BBO 真题

2022 BBO Paper1 Q1

Chemical forces cause proteins to fold into their functional shapes via several stages.
Which structural level of a protein is unaffected by hydrogen bonding?
1 mark
Choose ONE
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
e) All levels are affected.
f) No levels are affected.

2022 BBO Paper1 Q3

Part 1 of 1
Which of the following are passive / facilitated (energetically favourable) processes in cells?
2 marks
Choose as many as appropriate
a) The establishment of a concentration gradient
b) Osmosis
c) Diffusion
d) The hydrolysis of ATP
e) Synthesising a protein
f) Nucleotide polymerisation

2022 BBO Paper1 Q4

Part 1 of 2
Mitochondria have very crenated (creased) inner membranes, and the thylakoid membranes of
chloroplasts are also highly folded and stacked.

Part 2 of 2
Why are the membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts folded?
1 mark
Choose ONE
a) To maximise the amount of membrane for protons and electrons to diffuse through.
b) To increase the concentration gradient of protons.
c) To maximise the amount membrane-bound of respiratory / photosynthetic proteins
which can fit in the cell.
d) To increase the amount of light absorbed by the membranes.
e) To maximise the amount of protons / electrons which can be stored by the membranes.

2022 BBO Paper1 Q6

Part 1 of 1
Ribosomes are responsible for deciphering the genetic code. How do ribosomes ensure the correct
amino acids are added to a growing polypeptide (protein)?
1 mark
Choose ONE
a) Ribosomes only add amino acids which have similar chemical properties to the rest of the
polypeptide
b) Ribosomes select amino acids based on the secondary structure of the polypeptide
c) Ribosomes only add amino acids if there is proper base-pairing between RNA molecules
d) Ribosomes only add amino acids which bind to the mRNA
e) Ribosomes select amino acids based on the secondary structure of mRNA

2022 BBO Paper1 Q13

Part 1 of 2
In most organisms, in some cells, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This may result in...
2 marks
Choose ONE
a) cells with more than one nucleus.
b) cells that are unusually small.
c) cells lacking nuclei.
d) cell cycles lacking an S phase.
Part 2 of 2
What may happen if cytokinesis occurs without mitosis?
2 marks
Choose ONE
a) Cells with more than one nucleus.
b) Cells lacking nuclei.
c) Cells that are unusually large.

2021 BBO Paper1 Q8

Part 1 of 5
The RECOVERY trial run by the NHS is the most successful trial to identify proven
treatments for COVID-19, and has disproven several popular candidates.
Part 2 of 5
What features should a randomised control trial like RECOVERY have?
3 marks
Choose as many as appropriate
a) Doctors do not know what drug they are administering until after the trial.
b) Patients do not know which drug they received until after the trial.
c) Hypothesis can be changed during the trial.
d) Number of patients used in trial maximised.
e) Include patients without COVID-19
Part 3 of 5
What things can a randomised control trial like RECOVERY conclude?
4 marks
Choose as many as appropriate
a) What causes a disease.
b) Whether a drug causes the improvement or is just correlated with it.
c) Whether a drug is better than placebos.
d) Whether a drug has side-effects or they are just symptoms of diseases.
Part 4 of 5
More data from the Oxford/AstraZeneca COVID-19 vaccine trial was released last
month looking at people given two full doses of vaccine 12-weeks apart.
* They found 15 out of 2038 people given the COVID-19 vaccine caught COVID-19.
* They found 76 out of 2093 people given a meningitis vaccine caught COVID-19.
Vaccine efficiency is calculated as the percentage decrease in cases caused by vaccination.
Part 5 of 5
Calculate the vaccine efficiency. *Type your answer to the nearest 1%*
3 marks
Write something below
99.3%

2021 BBO Paper2 Q1

Part 1 of 7
Which type(s) of molecule are ribosomes made from?
1 mark
Choose as many as appropriate
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) mRNA
d) tRNA
e) Proteins
f) Carbohydrates
Part 2 of 7
Human proteins can be made artificially in bacteria. Which of the following are
advantages of using bacteria to make proteins?
2 marks
Choose as many as appropriate
a) Bacteria are easy to transform
b) Bacteria always add the same post-translational modifications as human
cells
c) Bacteria are easier to grow than human cells
d) Bacteria use the same triplet code as human cells
e) Human genes can usually be transformed into bacteria without modification
Part 3 of 7
Sort the following molecules into the inputs and outputs of photosynthesis.

2 marks
Groups
Input bcf
Output ade
Put into the groups above
a) Oxygen
b) Water
c) Light energy
d) Sugar
e) Chemical Energy
f) Carbon dioxide
Part 4 of 7
Which molecules are able to cross a cell-membrane lipid bilayer?

1 mark
Choose ONE
a) Antibodies
b) Glucose
c) Starch
d) Potassium ions
e) Steroid hormones
Part 5 of 7
A random mutation changed an alanine codon to a STOP codon within a protein
sequence. Which is the most likely outcome?
1 mark
Choose ONE
a) Antibiotic resistance
b) A new more useful protein
c) A truncated useless protein
d) The protein would probably not be affected
Part 6 of 7
Order the vessels blood flows through as it completes a loop from the leg muscles,
around the body and back to the muscles. Place these in the correct order with
leaving the leg muscle at the top, and reentering again at the bottom.
2 marks
Put into the correct order 静脉- 右心房-右心室-肺-左心房-左心室-动脉
a) Vena cava
b) Left atrium
c) Aorta
d) Right atrium
e) Lungs
f) Left ventricle
g) Right ventricle
a,g,c,e,b,f,d
Part 7 of 7
Which features increase gas exchange within **human** lungs

1 mark
Choose as many as appropriate
a) Large surface area of alveoli
b) Large surface area of microvilli
c) Single cell layer of epithelial cells
d) Counter-current exchange of gasses

2021 BBO Paper2 Q4

Part 1 of 3
The image below shows an epidermal onion peel stained for DNA. An onion cell has
8 pairs of chromosomes.

Part 2 of 3
Which phase of the cell cycle is the cell labelled 'A' in?
1 mark
Choose ONE
a) G1
b) S
c) G2
d) Mitosis
e) Meiosis
Part 3 of 3
How many chromosomes does the cell marked 'A' have?
2 marks
Write something below
__________16_________

2020 BBO Q1
In which of the following polymers would you find alpha glucose joined only by 1,4 glycosidic
bonds?
A. Amylopectin
B. Amylose
C. Cellulose
D. Glycogen

2020 BBO Q2
Four different concentrations of glucose solution were each tested using Benedict's solution. The
same volume of glucose and Benedict's solution was used in each case. After 5 minutes the colour
of the precipitate was noted:
A. Sample 1: orange
B. Sample 2: yellow
C. Sample 3: green
D. Sample 4: brick-red
Place the samples in increasing order of concentration.
B. Sample 2: yellow (lowest concentration) C. Sample 3: green A. Sample 1: orange D. Sample 4:
brick-red (highest concentration)

2020 BBO Q5
Put the stages of meiosis in the correct order. ECABD
A. Chiasmata form
B. Homologous chromosomes separate
C. Non-identical sister chromatids separate
D. Homologous chromosomes pair up
E. DNA replicates

2020 BBO Q7
The amino acid alanine is shown below D

2020 BBO Q8
Which of the following organelles is surrounded by a double membrane?
A. Lysosome
B. Nucleus
C. Peroxisome
D. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
2020 BBO Q11
Titin is the largest known protein and is a component of muscle. In humans the protein is 34,350
amino acids long.
What is the minimum length of the human gene for titin?
A. 34,350 bases
B. 68,700 bases
C. 103,050 bases
D. 137,400 bases

2020 BBO Q13

In which of the following would ribosomal RNA be found?
1. Chloroplast
2. Lysosome
3. Mitochondrion
4. Nucleus
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only

2020 BBO Q14

Which factor impedes the movement of water molecules across a cell membrane?
A. Water molecules and the phospholipid fatty acid tails are both non-polar
B. Water molecules and the phospholipid fatty acid tails are both polar
C. Water molecules are non-polar but the phospholipid fatty acid tails are polar
D. Water molecules are polar but the phospholipid fatty acid tails are non-polar

2020 BBO Q15

Tannins are chemicals produced by plants to defend themselves against herbivores, pathogens and
UV radiation. They are found in grapes and help wine age.
In 2013 a group of scientists discovered that tannins are formed in separate organelles inside plant
cells which they termed tannosomes. Tannosomes originate in chloroplasts as smaller vesicles and
ultimately end up in the vacuole. Which of the following statements must be true of tannosomes?
A. Tannosomes are able to convert light energy to chemical energy
B. Tannosomes are bound by a phospholipid bilayer
C. Tannosomes contain DNA and can replicate independently of the cell
D. Tannosomes can only be present in green plant cells

2020 BBO Q16

The coenzymes NAD and NADP are used in the processes of respiration and photosynthesis. They
can exist in oxidised or reduced forms.
What is the most likely ratio of the oxidised : reduced form in the mitochondrial matrix and in the
stroma of chloroplasts?
(A high ratio of oxidised : reduced indicates that most of the coenzyme is in its oxidised form).
 Mitochondrial Matrix Chloroplast Stroma
[Link] ratio of oxidised : reduced high ratio of oxidised : reduced
[Link] ratio of oxidised : reduced low ratio of oxidised : reduced
[Link] ratio of oxidised : reduced high ratio of oxidised : reduced
[Link] ratio of oxidised : reduced low ratio of oxidised : reduced

2020 BBO Q17

The graph below shows the rate of an enzyme controlled reaction at different substrate
concentrations

Which of these statements are correct?

1. At X, the rate of reaction is limited by the concentration of enzyme.
2. At Y, all of the enzyme active sites are occupied by substrate molecules.
3. At X, the rate of reaction is limited by the concentration of the substrate.
4. A competitive inhibitor would not affect the maximum rate of reaction.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only

2020 BBO Q19

The flow diagram shows some of the light dependent reaction (LDR) processes in photosynthesis

For the LDR to continue, photosystem 2 (PS2) must gain electrons. Where do these electrons
come from?
A. ATP production
B. Photolysis
C. Photosystem 1
D. Reduced NADP

2020 BBO Q35

Sometimes animals need to move quickly away from predators; however, digesting food takes
time.
Which is not a store of energy that can be used in a 100 meter sprint?
A. ATP
B. Fat
C. Glucose
D. Glycogen
E. Phosphocreatin

2020 BBO Q36

Which of the following does not need to use transporter proteins to cross cell membranes?
A. ATP
B. Glucose
C. mRNA
D. Proteins
E. Testosterone

2020 BBO Q39

Which of the following is an animal hormone?
A. Auxin
B. Cytokinin
C. Glucose
D. Glucagon
E. Glyphosate

2020 BBO Q40

Which pair of organelles has internal membranes?
A. Ribosomes and mitochondria
B. Mitochondria and chloroplasts
C. Nuclei and chloroplasts
D. Nuclei and ribosomes

2020 BBO Q57

Phages are viruses, containing both protein and DNA, that infect bacteria. Phages were created
which contained radioactive sulfur (35S) and phosphorus (32P), instead of normal sulfur and
phosphorus.
The phages were incubated with bacteria. The amount of radioactive sulfur and phosphorus
remaining in phage particles or transferred to the bacteria was measured.
 35
S 32P
Proportion of radioactivity remaining in phage particles ~ 75% ~ 15%
Proportion of radioactivity transferred to bacteria ~ 25% ~ 85%

Secondly, the amount of radioactivity which was transferred to new phage particles produced by
the infected bacteria was measured.
35
S 32P
Proportion of radioactivity transferred to new phage particles < 1% ~ 30%
What hypothesis is consistent with these data?
A. All phage particles are able to infect bacteria
B. Phage DNA contained sulfur but no phosphorus
C. Phage DNA was NOT recycled to make new phage particles
D. Phage proteins were NOT recycled to make new phage particles
E. Phages mostly injected their protein, rather than their DNA, into bacteria

2020 BBO Q64

Which is not involved in making proteins from DNA?
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Nucleus
C. Nucleolus
D. Plasmodesmata
E. Ribosome
F. Spliceosome

2020 BBO Q65

An enzyme catalyses the production of glucose from glucose-6-phosphate.
At the beginning of the experiment glucose-6-phosphate was added to the enzyme. After half an
hour 60% of the glucose-6-phosphate remained.
What is true about this reaction?
A. Adding a second enzyme which breaks down glucose would speed up the reaction
B. After an hour 20% glucose-6-phosphate would remain
C. The enzyme would probably work with sucrose-6-phosphate
D. The reaction can only occur in the presence of an enzyme
E. The reaction would happen quicker at 100 degrees C

2019 BBO Q7
Heat causes the two strands of DNA helices to separate (melt / denature). G/C pairs form with 3
hydrogen bonds, whilst A/T pairs form with 2 hydrogen bonds.
Which of the following helices will denature at the highest temperature?
A. Short strand with a high proportion of A/T base pairs.
B. Long strand with a high proportion of A/T base pairs.
C. Short strand with a high proportion of G/C base pairs.
D. Long strand with a high proportion of G/C base pairs.

2019 BBO Q8
Which of the following may be found in DNA but not in RNA?
A. 2’-hydroxy group
B. Pentose sugar
C. Phosphodiester bonds
D. Purines
E. Thymine

2019 BBO Q11

An enzyme was extracted from a bacterium native to Antarctica.

What could have happened at time A?

A. The substrates ran out
B. An excess of non-competitive (allosteric) inhibitor was added
C. The reaction tube was placed in an ice-water bath
D. A large volume of water was added to the reaction
E. The reaction tube was placed in a warm-water bath

2019 BBO Q12

Particles can be put in a solution and then centrifuged. Bigger particles tend to move faster and
sediment quicker.
Ribosomes taken from a eukaryotic organism and a prokaryotic organism were centrifuged and the
following pattern was observed:

Which of the following is TRUE?

A. Eukaryotes and prokaryotes contain three types of ribosomes.
B. Eukaryotic ribosomes are smaller than prokaryotic ribosomes.
C. There are three subunits in these ribosomes.
D. Treatment with RNAse would alter the position of these bands.
E. Any particles with the same molecular weight will be found in the same band.

2019 BBO Q13

Put the following structures in order of size, from smallest to largest.
A. Virus 10-300 纳米
B. Mitochondria 0.5～1.0μm
C. Amoeba 22*7 微米
D. Plant cell vacuole 10-100 微米
E. Nucleus 5~10 微米
CDEBA
2019 BBO Q15
Consider a plant cell. Different substances are found in different organelles.
Match the organelle to the substance associated with it.
1) Magnesium D
2) Dissolved salt E
3) DNA B
4) RNA C
5) Carbohydrates A
A. Cell wall
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm
D. Chloroplasts
E. Vacuole

2019 BBO Q25

Cancer cells often contain many genetic mutations in their DNA. Which of the following does
NOT contribute to this observation?
A. Cancer tends to occur in older people after many cell divisions
B. Most DNA mutations cause cells to divide more often rather than less often
C. Genes must be mutated to allow uncontrolled cell division
D. Cancer can be caused by toxins and radiation which damage DNA
E. DNA repair mechanisms are often damaged in cancer cells

2019 BBO Q36

The resolving power of a microscope is the minimum distance apart two features have to be before
the microscope can distinguish them.
The objective lenses of microscopes have two numbers engraved on them which are
‘magnification / numerical aperture’. For example, a 40/0.65 lens has 40x magnification and a
numerical aperture (NA) of 0.65.
λ is the wavelength of light in μm used to see the sample.
The resolving power of a microscope, in μm, is 0.61λ/NA.
Which of the following is true?
A. Zooming in on the image produced by an objective lens allows more detail to be seen.
B. Structures which glow red can be seen in more detail than structures glowing blue.
C. The example microscope can resolve organelles 1 μm apart using light of wavelength 1 μm.
D. A lens of NA = 0.2 is better than a lens of NA = 20.
E. Electrons in an electron microscope are accelerated to increase their wavelength.

2019 BBO Q65

Many biological substances are polymers of simpler subunits. Condensation reactions join two
molecules and water is produced as a product.
Which polymer is NOT produced in a condensation reaction?
A. Glycogen
B. Protein
C. Cellulose
D. Triglycerides
E. DNA

USABO
2019
1. A student in lab is characterizing an unknown chain of amino acids and finds large numbers of
lysine residues. Which of the following would be the location of their discovery?
A. Alpha-helix interior.
B. Histone tail.
C. Magnesium-associated domain.
D. Steroid center.
E. Transmembrane domain.

2. Based on Graphs A and B below, would Taxol or colchicine be more likely to have a positive
effect on cell division?
A. Colchicine. It increases the amount of tubulin, so the spindle cannot form.
B. Taxol. It increases the amount of tubulin, so the spindle cannot form.
C. Colchicine. It decreases the amount of tubulin, so the spindle can form.
D. Taxol. It increases the amount of tubulin, so the spindle can form.

3. Polypeptides like membrane transport proteins have a 3-D structure. Hydrogen bonding
between the amino and carboxyl groups of individual amino acids most likely affects:
A. Polar interactions between R-groups.
B. Polar interactions in the tertiary structure.
C. Primary structure via non-polar interactions.
D. Primary structure via covalent bonding.
E. Secondary structure via polar interactions.

4. The molecule shown below is the substance pumiliotoxin produced by poison dart frogs. At
which arrow could a hydrogen bond form?

5. Consider the pathway below showing the degradation of toluene−a colorless liquid with a low
to moderate water solubility. Toluene affects the central nervous system, but animals exposed to
moderate to high levels of toluene also show harmful effects in their liver, kidneys, lungs and
impaired immune function.

Considering the general principles of energy metabolism, which of the following statements is
TRUE regarding the pathway shown above?
A. #1 in the pathway is an ATP generating step.
B. # 1 in the pathway is a redox reaction; toluene is reduced.
C. The product of the toluene degradation at #2 is further degraded using glycolysis.
D. The product of the toluene degradation pathway #2 is further degraded using beta-oxidation.
E. The microorganism capable of utilizing this pathway cannot be used for bioremediation due to
anabolism of toxic chemicals using toluenes as monomers.

6. A literature search reveals that NOX2 is an important protein complex responsible for
generating the reactive oxygen species (ROS) in natural killer (NK) cells. RNA interference
(RNAi) was used against NOX2 in NK cells. ROS production was measured with a general
fluorescent ROS probe and compared to the control NK cells. The general ROS probe
fluorescence intensity was significantly lower in the experimental group when compared to the
control NK cells. Your lab is attempting to uncover the intracellular mechanism of ROS
production in NK cells. The graduate student conducting the experiment insists that NOX2 was
functionally knocked out in the cell line using synthetic single-stranded RNA for RNAi and
concludes that the functional removal of NOX2 by RNAi results in no ROS production. Your
guidance to your graduate student is
I. DNA interference should be used in lieu of RNAi.
II. A specific inhibitory peptide to NOX2 translation (protein interference) should be used in lieu
of RNAi.
III. RNAi is not 100% efficient and there may be some NOX2 mRNAs that are not degraded.
IV. Synthetic double-stranded RNA should have been used for RNAi, not single-stranded RNA
A. I and II.
B. I, II, and III.
C. I, II, III, and IV.
D. II, III, and IV.
E. III and IV.

7. Superantigens (SAgs) are a group of antigens that produce non-specific activation of T-cells
which cause the activation of polyclonal T cells and the release of massive amounts of cytokines.
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding SAgs?
I. They are types of exotoxins.
II. They physically link T cell antigen receptor to antigen-binding domain of MHC class II.
III. They are being presented at the antigen-binding groove of MHC-II with longer peptides.
IV. They physically link T cell antigen receptor to non-antigen-binding domain of MHC class II
molecules.
A. I and II.
B. I, II, and IV.
C. I, II, III, and IV.
D. I and IV.
E. II and III.

8. Collagen is usually a triple helix made of three peptide strands with an amino acid motif of
either Gly-Pro-X or Gly-X-Hyp, where X is any amino acid and Hyp is hydroxyproline. Which of
the following explanations of collagen chemistry is TRUE?
A. A mutation of glycine to a different amino acid in the collagen gene will be recessive because
of its limited effects on wild-type collagen molecules.
B. Glycine side chain increases hydrogen bonding between the helices due to its small size.
C. Hydroxyproline’s additional hydroxyl group allows the formation of hydrogen bonds to
stabilize tight left-handed helices.
D. Non-motif regions of collagen are dedicated to cross-linking within collagen to help the triple
helices to coil together in a superhelix.
E. The high proline content allows the three alpha-helices in collagen to bond into a triple helix.
9. DNP is used as a dangerous weight loss drug due to its ability to increase metabolic activity.
The chemical disrupts the proton gradient by binding H+ and diffusing across the inner
mitochondrial membrane. Given these constraints, which of the following molecules is DNP?

10. There have been multiple large-scale outbreaks of Ebola virus in West and Central Africa over
the past couple years. The majority of people who are infected with Ebola die from the disease,
but some will survive and make a full recovery. Researchers found that in some survivors the virus
persisted in immunologically protected sites in their bodies well after they had recovered from
their initial infection. Which statement below does NOT describe a consequence of this
persistence?
A. The virus can persist in high amounts in the inside of the eyeball and cause temporary
blindness.
B. The virus can persist in the liver and reinfect the person and then be transmitted to others.
C. The virus can persist in mammary glands of women and be passed down to a child through
breastfeeding.
D. The virus can persist in the testes, and if a man has unprotected sex he could infect his partner.
E. The virus can persist in urine, saliva.

2018
Questions 1 and 2. Please use the following options to answer the following three questions. Each
choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Actin.
B. Myosin.
C. Dynein.
D. Kinesin.
E. Cyclin.
1. In the extracellular matrix of an animal cell, you would like to test the binding partner of
integrins in vitro. Integrins would most likely require firm attachment to which of the above
option? A
2. You are working with Dr. Lee at University of Wisconsin-Madison to investigate cytokinesis in
a newly discovered marine worm. You generated antibodies to conserved proteins involved in cell
division in other organism to look for proteins that localize to important structures during cell
division. What molecular motor protein should you look for in the contractile ring? B
3. An unnamed acid has a pKa value of 4.76. Which of the following is closest to the ratio of the
concentration of its protonated to deprotonated forms in a pH environment of 6.8?
A. 100 : 1.
B. 10 : 1.
C. 1 : 1.
D. 1 : 10.
E. 1 : 100.
4. Select the answer choice that correctly describes which chemical species are oxidized, reduced,
and phosphorylated in the process of oxidative phosphorylation

5. Which scientist(s) is incorrectly matched with his/her/their discoveries?

A. Frederick Griffith – discovery of transformation through bacteriophages.
B. Hershey and Chase – discovery of DNA as the hereditary material of cells.
C. Chargaff – discovery that relative amounts of nucleotide bases varies among organisms.
D. Watson and Crick – discovery of the double-helix structure of DNA.
E. Meselson and Stahl – discovery of the semi-conservative replication of DNA.
6. You discover a transmembrane protein ALPHA that, like most transmembrane proteins, exhibits
a transmembrane domain composed of alpha helices. You next discover that ALPHA serves as a
channel. What is a likely amino acid sequence for some portion of the transmembrane domain?
(See chart below for one-letter abbreviations).
A. ALQQMMDSILDY.
B. ALILALMWWLLF.
C. FPPALGGLPFAMG.
D. LMQKPMDSLPDY.
E. LKMELAKMILLA.
Questions 7 to 10. Indicate if each of the following statements is TRUE or FALSE about the
electron transport chain in cellular respiration. Use “A” for True and “B” for False.
7. Ubiquinone proteins have a heme group to facilitate electron transport. A
8. FADH2 adds its electrons to complex III while NADH adds its electrons in complex I. B
9. Cytochrome a is more electronegative than cytochrome b. B
10. Cytochrome c is more electronegative than cytochrome b. A

2017 年
1.A virus has been discovered. The virus has no envelope and consists of a helical capsid
surrounding its dsDNA genome. During assembly, the pac site of the genome ensures that it is
properly packaged by the capsomeres. Which of the following amino acids is/are expected to be
on the capsomere domain that interacts with the pac site?
A. Lysine.
B. Methionine.
C. Glycine.
D. Arginine.
E. A and D.
2. Developing diagnostics for the Zika virus has proven to be difficult due to cross reactivity
displayed by antibodies for other flaviviruses. If a person has been previously exposed to certain
flaviviruses (i.e. yellow fever or West Nile virus), then he/she may have antibodies which
diagnostics erroneously attribute to Zika virus exposure. The issue stems from antibodies that
resulted from a prior immune response. In the classic immune response, which cells are primarily
responsible for the production of antibodies?
A. Macrophages.
B. Eosinophils.
C. Plasma cells.
D. T lymphocytes.
E. Goblet cells.
3. The structure shown is an example of a(n)… (Select the BEST answer.)
A. Carbohydrate.
B. Lipid.
C. Nucleic acid.
D. Saturated lipid.
E. Unsaturated lipid.

4. You are analyzing a receptor that is expressed on the cell surface of two different cell types
(Cell Type I and Cell Type II). Based on the information given in the table below, identify the cell
type whose receptor is more sensitive to the ligand?

A. Cell Type 1 is more sensitive, because its kD is larger.

B. Cell Type 1 is more sensitive, because its kD is smaller.
C. Cell Type 2 is more sensitive, because its kD is larger.
D. Cell Type 2 is more sensitive, because its kD is smaller.
5. You are observing the response of Type 1 and Type 2 cells to a specific protein ligand. Type 1
cells proliferate rapidly in response to the ligand unlike Type 2 cells. Circle the option(s) from
below that can explain the observed difference.
A. The gene encoding the ligand specific receptor in Type 1 cells has a methylated promoter
B. Type 1 cells express intracellular receptors unlike Type 2 cells.
C. Type 1 cells express plasma membrane receptors unlike Type 2 cells.
D. Type 1 cells lack the transcription factor needed for the expression of the gene encoding the
ligand specific receptor.
E. The gene encoding the ligand specific membrane receptor in Type 1 cells has a frame-shift
mutation that generates a premature stop codon.
6. The following reactions are the free energy changes associated with four biological reactions.
Which reaction will have the highest ratio of products to reactants at equilibrium?
A. ΔG = -2.5 Kcal/mole.
B. ΔG = -1.5 Kcal/mole.
C. ΔG = +2.5 Kcal/mole.
D. ΔG = +1.0 Kcal/mole.
7. Which of the following is a plausible reason that explains why extreme halophiles can tolerate
high salt conditions?
A. They can accumulate compatible solutes, such as glycerol and sucrose, in their cytoplasm.
B. They can prevent the entrance of protons in their cytoplasm.
C. They have less porins or transport proteins, which makes them less permeable to solutes.
D. They have more saturated fatty acids in their membranes than unsaturated fatty acids.
E. They have more unsaturated fatty acids in their membranes than saturated fatty acids.
8. NADPH oxidase is a complex of five proteins that forms (not hydrolyzes) reactive oxygen
species such as O2-- and H2O2 by catalyzing the reduction of oxygen (O2) by hydride ions (H--)
from NADPH. Loss of function mutations in NADPH oxidase components were found in the
1950-60’s to underlie an inherited human immunodeficiency disorder called chronic
granulomatous disease (CGD). CGD is characterized by the inability of neutrophils to destroy
phagocytosed bacteria, especially if the bacteria are capable of hydrolyzing H2O2. Based on your
knowledge of phagocytosis by immune cells, in which subcellular organelle or compartment of
neutrophils is NADPH oxidase activity found to be highest?
A. Cytosol.
B. Lysosome.
C. Mitochondrion.
D. Peroxisome.
E. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
9. Which statement about the life cycle of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is most
accurate?
A. The viral glycoproteins that coat the mature virion’s lipid envelope’s outer surface are
synthesized by host cell ribosomes in the cytosol.
B. The mature virus particle does not contain reverse transcriptase; the protein is translated from
the RNA genome after entry into the host cell.
C. If a scientist were to extract just the viral genome from HIV virions and inject the nucleic acid
into a human cell, the genome would integrate as a provirus into the host’s genome.
D. In HIV positive individuals, HIV provirus can be found latent in CD4 positive cells years after
initial infection.
E. The high error rate of reverse transcriptase enables the virus to evade the host’s circulating
antibodies by changing the antigenicity of its internal capsid protein.
10. The progression of cancer is often driven by genetic and epigenetic alterations. Which of the
following is not likely to contribute to tumorigenesis?
A. Loss-of-function mutation in the p53 gene.
B. Upregulation of pro-apoptotic proteins.
C. Duplication of the telomerase gene.
D. Increased secretion of growth factors.
E. Moderately high level of oxidative stress.

国内竞赛真题
1.下面哪个不是叶绿体内共生起源学说的证据
A．叶绿体靠裂殖方式分裂 B．叶绿体 DNA 大小为 100-200kb
C．有的叶绿体含有藻胆体 D．有的原核光合生物有含叶绿体 b
2.真核生物的细胞是高度组织化的，由不同的细胞器行使不同的功能，以下细胞器中，其自身
含有遗传物质的是（多选） BE
A．内质网 B．线粒体 C．高尔基体 D．溶酶体 E．叶绿体
3.下面的细胞结构中，哪些含有 RNA ACE
A．细胞核 B．高尔基体 C．叶绿体 D．液泡 E．线粒体
4.在下列关于细胞基本共性的描述中，哪一项是错误的
A．所有细胞表面均具有脂蛋白体系构成的细胞膜
B．所有的细胞都有两种核酸（DNA，RNA）作为遗传信息复制与转录的载体
C．所有的细胞都有线粒体，作为产能的细胞器
D．所有的细胞都具有核糖体作为蛋白质合成的机器
5.动植物细胞的细胞质流动是在哪个结构及其马达蛋白作用下实现的
A．微纤丝 B．微管 C．微丝 D．中间纤维
6.下列细胞器中，类脂含量最高的是
A．核糖体 B．中心体 C．线粒体 D．液泡
7.与维管结合，在细胞内物质运输中起作用的马达蛋白有
A．肌球蛋白 B．驱动蛋白 C．胞质动力蛋白 D．肌钙蛋白
8.原核和真核细胞的相同特性是
A．均含有环状 DNA B．均含有线状 DNA C．染色体的基本单位是核小体 D．均含有作为蛋
白质合成的机器——核糖体
9.哺乳动物成熟的红细胞没有细胞核，线粒体及内膜系统，下面对此描述错误的是
A．成熟的红细胞内没有 DNA
B．成熟的红细胞内不再合成蛋白质
C．成熟的红细胞内不产生 ATP
D．成熟的红细胞不会被 DNA 病毒侵染
10.肝细胞中会有大量的 H2O2 产生，这与下列的哪个过程有直接关系
A．转氨基过程 B．脱氨基过程 C．尿素的生成 D．蛋白质的大量合成
11.真核生物细胞周期 S 期中，细胞核 DNA 的含量为
A．2n B．4n C．1n D．2n-4n
12.与花生和小鼠的细胞分裂直接相关的细胞结构是
A．中心体 B．纺锤体 C．内质网 D．线粒体
13.由于某种生物的初级卵母细胞中有 16 条染色体，因此
A．在减数分裂第一次分裂前期有 16 个四分体
B．在减数分裂第二次的分裂前期有 16 个二分体
C．在减数分裂第二次的后期，有 8 个染色单体迁移向一极，8 个迁移向另一极
D．在减数分裂第二次的分裂中期，成对的着丝粒排在赤道板，对称地与纺锤丝相连
E．C 和 D 都正确
14.减数分裂中可以引起自带遗传组成多样性的因素有
A．等位基因彼此分离 B．部分非等位基因自由组合 C．同源染色体的交换现象 D．连锁
群上基因的连锁现象
15.下列选项中存在同源染色体配对现象的是
A．有丝分裂前期 B．果蝇唾腺染色体 C．减数分裂 I 前期 D．减数分裂 II
细胞代谢
1.真核生物有功能的核糖体的组装发生在
A.核仁 B.核基质 C.细胞质溶胶 D.内质网
2 下列哪些反应的主要进行部位不是线粒体
① 糖酵解；② Krbs 循环；③氧化磷酸化；④乙醛酸循环；⑤脂肪酸合成；⑥酮体生成
A.①④⑤
B.②⑤⑥
C.①③⑤
D.③④⑤
3.*叶绿体不具有下面哪一项功能
A.氮同化 [Link] 复制 C.合成组蛋白 D.产生 ATP
4.能将异柠檬酸分解成乙醛酸和琥珀酸的生物是下列的
A.花生 B.蚯蚓 C.鲨鱼 D.羊
[Link] 和 NADP 是多种脱氢酶的辅基和辅酶，在脱氢反应中，它们本身直接传递或转移的物质
和数量分别是
a.1e 和 2 质子 b.2e 和 2 质子 c.2e 和 1 质子 d.1e 和 1 质子
A.a 和 b B.b 和 c C.d D.b
6.用酒精提取出的光合色素吸收了 1 个特定能量的光子以后，这个光子的能量
A.全部转变成了热能
B.一部分转变成了热能，另一部分以波长更长的光子存在
C.全部转变成了 2 个荧光光子的能量
D.一部分转变成了热能，另一部分转变成了化学能
7.劳动或运动时 ATP 因消耗而大量减少，此时
[Link] 相应增加，ATP/ADP 下降，呼吸加快 [Link] 相应减少以维持 ATP/ADP 恢复正答
[Link] 大量减少，ATP/ADP 增高，呼吸加快 [Link] 大量酸化以维持 ATP/ADP 不变
8.从能量的角度上说，ATP 的贮存形式是
A.磷酸烯醇式丙酮酸 B.磷脂酰肌醇 [Link] D.磷酸肌酸
9.真核细胞 RNA 聚合酶Ⅱ催化合成的 RNA 是
[Link] [Link] [Link] D.5S RNA
10.不参与氧化还原反应的化合物有
[Link]+ [Link]+ [Link] [Link]
11.关于细胞膜的物质交换，下列哪一种说法是正确的
A.易化扩散是不需要 ATP 供能的
B.胰岛素分子从细胞内到细胞外可通过主动运输方式来完成
C.内吞和外排是不需要 ATP 供能的
D.亲水的小分子及其离子既可能通过协助扩散、也可能通过主动运输进出细胞
12.丙酮酸+NADH+H+→乳酸+NAD+,其中的还原剂是
A.丙酮酸 [Link] C.H+ [Link]+
13.细胞有氧呼吸时，电子传递是在下列哪个部位进行的
A.细胞质内 B.线粒体内膜上 C.线粒体膜间腔内 D.线粒体基质内
14.现有甲酵母菌进行有氧呼吸，乙酵母菌进行发酵，若它们消耗了等量葡萄糖，则它们放出的
CO2 与甲酵母菌吸入 O2 之比应为
A.1:2 B.2:3 C.3:4 D.4:3
15.在叶绿体受到光照时，什么部位的 pH 最低
A.叶绿体基质 B.细胞质溶胶 C.类囊体膜内的空间 D.内外被膜之间的空间
16.光合作用过程中，在叶绿体类囊体腔中完成的反应步骤有
[Link] 被还原 B.水光解和氧释放 [Link]+还原 [Link] 生成
17.以下关于光合作用的叙述中，正确的是
A.C4 植物具有较强的节水能力，CAM 植物不具有较强的节水能力
[Link] 循环中需要共五种酶的参与，有两步化学反应需要利用 NADPH
C.C4 植物的叶肉细胞中只发生较弱的光呼吸
[Link] 循环生成一分子 3-PGAL,需消耗 3 分子 CO2、9 分子 ATP、6 分子 NADPH
18.关于脂肪酸合成的叙述中，不正确的是
A.基本原料是乙酰 CoA 和 NADPH+H+
B.脂肪酸合成酶为多酶复合体或多功能酶
C.关键酶是乙酰 CoA 羧化酶
D.脂肪酸合成过程中碳链延长由乙酰 CoA 直接提供乙酰基
19.甘油氧化分解及其异生成糖的共同中间产物是
)A.磷酸烯醇式丙酮酸
B.2-磷酸甘油酸
C.3 磷酸甘油酸
D.磷酸二羟丙酮
[Link] 复制和转录过程具有许多异同点。下列关于 DNA 复制和转录的描述中哪项是错误的
A.在体内以一条 DNA 链为模板转录，而同时以两条 DNA 链为模板复制
B.在这两个过程中合成新核酸链的方向都为 5→3'
C.复制的产物分子通常情况下比转录的产物分子更长
D.两过程均需 RNA 引物
21.有关 RNA 的描述中，哪项是错误的
[Link] 分子中含有遗传密码 [Link] 是相对分子质量最小的一种 RNA
C.胞浆中只有 mRNA [Link] 主要可分为 mRNA、tRNA、rRNA
22.大部分真核细胞 mRNA 的 3'-末端都具有
A.多聚 A
B.多聚 U
C.一个 C 帽
D.一个 G 帽
全国联赛题
1.(11B)请根据下图选择最合适的选项
A.此图表明了 RNAi 现象中小 RNA 分子在基因中的空间构象
B.此图中从 A 到 G 的字母标注的是外显子部分
C.这一个图是某种蛋白的 cDNA 同其基因的杂交结果
D.这一图是 PCR 反应时探针和模板 DNA 的普遍退火结果
E.这是 Northern blot 的分子结合情况
2.(15)以下四个代谢反应中，没有焦磷酸生成的反应是
A.生成 UDP 葡萄糖的反应 B.生成脂酰 CoA 的反应
C.生成精胺琥珀酸的反应 D.生成谷氨酰胺的反应
3.(15)细胞是完美的能量转换器，能够将化学的、电磁的、机械的及渗透形式的能量有效地进行
转换。下列关于生物能量转换器的正确理解是（多选）
A.生物能量转换与蒸汽机的能量转换从本质上是相同的
B.叶绿体是植物细胞中的能量转换器
C.遵循热力学第一定律（能量守恒原理）
D.线粒体是动物细胞中的能量转换器
4.(15)下列哪个指标能证明在大肠杆菌中成功表达了外源酶蛋白质
A.核酸杂交证明蛋白质表达 B.在蓝白筛选中菌落呈现蓝色
[Link]-PCR 能扩增外源基因 D.纯化目的蛋白质具有酶活性
5.(18)B 淀粉样蛋白由神经细胞分泌，在脑内可以形成老年斑，对神经细胞具有损伤作用，可能
诱发老年性痴呆。不正确的陈述为
A.合成的 β-淀粉样蛋白前体在线粒体内剪切
B.β-淀粉样蛋白的前体是在细胞的内质网合成
C.β-淀粉样蛋白以胞吐的形式分泌到神经细胞外
D.β-淀粉样蛋白前体经过酶的修饰生成 β-淀粉样蛋白
6.(18)哺乳动物成熟的红细胞没有细胞核、线粒体及内膜系统，下面对此描述错误的是
A.成熟的红细胞内没有 DNA
B.成熟的红细胞不再合成蛋白质
C.成熟的红细胞内不产生 ATP
D.成熟的红细胞不会被 DNA 病毒侵染
7.(18)下列哪些代谢反应需由 GTP 提供能量（多选）
A.磷脂合成
B.蛋白质合成
C.糖异生
D.糖原合成
8.(20)离子的电化学梯度是细胞多种生命活动的能量来源，由质子（氢离子）驱动的过程包括
（多选）
A.神经细胞产生动作电位 B.细胞鞭毛的转动
C.细菌通过协同运输吸收葡萄糖 D.线粒体内膜上的 ATP 合成酶合成 ATP