VELAMMAL ENGINEERING COLLEGE

DEPARTMENT OF ECE
EC8701- ANTENNA AND MICROWAVE ENGINEERING
MCQ QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
UNIT I - INTRODUCTION TO MICROWAVE SYSTEMS AND ANTENNAS
PART-A (1 MARKS)
1. An antenna is defined as
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) Transducer
d) Capacitor
2. Fraunhofer field is
a) Near field region
b) Far field region
c) Distant point region
d) None of the above
3. With an increase in operating frequency, the background noise temperature:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Remains unaffected
4. An antenna source that radiates energy uniformly in all the directions is called:
a) Isotropic source
b) Anisotropic source
c) Point source
d) None of the mentioned
5. As the beam area of an antenna decreases, the directivity of the antenna:
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains unchanged
d) Depends on the type of the antenna
6. Effective aperture in terms of beam area and operating wavelength is given by the
relation:
a) λ2/ ΩA
b) ΩA / λ2
c) λ2× ΩA
d) No such relationship exists
7. ________ of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the induced voltage to the incident
electric field)
a) Effective height
b) Gain
c) Directivity
d) Loss
8. The basic equation of radiation that is applied to any antenna irrespective of the type of
the antenna is:
a) iL= Qv
b) iQ = Lv
c) i/L=Q/v
d) None of the mentioned
9._________ is a device that converts electrons to photons or vice-versa)
a) Antenna
b) Electron gun
c) Photon amplifier
d) Microwave tube
10. The beam width of the antenna pattern measured at half power points is called:
a) Half power beam width
b) Full null beam width
c) Beam width
d) None of the mentioned
11. Relationship between gain and directivity
a) G =K/D
b) G=KD
c) K=GD
d) D = KG
12. The mutual impedance depends on
a) Magnitude of induces currents
b) Phase difference between induced and original current
c) Tuning conditions of nearby antennas
d) All the above
13. The directivity of an antenna in terms of the aperture efficiency and operating
wavelength is given by:
a) 4πAe/λ2
b) 2πAe/λ2
c) πAe/λ2
d) None of the mentioned
14. The solid area through which all the power radiated by the antenna is:
a) Beam area
b) Effective area
c) Aperture area
d) Beam efficiency
15. Power radiated from an antenna per unit solid angle is called radiation intensity.
a) True
b) False
c) Both
d) All of these
16. What is the distance between antennas to apply the Friss transmission equation in
terms of antennas largest dimension?
a) R » 2D2/λ
b) R « 2D2/λ
c) R » 2λ2/D
d) R « 2λ2/D
17. Which of the following pattern varies with square of magnitude of field?
a) Power Pattern
b) Electric Field Pattern
c) Current distribution
d) Array Factor
18. The radiation lobe containing the direction of maximum radiation is called as _____
a) Major lobe
b) Minor lobe
c) Side lobe
d) Back lobe
19. Fresnel zone is also called as ____
a) Near Field
b) Far Field
c) Electrostatic Field
d) Reactive Field
20. For a center fed short antenna, current distribution is _____ at center and ____ at
ends.
a) Low, high
b) High, high
c) Low, low
d) High, low
21. What happens to the beam-width of antenna if the frequency of operation is
increased?
a) Beam-width will decrease
b) Beam-width will increase
c) Beam-width is independent of frequency
d) Beam width may increase or decrease
22. Equivalent noise temperature of a transmission line connecting the antenna to the
receiver is:
a) TP (LP-1)
b) TP (LP + 1)
c) TP/ (LP-1)
d) TP / (LP + 1)
23. The major advantage of single stub tuning over other impedance matching techniques
is:
a) Lumped elements are avoided
b) It can be fabricated as a part of transmission line media
c) It involves two adjustable parameters
d) All of the mentioned
24. Ideally, the number of point sources an antenna can resolve is numerically equal to:
a) Gain of the antenna
b) Directivity
c) Beam efficiency
d) Beam area
25. The members of the antenna family which are made of wires of certain value in terms
of operating wavelength are called:
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas
c) Dipole antenna
d) Slot antennas
PART B (2 MARKS)
1. The members of the antenna family which are made of wires of certain value in terms
of operating wavelength are called:
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas
c) Dipole antenna
d) Slot antennas
2. If an antenna has a directivity of 16 and radiation efficiency of 0.9, then the gain of the
antenna is:
a) 16.2
b) 14.8
c) 12.5
d) 19.3
3. A rectangular horn antenna has an aperture area of 3λ × 2λ. Then the maximum
directivity that can be achieved by this rectangular horn antenna is:
a) 24 dB
b) 4 dB
c) 19 dB
d) Insufficient data
4. If an antenna has a directivity of 16 and is operating at a wavelength of λ, then the
maximum effective aperture efficiency is:
a) 1.27λ2
b) 2.56λ2
c) 0.87λ2
d) None of the mentioned
5. If the field strength at receiving antenna is 1 µV/m, and the effective aperture area is
0.4 m2 and the intrinsic impedance of the medium is 377 Ω, then the power received by
the antenna is:
a) 1.06 pW
b) 1.06 fW
c) 2 µW
d) None of the mentioned
6. Let’s assume a transmitting antenna having gain 10dB is placed at a distance of 100m
from the receiving antenna and radiates a power of 5W. Find the gain of the receiving
antenna in dB when the received power is 150μW and transmitter frequency 500MHz?
a) 1.31dB
b) 1.19dB
c) 11.19dB
d) 13.16dB
7. Power received by the antenna when one antenna is horizontally polarized and the
other is vertically polarized is _______
a) 1
b) 0
c) PrPt=GtGrλ2(4πR)2
d) PrPt=GtGrλ22(4πR)2
8. If the directivity of a square corner receiving antenna is 20 and operating at a
wavelength of 0.25m, the effective aperture of a square corner antenna is:
a) 0.4 m2
b) 0.2 m2
c) 0.1 m2
d) None of the mentioned
9. The half power beam width of an antenna in both θ and φ are 400 each. Then the gain
of the antenna is:
a) 23
b) 25
c) 14
d) 27
10. Ideally, the number of point sources an antenna can resolve is numerically equal to:
a) Gain of the antenna
b) Directivity
c) Beam efficiency
d) Beam area
11. Free space loss factor is given by _____
a) λ4πR
b) (λ4πR)2
c) 4πRλ
d) (4πRλ)2
12. An antenna has a field pattern E (θ) =cos θ. cos 2θ. The first null beam width of the
antenna is:
a) 450
b) 900
c) 1800
d) 1200
13. An antenna has a field pattern of E (θ) = cos2 θ, θ varies between 0 and 900. Half
power beam width of the antenna is:
a) 330
b) 660
c) 1200
d) None of the mentioned
14. If the received power at antenna terminals is -80dBm, and if the input noise power is -
115 dBm, then the input SNR is:
a) 45 dB
b) -195 dB
c) -35 dB
d) 35 dB
15. Units of radiation intensity is _______
a) Watts/unit Solid angle
b) Watts/m2
c) Watts- m2
d) Watts

UNIT II - RADIATION MECHANISMS AND DESIGN ASPECTS

PART-A(1 MARKS)
1. The members of the antenna family which are made of wires of certain value in terms
of operating wavelength are called:
a) Loop antennas
b) Wire antennas
c) Dipole antenna
d) Slot antennas
2. The antenna in which location of the feed determines the direction of the lobe are:
a) Wire antenna
b) Loop antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Horn antenna
3. What is the radiation pattern of an isotropic radiator?
a) Doughnut
b) Sphere
c) Hemisphere
d) Circular
4. Since electric charges are oscillate in short dipole, it is known as
a) Elementary dipole
b) Elementary doublet
c) Oscillating Electric dipole
d) Current element
5. Which of the following antennas produce a vertical radiation pattern?
a) Dipole antenna
b) Yagi antenna
c) Marconi antenna
d) Hertz antenna
6. A loop antenna is a commonly used for
a) Radar
b) Direction finding
c) Satellite communication
d) All of the above
7. Loop antenna is a combination of
a) Vertical short dipole and Square loop
b) Horizontal short dipole and circular loop
c) Vertical short dipole and circular loop
d) Horizontal short and Square loop
8. Which of the following is used as a secondary antenna in the reflector antenna?
a) Horn
b) Feed antenna
c) Parabolic
d) Dipole
9. Which of the following is not a reflector antenna?
a) Convex-convex
b) Corner
c) Gregorian
d) Cassegrain
10. Which of the following antenna belongs to rectangular aperture?
a) Horn antenna
b) Helical antenna
c) Parabolic antenna
d) Conical antenna
11. Which of the following is used to reduce side lobe levels in aperture antenna?
a) Tapering
b) Increasing the power
c) Using repeaters
d) Reducing power
12. If the flare angle of the horn increases, then its beam width ______
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Depends on aperture of horn
d) Independent of flare angle
13. Babinet’s principle is used in
a) Horn antenna
b) Dipole antenna
c) Slot antenna
d) Aperture antenna
14. Which of the following antenna is obtained by removing a small area of metal from
an infinite ground plane?
a) Slot antenna
b) Plane reflector
c) Dipole
d) Yagi-Uda
15. Which of the following type does helical antenna belongs to?
a) Wire type
b) Aperture
c) Reflector
d) Array
16. Which of the following modes does the condition πD << λ is satisfied in helical
antenna?
a) Axial mode
b) Normal mode
c) Conical mode
d) Axial, Normal and Conical
17. The relation between the dipole spacing and the scaling factor τ in LPDA is given by
_________

18. Which of the following statement is false?

a) LPDA is a frequency independent antenna
b) In LPDA the lengths of the dipoles increases from the apex of the feed line toward
other end
c) The included angle varies as the length of the dipole changes from the apex of
feed line
d) The spacing between adjacent dipoles and their lengths are in same ratio
19. Which of the following fed line is connected to patch just like a conducting strip?
a) Microstrip line feed
b) Coaxial feed
c) Aperture coupling
d) Proximity Coupling
20. Which of the following is the disadvantage of the coaxial feeding?
a) Fabrication is very difficult
b) Low spurious radiation
c) Narrow Bandwidth
d) No generation of higher order modes
21. One of the advantages of the Microstrip antenna compared to conventional
microwave antenna is _________
a) Small size
b) Low gain
c) No surface wave excitation
d) High gain
22. Rumsey’s principle is related to which type of antennas?
a) Frequency independent antennas
b) Frequency dependent antennas
c) Reflector antennas
d) Both Frequency independent and independent antennas
23. Impedance of self-complementary antenna is ____
a) Zo/2
b) Zo/4
c) Zo
d) 2Zo
24. Which of the following does not belongs to frequency independent antenna?
a) Spiral antenna
b) Log periodic antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Parabolic antenna
25. Which of the following is Rumsey’s principle?
a) The impedance & pattern of antenna is frequency independent if antenna size is
specified in terms of angle
b) The impedance & pattern of antenna is frequency dependent if antenna size is
specified in terms of angle
c) The impedance & pattern of antenna is frequency dependent if antenna size is specified
in terms of radiated power
d) The impedance & pattern of antenna is frequency dependent if antenna size is variable
PART-B (2 MARKS)
1. What is the pitch angle if the separation of turns is at 2 cm and the circumference is of
4 cm?
a) 26.56
b) 62.65
c) 30
d) 25.34
2. What is the necessary condition for a helical antenna to operate in the axial mode?
a) πD << λ
b) πD ≈ λ
c) πD ≈ nλ
d) πD=0
3. Which of the following combination forms a Cassegrain antenna?
a) The main reflector is parabolic and sub-reflector is hyperbolic
b) The main reflector is parabolic and sub-reflector is concave
c) The main reflector is hyperbolic and sub-reflector is parabolic
d) The main reflector is hyperbolic and sub-reflector is convex
4. Which of the following efficiency is used to measure the power-loss at the feed pattern
which is intercepted by reflector?
a) Spillover
b) Illumination
c) Taper
d) Aperture
5. Flare angle (in degrees) of horn antenna when axial length 10λ and path difference δ =
0.3λ is given is _____
a) θ = 1.386
b) θ = 2.772
c) θ = 27.72
d) θ = 13.86
6. Value of self complementary antenna when Zo=120π?
a) 120π
b) 60π
c) 240π
d) 30π
7. What is the Input impedance of the axial feed helical antenna with circumference per
unit wavelength is 1.2?
a) 168Ω
b) 186Ω
c) 198Ω
d) 158Ω
8. What is the pitch angle of the helical antenna to become a loop antenna?
a) 90
b) 0
c) 45
d) 60
9. Which of the following is true regarding the coaxial coupling feed in Microstrip
antenna?
a) Inner conductor is connected to patch and outer conductor to ground plane
b) Outer conductor is connected to patch and inner conductor to ground plane
c) It is connected to patch just like a conducting strip
d) It contains two different substrates separated by a ground plane
10. Find the number of turns in the helical antenna with directivity 120 and Cλ=1 and
pitch angle 6°.
a) 100
b) 50
c) 120
d) 12
11. Which of the following does not belongs to frequency independent antenna?
a) Spiral antenna
b) Log periodic antenna
c) Helical antenna
d) Parabolic antenna
[Link] mobiles, which of the following antenna is widely used?
a) Microstrip antenna
b) Horn antenna
c) Yagi-Uda antenna
d) Lens antenna
13. Which of the following is the application of Microstrip antenna in a telemedicine
industry?
a) Wireless Body Area Network
b) Detection of moving targets
c) Rectenna application
d) WiMax
14. What is the pitch angle if the separation of turns is at 2 cm and the circumference is of
4 cm?
a) 26.56
b) 62.65
c) 30
d) 25.34
15. The Axial ratio of the helical antenna with 3 turns is _____
a) 1.11
b) 0.89
c) 6
d) 0.98

UNIT III - ANTENNA ARRAYS AND APPLICATIONS

PART-A (1 MARKS)
1. If a linear uniform array consists of 9 isotropic elements separated by λ/4, what would
be the directivity of a broadside array in dB?
a) 6.53 dB
b) 7.99 dB
 c) 8.55 dB
d) 9.02 dB
2. How do the elements of an active region behave?
a) Inductive
b) Capacitive
c) Resistive
d) None of the above
3. If the elements of a binomial array are separated by λ/4, how many shape patterns are
generated with no minor lobes?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
4. Which among the following is regarded as a condition of an ordinary endfire array?
a) α < βd
b) α > βd
c) α = ±βd
d) α ≠ ±βd
5. In broadside array, all the elements in the array should have similar _______excitation
along with similar amplitude excitation for maximum radiation.
a) Phase
b) Frequency
c) Current
d) Voltage
6. What is the nature of radiation pattern of an isotropic antenna?
a) Spherical
b) Dough-nut
c) Elliptical
d) Hyperbolic
7. In which kind of array configuration, the element locations must deviate or adjust to
some nonplanar surface like an aircraft or missile?
a) Linear
b) Planer
c) Conformal
d) All of the above
8. A broadside array consisting of 200 cm wavelength with 10 half-wave dipole
spacing 10 cm. And if each array element feeding with 1 amp. current and operating at
same frequency then find the half power beamwidth
a) 4°
b) 2°
c) 10°
d) 15°
9. A broadside array operating at 100 cm wavelength consist of 4 half-wave dipoles
spaced 50 cm apart. Each element carries radio frequency current in the same phase
and of magnitude 0.5 A) The radiated power will be
a) 196 W
b) 73 W
c) 36.5 W
d) 18.25 W

10. Array factor of that array is

a) E(total) = [E(single element at reference point)] +[array factor]
b) E(total) = [E(single element at reference point)] × [array factor]
c) E(total) = [E(single element at reference point)] -[array factor]
d) E(total) = [E(single element at reference point)] /[array factor]
11. A uniform array
a) An array of non identical elements all of non identical magnitude and each with a
progressive phase is referred to as a uniform array
b) An array of identical elements all of non identical magnitude and each with a
progressive phase is referred to as a uniform array
c) An array of identical elements all of identical magnitude and each with a
progressive phase is referred to as a uniform array.
d) An array of non identical elements all of identical magnitude and each with a
progressive phase is referred to as a uniform array
12. For broadside array
a) θ0 = 90◦
b) θ0 = 0◦
c) θ0 = 180◦
d) θ0 = 360◦
13. For End fire array
a) θ0 = 90◦
b) θ0 = 0◦
c) θ0 = 180◦
d) θ0 = 360◦
14. Given a linear, broadside, uniform array of 10 isotropic elements (N = 10) with a
separation of λ/4(d = λ/4) between the elements, find the directivity of the array.
a) 6.99dB
b) 6.89dB
c) 6.79dB
d) 6.69dB
15. Given a linear, end-fire, uniform array of 10 elements (N = 10) with a separationof
λ/4(d = λ/4) between the elements, find the directivity of the array factor. This array is
identical to the broadside array
a) 9.9dB
b) 10dB
c) 10.05dB
d) 11dB
16. Given a linear, end-fire (with improved directivity) Hansen-Woodyard, uniform array
of 10 elements (N = 10) with a separationof λ/4(d = λ/4) between the elements, find the
directivity of the array factor.
a)12.36dB
b) 12.76dB
c) 12.56dB
d) 12.96dB
17. Tschebyscheff polynomial
a) The order of the polynomial should be one greater than the total number of elements of
the array.
b) The order of the polynomial should be two less than the total number of elements of
the array
c) The order of the polynomial should be one less than the total number of elements
of the array
d) The order of the polynomial should be equal to the total number of elements of the
array
18. total field E is
a) E =magnitude of (f (θ , φ) F(θ , φ) )* Angle of (fp(θ , φ) - Fp(θ , φ) )
b) E =magnitude of (f (θ , φ) F(θ , φ) )* Angle of (fp(θ , φ) + Fp(θ , φ) )
c) E =magnitude of (f (θ , φ) F(θ , φ) )* Angle of (fp(θ , φ) * Fp(θ , φ) )
d) E =magnitude of (f (θ , φ) F(θ , φ) )* Angle of (fp(θ , φ) / Fp(θ , φ) )
19. Etotal field E of Linear Arrays of n Isotropic Point Sources of Equal Amplitude and
Spacing
a) E = (1 /n )[sin(nψ/2) *sin(ψ/2)]
b) E = (1 /n )[sin(nψ/2) /sin(ψ/2)]
c) E = (1 /n )[sin(nψ/2) +sin(ψ/2)]
d) E = (1 /n )[sin(nψ/2) -sin(ψ/2)]
20. For Broadside Array (Sources in Phase)
a) φ= π/ 3 and 3π /2
b) φ= π and 3π /2
c) φ= π/ 2 and 3π /2
d) φ= π/ 4 and 3π /2
21. For Ordinary End-Fire Array
a) E maximum radiation is in the direction φ = 90 when δ = −dr and in the direction φ =
180◦ when δ = +dr
b) maximum radiation is in the direction φ = 45 when δ = −dr and in the direction φ =
180◦ when δ = +dr
c) maximum radiation is in the direction φ = 0 when δ = −dr and in the direction φ =
180◦ when δ = +dr
d) maximum radiation is in the direction φ = 60 when δ = −dr and in the direction φ =
360◦ when δ = +dr
22. Huygens’ Principle: Huygens’ principle states that each point on a primary wave front
can be considered to be a new source of a secondary spherical wave and that a secondary
wave front can be constructed as the envelope of these secondary waves
a) True
b) False
23. A vertical conducting wall 25 m high extends above a flat ground plane. A λ = 10-cm
transmitter is situated 25 m above the ground plane at a large distance to one side of the
vertical wall and a receiver is located on the ground plane 100 m to the other side of the
wall. Find the signal level at the receiver due to diffraction over the wall as compared to
the direct path signal without the wall.
a) −32 dB
b) −31 dB
c) −33 dB
d) −34 dB
24. Calculate the directivity of a broadside array of two identical isotropic in-phase point
sources spaced λ/2 apart along the polar axis, the relative field pattern being given by
a) E = sin(π/ 2 cos θ)
b) E = cos(π/ 2 cos θ)
c) E = cos(π/ 2 sin θ)
d) E = sin(π/ 2 sin θ)
25. Calculate the directivity of an end-fire array of two identical isotropic point sources in
phase opposition, spaced λ/2 apart along the polar axis, the relative field pattern being
given by
a) E = sin (π /2 cos θ)
b) E = cos(π/ 2 cos θ)
c) E = cos(π/ 2 sin θ)
d) E = sin(π/ 2 sin θ)
PART-B (2 MARKS)
1. Intrinsic impedance of free space (a pure resistance)
a) 377.7 Ohm
b) 377 Ohm
c) 376.7 Ohm
d) 375.7 Ohm
2. If the junction point connects to a 300- twin-line going to the transmitter or receiver,
find the reflection coefficient is
a) 0.052
b) 0.152
c) 0.0152
d) 0.52
3. Find the Directivity of the λ/8 spacing W8JK array
a) 1.57
b) 1.67
c) 1.77
d) 1.50
4. The terminal impedance is then a pure resistance of 86 Ohm. obtain a driving-point
resistance of 600 Ohm
a) 331Ohm
b) 322 Ohm
c) 321Ohm
d) 344 Ohm
5. The field pattern E(θ, φ) of a volume array as a function of θ and φ is
a) E(θ, φ) = En(θ, φ)Ex (θ, φ)Ey (θ, φ)Ez(θ, φ)
b) E(θ, φ) = El(θ, φ)Ex (θ, φ)Ey (θ, φ)Ez(θ, φ)
c) E(θ, φ) = Ey(θ, φ)Ex (θ, φ)Ey (θ, φ)Ez(θ, φ)
d) E(θ, φ) = Es(θ, φ)Ex (θ, φ)Ey (θ, φ)Ez(θ, φ)
6. In an array of identical elements, What are all the parameter controls that can be used
to shape the overall pattern of the antenna)
1. The geometrical configuration of the overall array (linear, circular, rectangular,
spherical, etc))
2. The relative displacement between the elements
3. The excitation amplitude of the individual elements
4. The excitation phase of the individual elements 5. the relative pattern of the
individual elements
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
7. N-ELEMENT LINEAR ARRAY: UNIFORM AMPLITUDE AND SPACING the
value of ψ
a) ψ = kd cos θ + β
b) ψ = kd cos θ + β
c) ψ = kd cos θ + β
d) ψ = kd cos θ + β
8. To avoid any grating lobe
a) dmax > λ
b) dmax < λ
c) dmax >= λ
d) dmax <= λ
9. SNOIs Stands for
a) Signals-not-of-interest
b) Signals none of interested
c) Signals-not-of-intensify
d) Signals not of information
10. The array factor of a linear array of M (even) identical elements with uniform spacing
positioned symmetrically along the y-axis
a) ψn =(πd /λ) cos θ sin φ + β
b) ψn =(πd /λ) cos θ sin φ * β
c) ψn =(πd /λ) sin θ sin φ + β
d) ψn =(πd /λ) sin θ sin φ – β
11. The objectives of a DSP are to estimate in smart antenna is
1. The direction of arrival (DOA) of all impinging signals,
2. The appropriate weights to ideally steer the maximum radiation of the antenna
pattern toward the SOI and to place nulls toward the SNOI.
3. To amplify the signals
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
12. Example for subspace methods of finding DOA is
1. MUltiple SIgnal Classification (MUSIC)
2. Estimation of Signal Parameters via Rotational Invariance Technique (ESPRIT)
3. Capon’s method
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2, and 3
13. Advantages of ESPRIT over MUSIC is
1. is less computationally intensive,
2. requires much less storage,
3. Does not involve an exhaustive search through all possible steering vectors to
estimate the DOA, and
4. Does not require the calibration of the array,
5. simpler to implement
a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
14. Optimal Beamforming Techniques
1. Minimum Mean Square Error (MMSE)
2. Maximum Signal-to-Noise Ratio (MSNR)
3. Minimum (noise) Variance (MV)
4. Least Mean Square (LMS)
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 1, 2 only
c) 1, 3 only
d) 3 and 4 only
15. The array factor is given by
a) AF = 1 + e+j (kd cos θ-β) + e+j2(kd cos θ+β) +···+ ej (N−1)(kd cos θ-β)
b) AF = 1 + e+j (kd cos θ+β) + e+j2(kd cos θ-β) +···+ ej (N−1)(kd cos θ+β)
c) AF = 1 + e+j (kd cos θ+β) + e+j2(kd cos θ+β) +···+ ej (N−1)(kd cos θ+β)
d) AF = 1 + e+j (kd cos θ+β) + e+j2(kd cos θ-β) +···+ ej (N−1)(kd cos θ-β)

UNIT IV- PASSIVE AND ACTIVE MICROWAVE DEVICE

PART-A (1 MARKS)
1. In multicavity klystron additional cavities are inserted between buncher & catcher
cavities to achieve
a) Higher Gain
b) Higher Efficiency
c) Higher Frequency
d) Higher Bandwidth
2. Which of the following is one of the mode in Reflex Klystron
a) Give same frequency but different transit time
b) Are caused by spurious frequency modulation
c) Are just for theoretical consideration
d) Result from excessive transit time across resonator gap
3. A space between two cavities in two cavity klystron is _______
a) Drift space
b) Free space
c) Running space
d) Normal space
4. Magnetron is an _______
a) Amplifier
b) Oscillator
c) Phase shifter
d) Both phase shifter & amplifier
5. Traveling Wave Tube is __________
a) Oscillator
b) Tuned Amplifier
c) Wide Band Amplifier
d) Both Amplifier & Oscillator
6. PIN diode is suitable for use as a _____
a) Microwave switch
b) Microwave mixed diode
c) Microwave detector
d) None of these
7. A Magic – Tee is nothing but
a) Modification of E- Plane tee
b) Modification of H- Plane tee
c) Combination of E- plane & H- plane
d) Two E- plane tees connected in parallel
8. Which of the following is used for amplification of microwave energy
a) Travelling wave tube
b) Magnetron
c) Reflex klystron
d) Gunn diode
9. Which of the following is the major advantage of Travelling wave tube over Klystron
a) Higher gain
b) Higher frequency
c) Higher Output
d) Higher bandwidth
10. GaAs is used in the fabrication of GUNN diodes because:
a) GaAs is cost effective
b) It less temperature sensitive
c) it has low conduction band electrons
d) less forbidden energy gap
11. When the applied electric field exceeds the threshold value, electrons absorb more
energy from the field and become:
a) hot electrons
b) cold electrons
c) emission electrons
d) none of the mentioned
12. The number of modes of operation for n type GaAs is:
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) five
13. Power dividers and couplers are ______ microwave components used for power
division or power combining.
a) Passive
b) Active
c) Linear
d) Non linear
14. T- junction is an example for:
a) 2 port network
b) 3 port network
c) 4 port network
d) None of the mentioned
15. If a device is passive and contains no anisotropic elements, then the device is_______
network.
a) Reciprocal
b) Non reciprocal
c) Lossless
d) Lossy
16. Isolation of a directional coupler is a measure of the:
a) Power delivered to the uncoupled port
b) Power delivered to the coupled port
c) Power delivered to the second port
d) None of the mentioned
17. TWT stands for:
a) Transverse Wave Transmission
b) Transverse-Wave Tube
c) Traveling-Wave Tube\
d) Traveling-Wave Transmission
18. An “isolator” is a device that:
a) Isolates frequencies in a waveguide
b) Allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c) Separates signals among various ports
d) Prevents microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide
19. A “circulator” is a device that:
a) Rotates signal polarity in a waveguide
b) Allows a signal to pass in one direction only
c) Separates signals among various ports
d) Prevents microwaves from being “trapped” in a waveguide
20. IMPATT stands for:
a) Impact avalanche and transit time
b) Induced mobility at transmission time
c) Implied power at transmission terminal
d) None of the above
21. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:
a) TWT
b) Klystron
c) Magnetron
d) YIG
22. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:
a) TWT
b) Klystron
c) Magnetron
d) YIG
23. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:
a) TWT
b) Klystron
c) Magnetron
d) YIG
24. Reflex klystron is a ______
a) Amplifier
b) Oscillator
c) Attenuator
d) Filter
25. On which of the following principle does Klystron operates
a) Amplitude Modulation
b) Frequency Modulation
c) Pulse Modulation
d) Velocity Modulation

PART-B (2 MARKS)
1. The mode of operation in which the Gunn diode is not stable is:
a) Gunn oscillation mode
b) limited space charge accumulation mode
c) stable amplification mode
d) bias circuit oscillation mode
2. The frequency of oscillation in Gunn diode is given by:
a) vdom/ Leff
b) Leff/ Vdom
c) Leff/ WVdom
d) none of the mentioned
3. In a Gunn diode oscillator, the electron drift velocity was found to be 107 cm/second
and the effective length is 20 microns, then the intrinsic frequency is:
a) 5 GHz
b) 6 GHz
c) 4 GHz
d) 2 GHz
4. When a reverse bias voltage exceeding the breakdown voltage is applied to an
IMPATT diode, it results in:
a) avalanche multiplication
b) break down of depletion region
c) high reverse saturation current
d) none of the mentioned
5. The number of semiconductor layers in IMPATT diode is:
a) two
b) three
c) four
d) none of the mentioned
6. The resonant frequency of an IMPATT diode is given by:
a) Vd/2l
b) Vd/l
c) Vd/2πl
d) Vdd/4πl
7. If the length of the intrinsic region in IMPATT diode is 2 µm and the carrier drift
velocity are 107 cm/s, then the drift time of the carrier is:
a) 10-11 seconds
b) 2×10-11 seconds
c) 2.5×10-11 seconds
d) none of the mentioned
8. Schottky barrier diode is a sophisticated version of the point contact ______________
a) Germanium diode
b) Silicon crystal diode
c) GaAs diode
d) None of the mentioned
9. In a klystron amplifier the input cavity is called
a) Buncher
b) Catcher
c) Pierce gun
d) Collector
10. In a klystron amplifier dc electron velocity is v0 and dc electron charge density
is 0 the dc beam current is
a) 0v0
b) 0/v0
c) v0/ 0
d) (v0/ 0)2

11. Assertion (A): PIN diode can be used as attenuator and limiter.
Reason (R): PIN diode has a thin intrinsic layer.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) A is wrong but R is correct

12. The correct sequence of parts in klystron amplifier are

a) anode, catcher cavity, cathode, buncher cavity
b) cathode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity, cavity
c) anode, buncher cavity, catcher cavity, cathode
d) cathode, catcher cavity, anode, buncher cavity

13. Consider the following statements

1. Impedance of Gunn diode is about tens of ohms.
2. Impedance of IMPATT diode is a few ohms.
3. Impedance of IMPATT diode are of the same order.
4. Impedance of IMPATT diode is more than that of Gunn diode.
Which of the above statement are correct?
a) All
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1, 2 and 4

14. In a TWT the axial component of electric field advances along the tube
a) at a velocity that is almost equal to speed of light
b) at a velocity that is a small fraction of speed of light
c) at a velocity that is about 50% of speed of light
d) at a velocity that may be even more than speed of light
15. Assertion (A): PIN diode is commonly used for microwave control.
Reason (R): A PIN diode uses heavily doped p and n materials.
a) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) A is wrong but R is correct
UNIT V MICROWAVE DESIGN PRINCIPLES
PART-A (1 MARKS)
Impedance transformation, Impedance Matching, Microwave Filter Design, RF and
Microwave Amplifier Design, Microwave Power amplifier Design, Low Noise Amplifier
Design, Microwave Mixer Design, Microwave Oscillator Design

1. If the characteristic impedance of a transmission line 50 Ω and reflection coefficient is

0.0126+j0.1996, then load impedance is:
a) 47.3+j19.7Ω
b) 4.7+j1.97Ω
c) 0.26+j0.16
d) data insufficient
2. The major limitation of a lumped elements matching ‘L’ network is:
a) They are not equally efficient at higher frequencies as they are at lower
frequencies.
b) size of the network
c) they restrict flow of current
d) none of the mentioned
3. An ‘L’ network is required to match a load impedance of 40Ω to a transmission line of
characteristic impedance 60Ω. The components of the L network are:
a) 28.28+j0 Ω
b) 28.28+j1 Ω
c) 50Ω
d) 48.9Ω
4. The imaginary part of the matching network is given by the relation:
a)
b)
c)
d) None of the mentioned
5. In series stub matching, if the normalized impedance at a point on the transmission line
to be matched is 1+j1.33. Then the reactance of the series stub used for matching is:
a) 1 Ω
b) -1.33 Ω
c) -1 Ω
d) 1.33 Ω
6. The standard stub spacing usually used is:
a) 0, λ/2
b) λ/4, λ/8
c) λ/8, 3λ/8
d) none of the mentioned
7. The major disadvantage of single stub tuning is:
a) it requires a variable length of line between the load and the stub
b) it involves 2 variable parameters
c) complex calculation
d) none of the mentioned
8. If a load of 10Ω has to be matched to a transmission line of characteristic impedance of
50Ω, then the characteristic impedance of the matching section of the transmission line
is:
a) 50Ω
b) 10Ω
c) 22.36Ω
d) 100Ω
9. If ZL< Z0, then the reflection coefficient at that junction is:
a) ГN<0
b) ГN>0
c) ГN>1
d) None of the mentioned
10. Chebyshev matching transformers can be universally used for impedance matching in
any of the microwave networks.
a) True
b) False
c) Both of these
d) None of these
11. __________ is defined as the ratio of power available from the two port network to
the power available from the source.
a) Transducer power gain
b) Available power gain
c) Power gain
d) None of the mentioned
12. Transducer power gain of a two port network is dependent on :
a) ZS and ZL
b) ZS
c) ZL
d) Independent of both the impedances
13. For a unilateral transistor, the S parameter that is zero is:
a) S11
b) S12
c) S21
d) S22
14. When both input and output of an amplifier are matched to zero reflection (in contrast
to conjugate matching), the transducer power gain is:
a)
b)
c)
d)
15. A network is said to be conditionally stable if:
a)
b) c)
d)
16. For any passive source termination ГS, Unconditional stability implies that:
a) │Гout│<1
b) │Гout│>1
c) │Гin│<1
d) │Гin│>1
17. High gain is not achievable at microwave frequencies using BJT amplifiers because:
a) device construction
b) complex architecture
c) ports are not matched at high frequencies
d) none of the mentioned
18. Coupler that is mostly used in balanced amplifiers to achieve the required
performance is:
a) branch line coupler
b) Wilkinson coupler
c) Lange coupler
d) waveguide coupler
19. The transfer function of an RF oscillator is given by:
a) A/ (1-AH (ω))
b) A/ (1+AH (ω))
c) A/ (-1+AH (ω))
d) 1/ (1-AH (ω))
20. For achieving steady state oscillation, the condition to be satisfied in terms of
reflection coefficients is:
a) Гin=ГL
b) Гin=-ГL
c) Гin=1/ГL
d) None of the mentioned
21. The power rating of the amplifier is 100watts then the transistor can only operate at
___________
a) Power higher than 100w
b) Power lower than 100w
c) Power near to 100w
d) Power lower than 200W
22. Any device with negative impedance as its characteristic property can be called:
a) Energy source
b) Energy sink
c) Oscillator
d) None of the mentioned
23. Expression for over all noise figure of a mismatched amplifier is:
a) 1+ (F-1)/ (1 -│Г│2)
b) 1
c) 1+ (F-1)
d) (F-1)/ (1 -│Г│2)
24. The frequency response of an amplifier is _______
a) Wide band
b) Narrow band
c) Pass band
d) None of the mentioned
25. Unconditionally stable devices can always be ____________ for maximum gain.
a) Lossless matched
b) Conjugate matched
c) Forward biased
d) Driven with high current
PART-B (2 MARKS)
1. If the S parameters of a transistor given are S11=-0.811-j0.311, S12= 0.0306+j0.0048,
S21=2.06+j3.717, S22=-0.230-j0.4517. Then ∆ for the given transistor is:
a) 0.336
b) 0.383
c) 0.456
d) None of the mentioned
2. By performing the K-∆ test for a given transistor the values of K and ∆ were found to
be equal to 0.383 and 0.334 respectively. The transistor with these parameters has
unconditional stability.
a) True
b) False
c) Both of these
d) None of these
3. For a unilateral device condition for unconditional stability in terms of S parameters is:
a) │S11│<1, │S22│<1
b) │S11│>1, │S22│>1
c) │S11│>1, │S22│<1
d) │S11│<1, │S22│>1
4. If a power amplifier has an output power of 10 W, and an amplifier gain of 16.4 dB,
then the input drive power is:
a) 400 mW
b) 225 mW
c) 229 mW
d) 240 mW.
5. If the output power of an amplifier is 10 V, and the input power supplied to the
amplifier is 0.229 V given that the DC voltage used is 38.5 V, efficiency of the power
amplifier is:
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 35%
6. If the input impedance of a diode used in the microwave oscillator is 45-j23 Ω, then the
load impedance is to achieve stable oscillation is:
a) 45-j23 Ω
b) -45+j23 Ω
c) 50 Ω
d) 23-j45 Ω
7. Phase noise at the output of an oscillator is given by:
a) kBFGT0
b) kT0F/Pc
c) kT0F/Pc
d) None of the mentioned
8. The equivalent noise temperature of a network given the noise figure of the network or
system is:
a) T0(F-1)
b) T0(F+1)
c) T0(F)
d) T0/F
9. If │S11│>1 or │S22│>1, the amplifier cannot be unconditionally stable.
a) True
b) False
c) Both of these
d) None of these
10. The condition for maximum power transfer from the transistor to the output matching
network will occur when:
a) Гout=ГL*
b) Гout=ГL
c) Гout=1/ ГL
d) Гout=1/ ГL*2
11. In the S matrix of a transistor, if the parameter S21 is 2.6 then the gain G0 of the
transistor has the value
a) 6.2 dB
b) 8.3 dB
c) 2.22 dB
d) None of the mentioned
12. In terms of S parameters for a transistor, the transducer gain is given by the relation:
a) │S21│/│S12│
b) │S12│/│S21│
c) │S22│/│S11│
d) │S11│/│S22│
13. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:
a) adding feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback
b) bypassing the feedback to the “neutral” or ground plane
c) decoupling it
d) none of the above
14. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with:
a) RC coupling
b) transformer coupling
c) direct coupling
d) lumped reactance
15. In a balanced mixer, the output:
a) contains equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies
b) contains the input frequencies
c) does not contain the input frequencies
d) is a linear mixture of the input signals