FLIGHT PLANNING & PERFORMANCE

ASSESSMENT EXAM
PPL
TIME : 1 HR 2O MINS
1. Maximum Landing Mass (MLM) is best defined as?
a. Maximum permissible total mass on landing under normal operating conditions.
b. Maximum permissible total mass on landing.
c. Maximum permissible total mass on the approach to land.
d. Maximum permissible total mass on taxiing to park.
2. What is the colour of the caution speed range on an Air Speed Indicator, and what must the pilot be mindful
of when operating in this range?
a. Green. - Stalls, airframe deformations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range if the pilot
uses abrupt and full control deflections.
b. Yellow. - This speed range should not be entered unless the air is smooth. Any maneuvers should
be made using small and gentle control inputs.
c. Yellow - Stalls, causing airframe deformations, and/or structural damage may occur in this range if
the pilot uses abrupt and full control deflections.
d. Green. - Control flutter may occur if turbulence is encountered.
3. An aircraft which has been grossly overloaded will:
[Link] increased take-off and landing distances.
2. Have a higher stalling speed.
3. Have a reduced maximum level flight speed.
4. Have increased range and endurance.
5. Have a reduced rate of climb and operating ceiling.
Which of the above are correct?
a. 1, 2, 3 & 4
b. 1, 2, 4 & 5.
c. 1, 2, 3, & 5.
d. 2, 4 & 5.
4. Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) is best defined as?
a. Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no crew or fuel.
b. Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no passengers or fuel.
c. Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft without occupants and baggage.
d. Maximum permissible mass of the aircraft with no useable fuel.
5. Maximum Take Of Mass (MTOM) is defined best as:
a. Maximum permissible total mass prior to taxiing.
b. Maximum permissible total mass at the start of the take off run.
c. Maximum permissible total mass at the point of rotation.
d. Maximum permissible total mass prior to take off.
6. Which of the following situations may, under certain conditions, result in structural damage occurring?
a. An aircraft being flown above its maximum all up mass.
b. An aircraft in the utility category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.
c. An aircraft being flown above its maximum landing mass
d. An aircraft in the normal category being flown at its maximum permissible mass.
7. Your aircraft has an oil reservoir with a capacity of 3 imp gal which is positioned 20 inches aft of the datum.
Given that the oil weighs 9.1 lbs/gal, the reservoir will possess a moment of:-
a. 546 lb in.
b. 60 lb in.
c. 182 lb in.
8. Certification requirements stipulate that when loading a light aircraft:
a. With maximum traffic load and full fuel the aircraft will not exceed the authorised Maximum Takeoff
Mass.
b. That the Maximum Take-off Mass is not exceeded, and the C of G remains at least 5% inside the
C of G limits.
c. All seats, baggage compartments and fuel tanks are contained within the C of G limits so that it is
impossible to load the aircraft beyond its limits.
d. The C of G should remain within the defined limits and the Maximum Take-off Mass must not be
exceeded.
9. The Maximum Take-off Mass of an aircraft may be limited by:
a. The airworthiness condition of the aircraft.
b. The authorized performance category of the aircraft, i.e. Utility / normal / aerobatic
c. Structural design load limits and or runway length, altitude and temperature.
d. All of the above.
10. An aircraft loaded in a dangerous manner, so that its C of G is beyond its forward limit will:
a. Have both an increased longitudinal stability and stalling speed
b. Require less effort to rotate on take off.
c. Require less effort to flare when landing.
d. Have both an increased range and endurance.
11. An aircraft weighing 2000 lbs with a total CofG moment of + 169400 lb in uplifts 440 lbs of fuel. If the
effective arm of the fuel is 88.5 inches aft of the datum, what will be the aircraft's new mass and C of G
moment?
a. 1560 lbs +169488.5 lb in.
b. 1560 lbs +208340 lb in.
c. 2440 lbs +208340 lb in.
d. 2440 lbs +169488.5 lb in
12. You plan to carry your aircraft's maximum permissible 'Traffic Load'. Your principal consideration during your
flight planning will be that:-
a. It is mandatory to carry a full fuel load when carrying passengers
b. Your fuel load may have to be limited to prevent exceeding the Maximum All Up Weight / Mass.
c. The fuel load is accounted for in 'Traffic Load' calculations.
d. The 'Traffic Load' may have to be reduced to allow for the full fuel load
13. C of G limits are set by the manufacturer and:
a. Have only an aft limit
b. Are a guide only.
c. Are mandatory.
d. Have only a forward limit
14. Your aircraft has:-
A Take-off Mass of = 2353 lbs A calculated C of G for departure = 89.75 inches aft of the datum An estimated
fuel burn = 200 lbs with a C of G 85.00 inches aft of datum. The position of the C of G on landing will be?
a. 82.52 inches aft of the datum.
b. 90.19 inches aft of the datum.
c. 105.98 inches aft of the datum.
d. 96.97 inches aft of the datum
15. When calculating the MZFM (maximum zero fuel mass), the following are included:-
a. Crew, Passengers, Baggage & Catering
b. Crew, Passengers & Baggage.
c. Crew, Passengers, Baggage, Catering & Fuel.
d. Drinkable water and lavatory chemicals.
16. Increasing the aeroplane's gross weight will have what effect on the take-off?
a. Decrease the stall speed and the take-off run required.
b. Decrease the stall speed and increase the take-off run required.
c. Increase the stall speed and the take-off run required.
d. Increase the stall speed and decrease the take-off run required.
17. The main reason for taking off into wind is to:-
a. Decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off.
b. Decrease the take off distance available (TODA).
c. Increase the ground speed of the aircraft.
d. Increase the take-off distance.
18. When the density of the atmosphere is relatively low, the resulting reduction in:-
a. Thrust and drag has no apparent effect on the take-off distance required.
b. Both lift and engine power will require a longer take-off distance.
c. Drag will permit the use of greater flap angles.
d. Drag offsets the loss of engine power giving improved acceleration.
19. If the density of the air is increased above ISA conditions, the effect will be:-
a. To increase the take-off distance.
b. To increase the take-off performance.
c. To decrease just the take-off run.
d. To decrease the take-off performance.
20. That part of a runway surface which is used for normal operations during take-off, excluding any clearway or
stopway, is referred to as:-
a. The landing distance available (LDA).
b. The take-off distance available (TODA).
c. The take-off run available (TORA).
d. The emergency distance available (EMDA).
21. What is the effect of runway slope on the take-off?
a. A downhill slope will decrease the take-off performance.
b. A downhill slope will increase the take-off distance
c. An uphill slope will increase the take-off distance.
d. An uphill slope will increase the take-off performance.
22. To gain the greatest amount of height in the shortest time period the aircraft should be flown at:-
a. The best rate of climb speed (Vy).
b. 60 KT
c. The best angle of climb speed (Vx).
d. At the speed for maximum endurance.
23. The indicated air speed for the best rate of climb when climbing to cruise altitude will tend to:-
a. Decrease then increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain the same.
d. Increase
24. The lift produced by the wing of an aeroplane that is climbing and maintaining a constant airspeed will be:-
a. Less than weight.
b. Greater than weight.
c. Equal to weight.
d. Independent of weight.
25. Climbing at Vx will achieve:-
a. The best time to height.
b. The greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time.
c. The maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance.
d. The maximum angle of climb.
26. What is the maximum range speed for a piston engine aircraft?
a. At a higher speed than VNO and at the lowest safe altitude.
 b. At a speed less than VMD and at the lowest safe altitude.
c. Vmp
d. Vmd
27. In order to maximise the glide range, the aircraft should be flown:
a. At low angles of attack at VMD.
b. At low angles of attack at VMP.
c. At high angles of attack at VMD.
d. At a negative angle of attack at VMD.
28. A pilot wishes to fly at a speed which will give him maximum range. He knows that he is flying with a
tailwind. How will the speed selected by the pilot compare with the maximum range speed for still air?
a. It will be increased by a margin slightly less than the amount of tailwind.
b. It will be decreased by a margin slightly less than the amount of tailwind.
c. It will be the same as for still air.
d. It will be decreased by a margin slightly more than the amount of tailwind.
29. What speed must be flown to attain the maximum cruise endurance?
a. Maximum speed.
b. VMD
c. VY
d. VMP
30. If weight is increased, the range of the aircraft will be:
a. Reduced.
b. Unchanged.
c. Increased.
d. Reduced if no increase in lift is achieved.
31. A wing contaminated by a small amount of ice will produce:-
a. More drag, more weight and less lift.
b. More weight and more lift.
c. An increase in both lift and drag co-efficient.
d. An increase in weight and decrease in drag.
32. Compared to gliding in still air, the effect of a tailwind will:-
a. Increase the glide range but have no effect on the glide endurance.
b. Decrease the glide angle and decrease the rate of descent
c. Have no effect on the glide range or the rate of descent.
d. Increase the glide angle and increase the glide range.
33. When landing, if an aircraft's true air speed is significantly less than the true ground speed then the aircraft
is experiencing:
a. A headwind.
b. A tailwind.
c. A reduced atmospheric density.
d. A cross wind.
34. If the approach and landing speed is higher recommended speed in the aircraft manual the effect will be
that:
a. The landing performance will improve,
b. The landing distance will be unaffected.
c. The landing distance will be increased.
d. The landing distance will be decreased.
35. If the stalling speed in the landing configuration is 55 knots. VREF would be approximately:
a. 71kt
b. 65kt
c. 69 kt.
d. 75kt
36. If the aircraft mass is increased by 15%, the landing distance required will increase approximately:
a. 33% or by a factor of 1.33
 b. 10% or by a factor of 1.1
c. 15% or by a factor of 1.15
d. 20% or by a factor of 1.2
37. GIVEN:
Item mass (lb) Arm(in) Moment (lbxin)
Empty mass 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0
Pilot and passenger 380.0 64.0
Fuel 30 US gal 96.0
The CG is located how far aft of datum?
a. 92.44 in.
b. 119.80 in.
c. 94.01 in.
d. 135.00 in.
38. How does higher air humidity affect aircraft take-off performance? Take-off distances are
a. Longer due to denser air.
b. Longer due to thinner air.
c. Shorter due to denser air.
39. Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
a. High temperature, high relative humidity and high density altitude.
b. Low temperature, high relative humidity and high density altitude.
c. Low temperature, low relative humidity and low density altitude.
d. High temperature, low relative humidity and low density altitude.
40. The aircraft's rate-of-climb during a steady climb depends on
a. Excess of thrust
b. Excess of power.
c. Thrust available.
41. Which maximum range factors decreases as weight decreases?
a. Angle of attack.
b. Altitude
c. Airspeed
42. Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
a. VLO.
b. VNE.
c. VA.
43. When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or
cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by:
a. 60 minutes or more
b. 90 minutes or more
c. 30 minutes or more
d. 45 minutes or more
44. (For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3) A flight has to be made
with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an
additional 13 minutes at cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time from overhead
to overhead is [Link] is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is 30% of the trip fuel. FL
100. Temperature -5°C. Find the minimum block fuel.
a. 470 US gallons.
b. 47 US gallons.
c. 37 US gallons.
d. 60 US gallons
45. Given :
Distance A to B 3060 NM
Mean groundspeed 'out' 440 kt
Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt
Safe Endurance 10 hours
The time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
a. 5 hours 20 minutes
b. 5 hours 30 minutes
c. 5 hours 45 minutes
d. 3 hours 55 minutes
46. Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
London (Heathrow) for a twin - jet aeroplane.
Preplanning:
Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg
Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg
Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg
Assume the following preplanning results:
Trip fuel: 1 800 kg
Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg
Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg
Catering: 750 kg
Baggage: 3 500 kg
Find the Take-off Mass (TOM):

a. 51 515 kg.
b. 55 765 kg.
c. 51 425 kg.
d. 52 265 kg
47. The navigation plan reads:
Trip fuel: 136 kg
Flight time: 2h45min
Calculated reserve fuel: 30% of trip fuel
Fuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board)
Taxi fuel: 3 kg
The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
a. 2h49min
b. 3h38min
c. 3h34min
d. 2h45min
48. After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to return to the airfield of
departure. You will arrive after:
a. 24 min
b. 10 min 40 sec
c. 20 min
d. 16 min
49. Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg,
Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic
load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400 kg
Find: Maximum additional load
a. 4000 kg
b. 3000 kg
c. 7000 kg
d. 5600 kg
50. Given:
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kg
Load= 8110 kg
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel 102 kg
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be :
a. 41110 kg.
b. 42210 kg.
c. 42195 kg.
d. 42312 kg.
51. Given the following:
D = flight distance
X = distance to Point of Equal Time
GSo = groundspeed out
GSr = groundspeed return
The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal Time is :
a. X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr)
b. X = (D/2) x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
c. X = (D/2) + GSr / (GSo + GSr)
d. X = D x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
52. Given :
Distance X to Y 2700 NM
Mach Number 0.75
Temperature -45°C
Mean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwind
Mean wind component 'back' 35 kt tailwind
The distance from X to the point of equal time (PET) between X and Y is :
a. 1425 NM
b. 1386 NM
c. 1350 NM
d. 1313 NM
53. The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000kg.
What is the dry operating mass?
a. 71 000 kg
b. 99 000 kg
c. 53 000 kg
d. 64 000 kg
54. Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass of a child as
a. 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.
b. 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
c. 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) not
occupying a seat.
d. 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a
seat.
55. The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always:
a. The maximum take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.
b. The take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.
c. The take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass.
d. The take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass
56. The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line.
The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line. What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front
cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
a. 300 kg
b. 900 kg
c. 30.0 kg
d. 196 kg
57. An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel
load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 [Link] distance between the nose wheels and the main
wheels is 10 meter. How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels?
a. 41.6 cm.
b. 25 cm.
c. 40 cm.
d. 4 meter.
58. The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual as 650 kg per square
metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be safely supported on a pallet with dimensions
of 80 cm by 80 cm?
a. 41.6 kg
b. 101.6 kg
c. 416.0 kg
d. 1015.6 kg
59. Given an aeroplane with:
Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg
Dry Operating Mass: 48000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is 2800 kg,
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum
traffic load are respectively:
a. 77200 kg and 22200 kg
b. 75000 kg and 17200 kg
c. 75000 kg and 20000 kg
d. 77200 kg and 19400 kg
60. Allowed traffic load is the difference between :
a. allowed take off mass and basic mass
b. operating mass and basic mass
c. allowed take off mass and operating mass
d. allowed take off mass and basic mass plus trip fuel
61. (Refer to CAP 697 - figure 2.3) Given:
FL75
OAT: +2° C
Wind component: -12 kts
Distance: 45 NGM
Power setting: 21 in. HG (or full throttle) @ 2100 RPM
Find the TAS, GS, Time and fuel required for this flight leg:
A) TAS 141 kts; GS 129 kts; 21 minutes; 3.3 gallons
B) TAS 141 kts; GS 129 kts; 20 minutes; 3.5 gallons
C) TAS 139 kts; GS 127 kts; 20 minutes; 3.5 gallons
D) TAS 139 kts; GS 127 kts; 21 minutes; 3.3 gallons
62. (Refer to CAP 697 - figure 2.1)
Calculate the climb fuel for take-off from airfield at MSL, OAT +20° C, initial climb weight 3400 LB to cruise at
FL 70, OAT +5° C:
A) 2.5 gal
B) 2 gal
C) 3.2 gal
D) 3.5 gal
63. (Refer to CAP 697 - figure 2.1) Given:
Takeoff pressure altitude: 4623 ft
Takeoff OAT: -15° C
Cruise pressure altitude: 9500 ft
Cruise OAT: -25° C
Initial weight: 3200 lbs
Determine the time and fuel to climb:
A) 3 minutes; 1.5 gallons
B) 4.5 minutes; 1.5 gallons
C) 5 minutes; 2 gallons
D) 4 minutes; 1 gallon
64. (Refer to CAP 697 - figure 2.2.1)
Using the SEP Recommended Cruise Power Settings tables calculate the fuel flow, IAS and TAS for a power
setting of 25 inches / 2500 rpm:
Cruise: 7000 ft
Temperature: -24° C
A) 86.2 gph / 160 kts IAS / 169 kts TAS
B) 66.1 gph / 143 kts IAS / 150 kts TAS
C) 82.7 gph / 156 kts IAS / 170 kts TAS
D) 79.35 gph / 150 kts IAS / 170 kts TAS
65. The scheduled landing distance required is the distance:
A) From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete stop
B) From a screen of a designated height to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete stop
C) From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has decelerated to a speed of 20kts
D) From the point at which the aircraft is 50 metres above the runway to the point at which the aircraft has
come to a complete stop