about research using large, previously unpub-
lished databases generated by the U.S. census.
What is the best source for a nurse researcher to use when
conducting a level I systematic meta-analysis of the literature?
A) An electronic database
B
B) The Cochrane Statistical Methods Group
C) A doctoral dissertation
D) MEDLINE
What is the most effective use of a print index for a nurse re-
searcher?
A) To determine the keywords to use in an electronic search
B) To provide the latest unpublished research C
C) To show sources that may not have been entered into an
electronic database
D) To provide lists of secondary resources
What is the most efficient tool to use for scholarly literature
searches?
A) Web browsers
B
B) Online journals
C) Search engines
D) Government Web sites
A nurse researcher is outlining a premise for an evidence-based
project. The researcher should plan to search within how many
B
years in the literature for this project?
A) 3 years

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B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) 15 years

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Children of parents in a special weight management program
were significantly less likely to be obese at the end of the study
period than children whose parents were not in the program (Ç2 =
C. Results section
5.41, p = .02).
This sentence presents a statistical finding, including the name
of the test (here, a test called chi-squared), the value of the test
A. Introduction
statistic, and the probability (p) value.
B. Method section
C. Results section
D. Discussion
The research team's inability to recruit a sufficiently large sample
may have contributed to the ambiguous pattern of findings in this
study.
D. Discussion
This sentence describes a study limitation, which would be pre-
A. Introduction
sented in the discussion section.
B. Method section
C. Results section
D. Discussion
The approach used to explore the patient's experiences of living
with end-stage renal disease was phenomenological, using the
methods described by Colaizzi.
B. Method section
This sentence describes the qualitative approach used to explore
A. Introduction
patients' experiences.
B. Method section
C. Results section
D. Discussion
The purpose of this study was to explore the complex communi-
cation needs of hospitalized patients with cerebral palsy.
A. Introduction
This sentence describes the purpose of the study and would
A. Introduction
appear early in the article so that readers would understand the
B. Method section
researcher's intent.
C. Results section
D. Discussion
The sample comprised 119 women who underwent total abdom-
inal hysterectomy in a large academic medical center.
B. Method section
A. Introduction This sentence describes one aspect of what the researcher did to
B. Method section answer the research question (i.e., about the study sample).
C. Results section
D. Discussion
False
The review of literature is typically found in the method section of
Rationale: The review of literature is usually found in the introduc-
the research report. True or false?
tion of the research report.
False
A researcher would describe the limitations of the study in the
Rationale: The study limitations are typically described in the
results section of the report. True or false?
discussion section of the report.
True
Research critiques are done to evaluate the strengths and limita- Rationale: Although there are a wide variety of reasons for cri-
tions of a study. True or false? tiquing research, research critiques provide careful and objective
appraisals of the strengths and limitations of a study.
Which of the following would be a key aspect of trustworthiness? C. Credibility
[Link] Rationale: Credibility is a key criterion for trustworthiness. Re-
B. Reliability liability and validity are key for evaluating quantitative research.
C. Credibility Triangulation is the use of multiple sources or referents to draw
D. Validity conclusions.
False
Blinding is used in qualitative studies. True or false? Rationale: Blinding is used in quantitative studies to reduce bias
that results from awareness.

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Ans: B
Feedback:
Sampling is the process of selecting elements from a population,
Sampling may be defined as which of the following?
which is an entire aggregate of cases. An element is the basic
A) Selection of an accessible population for a study
unit of a populationóusually humans in nursing research. Eligibility
B) Selection of a subset of a population to represent the entire
criteria (including both inclusion criteria and exclusion criteria)
population
are used to define population characteristics. Researchers usually
C) Assignment of study participants to treatment groups
sample from an accessible population; a broader target population
D) Technique for ensuring that every element in the population
is the group to which they would like to generalize their results.
has an equal chance of being included in the study
A key criterion in assessing a sample in a quantitative study is its
represent ativeness-the extent to which the sample is similar to
the population and avoids bias.
Ans: D
Bias in a sample for a quantitative study refers to which of the
Feedback:
following?
Sampling bias is the systematic overrepresentation or underrep-
A) Lack of heterogeneity in the population on the attribute of
resentation of some segment of the population. Nonprobability
interest
sampling (in which elements are selected by nonrandom meth-
B) Sample selection using nonprobability-type sampling methods
ods) includes convenience, quota, consecutive, and purposive
C) The margin of error in the data obtained from samples
sampling. A key criterion in assessing a sample in a quantitative
D) Systematic over- or underrepresentation of a key attribute
study is its representativenessóthe extent to which the sample is
vis-a-vis the population
similar to the population and avoids bias.
Ans: C
Feedback:
Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous strata
Strata are incorporated into the design of which of the following
(subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups in the
sampling approaches?
sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by convenience.
A) Systematic
Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people from an ac-
B) Purposive
cessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a specific
C) Quota
time interval, or for a specified sample size. In purposive sampling,
D) Consecutive
participants are hand-picked to be included in the sample based
on the researcher's knowledge about the population. Systematic
sampling is the selection of every kth case from a list.
Ans: B
Feedback:
Systematic sampling is the selection of every kth case from a list
Which of the following is a probability sampling method? and is an example of a probability sampling method. Convenience
A) Convenience sampling sampling uses the most readily available or convenient group of
B) Systematic sampling people. Quota sampling divides the population into homogeneous
C) Consecutive sampling strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation of the subgroups
D) Quota sampling in the sample; within each stratum, people are sampled by con-
venience. Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people
from an accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over
a specific time interval, or for a specified sample size.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Consecutive sampling involves taking all of the people from an
The sampling design that would be especially likely to yield a accessible population who meet the eligibility criteria over a spe-
representative sample is which of the following? cific time interval, or for a specified sample size. Convenience
A) Consecutive sampling uses the most readily available or convenient group of
B) Convenience people. In purposive sampling, participants are hand-picked to
C) Purposive be included in the sample based on the researcher's knowledge
D) Quota about the population. Quota sampling divides the population into
homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation
of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are
sampled by convenience.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Convenience sampling uses the most readily available or conve-
nient group of people. The problem with convenience sampling
is that people who are readily available might be atypical of the
population, and so the price of convenience is the risk of bias.
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Convenience sampling is the weakest form of sampling, but it
is also the most commonly used sampling method in many dis-
Which of the following types of sample is considered to be the
ciplines. In purposive sampling, participants are hand-picked to
weakest for quantitative studies?
be included in the sample based on the researcher's knowledge
A) Convenience
about the population. Quota sampling divides the population into
B) Quota
homogeneous strata (subpopulations) to ensure representation
C) Purposive
of the subgroups in the sample; within each stratum, people are
D) Systematic
sampled by convenience. Systematic sampling is the selection of
every kth case from a list.
A researcher used a systematic sampling plan. The sample size Ans: C
was 200. The sampling interval was 250. The first element drawn Feedback:
was 196. The second element would be: By dividing the population size by the desired sample size, the re-
A) 396 searcher establishes the sampling interval, which is the standard
B) 45 distance between the selected elements: 196 (first element) + 250
C) 446 (sample interval) = 446 (second element). 396, 450, and 646 are
D) 646 incorrect responses.
Ans: B
Which of the following is the most widely used data collection Feedback:
method by nurse researchers? Data collection methods vary in terms of structure, quantifiability,
A) Records and objectivity. The three principal data collection methods for
B) Self-reports nurse researchers are self-report, observations, and biophysio-
C) Observation logic measures. Self-reports, which involve directly questioning
D) Biophysiologic measures study participants, are the most widely used method of collecting
data for nursing studies.
Ans: B
Feedback:
Good closed-ended questions are more difficult to construct than
open-ended ones but easier to analyze. Closed-ended questions
A major advantage of closed-ended questions is that they do are also more efficient: people can complete more closed-end-
which of the following? ed questions than open-ended ones in a given amount of time.
A) Are easy to construct People may be unwilling to compose lengthy written responses
B) Are analyzed in a straightforward manner to open-ended questions in questionnaires. A major drawback of
C) Encourage in-depth responses closed-ended questions is that researchers might omit some po-
D) Are not subject to response biases tentially important responses. Closed-ended questions also can
be superficial. Open-ended questions allow for richer information
if the respondents are verbally expressive and cooperative. Finally,
some respondents object to choosing from alternatives that do not
reflect their opinions precisely.
Ans: C
Feedback:
Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because of
Interviews are usually preferable to questionnaires because the
which of the following?
quality of the data tends to be higher. Researchers using struc-
A) They are less expensive
tured self-reports must decide whether to use interviews or
B) They yield data that are easier to analyze
self-administered questionnaires. Questionnaires are less costly
C) The quality of the data tends to be higher
than interviews and offer the possibility of anonymity, but inter-
D) They require less training of research personnel
views yield higher response rates, are suitable for a wider variety
of people, and provide richer data than questionnaires.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Questionnaires are less costly than interviews and offer the pos-
Questionnaires have the advantage of which of the following?
sibility of anonymity, but interviews yield higher response rates
A) Offering the possibility of anonymity
(which reduce the risk for bias), are suitable for a wider variety
B) Having high response rates
of people, and provide richer data than questionnaires. Interviews
C) Reducing the possibility of response set biases
are usually preferable to questionnaires because the quality of the
D) Being suitable for all types of study participants
data tends to be higher. Researchers using structured self-reports
must decide whether to use interviews or self-administered ques-
tionnaires.
Ans: D
On a five-point Likert scale, a person who strongly agreed with a
Feedback:
statement would be scored as which of the following?
Likert scales (or summated rating scales) present respondents

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with a series of items worded favorably or unfavorably toward
A) 1 a phenomenon; responses indicating level of agreement or dis-
B) 3 agreement with each statement are scored and summed into a
C) 5 composite score. The term needs to be indicated for each number
D) Cannot be determined in order to determine which number represents strongly agree or
disagree.
Ans: C
Feedback:
On a 20-item Likert scale with five response categories, the range
Likert scales (or summated rating scales) present respondents
of possible scores is which of the following?
with a series of items worded favorably or unfavorably toward
A) 0 to 100
a phenomenon; responses indicating level of agreement or dis-
B) 20 to 80
agreement with each statement are scored and summed into a
C) 20 to 100
composite score. 20 items x a score of 1 per item is 20 as the
D) 0 to 50
minimum score and 20 items x a score of 5 per item are 100 as
the maximum score.
Ans: C
Feedback:
A visual analog scale (VAS) is used to measure subjective ex-
periences (e.g., pain, fatigue) along a 100 mm line designating
a bipolar continuum. Observational methods are techniques for
A self-report method used to measure subjective experiences acquiring data through the direct observation of phenomena. Data
such as pain and fatigue is which of the following? may also be derived from biophysiologic measures, which include
A) Observation in vivo measurements (those performed within or on living organ-
B) In vivo measurements isms) and in vitro measurements (those performed outside the
C) Visual analog scales organism's body, such as blood tests). Biophysiologic measures
D) Likert scales have the advantage of being objective, accurate, and precise.
Likert scales (or summated rating scales) present respondents
with a series of items worded favorably or unfavorably toward
a phenomenon; responses indicating level of agreement or dis-
agreement with each statement are scored and summed into a
composite score.
Ans: A
The social desirability response set bias is least likely to be a Feedback:
problem on scales incorporated into which of the following? Social desirability response set biasóa tendency to misrepresent
A) Mailed anonymous questionnaires attitudes or traits by giving answers that are consistent with pre-
B) Face-to-face interviews vailing social viewsówould be least likely to be a problem with
C) Telephone interviews mailed anonymous questionnaires, as the anonymity would likely
D) All options are equally susceptible cause people to be less concerned about what others thought of
their answers.
Ans: D
Feedback:
A person who marked ìstrongly agreeî to all or most items on a Acquiescence response set bias is a tendency to agree with state-
Likert scale would best be described as which of the following? ments regardless of their content; such responders are known as
A) Socially desirable respondent ìyea-sayers.î People who have the opposite tendencyóto disagree
B) Biased participant with statements independently of the question contentóare known
C) Nay-sayer as nay-sayers and are much less common. Social desirability
D) Yea-sayer response set bias is a tendency to misrepresent attitudes or traits
by giving answers that are consistent with prevailing social views.
A yea-sayer is a type of biased participant.
Ans: A
Feedback:
When an observer is not concealed, the findings may be biased Researchers do not always tell people they are being observed,
because of which of the following? because awareness of being observed may cause people to be-
A) Reactivity have atypically. A behavioral distortion due to the known presence
B) Ethical problems of an observer is called reactivity. It is not an ethical problem or
C) Lack of mobility lack of mobility. Acquiescence response set bias is a tendency to
D) Acquiescence response set bias agree with statements regardless of their content by some people
(yea-sayers). The opposite tendencyóto disagree with statements
independently of the question contentóis less common.

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Which of the following are advantages of using biophysiologic Ans: A, C, D
measures in nursing studies? Select all that apply. Feedback:
A) They are relatively accurate and precise Nurse researchers have used biophysiologic measures for a wide
B) They effectively measure subjective experiences such as pain variety of purposes, and these measures have many advantages.
and fatigue They are relatively accurate and precise, objective, not easily
C) They are objective, requiring minimal inference distorted by patients, and valid. However, they cannot effectively
D) They are typically cost effective because they are available for measure subjective experiences such as pain and fatigue; a visual
clinical purposes analog scale would be more appropriate for that.
Which of the following statements describes a population?
A) All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive Ans: A
care unit during January 2012 Feedback:
B) Four hundred nurses selected from a membership list of Amer- All traumatic brain injury clients hospitalized in an intensive care
ican Nurses' Association (ANA) members unit during January 2012 denotes a population. A population is the
C) Selected members of families of clients undergoing surgery entire group of interest. The other answers denote only samples
D) A sample of clients diagnosed with COPD and who currently or segments of a population.
smoke
Ans: A
Which of the following results from a sample size that is too small?
Feedback:
A) Low power to detect a difference in the outcomes of the two
Sampling involves selecting a portion of the population to rep-
groups
resent the population. A low power to detect a difference in the
B) Lack of control over extraneous variables
outcomes of the two group results from a sample size that is too
C) Limits to random sampling
small. The other answers are not effects of having a sample size
D) A weak questionnaire survey tool
that is too small.
Which procedure describes a probability sampling method?
A) Identification of community organizations and churches in an Ans: D
urban setting and recruiting participants Feedback:
B) Identification of individuals demonstrating the variable(s) of Identification of a sampling frame for an accessible population,
interest to the researcher and recruiting participants writing element names on paper, placing the written names in
C) Identification of the accessible population and selecting study a bowl, and drawing a select number of names from the bowl
participants based upon the researcher's belief that the partici- describes a probability sampling method. This is because prob-
pant is representative of the accessible population ability sampling involves random selection of elements from a
D) Identification of a sampling frame for an accessible population, population, which is achieved in this case by drawing names from
writing element names on paper, placing the written names in a a bowl. The other answers do not include random selection.
bowl, and drawing a select number of names from the bowl
Ans: D
Which statement regarding sampling error and sampling bias is Feedback:
accurate? Sampling error may be contained in sample data even when the
A) Sampling bias may be defined as the difference between data most careful random sampling procedure has been used to obtain
obtained from a simple random sample and the data that would the sample. There is no guarantee of a representative sample, but
be obtained if an entire population were measured. random selection does guarantee that differences between the
B) Sampling bias occurs by chance. sample and the population (sampling error) are purely a function
C) Sampling error and sampling bias are synonymous. of chance rather than of sampling bias. Sampling bias does not
D) Sampling error may be contained in sample data even when occur by chance and is not synonymous with sampling error.
the most careful random sampling procedure has been used to Sampling error, not sampling bias, is defined as the difference
obtain the sample. between data obtained from a simple random sample and the data
that would be obtained if an entire population were measured.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Convenience sampling entails selecting the most conveniently
Which group represents a convenience sample?
available people as participants. A nurse who distributes ques-
A) The patients with a diagnosis of URI seen in the clinic on one
tionnaires about vitamin use to 100 elders at a senior citizens
afternoon in February
center is sampling by convenience, for example. The problem with
B) One hundred male BSN nurses recruited by the original study
convenience sampling is that people who are readily available
subjects who are currently in leadership roles
might be atypical of the population, and so the price of conve-
C) Middle-class Caucasian females chosen as representatives of
nience is the risk of bias. Convenience sampling is the weakest
the accessible population
form of sampling, but it is also the most commonly used sampling
D) Twenty male subjects and twenty female subjects chosen for
method in many disciplines. In this case, the best example of a
a study on gender differences
convenience sample is ìthe patients with a diagnosis of URI seen
in the clinic on one afternoon in February,î because the sample
includes only those patients who happen to be at the clinic during

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a short time period. The other answers indicate other sampling
designs, including quota and purposive sampling.
Ans: B
Feedback:
In stratified random sampling, the population is first divided into
two or more strata, from which elements are randomly selected.
Which sampling method would be most practical and provide the
The aim of stratified sampling is to enhance representativeness;
most reliable data to study the medication errors by registered
as a type of probability sampling, it is more reliable than nonprob-
nurses who work in city, county, and federal prisons?
ability sampling. This case would be ideal for stratified random
A) Purposive sampling
sampling, as the population is readily divided into the strata of city,
B) Stratified random sampling
county, and federal prisons. Purposive sampling is based on the
C) Quota sampling
belief that researchers' knowledge about the population can be
D) Simple random sampling
used to hand-pick sample members. Quota sampling occurs when
researchers identify population strata and figure out how many
people are needed from each stratum. Simple random sampling
is the most basic probability sampling.
If a target population contains 10,600 elements and the re-
searcher seeks a systematic random sample of 50, the sampling
Ans: C
interval would be which of the following?
Feedback:
A) 116
To obtain the sampling interval, the size of the population is
B) 600
divided by the size of the desired sample.
C) 212
D) 53
Ans: C
When is a small sample size appropriate for a research study?
Feedback:
A) Many uncontrolled variables are present.
When expected differences are large, a large sample is not need-
B) The population is very homogenous.
ed to reveal group differences statistically; but when small dif-
C) Large differences are expected in members of the population
ferences are predicted, large samples are necessary. In general,
on the variable of interest.
however, a larger sample size leads to less bias and greater
D) The population must be divided into subgroups.
reliability.
A survey question asks subjects to respond to the following state-
ment: "The overall hospital experience that I received during my Ans: B
hospital stay considered my needs as an individual."They were Feedback:
asked to identify, on a five-point scale, the degree to which they A Likert scale consists of several declarative statements (items)
agreed or disagreed with the statement. This is an example of that express a viewpoint on a topic. Respondents are asked to
which scale? indicate how much they agree or disagree with the statement. This
A) Social scale is an example of a Likert scale. Visual analog scales measure sub-
B) Likert scale jective experiences. There are no ìsocialî or ìdifferentialî scales
C) Visual analog scale mentioned in this chapter.
D) Differential scale
The nurse researcher is conducting a study on a nonpharmaco-
Ans: D
logic nursing intervention for the treatment of pain. Which data
Feedback:
collection instrument would provide the most sensitive measure-
A visual analog scale would provide the most sensitive mea-
ment of pain?
surement of pain, because it measures subjective experiences.
A) Differential scale
Physiologic measures and the Likert scale do not effectively mea-
B) Physiologic measures
sure subjective experiences such as pain. There is no ìdifferential
C) Likert scale
scale.î
D) Visual analog scale
Ans: D
Feedback:
Which of the following is an advantage of observation as a method Observation directly captures an event and behaviors. Obser-
of data collection in a study? vational methods can be used to gather such information as
A) Subjects may be anxious because they are being observed. the conditions of individuals, verbal communication, nonverbal
B) Respondents can remain anonymous. communication, activities, and environmental conditions. Subject
C) It is less time consuming than a questionnaire. anxiety is not an advantage but a disadvantage of observation
D) It directly captures an event and behaviors. and may be eliminated by concealment. Respondents are not
anonymous when observed, and observation is not less time
consuming than a questionnaire.
Ans: B
Feedback:
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Which of the following are advantages to biophysiologic mea-
An advantage of biophysiologic measures is that patients cannot
sures?
distort the measurements and they include objective measures.
A) Biophysiologic measurements are subjective and accurate.
Biophysiologic measures include both in vivo and in vitro mea-
B) Patients cannot distort the measurements and have objective
sures. Biophysiologic measures are accurate, precise, and ob-
measures.
jective. They are not self-reported and cannot effectively indicate
C) Biophysiologic measurements are self-reported.
pain levels.
D) Biophysiologic measurements effectively indicate pain levels.

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Sampling in research may be defined as:
a. insurance that each person has a chance of being included in
the study. ANS: D
b. establishment of criteria for eligibility to participate in a study. Sampling involves selecting a group of people, events, behaviors,
c. identification of the population in which the researcher is inter- or other elements with which to conduct a study. Samples are
ested. expected to represent a population of people.
d. selection of a subset of a population to represent the whole
population.
A researcher is interested in studying lifestyle management in pa-
tients with inflammatory bowel disease. The researcher contacts
the Crohn's and Colitis Foundation of America to determine how
to best access this patient population. Patients with inflammatory
ANS: D
bowel disease are an example of which of the following?
The target population is the entire set of individuals who meet the
sampling criteria.
a. Accessible population
b. Element
c. Sample
d. Target population
Subjects who participate in a study of patients with inflammatory
bowel disease are described as the:
ANS: C
A sample is that group of people who are representing the entire
a. accessible population.
population and participating in the study. Samples are expected
b. element.
to represent an entire population.
c. sample.
d. target population.
The Crohn's and Colitis Foundation of America referred the inter-
ested researcher to a local chapter of the organization. The local
chapter agreed to send out letters on behalf of the researcher
inviting potential subjects to contact the researcher if they are
willing to participate in a study. Potential subjects in this situation ANS: A
would be described as the: An accessible population is the portion of the target population to
which the researcher has reasonable access.
a. accessible population.
b. element.
c. sample.
d. target population.
The population from which the researcher selects the actual study
sample is referred to as the:
ANS: A
An accessible population is the portion of the target population
a. accessible population.
to which the researcher has reasonable access. The sample is
b. scientific population.
obtained from the accessible population.
c. target population.
d. theoretical population.
In a study of liver transplant recipients, the researcher specifies
that the subjects must be 18 years of age or older and the recipient
of only one liver transplant. These criteria are an example of:
ANS: D
Inclusion criteria are those characteristics that the subject or
a. demographic attributes.
element must possess to be part of the target population.
b. exclusion criteria.
c. extraneous variables.
d. inclusion criteria.
The adequacy of a sample would be primarily based on which of
the following criteria?
ANS: B
a. Method chosen for sample selection A sample needs to be representative in terms of characteristics,
b. Representativeness of the population such as age, gender, ethnicity, income, and education
c. Size of the total population
d. Willingness of subjects to participate
A sample that accurately reflects the characteristics of the popu-
lation from which it is drawn is a:
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a. cluster sample. ANS: D

b. purposive sample. Representativeness means that the sample, accessible popula-
c. random sample. tion, and target population are alike in as many ways as possible.
d. representative sample.
Sample attrition would be reflected by the:
ANS: D
a. average death rate of the population under study.
Sample attrition or mortality is the withdrawal or loss of subjects
b. inability to access identified members of a population.
from a study
c. number of patients who die while participating in a study.
d. number of patients who drop out of a study.
The term "comparison group" in research refers to the group of
patients in a:
ANS: A
a. nonrandom sample who do not receive a treatment. If nonrandom methods are used for sample selection, the group
b. nonrandom sample who receive a treatment. not receiving a treatment is referred to as a comparison group.
c. random sample who do not receive a treatment.
d. random sample who receive a treatment.
Which of the following would be the best method for randomly
assigning subjects (n = 40) to treatment (n = 20) and control
(n = 20) groups in an intervention study? Assign numbers to all
subjects and: ANS: D
In the approach described, all 40 of the subjects have an equal
a. ignore numbers; group the subjects by diagnosis or physician. chance of being assigned to either the treatment group or the
b. place the first 20 subjects in one group and the last in the other. control group.
c. put even-numbered subjects in one group, odd numbered in the
other.
d. put numbers 1 to 40 in a box and blindly draw from the box.
Which of the following is true about probability sampling? Proba-
bility sampling:
ANS: A
a. can take different forms, but random selection is always used.
Random sampling allows each individual in the population an
b. is the most economical way to get large numbers of subjects.
opportunity to be selected for the sample.
c. guarantees that the sample is representative.
d. subjects are handpicked because they have the expertise to
provide information for the study.
Another name for probability sampling is:
ANS: D
a. accidental sampling. In probability sampling, every member of the population has a
b. purposive sampling. probability higher than zero of being selected for the sample. To
c. quota sampling. achieve this probability, the sample is obtained randomly.
d. random sampling.
The researcher is to select a set of five subjects using a random
numbers table. The selected population is 50. The researcher's
pencil was initially placed on the second column from the left and
third row down. The decision is to move across the columns to the
right.
06 84 10 22 56 72 25 70 69 43
07 63 10 34 66 39 54 02 33 85
03 19 63 93 72 52 13 30 44 40
ANS: C
77 32 69 58 25 15 55 38 19 62
20 01 94 54 66 88 43 91 34 28
The subject numbers will be:

a. 13, 30, 44, 40, 32

b. 19, 38, 55, 15, 25
c. 19, 63, 93, 72, 52
d. 33, 02, 54, 39, 66
Which of the following statements is true about stratified random
sampling?
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ANS: A
a. Allows the researcher to use a smaller sample size
With stratification, the researcher can use a smaller sample size
b. Ensures obtaining a larger sample at lower cost
and achieve the same degree of representativeness in relation to
c. Internal validity is strengthened with this type of sampling
the stratified variable as a large sample acquired through simple
d. Involves the selection of certain subjects from a convenience
random sampling.
sample
Cluster sampling is:

a. a form of nonprobability sampling used in small surveys. ANS: B

b. also known as multistage sampling. Both terms, cluster sampling and multistage sampling, have the
c. unlikely to result in sampling errors. same meaning in sampling methods.
d. useful when the target population is found in a small geograph-
ical area.
A person is shopping in the mall and is approached by individuals
who identify themselves as researchers for a local food chain.
They ask the person to participate in their study by answering
a few questions. As a subject for this survey, the person was
selected by which method of sampling?
ANS: A
a. Convenience sampling
b. Purposive sampling
c. Random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
Findings of an intervention study with a convenience sample:

a. are generalizable to a wider group of patients with related ANS: D

problems. Representativeness of the sample is a concern in convenience
b. are to be discounted because they are extremely biased. sampling, and generalizability is therefore limited.
c. provide no useful information.
d. should be replicated before being applied to a wider population.
Which type of sampling will get the largest number of subjects in
the shortest period of time?

a. Cluster sampling ANS: B

b. Convenience sampling
c. Network or snowball sampling
d. Random sampling
Which of the following types of sampling is considered to be the
weakest?

a. Cluster ANS: B
b. Convenience
c. Quota
d. Systematic
Which of the following samples is least likely to be representative
of the overall population?

a. Convenience ANS: A
b. Quota
c. Random
d. Stratified random
An advantage of convenience sampling is:
ANS: A
a. ease in obtaining subjects.
Convenience samples are inexpensive, accessible, and usually
b. increased internal validity and control.
require less time to acquire than other types of samples.
c. low risk of sampling bias.
d. representativeness of sample is ensured.
Which of the following study types would require the largest
sample size?

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ANS: A
a. Correlational Descriptive studies and correlational studies often require very
b. Experimental large samples. In these studies multiple variables may be ex-
c. Grounded theory amined, and extraneous variables are likely to affect subjects'
d. Phenomenology responses to the variables under study.
The sample size needed for a study increases when:
ANS: B
a. the alpha level is increased from .01 to .05.
As the number of variables under study increases, the sample size
b. the number of variables in the study increases.
needed may increase.
c. a one-tailed versus a two-tailed statistical test is used.
d. the sensitivity of the instruments used is high.
A researcher wants to obtain a sample of individuals who are HIV
positive. Which of the following sampling methods would be the
most effective way to obtain a sample?
ANS: C
a. Accidental sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Network sampling
d. Simple random sampling
Which of the following is true about network sampling?

a. Eligibility criteria do not need to be defined carefully.

ANS: D
b. Finding large numbers of subjects by this means is easy and
Network sampling is useful for locating samples difficult or impos-
economical.
sible to obtain in other ways. Network sampling takes advantage
c. Sample representativeness is guaranteed by using this tech-
of social networks and the fact that friends tend to have charac-
nique.
teristics in common.
d. Subjects who have knowledge of a situation, often sensitive or
not socially acceptable, are identified by others in the same type
of situation.
Which is the largest group from among this list?
ANS: D
a. Accessible population
The target population is the group the researcher wants to gen-
b. Control group
eralize to and needs the sample to represent.
c. Sample
d. Target population
Which of the following statements is true about sampling plans?

a. A probability sampling plan is a better plan than a nonprobability

one. ANS: B
b. A sampling plan outlines strategies used to obtain a sample for A sampling plan, or sampling method, defines the selection
a study. process for a study.
c. Each study has its own sampling method, unique to that project.
d. Getting a sample that is the most representative is the ideal, not
the goal, of the sampling plan.
A researcher wanting to explore the lives of women newly di-
agnosed with breast cancer obtains a random sample of the
population. What part of the study will be strengthened because
of the random sample?
ANS: D
Random samples increase the validity of a study.
a. Feasibility
b. Reliability
c. Statistical power
d. Validity
A researcher was able to obtain a list of all lung cancer patients in
the Southeast. If a table of random numbers was used to create
a sample from that original list and then those individuals agreed ANS: C
to participate in a study, what kind of sample would have been Simple random sampling is when every member of the population
created? has an equal chance of selection for the sample.

a. Cluster
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b. Convenience
c. Simple random
d. Stratified random
In a study investigating nurses' attitudes toward taking care of
respiratory disease patients who had a long history of smoking,
the researcher randomly selected a sample from a list of all the
registered nurses from a randomly selected list of four states
in the Southeast. Because the sample was drawn randomly, to
ANS: B
what population can the findings of the study be generalized?
This study used a cluster sampling technique that is one type of
Registered nurses in the:
random sampling plan.
a. Selected four states
b. Southeast
c. Southeast who are actively working
d. United States
In a study investigating nurses' attitudes toward taking care of
respiratory disease patients who had a long history of smoking,
the researcher randomly selected a sample from a list of all the
registered nurses from a randomly selected list of four states in the ANS: C
Southeast. If the researcher also selected the sample by randomly Stratified random sampling is used when certain characteristics
selecting nurses who smoke and those who do not, what sampling of the group are identified and then proportionately included in
technique is being used? the randomly chosen sample. Assuming the researcher first knew
whether or not a nurse smoked, then this represents that sampling
a. Cluster technique.
b. Quota
c. Stratified random
d. Systematic
Which of the following sets of terms represents an appropriate
pairing of a probability sampling method and a corresponding
nonprobability sampling one? ANS: C
Stratified random sampling and quota sampling both attempt to
a. Cluster sampling—snowball technique balance the sample in terms of known characteristics in the pop-
b. Simple random sampling—convenience sampling ulation.
c. Stratified random sampling—quota sampling
d. Theoretical sampling—quota sampling
Which of the following is true about sample size?

a. An adequate sample size is particularly important to detect

ANS: A
differences when they do in fact exist.
Evaluating the adequacy of the sample size is very important
b. Evaluating the possibility of a Type I error will help determine
when no differences have been found. Too small a sample can
sample size.
result in no difference being detected, even when there actually is
c. Finding a significant difference in study groups occurs most
one.
often with smaller samples.
d. Sample size is especially important to support significant find-
ings.
A researcher reports on a study conducted to determine if a
new educational program has helped dialysis patients become
more compliant with their fluid restrictions. The findings indicated
that there was no difference. The report did include that a power
analysis was performed to determine if the sample size (n = 100)
was adequate. The power level was .5. What should the reader
ANS: D
conclude?
A power level needs to reach .8 to be acceptable, and this one had
only .5. There is a good chance that a Type II error occurred, and
a. A sample of 100 is certainly adequate in a clinical study. The
the study should be replicated.
researcher should adjust the educational program.
b. Chances are high that a Type I error has occurred.
c. Findings of no difference are not surprising; it is difficult to make
an impact on this population of patients.
d. There is a high likelihood that the sample size was not ade-
quate, and the study should be replicated using more subjects.

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Apart from sample size, which of the following is typically not
considered when determining the power of a study?
ANS: C
a. Sensitivity of the instruments used The skill of the researcher does not affect the statistical power of
b. Number of variables a study. All other answers are correct.
c. Skill of the researcher
d. Data analysis techniques
To detect a significant difference between two groups when the
effect size is small, what should the researcher do?
ANS: C
a. Conduct a pilot study.
Increasing the sample size makes it easier to detect a difference.
b. Obtain a different sample.
c. Increase the sample size.
d. Perform additional analysis.
Which of the following types of studies would need the largest
sample size?
ANS: B
Descriptive studies often require very large samples. Multiple
a. Case studies
variables may be examined, and extraneous variables are likely
b. Descriptive studies
to affect subject response(s) to the variables under study.
c. Experimental studies
d. Quasi-experimental studies
Why do qualitative researchers need to be as concerned with
sample size as quantitative researchers do? Qualitative re-
searchers:
ANS: B
a. are reaching the objectives of their study in a similar way. Qualitative research oftentimes requires the subjects to share
b. need subjects who are able and willing to share their knowl- their knowledge of the topic being studied in an in-depth level in
edge, oftentimes in repeated and more in-depth interviews than repeated interviews. Therefore the researcher needs to ensure
subjects in quantitative studies. that the sample size is adequate to provide the depth and rich
c. need to gain a narrow focus rather than a broad perspective as data that are required.
their research purpose.
d. will be analyzing the data with statistical techniques that require
certain numbers of subjects.
Which of the following is an example of purposive sampling?

a. The names of all possible subjects are put into a hat, and an
adequate number are drawn out.
b. Volunteers are solicited from the entire population, and those ANS: B
who agree become subjects in the study. Purposive sampling is when appropriate subjects are found by the
c. Sample members are determined by finding a designated researcher and asked to participate in the study.
number of subjects from each of several identified groups (men,
women, high school graduates, etc.).
d. Subjects who have knowledge about the study topic are asked
to participate in the study; those who agree become the sample.
Which of the following are not correctly paired as similar types of
ANS: D
sampling methods?
Stratified random sampling and quota sampling differ in ran-
domness; quota sampling does not allow for equal likelihood of
a. Convenience sampling—accidental sampling
entering the sample from the target population.
b. Network sampling—snowball sampling
Convenience and accidental sampling describe similar types of
c. Purposive sampling—selective sampling
sampling methods.
d. Stratified random sampling—quota sampling
Which of the following is true about theoretical sampling?

a. All studies use theoretical sampling as a background for creat-

ANS: B
ing the sample.
Because of the nature of grounded theory methodology, theoret-
b. Grounded theory research frequently uses theoretical sampling
ical sampling is used.
to develop a selected theory.
c. Subjects are selected to participate in a research study to match
certain theory characteristics.

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d. Theoretical sampling is a little-used, but powerful method of
creating a sample for quantitative research.
Which of the following is true about sample size in a qualitative
study?

a. "Adequate sample size" is of no concern to a qualitative re-

searcher because there is no statistical analysis involved. ANS: B
b. Sample size is deemed to be adequate when the researcher is In qualitative research, the researcher looks for data saturation,
detecting no new knowledge from additional subjects. which is reached when no new information is being discovered
c. Subjects who have knowledge of a situation assist the re- from additional subjects.
searcher in determining whether the sample size is adequate.
d. There is a test similar to the power analysis in a quantitative
study that can be used to determine an adequate sample size for
qualitative research.
Which of the following factors do not influence saturation of data
and therefore sample size in a qualitative study?
ANS: B
Randomization of the data is a concern for quantitative research
a. Quality of the data
designs. All other choices are concerns for saturation of data in
b. Randomization of the sample
qualitative research.
c. Scope of the study
d. Study design
Which of the following research settings is not correctly paired
with the type of setting?
ANS: D
a. Clinical research unit—highly controlled setting A subject's home would be a natural research setting, so it is
b. Indoor playroom—natural setting paired incorrectly with "partially controlled setting."
c. Primary care clinic—partially controlled setting
d. Subject's home—partially controlled setting

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Sampling in research may be defined as:
a. insurance that each person has a chance of being included in
the study. ANS: D
b. establishment of criteria for eligibility to participate in a study. Sampling involves selecting a group of people, events, behaviors,
c. identification of the population in which the researcher is inter- or other elements with which to conduct a study. Samples are
ested. expected to represent a population of people.
d. selection of a subset of a population to represent the whole
population.
A researcher is interested in studying lifestyle management in pa-
tients with inflammatory bowel disease. The researcher contacts
the Crohn's and Colitis Foundation of America to determine how
to best access this patient population. Patients with inflammatory
ANS: D
bowel disease are an example of which of the following?
The target population is the entire set of individuals who meet the
sampling criteria.
a. Accessible population
b. Element
c. Sample
d. Target population
Subjects who participate in a study of patients with inflammatory
bowel disease are described as the:
ANS: C
A sample is that group of people who are representing the entire
a. accessible population.
population and participating in the study. Samples are expected
b. element.
to represent an entire population.
c. sample.
d. target population.
The Crohn's and Colitis Foundation of America referred the inter-
ested researcher to a local chapter of the organization. The local
chapter agreed to send out letters on behalf of the researcher
inviting potential subjects to contact the researcher if they are
willing to participate in a study. Potential subjects in this situation ANS: A
would be described as the: An accessible population is the portion of the target population to
which the researcher has reasonable access.
a. accessible population.
b. element.
c. sample.
d. target population.
The population from which the researcher selects the actual study
sample is referred to as the:
ANS: A
An accessible population is the portion of the target population
a. accessible population.
to which the researcher has reasonable access. The sample is
b. scientific population.
obtained from the accessible population.
c. target population.
d. theoretical population.
In a study of liver transplant recipients, the researcher specifies
that the subjects must be 18 years of age or older and the recipient
of only one liver transplant. These criteria are an example of:
ANS: D
Inclusion criteria are those characteristics that the subject or
a. demographic attributes.
element must possess to be part of the target population.
b. exclusion criteria.
c. extraneous variables.
d. inclusion criteria.
The adequacy of a sample would be primarily based on which of
the following criteria?
ANS: B
a. Method chosen for sample selection A sample needs to be representative in terms of characteristics,
b. Representativeness of the population such as age, gender, ethnicity, income, and education
c. Size of the total population
d. Willingness of subjects to participate
A sample that accurately reflects the characteristics of the popu-
lation from which it is drawn is a:
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a. cluster sample. ANS: D

b. purposive sample. Representativeness means that the sample, accessible popula-
c. random sample. tion, and target population are alike in as many ways as possible.
d. representative sample.
Sample attrition would be reflected by the:
ANS: D
a. average death rate of the population under study.
Sample attrition or mortality is the withdrawal or loss of subjects
b. inability to access identified members of a population.
from a study
c. number of patients who die while participating in a study.
d. number of patients who drop out of a study.
The term "comparison group" in research refers to the group of
patients in a:
ANS: A
a. nonrandom sample who do not receive a treatment. If nonrandom methods are used for sample selection, the group
b. nonrandom sample who receive a treatment. not receiving a treatment is referred to as a comparison group.
c. random sample who do not receive a treatment.
d. random sample who receive a treatment.
Which of the following would be the best method for randomly
assigning subjects (n = 40) to treatment (n = 20) and control
(n = 20) groups in an intervention study? Assign numbers to all
subjects and: ANS: D
In the approach described, all 40 of the subjects have an equal
a. ignore numbers; group the subjects by diagnosis or physician. chance of being assigned to either the treatment group or the
b. place the first 20 subjects in one group and the last in the other. control group.
c. put even-numbered subjects in one group, odd numbered in the
other.
d. put numbers 1 to 40 in a box and blindly draw from the box.
Which of the following is true about probability sampling? Proba-
bility sampling:
ANS: A
a. can take different forms, but random selection is always used.
Random sampling allows each individual in the population an
b. is the most economical way to get large numbers of subjects.
opportunity to be selected for the sample.
c. guarantees that the sample is representative.
d. subjects are handpicked because they have the expertise to
provide information for the study.
Another name for probability sampling is:
ANS: D
a. accidental sampling. In probability sampling, every member of the population has a
b. purposive sampling. probability higher than zero of being selected for the sample. To
c. quota sampling. achieve this probability, the sample is obtained randomly.
d. random sampling.
The researcher is to select a set of five subjects using a random
numbers table. The selected population is 50. The researcher's
pencil was initially placed on the second column from the left and
third row down. The decision is to move across the columns to the
right.
06 84 10 22 56 72 25 70 69 43
07 63 10 34 66 39 54 02 33 85
03 19 63 93 72 52 13 30 44 40
ANS: C
77 32 69 58 25 15 55 38 19 62
20 01 94 54 66 88 43 91 34 28
The subject numbers will be:

a. 13, 30, 44, 40, 32

b. 19, 38, 55, 15, 25
c. 19, 63, 93, 72, 52
d. 33, 02, 54, 39, 66
Which of the following statements is true about stratified random
sampling?
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ANS: A
a. Allows the researcher to use a smaller sample size
With stratification, the researcher can use a smaller sample size
b. Ensures obtaining a larger sample at lower cost
and achieve the same degree of representativeness in relation to
c. Internal validity is strengthened with this type of sampling
the stratified variable as a large sample acquired through simple
d. Involves the selection of certain subjects from a convenience
random sampling.
sample
Cluster sampling is:

a. a form of nonprobability sampling used in small surveys. ANS: B

b. also known as multistage sampling. Both terms, cluster sampling and multistage sampling, have the
c. unlikely to result in sampling errors. same meaning in sampling methods.
d. useful when the target population is found in a small geograph-
ical area.
A person is shopping in the mall and is approached by individuals
who identify themselves as researchers for a local food chain.
They ask the person to participate in their study by answering
a few questions. As a subject for this survey, the person was
selected by which method of sampling?
ANS: A
a. Convenience sampling
b. Purposive sampling
c. Random sampling
d. Systematic sampling
Findings of an intervention study with a convenience sample:

a. are generalizable to a wider group of patients with related ANS: D

problems. Representativeness of the sample is a concern in convenience
b. are to be discounted because they are extremely biased. sampling, and generalizability is therefore limited.
c. provide no useful information.
d. should be replicated before being applied to a wider population.
Which type of sampling will get the largest number of subjects in
the shortest period of time?

a. Cluster sampling ANS: B

b. Convenience sampling
c. Network or snowball sampling
d. Random sampling
Which of the following types of sampling is considered to be the
weakest?

a. Cluster ANS: B
b. Convenience
c. Quota
d. Systematic
Which of the following samples is least likely to be representative
of the overall population?

a. Convenience ANS: A
b. Quota
c. Random
d. Stratified random
An advantage of convenience sampling is:
ANS: A
a. ease in obtaining subjects.
Convenience samples are inexpensive, accessible, and usually
b. increased internal validity and control.
require less time to acquire than other types of samples.
c. low risk of sampling bias.
d. representativeness of sample is ensured.
Which of the following study types would require the largest
sample size?

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ANS: A
a. Correlational Descriptive studies and correlational studies often require very
b. Experimental large samples. In these studies multiple variables may be ex-
c. Grounded theory amined, and extraneous variables are likely to affect subjects'
d. Phenomenology responses to the variables under study.
The sample size needed for a study increases when:
ANS: B
a. the alpha level is increased from .01 to .05.
As the number of variables under study increases, the sample size
b. the number of variables in the study increases.
needed may increase.
c. a one-tailed versus a two-tailed statistical test is used.
d. the sensitivity of the instruments used is high.
A researcher wants to obtain a sample of individuals who are HIV
positive. Which of the following sampling methods would be the
most effective way to obtain a sample?
ANS: C
a. Accidental sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Network sampling
d. Simple random sampling
Which of the following is true about network sampling?

a. Eligibility criteria do not need to be defined carefully.

ANS: D
b. Finding large numbers of subjects by this means is easy and
Network sampling is useful for locating samples difficult or impos-
economical.
sible to obtain in other ways. Network sampling takes advantage
c. Sample representativeness is guaranteed by using this tech-
of social networks and the fact that friends tend to have charac-
nique.
teristics in common.
d. Subjects who have knowledge of a situation, often sensitive or
not socially acceptable, are identified by others in the same type
of situation.
Which is the largest group from among this list?
ANS: D
a. Accessible population
The target population is the group the researcher wants to gen-
b. Control group
eralize to and needs the sample to represent.
c. Sample
d. Target population
Which of the following statements is true about sampling plans?

a. A probability sampling plan is a better plan than a nonprobability

one. ANS: B
b. A sampling plan outlines strategies used to obtain a sample for A sampling plan, or sampling method, defines the selection
a study. process for a study.
c. Each study has its own sampling method, unique to that project.
d. Getting a sample that is the most representative is the ideal, not
the goal, of the sampling plan.
A researcher wanting to explore the lives of women newly di-
agnosed with breast cancer obtains a random sample of the
population. What part of the study will be strengthened because
of the random sample?
ANS: D
Random samples increase the validity of a study.
a. Feasibility
b. Reliability
c. Statistical power
d. Validity
A researcher was able to obtain a list of all lung cancer patients in
the Southeast. If a table of random numbers was used to create
a sample from that original list and then those individuals agreed ANS: C
to participate in a study, what kind of sample would have been Simple random sampling is when every member of the population
created? has an equal chance of selection for the sample.

a. Cluster
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b. Convenience
c. Simple random
d. Stratified random
In a study investigating nurses' attitudes toward taking care of
respiratory disease patients who had a long history of smoking,
the researcher randomly selected a sample from a list of all the
registered nurses from a randomly selected list of four states
in the Southeast. Because the sample was drawn randomly, to
ANS: B
what population can the findings of the study be generalized?
This study used a cluster sampling technique that is one type of
Registered nurses in the:
random sampling plan.
a. Selected four states
b. Southeast
c. Southeast who are actively working
d. United States
In a study investigating nurses' attitudes toward taking care of
respiratory disease patients who had a long history of smoking,
the researcher randomly selected a sample from a list of all the
registered nurses from a randomly selected list of four states in the ANS: C
Southeast. If the researcher also selected the sample by randomly Stratified random sampling is used when certain characteristics
selecting nurses who smoke and those who do not, what sampling of the group are identified and then proportionately included in
technique is being used? the randomly chosen sample. Assuming the researcher first knew
whether or not a nurse smoked, then this represents that sampling
a. Cluster technique.
b. Quota
c. Stratified random
d. Systematic
Which of the following sets of terms represents an appropriate
pairing of a probability sampling method and a corresponding
nonprobability sampling one? ANS: C
Stratified random sampling and quota sampling both attempt to
a. Cluster sampling—snowball technique balance the sample in terms of known characteristics in the pop-
b. Simple random sampling—convenience sampling ulation.
c. Stratified random sampling—quota sampling
d. Theoretical sampling—quota sampling
Which of the following is true about sample size?

a. An adequate sample size is particularly important to detect

ANS: A
differences when they do in fact exist.
Evaluating the adequacy of the sample size is very important
b. Evaluating the possibility of a Type I error will help determine
when no differences have been found. Too small a sample can
sample size.
result in no difference being detected, even when there actually is
c. Finding a significant difference in study groups occurs most
one.
often with smaller samples.
d. Sample size is especially important to support significant find-
ings.
A researcher reports on a study conducted to determine if a
new educational program has helped dialysis patients become
more compliant with their fluid restrictions. The findings indicated
that there was no difference. The report did include that a power
analysis was performed to determine if the sample size (n = 100)
was adequate. The power level was .5. What should the reader
ANS: D
conclude?
A power level needs to reach .8 to be acceptable, and this one had
only .5. There is a good chance that a Type II error occurred, and
a. A sample of 100 is certainly adequate in a clinical study. The
the study should be replicated.
researcher should adjust the educational program.
b. Chances are high that a Type I error has occurred.
c. Findings of no difference are not surprising; it is difficult to make
an impact on this population of patients.
d. There is a high likelihood that the sample size was not ade-
quate, and the study should be replicated using more subjects.

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 Research Quiz 7
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Apart from sample size, which of the following is typically not
considered when determining the power of a study?
ANS: C
a. Sensitivity of the instruments used The skill of the researcher does not affect the statistical power of
b. Number of variables a study. All other answers are correct.
c. Skill of the researcher
d. Data analysis techniques
To detect a significant difference between two groups when the
effect size is small, what should the researcher do?
ANS: C
a. Conduct a pilot study.
Increasing the sample size makes it easier to detect a difference.
b. Obtain a different sample.
c. Increase the sample size.
d. Perform additional analysis.
Which of the following types of studies would need the largest
sample size?
ANS: B
Descriptive studies often require very large samples. Multiple
a. Case studies
variables may be examined, and extraneous variables are likely
b. Descriptive studies
to affect subject response(s) to the variables under study.
c. Experimental studies
d. Quasi-experimental studies
Why do qualitative researchers need to be as concerned with
sample size as quantitative researchers do? Qualitative re-
searchers:
ANS: B
a. are reaching the objectives of their study in a similar way. Qualitative research oftentimes requires the subjects to share
b. need subjects who are able and willing to share their knowl- their knowledge of the topic being studied in an in-depth level in
edge, oftentimes in repeated and more in-depth interviews than repeated interviews. Therefore the researcher needs to ensure
subjects in quantitative studies. that the sample size is adequate to provide the depth and rich
c. need to gain a narrow focus rather than a broad perspective as data that are required.
their research purpose.
d. will be analyzing the data with statistical techniques that require
certain numbers of subjects.
Which of the following is an example of purposive sampling?

a. The names of all possible subjects are put into a hat, and an
adequate number are drawn out.
b. Volunteers are solicited from the entire population, and those ANS: B
who agree become subjects in the study. Purposive sampling is when appropriate subjects are found by the
c. Sample members are determined by finding a designated researcher and asked to participate in the study.
number of subjects from each of several identified groups (men,
women, high school graduates, etc.).
d. Subjects who have knowledge about the study topic are asked
to participate in the study; those who agree become the sample.
Which of the following are not correctly paired as similar types of
ANS: D
sampling methods?
Stratified random sampling and quota sampling differ in ran-
domness; quota sampling does not allow for equal likelihood of
a. Convenience sampling—accidental sampling
entering the sample from the target population.
b. Network sampling—snowball sampling
Convenience and accidental sampling describe similar types of
c. Purposive sampling—selective sampling
sampling methods.
d. Stratified random sampling—quota sampling
Which of the following is true about theoretical sampling?

a. All studies use theoretical sampling as a background for creat-

ANS: B
ing the sample.
Because of the nature of grounded theory methodology, theoret-
b. Grounded theory research frequently uses theoretical sampling
ical sampling is used.
to develop a selected theory.
c. Subjects are selected to participate in a research study to match
certain theory characteristics.

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 Research Quiz 7
Study online at [Link]
d. Theoretical sampling is a little-used, but powerful method of
creating a sample for quantitative research.
Which of the following is true about sample size in a qualitative
study?

a. "Adequate sample size" is of no concern to a qualitative re-

searcher because there is no statistical analysis involved. ANS: B
b. Sample size is deemed to be adequate when the researcher is In qualitative research, the researcher looks for data saturation,
detecting no new knowledge from additional subjects. which is reached when no new information is being discovered
c. Subjects who have knowledge of a situation assist the re- from additional subjects.
searcher in determining whether the sample size is adequate.
d. There is a test similar to the power analysis in a quantitative
study that can be used to determine an adequate sample size for
qualitative research.
Which of the following factors do not influence saturation of data
and therefore sample size in a qualitative study?
ANS: B
Randomization of the data is a concern for quantitative research
a. Quality of the data
designs. All other choices are concerns for saturation of data in
b. Randomization of the sample
qualitative research.
c. Scope of the study
d. Study design
Which of the following research settings is not correctly paired
with the type of setting?
ANS: D
a. Clinical research unit—highly controlled setting A subject's home would be a natural research setting, so it is
b. Indoor playroom—natural setting paired incorrectly with "partially controlled setting."
c. Primary care clinic—partially controlled setting
d. Subject's home—partially controlled setting

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 N420-CHAPTER 5
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A researcher sends out a questionnaire over the Internet and tells
people not to put identifying information on their responses.
Anonymity
Which procedure is being described:
Anonymity The researcher would be unable to link a person's data with
Confidentiality identifying information, so responses would be anonymous.
Debriefing
Informed consent
A researcher tells people that their participation in a study is
purely voluntary and they can withdraw at any time.
Informed consent
Which procedure is being described:
The researcher is informing people that they would have to give
Anonymity
their consent to participate and that they have the right to deter-
Confidentiality
mine whether ongoing participation is comfortable for them.
Debriefing
Informed consent
A researcher tells people being interviewed in depth about their
ICU experiences that their responses will not be individually di-
vulged and their identities will be masked. Confidentiality

Which procedure is being described: Participants would not be anonymous because the researcher
Anonymity would know their identities during the interview, but confidentiality
Confidentiality has been assured.
Debriefing
Informed consent
A researcher meets with participants after data have been col-
lected to tell them more about the study and to ask if they have
questions or concerns. Debriefing

Which procedure is being described: The researcher is taking steps to communicate concern and re-
Anonymity spect by sharing information with participants and giving them an
Confidentiality opportunity for further interaction in a debriefing session.
Debriefing
Informed consent
Children whose siblings have died are interviewed about their
experiences. After receiving information about the study, parents
are asked to sign an authorization, and the children are asked Informed consent
about their willingness to participate.
Because children are a vulnerable group, their parents were asked
Which procedure is being described: for their written consent to have the children participate, but the
Anonymity researchers showed respect for the children's autonomy by asking
Confidentiality them for verbal assent.
Debriefing
Informed consent
The Nuremberg Code was one of the first established sets of
True
ethical standards.
Rationale: One of the first international efforts to establish ethical
True
standards was the Nuremberg Code.
False
The principle of justice ensures a research subject's right to which Privacy
of the following?
Rationale: The principle of justice ensures a research subject's
Self-determination right to privacy and fair treatment. The right to self-determination
Full disclosure and the right to full disclosure are ensured by the principle of
Protection from harm respect for human dignity. The right to protection from harm is
Privacy ensured by the principle of beneficence.
Children require special protection when they are involved in a True
research study.
Rationale: Children, because of their inability to make a truly in-

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N420-CHAPTER 5
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True formed decision about voluntary participation in a research study,
False are considered vulnerable and thus require special protection.

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 NUR 302 - Chapter 8
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A set of logically interrelated propositions is associated with which
of the following?
A) Schematic model
C
B) Conceptual model
C) Classical theory
D) Descriptive theory
The power of theories lies in their ability to do which of the
following?
A) Explain large segments of human experience
B) Minimize the number of words required to explain phenomena
D
and, thereby, eliminate semantic problems
C) Prove conclusively that relationships exist among the phenom-
ena studied
D) Articulate the nature of relationships among phenomena
The building blocks of theory are which of the following?
A) Frameworks
B) Relationships C
C) Concepts
D) Hypotheses
Every study has which of the following?
A) Theory
B) Schematic model C
C) Framework
D) Conceptual model
Which of the following is true of both theories and conceptual
models?
A) They are invented or created, not discovered.
B) They need to be borrowed from other disciplines for nursing A
studies.
C) They contain a set of logically interrelated propositions.
D) They are different words for exactly the same thing.
The Health Promotion Model would best be described as which
of the following?
A) Descriptive theory
D
B) Borrowed theory
C) Grounded theory
D) Middle-range theory
Which of the following are central concepts in conceptual models
of nursing? Select all that apply.
A) Human beings
A, C, D
B) Social support
C) Health
D) Environment
The nurse-theorist Roy developed which of the following?
A) Uncertainty in Illness Model
B) Health Promotion Model C
C) Adaptation Model
D) Theory of Stress and Coping
The nurse-theorist Pender developed which of the following?
A) Adaptation Model
B) Social Cognitive Theory D
C) Health Belief Model
D) Health Promotion Model
The nurse-theorist Mishel developed which of the following?
A) Uncertainty in Illness Theory
B) Health Promotion Model A
C) Adaptation Model
D) Transtheoretical Model

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 NUR 302 - Chapter 8
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The Theory of Stress and Coping is an example of which of the
following?
A) A nursing model
C
B) A grand theory
C) A borrowed theory
D) A grounded theory
Self efficacy is a widely-used construct that was originally devel-
oped within which of the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
C
B) The Health Promotion Model
C) Social Cognitive Theory
D) The Uncertainty in Illness Theory
Stages of change is a construct that was developed within which
of the following?
A) The Health Belief Model
B
B) The Transtheoretical Model
C) Health as Expanding Consciousness Model
D) The Theory of Planned Behavior
A grounded theory often has as a theoretical underpinning which
of the following?
A) An ideational theory
B
B) Symbolic interactionism
C) Phenomenology
D) The Theory of Human Becoming
The belief that a child with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder
will learn appropriate behaviors from continued positive reinforce-
ment of acceptable behavior patterns can generate a research
hypothesis. This generalization of the relationship between phe-
nomena is known as which of the following? B
A) Null Hypothesis
B) Theory
C) Model
D) Framework
The connection of phenomena through a loosely structured ap-
proach not directly linking them in a logically deductive manner is
which of the following?
A) Middle range theory C
B) Theoretical framework
C) Conceptual model
D) Research question
Identify the type of research that often fails to formally acknowl-
edge the conceptual underpinnings or framework of the study
since it is not necessarily part of the research tradition.
A) Quantitative research A
B) Qualitative research
C) Pilot study
D) Mixed method research
Which of the following concepts are central to nursing models?
Select all that apply.
A) Human beings
A, B, C
B) Environment
C) Health
D) Nutrition
Research on the recovery process of young adults following
post-traumatic amputation of a lower extremity would best be
furthered by using which of the following conceptual models of
D
nursing?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory
B) Prochaska's Transtheoretical Model

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C) Becker's Health Belief Model
D) Sister Callista Roy's Adaptation Model
Which of the following is a non-nursing conceptual model fre-
quently used in nursing research and can be considered a shared
theory?
A) Bandura's Social Cognitive Theory A
B) Pender's Health Promotion Model
C) Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory
D) Beck's Theory of Postpartum Depression
Which of the following are overall objectives of the use of theories
in research? Select all that apply.
A) To provide a mechanism for deducing hypotheses
B) To stimulate new research A, B, C
C) To explain relationships among phenomena
D) To determine the research design and methods of data collec-
tion
Conceptual models of nursing are used by nurse researchers as
an inspiration in formulating research questions and directing re-
search hypotheses. Some of the concepts that form these models
include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A, B, C
A) Health promotion
B) Unified whole
C) Adaptation
D) Self-efficacy
Theories are created and invented as opposed to being discov-
ered. Theories are built inductively from which of the following?
A) Observations
A
B) Correlations
C) Research questions
D) Research problems
Visual representation of the relationships among phenomena
used in both quantitative and qualitative research is known as
which of the following?
A) Descriptive theory D
B) Framework
C) Shared theory
D) Conceptual map
The five stages of change of the Transtheoretical Model include
which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Precontemplation
A, B, D
B) Action
C) Evaluation
D) Maintenance
Which of the following theories are usually adopted by ethnog-
raphers in the conduction of qualitative research? Select all that
apply.
A) Ideational theories A, B
B) Materialistic theories
C) Substantive theories
D) Preexisting theories
Lazarus and Folkman's Theory of Stress and Coping has been
used in nursing research to correlate the relationship between
stress and anxiety in primary caregivers of patients with dementia.
This is an example of which of the following?
C
A) Conceptual model
B) Framework
C) Shared theory
D) Grounded theory

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 NUR 302 - Chapter 8
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Nursing theories that are more restricted in their generality and
set out to explain a smaller focus of the human experience are
known as which of the following?
A) Grand theories B
B) Middle-range theories
C) Classical theories
D) Propositions

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 EBP Quiz 7-11
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Nursing theories that are more restricted in their generality and
set out to explain a smaller focus of the human experience are
known as which of the following?
Middle-range theories
Grand theories
Middle-range theories
Classical theories
Propositions
The connection of phenomena through a loosely structured ap-
proach not directly linking them in a logically deductive manner is
which of the following?
Conceptual model
Middle range theory
Theoretical framework
Conceptual model
Research question
The power of theories lies in their ability to do which of the
following?

Explain large segments of human experience

Minimize the number of words required to explain phenomena Articulate the nature of relationships among phenomena
and, thereby, eliminate semantic problems
Prove conclusively that relationships exist among the phenomena
studied
Articulate the nature of relationships among phenomena
If the coefficient alpha for a stress scale was computed to be .80,
the scale would be which of the following?

More reliable than a scale with an alpha of .50

More reliable than a scale with an alpha of .50
A valid indicator of stress
Of indeterminate reliability until the scale's test-retest reliability
was assessed
Of unacceptably low reliability
Suppose a researcher were interested in assessing the adequacy
of an instrument to measure the theoretical concept of hopeful-
ness. The most appropriate type of validation procedure would be
which of the following?
Construct
Content
Concurrent
Predictive
Construct
The aspect of reliability for which interobserver reliability is appro-
priate is which of the following?

Stability Equivalence
Internal consistency
Equivalence
Specificity
The difference between a true score and an obtained score is
referred to as which of the following?
Error of measurement
Internal inconsistency Non-equivalence
Interobserver disagreement
Error of measurement
Which of the following is an example of ratio measurement?
Twenty-four-hour oral cc intake
Likert scale response to questions
Twenty-four-hour oral cc intake

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 EBP Quiz 7-11
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Eye color (blue, brown, hazel, green)
Ability to perform activities of daily living
Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship
between reliability and validity?

If a measure is reliable, it will be valid. If a measure is not reliable, it cannot be valid.

As reliability increases, validity decreases.
If a measure is not reliable, it cannot be valid.
There is no direct relationship between the two.
With screening or diagnostic instruments, the concept indicating
the instruments' ability to correctly identify a "case" (i.e., to screen
in or diagnose a condition correctly) is which of the following?
Sensitivity
Sensitivity
Stability
Specificity
Sensibility
The mean is usually the statistic reported for which type or types
of measure? Select all that apply.
Interval measures
Nominal measures
Ratio measures
Ordinal measures
Interval measures
Ratio measures
One of the characteristics of a normal distribution is which of the
following?

It is bimodal 95% of the values are within two standard deviations above and
95% of the values are within two standard deviations above and below the mean
below the mean
The values are positively skewed
The mean is 100
A frequency distribution for height would most likely be represent-
ed by which of the following?

A symmetric distribution A normal distribution

A positive skew
A negative skew
A normal distribution
The use of inferential statistics permits a researcher to do which
of the following?

Draw conclusions about a population based on information gath- Draw conclusions about a population based on information gath-
ered from a sample ered from a sample
Describe information obtained from empirical observation
Interpret descriptive statistics
Estimate risk and relative risk
Statistically significant means which of the following?

The study findings are important.

It is unlikelihood that the results are due to chance.
The study results are meaningful.
It is unlikelihood that the results are due to chance.
The hypothesis has been proven
A p-value is a measure of the likelihood that the statistical results
were obtained in error. A confidence interval, on the other hand,
provides which of the following?
The range of probable values of the variable in the population
The range of the measured values in the sample reported in the
research report

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 EBP Quiz 7-11
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The probability that similar results will be obtained in error, in the
future
The range of probable values of the variable in the population
The likelihood that the results will be useful in practice
Testing the significance of difference in two group means is done
with which of the following?

t-test t-test
Correlation
Logistic regression
Chi-squared test
If a researcher wanted to assess whether an experimental group
differed significantly from a control group in terms of proportion
with a post-discharge readmission, the test statistic would be
which of the following?
X2
t
r
F
Ç2
A widely used index of risk used among practitioners of evi-
dence-based practice is which of the following?

The t statistic The odds ratio

The F ratio
The odds ratio
Pearson's r
A researcher compared the mean anxiety levels of patients in a
soothing music group, a massage group, or a control group. The
statistical procedure that was likely used to test group differences
is which of the following?
ANOVA
t-test
ANOVA
MANOVA
Chi-squared test
The term validity refers to which of the following?

Truth of an inference
Truth of an inference
Honesty of the report
Accuracy of the measurement
Preparation of the researcher
A study reports a 60% rate of attrition among the participants. This
finding suggests which of the following?

A threat to internal validity A threat to internal validity

Lack of recruitment
Appropriate compensation/incentives
Invalid measurements
It is important that researchers design rigorous study methods to
prevent which of the following?

Making inferences Biases

Biases
Rejection of null hypothesis
Internal audit
A study is investigating the rate of immunization at a communi-
ty-based clinic. Selection bias is most likely to be present in which
of the following samples?

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 EBP Quiz 7-11
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Random sample of clients accessing an urgent care clinic

Random sample of records of school clinic vaccination rates
Convenience sample of mothers who bring children to clinic for
Convenience sample of mothers who bring children to clinic for
vaccinations
vaccinations
Random sample of high school students who have received
required vaccinations
A researcher must select a sample that is representative of the
population. Which of the following venues would be most practical
for recruitment of patients with primary hypertension?
Primary care clinic
Prenatal clinic
High school clinic
Primary care clinic
Acute care hospital
Evidence-based nursing primarily uses which of the following to
Obtaining and appraising a body of research
answer clinical questions?

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