ANS: space.

Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave

Chapter 1: Introduction to Communication Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The theory of radio waves was originated by:

[Link] c. Maxwell
[Link] d. Hertz
ANS: C

2. The person who sent the first radio signal across the Atlantic ocean was:
[Link] c. Maxwell
[Link] d. Hertz
ANS: A

3. The transmission of radio waves was first done by:

[Link] c. Maxwell
[Link] d. Hertz
ANS: D

4. A complete communication system must include:

a.a transmitter and receiver
b.a transmitter, a receiver, and a channel
c.a transmitter, a receiver, and a spectrum analyzer
d.a multiplexer, a demultiplexer, and a channel
ANS: B

5. Radians per second is equal to:

a. 2 i f r c. the phase angle
x

0 .f 2
÷ d. none of the above
ir

ANS: A

6. The bandwidth required for a modulated carrier depends on:

[Link] carrier frequency c. the signal-plus-noise to noise ratio
[Link] signal-to-noise ratio d. the baseband frequency range

ANS: D

7. When two or more signals share a common channel, it is called:

[Link]-channeling c. SINAD
[Link] switching d. multiplexing

ANS: D

8. TDM stands for:

[Link]-Division Multiplexing c. Time Domain Measurement
[Link]-level Digital Modulation d. none of the above
 ANS: A

9. FDM stands for:

[Link] Digital Modulation c. Frequency-Division Multiplexing
[Link] Domain Measurement d. none of the above
ANS: C

10. The wavelength of a radio signal is:

[Link] to f c ÷

[Link] to c ÷ A ,

[Link] distance a wave travels in one period

[Link] far the signal can travel without distortion

ANS: C

11. Distortion is caused by:

[Link] of harmonics of baseband frequencies
[Link] frequencies "mixing" with each other
[Link] in phase relationships between baseband frequencies
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

12. The collection of sinusoidal frequencies present in a modulated carrier is called its:
[Link]-domain representation c. spectrum
[Link] series d. all of the above
ANS: D

13. The baseband bandwidth for a voice-grade (telephone) signal is:

[Link] 3 kHz c. at least 5 kHz
b.20 Hz to 15,000 Hz d. none of the above
ANS: A

14. Noise in a communication system originates in:

[Link] sender c. the channel
[Link] receiver d. all of the above
ANS: D

15. "Man-made" noise can come from:

[Link] that sparks c. static
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: A

16. Thermal noise is generated in:

[Link] and diodes c. copper wire
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D
17. Shot noise is generated in:
[Link] and diodes c. copper wire
[Link] d. none of the above
ANS: A

18. The power density of "flicker" noise is:

[Link] same at all frequencies c. greater at low frequencies
[Link] at high frequencies d. the same as "white" noise
ANS: C

19. So called "1/f" noise is also called:

[Link] noise c. white noise
[Link] noise d. partition noise
ANS: B

20. "Pink" noise has:

[Link] power per Hertz c. constant power
[Link] power per octave d. none of the above
ANS: B

21. When two noise voltages, V1 and V2, are combined, the total voltage VT is:
[Link] = sqrt( V 1 V 1 + V2 V 2)
× × c. V T = sqrt( V 1 V 2 )
×

[Link] = (V1 + V2)/2 d. V T = V 1 + V 2

ANS: A

22. Signal-to-Noise ratio is calculated as:

[Link] voltage divided by noise voltage
[Link] power divided by noise power
[Link] add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power
[Link] of the above
ANS: B

23. SINAD is calculated as:

[Link] voltage divided by noise voltage
[Link] power divided by noise power
[Link] add the signal power to the noise power, then divide by noise power
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

24. Noise Figure is a measure of:

[Link] much noise is in a communications system
[Link] much noise is in the channel
[Link] much noise an amplifier adds to a signal
[Link]-to-noise ratio in dB
ANS: C
25. The part, or parts, of a sinusoidal carrier that can be modulated are:
[Link] amplitude c. its amplitude, frequency, and direction
[Link] amplitude and frequency d. its amplitude, frequency, and phase angle
ANS: D

COMPLETION

1. The telephone was invented in the year .

ANS: 1863

2. Radio signals first were sent across the Atlantic in the year .

ANS: 1901

3. The frequency band used to modulate the carrier is called the band.

ANS: base

4. The job of the carrier is to get the information through the .

ANS: channel

5. The bandwidth of an unmodulated carrier is .

ANS: zero

6. The 'B' in Hartley's Law stands for .

ANS: bandwidth

7. The more information per second you send, the the bandwidth required.

ANS:
greater
larger
wider

8. In , you split the bandwidth of a channel into sub-channels to carry multiple

signals.

ANS: FDM

9. In , multiple signal streams take turns using the channel.

ANS: TDM
10. VHF stands for the frequency band.
 ANS: very high

11. The VHF band starts at MHz.

ANS: 30

12. The UHF band starts at MHz.

ANS: 300

13. A radio signal's is the distance it travels in one cycle of the carrier.
ANS: wavelength

14. In free space, radio signals travel at approximately meters per second.
ANS: 300 million

15. The equipment used to show signals in the frequency domain is the .
ANS: spectrum analyzer

16. Mathematically, a spectrum is represented by a series.

ANS: Fourier

17. Disabling a receiver during a burst of atmospheric noise is called .

ANS:
noise blanking
blanking

18. For satellite communications, noise can be a serious problem.

ANS: solar

19. Thermal noise is caused by the random motions of in a conductor.

ANS: electrons

SHORT ANSWER
[Link] the five elements in a block diagram of a communications system.
ANS:
Source, Transmitter, Channel, Receiver, Destination
[Link] five types of internal noise.
 ANS:
Thermal, Shot, Partition, 1/f, transit-time
3. Why is thermal noise called "white noise"?
ANS:
White light is composed of equal amounts of light at all visible frequencies. Likewise, thermal noise has
equal power density over a wide range of frequencies.
4. What is "pink noise"?
ANS:
Light is pink when it contains more red than it does other colors, and red is at the low end of the visible
spectrum. Likewise, pink noise has higher power density at lower frequencies.

5. Suppose there is 30 V from one noise source that is combined with 40 V from another noise source.
µ µ

Calculate the total noise voltage.

ANS:
50 V
µ

6. If you have 100 mV of signal and 10 mV of noise, both across the same 100-ohm load, what is the signal-
to-noise ratio in dB?
ANS:
20 dB

7. The input to an amplifier has a signal-to-noise ratio of 100 dB and an output signal-to-noise ratio of 80
dB. Find NF, both in dB and as a ratio.
ANS:
20 dB, NF = 100

8. A microwave receiver has a noise temperature of 145 K. Find its noise figure.
ANS:
1.5

9. Two cascaded amplifiers each have a noise figure of 5 and a gain of 10. Find the total NF for the pair.
ANS:
5.4

10. Explain why you could use a diode as a noise source with a spectrum close to that of pure thermal noise.
How would you control the amount of noise generated?
ANS:
When current flows through a diode, it generates shot noise that can be represented as a current source, the
output of which is a noise current. The equation for the noise current is very similar to the equation for
thermal noise voltage. Since the power in the shot noise is proportional to the diode current, controlling
the diode current controls the noise power.
Chapter 2: Radio-Frequency Circuits

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The time it takes a charge carrier to cross from the emitter to the collector is called:
[Link] time c. charge time
[Link] time d. Miller time
ANS: B

2. A real capacitor actually contains:

[Link] and resistance only c. capacitance, inductance, and resistance
[Link] and inductance only d. reactance only
ANS: C

3. Bypass capacitors are used to:

[Link] RF from non-RF circuits c. neutralize amplifiers
[Link] RF around an amplifier d. reduce the Miller effect
ANS: A

4. A resonant circuit is:

a.a simple form of bandpass filter c. both a and b
[Link] in narrowband RF amplifiers d. none of the above
ANS: C

5. Loading down a tuned-circuit amplifier will:

[Link] the Q of the tuned circuit c. "multiply" the Q
[Link] the Q of the tuned circuit d. have no effect on Q
ANS: B

6. The "Miller Effect" can:

[Link] an amplifier to oscillate c. reduce the bandwidth of an amplifier
[Link] an amplifier to lose gain d. all of the above
ANS: D

7. The Miller Effect can be avoided by:

[Link] a common-emitter amplifier c. increasing the Q of the tuned circuit
[Link] a common-base amplifier d. it cannot be avoided

ANS: B

8. In a BJT, the Miller Effect is due to:

[Link] of collector lead c. base-to-emitter capacitance
[Link]-to-emitter capacitance d. base-to-collector capacitance

ANS: D
 ANS: B

9. In RF amplifiers, impedance matching is usually done with:

[Link] coupling c. direct coupling
[Link] coupling d. lumped reactance
ANS: B

10. Neutralization cancels unwanted feedback by:

[Link] feedback out of phase with the unwanted feedback
[Link] the feedback to the "neutral" or ground plane
[Link] it
[Link] of the above
ANS: A

11. For a "frequency multiplier" to work, it requires:

a.a nonlinear circuit
b.a linear amplifier
c.a signal containing harmonics
[Link] input signal that is an integer multiple of the desired frequency

ANS: A

12. A sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier requires:

[Link] gain equal to unity
[Link] shift around loop equal to 0 degrees
[Link] a and b, but at just one frequency
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

13. The conditions for sinusoidal oscillation from an amplifier are called:
[Link] loop-gain criteria c. the Bode criteria
[Link] Hartley criteria d. the Barkhausen criteria

ANS: D

14. The Hartley oscillator uses:

a.a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
b.a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal

ANS: A

15. The Colpitts VFO uses:

a.a tapped inductor c. an RC time constant
b.a two-capacitor divider d. a piezoelectric crystal

ANS: B

16. The Clapp oscillator is:

a.a modified Hartley oscillator c. a type of crystal-controlled oscillator
b.a modified Colpitts oscillator d. only built with FETs
17. A varactor is:
a.a voltage-controlled capacitor c. used in tuner circuits
b.a dioded. all of the above
ANS: D

18. Crystal-Controlled oscillators are:

[Link] for a precise frequency
[Link] for very low frequency drift (parts per million)
[Link] by grinding quartz to exact dimensions
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

19. If two signals, Va = sin( t) and Vb = sin( bt), are fed to a mixer, the output:
co
a
co

[Link] contain 1 = + b and 2 = – b

w w
a
w c o w
a
w

[Link] contain 1 = / b and 2 = b /

w w
a
w c o w w
a

c . w i l l c o nt a i n = ( + b ) / 2
co co
a
co

[Link] of the
above ANS: A

20. In a balanced mixer, the output:

[Link] equal (balanced) amounts of all input frequencies
[Link] the input frequencies
[Link] not contain the input frequencies
[Link] a linear mixture of the input signals
ANS: C
21. "VFO" stands for:
[Link]-Fed Oscillator c. Varactor-Frequency Oscillator
[Link]-Frequency Oscillatord. Voltage-Feedback Oscillator
ANS: B

22. A "frequency synthesizer" is:

a.a VCO phase-locked to a reference frequency
b.a VFO with selectable crystals to change frequency
c.a fixed-frequency RF generator
[Link] as a mixer
ANS: A

COMPLETION

1. Generally, conductor lengths in RF circuits should be .

ANS: short

2. At UHF frequencies and above, elements must be considered as instead of as

being "lumped".
 ANS: distributed

3. When one side of a double-sided pc board is used for ground, it is called a .

ANS: ground-plane

4. Interactions between parts of an RF circuit can be reduced by using between

them.

ANS: shielding

5. In high-frequency RF circuits, the placement of wires and can be critical.

ANS: components

6. A circuit is used to remove RF from the DC voltage bus.

ANS: decoupling
7. A capacitor is used to short unwanted RF to ground.
ANS: bypass

8. The bandwidth of a tuned-circuit amplifier depends on the of the tuned circuit.

ANS: Q

9. A value of or more for Q is required for the approximate tuned circuit equations
to be valid.
ANS: 10

10. In a class C RF amplifier, the extracts one frequency from all the harmonics
contained in the device current (e.g. collector current).
ANS: tuned circuit

11. Using additional feedback to compensate for "stray" feedback is called .

ANS: neutralization

12. A Colpitts oscillator uses a voltage divider to provide feedback.

ANS: capacitive

13. Electrically, a piezoelectric crystal has both a and a

resonant frequency.
ANS: series, parallel
14. To produce sum and difference frequencies, a mixer must be a non- circuit.
ANS: linear

15. At some bias point, a diode or a transistor can act as a -law mixer.
ANS: square

SHORT ANSWER

1. What inductance would you use with a 47-pF capacitor to make a tuned circuit for 10 MHz?
ANS:
5.4 H
p.

2. What value of Q is required for a 10-MHz tuned circuit to have a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS:
100
3. A tuned-circuit amplifier with a gain of 10 is being used to make an oscillator. What should be the value
of the feedback ratio to satisfy the Barkhausen criteria?
ANS:
0.1

4. What is the advantage of a Clapp oscillator compared to a Colpitts oscillator?

ANS:
It is more stable because it "swamps" the device capacitance with large value capacitors in the feedback
divider.

5. If a varactor has a capacitance of 90 pF at zero volts, what will be the capacitance at 4 volts?
ANS:
30 pF
6. An oscillator has a frequency of 100 MHz at 20°C, and a tempco of +10 ppm per degree Celsius. What
will be the shift in frequency at 70°C? What percentage is that?
ANS:
50 kHz, 0.05%
7. Two sinusoidal signals, V1 and V2, are fed into an ideal balanced mixer. V1 is a 20-MHz signal; V2 is a 5-
MHz signal. What frequencies would you expect at the output of the mixer?
ANS:
15 MHz and 25 MHz
8. Suppose the phase-locked-loop frequency synthesizer of Figure 2.39 has a reference frequency of 1 MHz
and a fixed-modulus divider of 10. What should be the value of the programmable divider to get an output
frequency of 120 MHz?
ANS:
12
Chapter 3: Amplitude Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. AM stands for:
[Link] Modulation c. Angle Modulation
[Link] Modulation d. Antenna Modulation
ANS: B

2. The "envelope" of an AM signal is due to:

[Link] baseband signal c. the amplitude signal
[Link] carrier signal d. none of the above
ANS: A

3. If the audio Va sin( t) modulates the carrier Vc sin( t), then the modulation index, m, is:
co
a
c
c

a.m = / co
a
c. m = (Va / Vc)2

c

b.m = Va / Vc d. m = V a / c
a

ANS: B

4. The equation for full-carrier AM is:

a.v(t) = (Ec + Em) sin( t) c. v(t) = (E c E m ) × c
c
× × sin( t) co
m
× sin( t)
c
c

b.v(t) = (Ec + Em ) sin( t) + sin( t) × co

m
c
c
d. v(t) = (E c + E m sin( t)) sin( t) co
m
× c
c

ANS: D

5. Overmodulation causes:
[Link] c. both a and b
[Link] d. none of the above

ANS: C

6. The peak voltage of an AM signal goes from Emax to Emin. The modulation index, m, is:
a.m = Emin / Emax c. m = (Emax – Emin ) / (Emax + Emin )
b.m = Emax / Emin d. m = (Emax + Emin ) / (Emax – Emin )
ANS: C
7. If Va sin( t) amplitude modulates the carrier Vc sin( t), it will produce the frequencies:
co
a
c
c

a. + c and – a
c
c. + c o and 2 + 2
a
(
c
c o c
c
c o
a
c
c

a

0 . ( + ) / 2 a n d ( – ) / 2 d. none of the above

c
c
w
a
c
c
0 )
a

ANS: A

8. At 100% modulation, the total sideband power is:

[Link] to the carrier power c. half the carrier power
[Link] the carrier power d. 1.414 carrier power ×
 ANS: C

9. If a 5-kHz signal modulates a 1-MHz carrier, the bandwidth of the AM signal will be:
a.5 kHz c. 1.005 MHz
b.10 kHz d. none of the above
ANS: B

10. If an AM radio station increases its modulation index, you would expect:
[Link] audio to get louder at the receiver c. the signal-to-noise ratio to increase
[Link] received RF signal to increase d. all of the above
ANS: D

11. The modulation index can be derived from:

[Link] time-domain signal c. both a and b
[Link] frequency-domain signal d. none of the above
ANS: C

12. The main problem in using quadrature AM would be:

[Link] too much bandwidth c. incompatibility with ordinary AM radios
[Link] too much power d. all of the above
ANS: C

13. As compared to plain AM, SSB AM:

[Link] more efficient
[Link] a more complex demodulator circuit
[Link] less bandwidth
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

14. The SC in SSB SC stands for:

[Link]-carrier c. sideband-carrier
[Link]-carrier d. none of the above
ANS: B

15. PEP stands for:

[Link] Envelope Power c. Peak Envelope Product
[Link] Efficiency Power d. none of the above
ANS: A

16. If an SSB transmitter radiates 1000 watts at peak modulation, what will it radiate with no modulation?
a.1000 watts c. 250 watts
b.500 watts d. 0 watts
ANS: D
17. Music on AM radio stations is "low-fidelity" because:
a. AM is susceptible to noise
 [Link] AM stations use low power
[Link] AM stations have a narrow bandwidth
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

18. The type of information that can be sent using AM is:

[Link] c. digital data
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D

19. Two tones modulate an AM carrier. One tone causes a modulation index of m1 and the other tone causes a
modulation index of m2. The total modulation index is:
a. m1 + m2 c. sqrt( m 1 m 2 + m 2 m 1 )
x x

0.( m 1 + m 2 ) / 2 d. sqrt( m 1 m 1 + m 2 m 2 )
x x

ANS: D

20. To demodulate a USB SSB signal, the receiver must:

[Link] set to USB mode c. both a and b
[Link] the carrier d. none of the above
ANS: C

COMPLETION

[Link] advantage of AM is that the receiver can be very .

ANS: simple

2.A disadvantage of AM is its use of power.

ANS: inefficient

[Link] of an AM signal resembles the shape of the baseband signal.

ANS: envelope

[Link] AM, modulating with a single audio tone produces sidebands.

ANS: two

[Link] to the USB, the information in the LSB is .

ANS: the same

[Link] to the USB, the power in the LSB is .

ANS: the same

 0.6

7. In AM, total sideband power is always than the carrier power.

ANS: less

8. In AM, as the modulation index increases, the carrier power .

ANS: remains constant

9. The power in an AM signal is maximum when the modulation index is .

ANS: one

10. In AM, a voice-band signal of 300 Hz to 3000 Hz will require a bandwidth of .

ANS: 6000 Hz

11. With a 1-MHz carrier, if the LSB extends down to 990 kHz, then
the USB will extend up to .
ANS: 1010 kHz

12. If an AM transmitter puts out 100 watts with no modulation, it will put out watts
with 100% modulation.

ANS: 150

SHORT ANSWER

1. An AM transmitter generates 100 watts with 0% modulation. How much power will it generate with 20%
modulation?
ANS:
102 watts

2. If the carrier power is 1000 watts, what is the power in the USB at 70.7% modulation?
ANS:
125 watts

3. A carrier is modulated by three audio tones. If the modulation indexes for the tones are 0.3, 0.4, and 0.5,
then what is the total modulation index?

ANS:
0.707

4. You look at an AM signal with an oscilloscope and see that the maximum Vpp is 100 volts and the
minimum Vpp is 25 volts. What is the modulation index?
ANS:
5. A SSB transmitter is connected to a 50-ohm antenna. If the peak output voltage of the transmitter is 20
volts, what is the PEP?
ANS:
4 watts
Chapter 4: Angle Modulation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The FM modulation index:

[Link] with both deviation and modulation frequency
[Link] with deviation and decreases with modulation frequency
[Link] with deviation and increases with modulation frequency
[Link] equal to twice the deviation
ANS: B

2. One way to derive FM from PM is:

[Link] the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
[Link] the signal out of the PM oscillator
[Link] the modulating signal before applying to the PM oscillator
[Link] the signal out of the PM oscillator
ANS: A

3. The bandwidth of an FM signal is considered to be limited because:

[Link] can only be a finite number of sidebands
[Link] is equal to the frequency deviation
[Link] is band-limited at the receiver
[Link] power in the outer sidebands is negligible
ANS: D

4. Mathematically, the calculation of FM bandwidth requires the use of:

[Link] trigonometry and algebra c. Taylor series
[Link] functions d. fractals
ANS: B

5. FM bandwidth can be approximated by:

[Link]'s Rule c. Carson's Rule
[Link]'s Rule d. none of the above
ANS: C

6. NBFM stands for:

[Link] Broadcast FM c. Near Band FM
[Link]-Broadcast FM d. Narrowband FM
ANS: D

7. When FM reception deteriorates abruptly due to noise, it is called:

[Link] capture effect c. the noise effect
[Link] threshold effect d. the limit effect
ANS: B
 8. An FM receiver switching suddenly between two stations on nearby frequencies is called:
[Link] capture effect c. the "two-station" effect
[Link] threshold effect d. none of the above
ANS: A

9. Pre-emphasis is used to:

[Link] the signal to noise ratio for higher audio frequencies
[Link] the signal to noise ratio for lower audio frequencies
[Link] the signal to noise ratio for all audio frequencies
[Link] stereo audio to be carried by FM stations

ANS: A

10. A pre-emphasis of 75 s refers to:

µ

[Link] time it takes for the circuit to work

[Link] "dead time" before de-emphasis occurs
[Link] time delay between the L and R channels
[Link] time-constant of the filter circuits used
ANS: D

11. FM stereo:
[Link] DSBSC AM modulation c. has a higher S/N than mono FM
[Link] implemented using an SCA signal d. is not compatible with mono FM
ANS: A

12. An SCA signal:

[Link] use amplitude modulation c. is monaural
[Link] use FM modulation d. all of the above
ANS: D

13. The modulation index of an FM signal can be determined readily:

[Link] measurements at points where J 0 equals one
[Link] measurements at points where J 0 equals zero
[Link] measurements at points where the deviation equals zero
[Link] by using Bessel functions
ANS: B

COMPLETION

[Link] and PM are two forms of modulation.

ANS: angle

[Link] is extensively used in communication.

ANS: data
3. Compared to AM, the signal-to-noise ratio of FM is usually .

ANS: better

4. Compared to AM, the bandwidth of FM is usually .

ANS:
wider
greater
5. FM transmitters can use Class amplifiers since amplitude linearity is not
important.
ANS: C

6. Both the power and amplitude of an FM signal as modulation is applied.

ANS: stay constant

7. In FM, the frequency deviation is proportional to the instantaneous of the

modulating signal.
ANS: amplitude

8. The frequency deviation of an FM signal occurs at a rate equal to the of the

modulating signal.

ANS: frequency

9. Mathematically, the number of sidebands in an FM signal is .

ANS: infinite

10. As FM sidebands get farther from the center frequency, their power .

ANS: decreases

11. Mathematically, the value of an FM modulation index can be as high as .

ANS: any number

12. In FM, as the modulating frequency decreases, the modulation index .

ANS: increases
13. In FM, as the frequency deviation decreases, the modulation index .

ANS: decreases
4. If the deviation sensitivity of an FM modulator is 2 kHz /V, what will be the modulation index caused by
a 1-volt, 1-kHz audio signal?

14. As the FM modulation index increases, the number of significant sidebands .

 ANS: increases

15. For certain values of mf, such as 2.4, the amplitude of the carrier frequency .

ANS:
disappears
goes to zero

16. The bandwidth of an FM signal can be approximated using rule.

ANS: Carson's

17. FM bandwidth can be calculated precisely usingfunctions.

ANS: Bessel

18. The effect is characteristic of FM reception in a noisy environment.

ANS: threshold

19. The effect is seen when an FM receiver is exposed to two FM signals that are
close to each other in frequency.
ANS: capture
20. Rest frequency is another name for an FM frequency.

ANS: carrier

SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 2-volt instantaneous value of modulating signal amplitude causes a 10-kHz deviation in carrier
frequency, what is the deviation sensitivity of the modulator?
ANS:
5 kHz / volt
2. If a 2-kHz audio tone causes a frequency deviation of 4 kHz, what is the modulation index?

ANS:
2
3. What will be the deviation caused by a 3-kHz tone if the modulation index is 3?

ANS:
9 kHz
 ANS: C

5. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the carrier of a 1000-watt FM transmitter?

ANS:
48.4 watts

6. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the first pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter?

ANS:
673 watts

7. At a modulation index of 2, how much power is in the fifth pair of sidebands of a 1000-watt FM
transmitter?

ANS:
200 mW (0.2 watt)
8. Using Carson's rule, what is the approximate bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal?

ANS:
30 kHz

9. Using the Bessel chart of Figure 4.1, what is the bandwidth of an FM signal with a modulation index of 2
being modulated by a 5-kHz signal if we ignore sidebands containing less than 1% of the total power?

ANS:
30 kHz

10. How would you use the fact that J0 is zero for certain known values of mf (2.4, 5.5, etc) to measure the
frequency deviation of an FM modulator?

ANS:
Use an audio frequency generator to modulate the FM carrier. Using a spectrum analyzer, adjust the audio
frequency until the carrier amplitude vanishes. Record the audio frequency. Then do the calculation: = 

fm mf where mf will have one of the known values. For example, if fm is measured to be 2 kHz when mf is
×

5.5, then is 11 kHz.


 ANS: C
Chapter 5: Transmitters

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The ability to change operating frequency rapidly without a lot of retuning is called:
[Link] c. VFO
[Link] d. spread-spectrum
ANS: A

2. The difference between the DC power into a transmitter and the RF power coming out:
[Link] a measure of efficiency c. may require water cooling
[Link] the transmitter d. all of the above
ANS: D

3. Baseband compression produces:

a.a smaller range of frequencies from low to high
b.a smaller range of amplitude from soft to loud
c.a smaller number of signals
[Link] of the above
ANS: B

4. ALC stands for:

[Link] Level Control c. Accurate Level Control
[Link] Level Control d. none of the above
ANS: B

5. In an AM transmitter, ALC is used to:

[Link] the modulation close to 100% c. maximize transmitted power
[Link] the modulation below 100% d. all of the above
ANS: D

6. With high-level AM:

[Link] RF amplifiers can be nonlinear c. minimum RF power is required
[Link] modulation power is required d. all of the above
ANS: A

7. With high-level AM:

[Link] RF amplifiers are typically Class A c. the RF amplifiers are typically Class C
[Link] RF amplifiers are typically Class B d. the RF amplifiers are typically Class AB
ANS: C
8. With low-level AM:
[Link] RF amplifiers must be Class A c. the RF amplifiers must be linear
[Link] RF amplifiers must be Class B d. the RF amplifiers must be low-power
9. Power amplifiers must be linear for any signal that:
[Link] complex c. has variable frequency
[Link] variable amplitude d. all of the above

ANS: B

10. In high-level AM, "high-level" refers to:

[Link] power level of the carrier c. the power level of the final RF amplifier
[Link] power level of the modulation d. none of the above

ANS: D

11. In high-level AM, the power in the sidebands comes from:

[Link] modulating amplifier c. the driver stage
[Link] RF amplifier d. the carrier

ANS: A

12. In an AM transmitter with 100% modulation, the voltage of the final RF stage will be:
[Link] half the DC supply voltage
[Link] twice the DC supply voltage
[Link] four times the DC supply voltage
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

13. Practical transmitters are usually designed to drive a load impedance of:
a.50 ohms resistive c. 300 ohms resistive
b.75 ohms resistive d. 600 ohms resistive
ANS: A

14. Which of the following can be used for impedance matching?

[Link] network c. both a and b
b.T network d. a bridge circuit

ANS: C

15. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor is called:
a.a heavy load c. a temporary load
b.a dummy load d. a test load

ANS: B

16. When a transmitter is connected to a resistor instead of an antenna, the resistor must be:
[Link]-wound c. 1% tolerance or better
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: B
17. A Class D amplifier is:
a. very efficient c. essentially pulse-duration modulation
 b. essentially pulse-width modulation d. all of the above
ANS: D

18. To generate a SSB signal:

[Link] with full-carrier AM c. start with a quadrature signal
[Link] with DSBSC d. all of the above
ANS: B

19. The carrier is suppressed in:

a.a balanced modulator c. a frequency multiplier
b.a mixer d. none of the above
ANS: A

20. To remove one AM sideband and leave the other you could use:
a.a mechanical filter c. both a and b
b.a crystal filter d. none of the above

ANS: C

21. A direct FM modulator:

[Link] the frequency of the carrier oscillator
[Link] the modulating signal
[Link] a and b
[Link] of the above
ANS: A

22. An indirect FM modulator:

[Link] a varactor in the carrier oscillator
[Link] the phase of the carrier oscillator
[Link] a and b
[Link] of the above
ANS: B

23. AFC stands for:

[Link] to Frequency Conversion c. Automatic Frequency Control
[Link] Frequency Centering d. Audio Frequency Control
ANS: C

24. Frequency multipliers are:

[Link] balanced modulators c. essentially mixers
[Link] Class C amplifiers d. none of the above

ANS: B
25. With mixing:
[Link] carrier frequency can be raised
[Link] carrier frequency can be lowered
[Link] carrier frequency can be changed to any required value
 d. the deviation is altered
ANS: C

COMPLETION

1. The accuracy and stability of a transmitter frequency is fixed by the oscillator.

ANS: carrier

2. In the USA, the sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's
frequency.
ANS: FCC
3. In Canada, sets requirements for accuracy and stability of a transmitter's
frequency.
ANS: Industry Canada

4. Frequency is the ability of a transmitter to change frequency without a lot of

retuning.

ANS: agility

5. Power output of SSB transmitters is rated by .

ANS: PEP

6. Reducing the dynamic range of a modulating signal is called .

ANS: compression

7. The opposite of compression is called .

ANS: expansion

8. ALC is a form of .

ANS: compression

9. High-level modulation allows the RF amplifiers to operate more .

ANS: efficiently

10. Low-level modulation requires the RF amplifiers to be .

ANS: linear
11. To isolate the oscillator from load changes, a stage is used.
 ANS: buffer

12. The peak collector voltage in a Class C RF amplifier is than the DC supply
voltage.
ANS: higher

13. Most practical transmitters are designed to operate into a -ohm load.
ANS: 50

14. Transmitters built with transistor RF amplifiers often use a network for
impedance matching.
ANS: T

15. Matching networks also act as filters to help reduce levels.

ANS: harmonic

16. Severe impedance can destroy a transmitter's output stage.

ANS: mismatch
17. Transceivers combine a transmitter and a into one "box".
ANS: receiver

18. To allow a high modulation percentage, it is common to modulate the as well as

the power amplifier in transistor modulators.
ANS: driver

19. Pulse-width modulation is the same as pulse- modulation.

ANS: duration

20. Switching amplifiers are sometimes called Class amplifiers.

ANS: D

21. Because the sideband filter in a SSB transmitter is fixed, is used to operate at
more than one frequency.

ANS: mixing

22. To generate a SSB signal, it is common to start with a signal.

ANS: DSBSC
23. Indirect FM is derived from modulation.

ANS: phase

24. Using a varactor to generate FM is an example of a modulator.

ANS: reactance

25. The modern way to make a stable VFO is to make it part of a loop.

ANS: phase-locked

SHORT ANSWER
1. If a 50-MHz oscillator is accurate to within 0.001%, what is the range of possible frequencies?
ANS:
50 MHz 500 hertz
±

2. What is the efficiency of a 100-watt mobile transmitter if it draws 11 amps from a 12-volt car
battery?

ANS:
75.8%

3. The power amplifier of an AM transmitter draws 100 watts from the power supply with no modulation.
Assuming high-level modulation, how much power does the modulation amplifier deliver for 100%
modulation?

ANS:
50 watts

4. If the final RF amplifier of an AM transmitter is powered by 100 volts DC, what is the maximum
collector voltage at 100% modulation?

ANS: 400
volts

5. Suppose the output of a balanced modulator has a center frequency of 10 MHz. The audio modulation
frequency range is 1 kHz to 10 kHz. To pass the USB, what should be the center frequency of an ideal
crystal filter?

ANS:
10.005 MHz

6. Suppose you have generated a USB SSB signal with a nominal carrier frequency of 10 MHz. What is the
minimum frequency the SSB signal can be mixed with so that the output signal has a nominal carrier
frequency of 50 MHz?

ANS:
40 MHz
7. Suppose you have an FM modulator that puts out 1 MHz carrier with a 100-hertz deviation. If frequency
multiplication is used to increase the deviation to 400 hertz, what will be the new carrier frequency?

ANS:
4 MHz
8. Suppose you had an FM signal with a carrier of 10 MHz and a deviation of 10 kHz. Explain how you
could use it to get an FM signal at 100 MHz with a deviation of 20 kHz.

ANS:
First, put the signal through a frequency doubler to get a 20-MHz carrier with a 20-kHz deviation. Then
mix that signal with an 80-MHz carrier to generate a 100-MHz carrier with 20-kHz deviation.
Chapter 6: Receivers

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The two basic specifications for a receiver are:

[Link] sensitivity and the selectivity
[Link] number of converters and the number of IFs
[Link] spurious response and the tracking
[Link] signal and the noise
ANS: A

2. The superheterodyne receiver was invented by:

[Link] c. Armstrong
[Link] d. Hertz
ANS: C

3. Trimmers and padders are:

[Link] types of adjusting tools c. small adjustable inductors
[Link] adjustable resistors d. small adjustable capacitors
ANS: D

4. "Skin effect" refers to:

[Link] way radio signals travel across a flat surface
[Link] tissue-burning effect of a strong RF signal
[Link] increase of wire resistance with frequency
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

5. The "front end" of a receiver can include:

[Link] tuner c. the mixer
[Link] RF amplifier d. all of the above
ANS: D

6. "IF" stands for:

[Link] frequency c. indeterminate frequency
[Link] frequency d. image frequency
ANS: A

7. AGC stands for:

[Link] Gain Control c. Active Gain Control
[Link] Gain Control d. Active Gain Conversion
ANS: B
8. The frequency of the local oscillator:
a. is above the RF frequency
 [Link] below the RF frequency
[Link] be either above of below the RF frequency
[Link] fixed, typically at 455 kHz.
ANS: C

9. The local oscillator and mixer are combined in one device because:
[Link] gives a greater reduction of spurious responses
[Link] increases sensitivity
[Link] increases selectivity
[Link] is cheaper

ANS: D

10. Basically, sensitivity measures:

[Link] weakest signal that can be usefully received
[Link] highest-frequency signal that can be usefully received
[Link] dynamic range of the audio amplifier
[Link] of the above
ANS: A

11. Basically, selectivity measures:

[Link] range of frequencies that the receiver can select
[Link] two signals close in frequency, the ability to receive one and reject the other
[Link] well adjacent frequencies are separated by the demodulator
[Link] well the adjacent frequencies are separated in the mixer

ANS: B

12. When comparing values for shape factor:

a.a value of 1.414 dB is ideal c. a value of 1.0 is ideal
b.a value of 0.707 is ideal d. there is no ideal value
ANS: C

13. When comparing values for shape factor:

a.a value of 2 is better than a value of 4 c. both values are basically equivalent
b.a value of 4 is better than a value of 2 d. none of the above
ANS: A

14. Distortion in a receiver can occur in:

[Link] mixer c. the IF amplifiers
[Link] detector d. all of the above
ANS: D

15. Phase distortion is important in:

[Link] communications systems c. monochrome video receivers
[Link] video receivers d. all of the above
ANS: B
16. The response of a receiver to weak signals is usually limited by:
[Link] AGC c. the dynamic range of the receiver
[Link] generated in the receiver d. the type of detector circuit being used
ANS: B

17. Image frequencies occur when two signals:

a. are transmitted on the same frequency
b. enter the mixer, with one being a reflected signal equal to the IF frequency
c. enter the mixer, one below and one above the local oscillator by a difference equal to the
IF
d. enter the mixer, and the difference between the two signals is equal to twice the IF
ANS: C

18. An image must be rejected:

[Link] to mixing c. prior to detection
[Link] to IF amplification d. images cannot be rejected

ANS: A

19. Image frequency problems would be reduced by:

[Link] an IF amplifier with the proper shape factor
[Link] a wideband RF amplifier after the mixer
[Link] a narrowband RF amplifier before the mixer
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

20. A common AM detector is the:

[Link] c. ratio detector
[Link] detector d. all of the above
ANS: B

21. An FM detector is the:

[Link] c. quadrature detector
[Link] detector d. all of the above
ANS: D

22. Germanium diodes are used in AM detectors because:

[Link] are faster than silicon diodes
[Link] are cheaper than silicon diodes
[Link] minimize distortion from nonlinearity
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

23. A common SSB detector is:

a.a PLL c. a BFO
b.a dioded. a product detector
ANS: D
24. BFO stands for:
[Link] Frequency Oscillator c. Bipolar Frequency Oscillator
[Link] Frequency Oscillator d. Bistable Frequency Oscillator

ANS: A

25. To demodulate both SSB and DSBSC, you need to:

[Link] a Foster-Seeley discriminator
[Link] the carrier
[Link] double conversion
[Link] one diode for SSB and two diodes for DSBSC
ANS: B

26. Which would be best for DSBSC:

[Link] detection c. envelope detection
[Link] detection d. ratio detection
ANS: B

27. An FM detector that is not sensitive to amplitude variations is:

[Link]-Seeley detector c. a PLL detector
b.a quadrature detector d. all of the above

ANS: C

28. The function of a limiter is:

[Link] remove amplitude variations c. to limit dynamic range
[Link] limit spurious responses d. to limit noise response

ANS: A

29. Suppressing the audio when no signal is present is called:

[Link] c. AFC
[Link] d. limiting

ANS: B

30. LNA stands for:

[Link]-Noise Amplifier c. Low-Noise Audio
[Link]-Noise Amplifier d. Logarithmic Noise Amplification

ANS: B

31. AFC stands for:

[Link] Frequency Compensator c. Automatic Frequency Control
[Link] Frequency Compensation d. Autonomous Frequency Control
ANS: C
32. The function of AFC is:
[Link] a constant IF frequency
[Link] the local oscillator to the received signal
 [Link] the discriminator to the IF frequency
[Link] of the above
ANS: B
33. SAW stands for:
[Link] Audio Wave c. Silicon-Activated Wafer
[Link] Acoustic Wave d. Software-Activated Wave
ANS: B

34. The important property of a SAW is:

[Link] stabilizes the audio in a receiver c. it is a stable bandpass filter
[Link] allows software radios to be built d. none of the above
ANS: C
35. The main function of the AGC is to:
[Link] the gain of the receiver constant
[Link] the gain of the IF amplifiers constant
[Link] the input to the detector at a constant amplitude
[Link] of the above
ANS: C
36. DSP stands for:
[Link] Signal Properties c. Distorted Signal Packet
[Link] Signal Phase d. Digital Signal Processor
ANS: D
37. SINAD stands for:
[Link] Amplitude Distortion
[Link] and Noise Amplitude Distortion
[Link]-plus-Noise-to-Noise Ratio
[Link]-plus-Noise and Distortion-to-Noise and Distortion Ratio
ANS: D
38. TRF stands for:
[Link] Radio Frequency c. Transmitted Radio Frequency
[Link] Radio Frequency d. Tuned Receiver Function
ANS: A

COMPLETION

1. Almost all modern receivers use the principle.

ANS: superheterodyne

2. The first radio receiver of any kind was built in the year .
 ANS: 1887

3. When two tuned circuits each other, it means that when the frequency of one is
adjusted, the other changes with it.
ANS: track

4. The effect causes the resistance of wire to increase with frequency.

ANS: skin

5. The superhet was invented in the year .

ANS: 1918

6. In a receiver, the refers to the input filter and RF stage.

ANS: front end
7. In a superhet, the output of the goes to the IF amplifiers.
ANS: mixer
8. In a superhet, the frequency is the difference between the local oscillator
frequency and the received signal frequency.
ANS:
intermediate
IF

9. The circuit adjusts the gain of the IF amplifiers in response to signal strength.
ANS: AGC

10. An converter uses the same transistor for both the local oscillator and the mixer.
ANS: autodyne

11. In low-side injection, the local oscillator is than the received signal frequency.
ANS: lower

12. is the ability of a receiver to separate two signals that are close to each other in
frequency.
ANS: Selectivity
13. is the ability of a receiver to receive and successfully demodulate a very weak
signal.
ANS: Sensitivity
14. A receiver with two different IF frequencies is called a double- receiver.
ANS: conversion

15. A multiple-conversion receiver will have better rejection of frequencies.

ANS: image
16. A demodulator is also called a .
ANS: detector

17. An detector uses a diode to half-wave rectify an AM signal.

ANS: envelope

18. A detector is used for SSB signals.

ANS: product
19. A BFO produces a locally generated .
ANS: carrier

20. A DSBSC signal requires a detection circuit.

ANS: coherent

21. FM detectors have a characteristic -shaped curve.

ANS: S

22. While still commonly found, the Foster-Seeley and ratio detectors are .
ANS: obsolescent

23. Unlike the PLL detector, the quadrature detector is sensitive to changes in of the
input signal.
ANS: amplitude
24. A dual- MOSFET is useful for AGC.

ANS: gate

25. Diode mixers are too to be practical in most applications.

ANS: noisy

26. The IF amplifiers in an AM receiver must be Class .

 ANS: A

27. A double-tuned IF transformer is usually coupled for the response to have a flat
top and steep sides.

ANS: over

28. Multiple IF stages can be -tuned to increase the bandwidth.

ANS: stagger

29. Compared to tuned circuits, ceramic and crystal IF filters do not require .

ANS: adjustment

30. Up-conversion is when the output of the mixer is a frequency than the incoming
signal.
ANS: higher
31. In a block converter, the frequency of the first local oscillator is .
ANS:
fixed
constant

32. Typically, AGC reduces the gain of the amplifiers.

ANS: IF

3 3 . A n -meter is designed to indicate signal strength in many communications

receivers.

ANS: S
34. The effectiveness of FM is measured by a receiver’s quieting sensitivity.

ANS: limiting

35. A refers to any kind of FM or PM detector.

ANS: discriminator

SHORT ANSWER
1. Suppose the bandwidth of a tuned circuit is 10 kHz at 1 MHz. Approximately what bandwidth would you
expect it to have at 4 MHz?
 ANS:

20 kHz

2. Using high-side injection for a 1-MHz IF, what is the frequency of the local oscillator when the
receiver is tuned to 5 MHz?
ANS:
6 MHz

3. An IF filter has a –60 dB bandwidth of 25 kHz and a –6 dB bandwidth of 20 kHz. What is the shape
factor value?
ANS:
1.25

4. Suppose a receiver uses a 5-MHz IF frequency. Assuming high-side injection, what would be the image
frequency if the receiver was tuned to 50 MHz?
ANS:
60 MHz

5. Suppose a SSB receiver requires an injected frequency of 1.5 MHz. What would be the acceptable
frequency range of the BFO if the maximum acceptable baseband shift is 100 hertz?
ANS:
1.5 MHz 100 hertz
±

6. The transformer of a double-tuned IF amplifier has a Q of 25 for both primary and secondary. What
value of kc do you need to achieve optimal coupling?
ANS:
0.06

7. What value of transformer coupling would a double-tuned 10-MHz IF amplifier with optimal coupling
need to get a bandwidth of 100 kHz?
ANS:
0.01
Chapter 7: Digital Communications

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The first digital code was the:

[Link] code c. Morse code
[Link] code d. none of the above
ANS: C

2. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using:

[Link] amplifier c. a regenerative repeater
b.a filter d. all of the above
ANS: C

3. TDM stands for:

[Link]-Division Multiplexing c. Ten-Digital Manchester
[Link]-Domain Multiplexing d. Ten Dual-Manchester
ANS: A

4. Hartley's Law is:

a.I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/ N)
b.C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2 f max
ANS: A

5. The Shannon-Hartley theorem is:

a.I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/ N)
b.C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2 f max

ANS: B

6. The Shannon Limit is given by:

a.I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/ N)
b.C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2 f max

ANS: C

7. The Nyquist Rate can be expressed as:

a.I = ktB c. C = B log2(1 + S/ N)
b.C = 2B log2M d. SR = 2 f max
ANS: D

8. Natural Sampling does not use:

a.a sample-and-hold circuit c. a fixed sample rate
[Link] binary numbers d. an analog-to-digital converter
ANS: A
9. Which is true about aliasing and foldover distortion?
[Link] are two types of sampling error.
[Link] can have one or the other, but not both.
[Link] is a technique to prevent foldover distortion.
[Link] are the same thing.
ANS: D

10. Foldover distortion is caused by:

[Link] c. too few samples per second
[Link] many samples per second d. all of the above
ANS: C

11. The immediate result of sampling is:

a.a sample alias c. PCM
[Link] d. PDM
ANS: B

12. Which of these is not a pulse-modulation technique:

[Link] c. PPM
[Link] d. PPS
ANS: D

13. Quantizing noise (quantization noise):

[Link] as the sample rate increases
[Link] as the sample rate decreases
[Link] as the bits per sample increases
[Link] as the bits per sample decreases

ANS: C

14. The dynamic range of a system is the ratio of:

[Link] strongest transmittable signal to the weakest discernible signal
[Link] maximum rate of conversion to the minimum rate of conversion
[Link] maximum bits per sample to the minimum bits per sample
[Link] of the above
ANS: A

15. Companding is used to:

[Link] the range of base-band frequencies
[Link] dynamic range at higher bit-rates
[Link] dynamic range while keeping bit-rate low
[Link] the useable bandwidth in digital transmission
ANS: C

16. In North America, companding uses:

[Link] Logarithmic Law c. the Law (alpha law)
cx

[Link] A Law d. the Law (mu law)

µ
 ANS: D

17. In Europe, companding uses:

[Link] Logarithmic Law c. the Law (alpha law)
cx

[Link] A Law d. the Law (mu law)

µ

ANS: B

18. Codec stands for:

[Link]-Decoder c. Code-Compression
[Link]-Carrier d. none of the above
ANS: A

19. A typical codec in a telephone system sends and receives:

a.4-bit numbers c. 12-bit numbers
b.8-bit numbers d. 16-bit numbers
ANS: B

20. Compared to PCM, delta modulation:

[Link] fewer bits per sample c. can suffer slope overload
[Link] a much higher sampling rate d. all of the above

ANS: D

21. In delta modulation, "granular noise" is produced when:

[Link] signal changes too rapidly c. the bit rate is too high
[Link] signal does not change d. the sample is too large

ANS: B

22. Compared to PCM, adaptive delta modulation can transmit voice:

[Link] a lower bit rate but reduced quality c. only over shorter distances
[Link] a lower bit rate but the same quality d. only if the voice is band-limited

ANS: B

23. Which coding scheme requires DC continuity:

[Link] c. unipolar NRZ
[Link] d. bipolar RZ
ANS: C

24. Manchester coding:

[Link] a biphase code
[Link] a level transition in the middle of every bit period
[Link] strong timing information
[Link] of the above
ANS: D
25. The number of framing bits in DS-1 is:
 a.1 c. 4
b.2 d. 8
ANS: A

26. Framing bits in DS-1 are used to:

[Link] errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
[Link] signaling d. all of the above

ANS: C

27. So-called "stolen" bits in DS-1 are used to:

[Link] errors c. synchronize the transmitter and receiver
[Link] signaling d. all of the above

ANS: B
28. The number of bits per sample in DS-1 is:
a.1 0. 4
b.2 a. 8
ANS: D
29.
The number of samples per second in DS-1 is:
a.8 k c. 64 k
b.56 k d. 1.544 ×
106
ANS: A

30. The bit rate for each channel in DS-1 is:

a.1.544 Mb/s c. 56 kb/s
b.64 kb/sd. 8 kb/s
ANS: B

31. In DS-1, bits are transmitted over a T-1 cable at:

a.1.544 MB/s c. 56 kb/s
b.64 kb/sd. 8 kb/s
ANS: A

32. A T-1 cable uses:

[Link] coding c. NRZ coding
[Link] RZ AMI coding d. pulse-width coding

ANS: B

33. The number of frames in a superframe is:

a.6 c. 24
b.12 d. 48
ANS: B
34. A typical T-1 line uses:
 [Link]-pair wire c. fiber-optic cable
[Link] cable d. microwave
ANS: A

35. "Signaling" is used to indicate:

[Link]-hook/off-hook condition c. ringing
[Link] signal d. all of the above
ANS: D

36. A vocoder implements compression by:

[Link] a model of the transmission medium
[Link] a model of the human vocal system
[Link] redundancies in the digitized data
[Link] lossless techniques
ANS: B

37. Compared to standard PCM systems, the quality of the output of a vocoder is:
[Link] better c. about the same
[Link] better d. not as good
ANS: D

COMPLETION

1. Digitizing a signal often results in transmission quality.

ANS:
improved
better

2. To send it over an analog channel, a digital signal must be onto a carrier.

ANS: modulated

3. To send it over a digital channel, an analog signal must first be .

ANS: digitized

4. In analog channels, the signal-to-noise ratio of an analog signal gradually as the

length of the channel increases.
ANS:
decreases
gets worse

5. The value of a pulse is the only information it carries on a digital channel.

ANS: binary
6. A repeater is used to restore the shape of pulses on a digital cable.
ANS: regenerative

7. There are techniques to detect and some errors in digital transmission.

ANS: correct

8. Converting an analog signal to digital form is another source of in digital

transmission systems.

ANS:
error
noise
9. -division multiplexing is easily done in digital transmission.
ANS: Time
10. All practical communications channels are band- .
ANS: limited

11. Law gives the relationship between time, information capacity, and bandwidth.
ANS: Hartley's

12. Ignoring noise, the theorem gives the maximum rate of data transmission
for a given bandwidth.

ANS: Shannon-Hartley
13. The limit gives the maximum rate of data transmission for a given bandwidth
and a given signal-to-noise ratio.
ANS: Shannon

14. sampling is done without a sample-and-hold circuit.

ANS: Natural
15. The Rate is the minimum sampling rate for converting analog signals to digital
format.

ANS: Nyquist

16. distortion occurs when an analog signal is sampled at too slow a rate.
ANS: Foldover
17. means that higher frequency baseband signals from the transmitter "assume the
identity" of low-frequency baseband signals at the receiver when sent digitally.
ANS: Aliasing

18. The output of a sample-and-hold circuit is a pulse- modulated signal.

ANS: amplitude

19. modulation is the most commonly used digital modulation scheme.

ANS: Pulse-code

20. noise results from the process of converting an analog signal into digital format.
ANS: Quantizing

21. is used to preserve dynamic range using a reasonable bandwidth.

ANS: Companding

22. In North America, compression is done using the -law equation.

ANS:
µ

mu

23. In Europe, compression is done using the -law equation.

ANS: A

24. A is an IC that converts a voice signal to PCM and vice versa.

ANS: codec

25. In a PCM system, the samples of the analog signal are first converted to bits
before being compressed to 8 bits.
ANS: 12

26. The number of bits per sample transmitted in delta modulation is .

ANS:
1
one

27. Delta modulation requires a sampling rate than PCM for the same quality of
reproduction.
ANS: higher
28. noise is produced by a delta modulator if the analog signal doesn't change.
ANS: Granular

29. In delta modulation, overload can occur if the analog signal changes too fast.
ANS: slope

30. The size varies in adaptive delta modulation.

ANS: step
31. Adaptive delta modulation can transmit PCM-quality voice at about the bit rate
of PCM.
ANS: half

32. Unipolar NRZ is not practical because most channels do not have continuity.
ANS: DC

33. In AMI, binary ones are represented by a voltage that alternates in .

ANS: polarity

34. Long strings of should be avoided in AMI.

ANS: zeros

35. Manchester code has a level in the center of each bit period.
ANS: transition

36. Manchester coding provides information regardless of the pattern of ones and
zeros.

ANS: timing
37. Ther e ar e channels in a DS-1 frame.
ANS: 24

38. DS-1 uses a bit to synchronize the transmitter and receiver.

ANS: framing

39. In DS-1, each channel is sampled times per second.

ANS: 8000

40. Data is carried over a T-1 line at a rate of bits per second.
 ANS: 1.544 10 6 ×

41. A group of 12 DS-1 frames is called a .

ANS: superframe
42. From a group of twelve frames, signaling bits are "stolen" from every frame.

ANS: sixth

43. compression transmits all the data in the original signal but uses fewer bits to do
it.

ANS: Lossless

SHORT ANSWER

1. Use Hartley's Law to find how much time it would take to send 100,000 bits over a channel with a
bandwidth of 2,000 hertz and a channel constant of k = 10.
ANS:
5 seconds
2. Use the Shannon-Hartley theorem to find the bandwidth required to send 12,000 bits per second if the
number of levels transmitted is 8.

ANS:
2000 hertz
3. What is the Shannon Limit of a channel that has a bandwidth of 4000 hertz and a signal-to-noise ratio of
15?

ANS:
16 kbps
4. What is the minimum required number of samples per second to digitize an analog signal with frequency
components ranging from 300 hertz to 3300 hertz?

ANS:
6600 samples/second

5. What is the approximate dynamic range, in dB, of a linear PCM system that uses 12 bits per sample?

ANS:
74 dB

6. What is the approximate data rate for a system using 8 bits per sample and running at 8000 samples per
second?
 ANS:
64 kbps

7. If bits were "stolen" from every DS-1 frame, what would the useable data-rate be for each channel in the
frame?

ANS:
56 kbps

8. Assuming maximum input and output voltages of 1 volt, what is the output voltage of a -law compressor
µ

if the input voltage is 0.388 volt?

ANS:
0.833 volt
Chapter 8: The Telephone System

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. DTMF stands for:

[Link] Telephony Multiple Frequency c. Dual-Tone Multifrequency
[Link] Tone Master Frequency d. Digital Trunk Master Frequency
ANS: C

2. PSTN stands for:

[Link] Switched Telephone Network c. Primary Service Telephone Network
[Link] Switched Telephone Network d. Primary Service Telephone Numbers
ANS: A

3. POTS stands for:

[Link] Office Telephone System c. Primary Operational Test System
[Link] Office Telephone Service d. Plain Old Telephone Service
ANS: D

4. LATA stands for:

[Link] Access and Transport Area c. Local Area Telephone Access
[Link] Access Telephone Area d. Local Area Transport Access
ANS: A

5. A LATA is a:
a.a local calling area c. a way of accessing a tandem office
b.a type of digital local network d. a way of accessing a central office
ANS: A

6. Central offices are connected by:

[Link] loops c. both a and b
[Link] lines d. none of the above
ANS: B

7. Local loops terminate at:

a.a tandem office c. a central office
b.a toll station d. an interexchange office
ANS: C
8. Call blocking:
[Link] occur in the public telephone network
[Link] on the local loop when there is an electrical power failure
[Link] only on long-distance cables
[Link] when the central office capacity is exceeded
 ANS: D

9. In telephony, POP stands for:

[Link] Office Protocol c. Power-On Protocol
[Link] Of Presence d. none of the above
ANS: B

10. The cable used for local loops is mainly:

[Link]-pair copper wire c. coaxial cable
[Link] twisted-pair copper wire d. fiber-optic
ANS: A

11. FITL stands for:

[Link] Information for Toll Loops c. Framing In The Loop
[Link] In the Toll Loop d. Fiber-In-The-Loop
ANS: D

12. Loading coils were used to:

[Link] the speed of the local loop for digital data
[Link] the attenuation of voice signals
[Link] crosstalk
[Link] C-type conditioning to a local loop
ANS: B

13. DC current flows through a telephone:

[Link] it is on hook c. as long as it is attached to a local loop
[Link] it is off hook d. only when it is ringing
ANS: B

14. The range of DC current that flows through a telephone is:

a.20 A to 80 A
µ µ c. 2 mA to 8 mA
b. 200 A t o 800 A
µ µ d. 20 mA to 80 mA

ANS: D

15. The separation of control functions from signal switching is known as:
[Link]-by-step switching control c. common control
[Link] control d. ESS
ANS: C

16. The typical voltage across a telephone when on-hook is:

a.48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b.48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC
ANS: A
17. The typical voltage needed to "ring" a telephone is:
 a.48 volts DC c. 90 volts DC
b.48 volts, 20 hertz AC d. 90 volts, 20 hertz AC

ANS: D

18. The bandwidth of voice-grade signals on a telephone system is restricted in order to:
[Link] lines to be "conditioned" c. allow signals to be multiplexed
[Link] "singing" d. all of the above

ANS: C

19. VNL stands for:

[Link] net loss c. via net loss
[Link] net loss d. voice noise level
ANS: C

20. Signal loss is designed into a telephone system to:

[Link] reflections c. improve signal-to-noise ratio
[Link] oscillation d. reduce power consumption

ANS: B

21. The reference noise level for telephony is:

a.1 mW c. 1 pW
b.0 dBm d. 0 dBr
ANS: C

22. The number of voice channels in a basic FDM group is:

a.6 c. 24
b.12 d. 60
ANS: B

23. Basic FDM groups can be combined into:

[Link] c. jumbogroups
[Link] d. all of the above

ANS: D

24. In telephone system FDM, voice is put on a carrier using:

[Link] c. PDM
[Link] d. PCM
ANS: A

25. PABX stands for:

[Link] Amplification Before Transmission
[Link] Automatic Branch Exchange
[Link] Automated Branch Exchange
[Link] Access Branch Exchange
ANS: B
26. SLIC stands for:
[Link]-Line Interface Circuit c. Subscriber Line Interface Card
[Link] Line Interface Card d. Standard Local Interface Circuit
ANS: C

27. In DS-1, bits are "robbed" in order to:

[Link] synchronization c. cancel echoes
[Link] signaling d. check for errors
ANS: B

28. "Bit-stuffing" is more formally called:

[Link] c. justification
[Link] d. frame alignment
ANS: C

29. ISDN stands for:

[Link] Services Digital Network c. Integrated Services Data Network
[Link] Services Digital Network d. Information Systems Digital Network
ANS: A

30. Basic ISDN has not been widely adopted because:

[Link] took to long to develop
[Link] is too slow
[Link] has been surpassed by newer technologies
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

31. ADSL stands for:

[Link]-Digital Subscriber Line c. Allocated Digital Service Line
[Link] Digital Subscriber Line d. Access to Data Services Line

ANS: B

32. Compared to ISDN, internet access using ADSL is typically:

[Link] faster c. much more expensive
[Link] the same speed d. none of the above

ANS: A

COMPLETION

1.A is a local calling area.

ANS: LATA
[Link] offices are connected together by lines.
 ANS: trunk

3. One central office can be connected to another through a office.

ANS: tandem

4. With 7-digit phone numbers, thousand telephones can connect to a central

office.
ANS: ten

5. Call is when it becomes impossible for a subscriber to place a call due to an

overload of lines being used.
ANS: blocking

6. New switching equipment uses TDM to combine signals.

ANS: digital

7. Most local loops still use copper wire.

ANS: twisted-pair
8. As compared to a hierarchical network, a network never needs more than one
intermediate switch.
ANS: flat

9. coils were used to reduce the attenuation of voice frequencies.

ANS: Loading

10. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the red wire is called .

ANS: ring
11. In a twisted-pair telephone cable, the green wire is called .
ANS: tip

12. Of the red and green 'phone wires, the wire is positive with respect to the other.
ANS: green

13. A telephone is said to have the line when the central office sends it dial tone.
ANS: seized

14. The functions are provided by a SLIC.

 ANS: BORSCHT

15. A coil prevents loss of signal energy within a telephone while allowing full-
duplex operation over a single pair of wires.
ANS: hybrid
16. In a crosspoint switch, not all can be in use at the same time.
ANS: lines

17. The old carbon transmitters generated a relatively signal voltage.

ANS: large

18. The generic term for Touch-Tone® signaling is .

ANS: DTMF

19. A line provides more bandwidth than a standard line.

ANS: conditioned

20. In the telephone system, amplifiers are called .

ANS: repeaters

21. An echo converts a long-distance line from full-duplex to half-duplex operation.

ANS: suppressor

22. weighting is an attempt to adjust the noise or signal level to the response of a
typical telephone receiver.
ANS: C-message
23. In FDM telephony, the modulation is usually .
ANS:
SSB
SSBSC

24. In FDM telephony, bands separate the channels in a group.

ANS: guard

25. Because of "bit robbing", a channel in a DS-1 frame allows only kbps when
used to send digital data.
ANS: 56
26. A is a group of 12 DS-1 frames with signaling information in the sixth and
twelfth frames.

ANS: superframe

27. In DS-1C, bits are used to compensate for differences between clock rates.

ANS: stuff

28. Busy and dial tone are referred to as signals because they use the same pair of
wires as the voice signal.
ANS: in-channel
29. SS7 is the current version of signaling.

ANS: common-channel

30. SS7 is a -switched data network.

ANS: packet

31. In ISDN, the channel is used for common-channel signaling.

ANS: D

32. In ISDN, the channels are used for voice or data.

ANS: B
33. Terminal equipment especially designed for ISDN is designated equipment.

ANS: TE1

34. The A in ADSL stands for .

ANS: asymmetrical
35. In ADSL, the speed from the network to the subscriber is than the speed in the
opposite direction.
ANS:
greater
faster

SHORT ANSWER
1. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the local loop?

ANS:
1000 ohms

2. For a certain telephone, the DC loop voltage is 48 V on hook and 8 V off hook. If the loop current is 40
mA, what is the DC resistance of the telephone?
ANS:
200 ohms

3. Which two DTMF tones correspond to the digit "1"? (Use the table in the text.)
ANS:
697 Hz and 1209 Hz

4. Calculate the dB of VNL required for a channel with a 3 ms delay.

ANS:
1 dB
5. If a telephone voice signal has a level of 0 dBm, what is its level in dBrn?
ANS:
90 dBrn

6. A telephone test-tone has a level of 80 dBrn at a point where the level is +5dB TLP. If C-weighting
produces a 10-dB loss, what would the signal level be in dBrnc0?
ANS:
65 dBrnc TLP
Chapter 9: Data Transmission

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. In practical terms, parallel data transmission is sent:

[Link] short distances only c. over any distance
[Link] over long distances d. usually over a coaxial cable
ANS: A

2. The five-level teletype code was invented by:

[Link] Morkum Company c. Western Union
[Link] Teletype Company d. Emile Baudot
ANS: D
3. Data codes are also called:
[Link] codes c. they do not have any other name
[Link] sets d. both a and b
ANS: C

4. Digital data that is not being used to carry characters is called:

[Link] data c. numerical data
b. binary data d. all of the above
ANS: B
5. Character codes include:
[Link] characters c. graphic control characters
[Link] link control characters d. all of the above
ANS: D
6. ASCII stands for:
[Link] Standard Character-set 2
[Link] Standard Code for Information Interchange
[Link] Standard Code 2
[Link] Standard Code for Information Interchange
ANS: B

7. BS, FF, and CR are examples of:

[Link] character codes c. control characters
[Link] characters d. none of the above
ANS: C
8. LF stands for:
a. Line Feed c. Line Forward
 b. Link Feed d. Link Forward
ANS: A

9. UART stands for:

[Link] Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
[Link] Asynchronous Receiver-Transmitter
[Link] Received Text
[Link] Automatic Receiver for Text
ANS: A

10. In asynchronous transmission, the transmitter and receiver are:

[Link]-by-frame synchronized using the data bits
[Link]-by-frame synchronized using a common clock
[Link]-by-frame synchronized using the start and stop bits
[Link] synchronized at all, hence the name "asynchronous"

ANS: C

11. In asynchronous transmission, the time between consecutive frames is:

[Link] to zero c. equal to the start and stop bit-times
[Link] to one bit-time d. not a set length

ANS: D

12. In synchronous transmission, the frames are:

[Link] the same length as ten asynchronous frames
[Link] longer than asynchronous frames
c.128 bytes long
d.1024 bytes long
ANS: B

13. Synchronous transmission is used because:

[Link] start and stop bits means higher efficiency
[Link] is cheaper than asynchronous since no UARTS are required
[Link] is easier to implement than asynchronous
[Link] of the above
ANS: A

14. In synchronous transmission, the receiver "syncs-up" with the transmitter by using:
[Link] clock bits c. the CRC bits
[Link] data bits d. a separate clock line

ANS: B

15. To maintain synchronization in synchronous transmission:

[Link] strings of 1s and 0s must not be allowed
[Link] must stop periodically for resynchronization
[Link] clock circuits must be precisely adjusted
[Link] channel must be noise-free
 ANS: A

16. BISYNC:
[Link] an IBM product c. requires the use of DLE
[Link] a character-oriented protocol d. all of the above

ANS: D

17. HDLC:
[Link] an IBM product c. is identical to SDLC
[Link] a bit-oriented protocol d. all of the above

ANS: B

18. The use of flags in SDLC requires:

a."bit-stuffing" c. FEC
[Link] flags at either end of a frame d. ARQ

ANS: A

19. The initials ARQ are used to designate:

[Link] request for resynchronization c. automatic receiver queue
[Link] request for retransmission d. automatic request for queue

ANS: B

20. ARQ is used to:

[Link] bit errors c. put data into a temporary buffer
[Link] synchronization problems d. none of the above
ANS: A

21. FEC stands for:

[Link] Error Control c. Forward Error Correction
[Link] Error Control d. False Error Condition
ANS: C

22. VRC is another name for:

[Link] c. LRC
[Link] d. parity
ANS: D

23. CRC stands for:

[Link] Receiver Code c. Cyclic Redundancy Check
[Link] Received Character d. Cycle Repeat Character

ANS: C
24. Huffman codes:
[Link] errors to be detected but not corrected
[Link] errors to be detected and corrected
[Link] alphanumeric data to be corrected
 d. allow alphanumeric data to be compressed correct data
none of the above
ANS: D

25. Run-length encoding is used to:

a. encrypt data c.
b. compress data d.
avoids the "password problem" all of the above
ANS: B
26. Public-key encryption:
a. allows the use of digital signatures c.
b. is used to convey symmetric keys Synchronous
d. Data Link Character
Synchronous Data Line Character
ANS: D
27. SDLC stands for:
a. Synchronous Data Link Control c.
b. Synchronous Data Line Control d.
ANS: A

28. HDLC is:

a.a bit-oriented protocolc. an ISO standard
[Link] on SDLC d. all of the above
ANS: D

COMPLETION

1. Parallel transmission

can be used only for

distances.

ANS: short

2. The term

"baud"

was

named

after

Emil
 .

ANS:

Baudot

3. Data codes are also called codes.

ANS: character
4. The code is a 7-bit code commonly used
in communication between personal
computers.
ANS: ASCII
5. The two letters designate the code character
used to advance a printer to the next
page.
ANS: FF
 17. BCC stands for check character.

6. An asynchronous frame begins with the bit.

ANS: start

7. An asynchronous frame ends with the bit.

ANS: stop

8. At the end of an asynchronous frame, the line will be at the level.

ANS:
mark
binary 1

9. An integrated circuit called a is used in an asynchronous communication system

to convert between parallel and serial data.

ANS: UART

10. When receiving digital data, are used to hold data until they can be read.

ANS: buffers

11. Synchronous communication is more than asynchronous since there are fewer
"overhead" bits.

ANS: efficient
12. There must be sufficient 1-to-0 to maintain synchronization in synchronous
transmission.

ANS: transitions

13. Clock sync is derived from the stream of bits in synchronous transmission.

ANS: data

14. In the protocol, each frame begins with at least two SYN characters.

ANS: BISYNC

15. In HDLC, each frame starts with an 8-bit .

ANS: flag

16. The first eight bits of an SDLC frame are .

ANS: 01111110
 ANS: block

18. DLE stands for data link .

ANS: escape

19. HDLC uses bit- to prevent accidental flags.

ANS: stuffing

20. errors cause many consecutive bits to be bad.

ANS: Burst

21. FEC stands for error correction.

ANS: forward

2 2 . A n scheme corrects errors by requiring the retransmission of bad blocks.

ANS: ARQ

23. Parity fails when an number of bits are in error.

ANS: even

24. CRC codes are particularly good at detecting errors.

ANS: burst

25. Huffman coding and run-length encoding are examples of data .

ANS: compression

26. A is an encoding scheme that is not public in order to protect data.

ANS: cipher

27. A is often used to generate an encryption key because it is easier to remember.

ANS: password

28. If the key is enough, private-key encryption can be quite secure.

ANS: long
29. Messages cannot be using a public key.
 17. BCC stands for check character.

ANS: decrypted
30. Because it is -intensive, public-key encryption can be slow.
 ANS: computation

SHORT ANSWER

1. How many different characters could be encoded using a six-bit code?

ANS:
64

2. What is the numerical difference between ASCII 'a' and ASCII 'A' if you treat them as hexadecimal (hex)
numbers?
ANS:
20 hex (32 decimal)

3. The ASCII codes for the characters '0' through '9' are what hex numbers?
ANS:
30H to 39H

4. If an asynchronous frame is used to send ASCII characters in the form of bytes (8 bits), what is the
shortest time it could take to send 1000 characters if each bit in a frame is 1 msec long?
ANS:
10 seconds

5. Suppose an asynchronous frame holds 8 bits of data, a parity bit, and two stop bits (it could happen).
Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
ANS:
66.7%
6. Suppose a synchronous frame has 16 bits of non-data in the front and a 16-bit BCC at the end. The frame
carries 1024 bytes of actual data. Calculate the efficiency of the communication system.
ANS:
97.0%
Chapter 10: Local Area Networks

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. CSMA stands for:

[Link]-Server Multi-Access c. Carrier Server Master Application
[Link] Sense Multiple Access d. none of the above
ANS: B

2. The CD in CSMA/CD stands for:

[Link] Detection c. Collision Detection
[Link] Delay d. Collision Delay
ANS: C

3. The Internet is:

a.a network of networks c. a very large CSMA/CD network
b.a very large client-server network d. not really a network at all
ANS: A

4. Most LANs:
[Link] based on Ethernet c. use UTP cable
[Link] CSMA/CD d. all of the above
ANS: D

5. Dumb terminals are still used:

[Link] token-passing networks
[Link] networks requiring central monitoring
[Link] networks that cannot provide central monitoring
[Link] of the above
ANS: B

6. In a circuit-switched network:
[Link] is half-duplex only
[Link] channel carries only one data stream
[Link] is usually done using a bus topology
[Link] of the above
ANS: B

7. Each computer on a network is called a:

[Link] c. node
[Link] d. circuit
ANS: C
8. Compared to CSMA/CD systems, token-passing rings are:
a. slower c. not as widely used
 b. more expensive d. all of the above
ANS: D

9. The key feature of a star network is that individual workstations are connected to:
a.a central ring c. a node
b.a central bus d. none of the above
ANS: D

10. On networks, long messages are divided into "chunks" called:

[Link] c. carriers
[Link] d. tokens
ANS: A

11. When two or more PCs try to access a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a.a collision c. excess traffic
[Link] d. multiple access

ANS: B

12. When two PCs send data over a baseband network cable at the same time, it is called:
a.a collision c. excess traffic
[Link] d. multiple access

ANS: A

13. One type of network that never has a collision is:

[Link] c. token-passing
[Link] d. all networks have collisions
ANS: C

14. In an Ethernet-based network, a switch can be used to reduce the number of:
[Link] c. packets
[Link] d. collisions
ANS: D

15. The effect of too many collisions is:

[Link] network goes down c. the cable overheats
[Link] network slows down d. data is lost
ANS: B

16. MAU stands for:

[Link] Access Unit c. Multiple Auxiliary Units
[Link] Access Unit d. none of the above

ANS: A

17. The standard that describes Ethernet-type networks is:

a. EIA 232 c. IEEE 802.3
 b. IEEE 488.1 d. CCITT ITU-E
ANS: C

18. Ethernet was invented by:

[Link] c. Xerox
[Link] d. Digital Equipment Corporation

ANS: C

19. An Ethernet running at 10 Mbits / second uses:

[Link] encoding c. NRZ encoding
[Link]-Level encoding d. AMI encoding

ANS: A

20. A 100BaseT cable uses:

[Link]-optic cable c. RG-58U coaxial cable
[Link]-pair copper wires d. 50-ohm coaxial cable

ANS: B

21. The word "Base" in 10BaseT means:

[Link] cable carries baseband signals
[Link] cable has a base speed of 10 Mbps
[Link] can be used as the base for a backbone cable system
[Link] of the above
ANS: A

22. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a minimum length for packets is:
[Link] increase the data rate
[Link] prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
[Link] make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

23. The reason a CSMA/CD network has a maximum length for cables is:
[Link] increase the data rate
[Link] prevent packets from reaching all other nodes during transmission
[Link] make sure all other nodes hear a collision in progress
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

24. NIC stands for:

[Link] Interface Card c. Network Interface Code
[Link] Interface Cable d. Network Internal Code
ANS: A

25. 10BaseT cable typically uses:

a. a BNC connector c. an RJ45 connector
 b. a T connector d. an RS11 connector
ANS: C

26. UTP stands for:

[Link]-Pair copper wire c. Uninterruptible Terminal Packet
[Link] Twisted-Pair copper wire d. Unicode Text Packet
ANS: B

27. Compared to twisted-pair telephone cables, CAT-5 cables:

[Link] cheaper c. allow faster bit rates
[Link] easier to crimp connectors onto d. all of the above
ANS: C

28. A hub:
[Link] incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
[Link] incoming packets out to specific ports
[Link] be used in an Ethernet-type network
[Link] more common in token-passing networks
ANS: A

29. A switch:
[Link] incoming packets out to all other terminals connected to it
[Link] incoming packets out to specific ports
[Link] be used in an Ethernet-type network
[Link] more common in token-passing networks
ANS: B

30. An advantage of using a switch instead of a hub is:

[Link] is cheaper when used in large networks
[Link] is faster when used in large networks
[Link] reduces the number of collisions in large networks
[Link] of the above
ANS: C

31. Broadband LANs:

[Link] the data onto a carrier
[Link] coaxial cables
[Link] provided by cable TV companies for Internet access
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

32. Using one node in the network to hold all the application software is done in:
[Link]-to-peer networks c. both a and b
[Link]-server networks d. none of the above
ANS: B
33. Record locking is used to:
[Link] records securely on a server
[Link] multiple users from looking at a document simultaneously
[Link] one user from reading a record that another user is writing to
[Link] of the above
ANS: C
34. The software that runs a client-server network must be:
[Link]-based c. multitasking
[Link]-based d. Novell certified
ANS: C
35. A "thin" client is:
[Link], a PC with no disk drives c. same as a "dumb" terminal
b.a node that rarely sends data d. all of the above

ANS: A

COMPLETION

1. A LAN is a Area Network.

ANS: Local
The Internet is a network of .

ANS: networks

3. In a network, all nodes are connected to a central computer.

ANS: star

4. In a -switched network, users have a dedicated channel for the duration of

communications.

ANS: circuit
5. The of a network describes how it is physically connected together.

ANS: topology

6. Ring networks often use -passing.

ANS: token

7. A is a short section of a message in digital form.

ANS: packet
8. is when two nodes try to seize the same cable at the same time.

ANS: Contention

9. A occurs when two nodes transmit simultaneously on the same baseband cable.

ANS: collision

10. In CSMA/CD networks, all collisions must be .

ANS: detected
11. Carrier-Sense means that a node "listens" for the cable to be before using it.

ANS:
quiet
free
unused
available
12. A " " cable links clusters of computers together.
ANS: backbone
13. 100BaseT cables can reliably carry up to bits per second.

ANS: 100 mega

14. In CSMA/CD, packets must have a length to ensure that collisions are detected.

ANS: minimum

15. In CSMA/CD, the of a cable is limited to ensure that collisions are detected.

ANS: length

16. A unique numerical address is provided to a node by its .

ANS: NIC
17. A 100BaseTX cable is a cable.

ANS: fiber-optic
18. Hubs can be to form, in effect, one big hub.

ANS: stacked

19. A switch looks at the of each incoming packet.

ANS: address
20. The effect of a switch is to greatly reduce______________________.

ANS: contention

SHORT ANSWER

[Link] how a network can be a physical bus but a logical ring.

ANS:
A token-passing network sends the token from node to node in a prescribed order. So it doesn't matter
how the physical connection is made. It still works like a token-passing ring.

[Link] is the key difference between a hub and a switch?

ANS:
A hub sends incoming packets out to all other ports on the hub. A switch sends a packet to a specific port
based on the address in the packet.

[Link] is the advantage of a CSMA/CD network over a basic star network?

ANS:
If the central computer in a star network fails, the entire network is inoperative. If a node fails in a
CSMA/CD network, it can be disconnected and the network still functions.

[Link] do CSMA/CD packets have a minimum size limit?

ANS:
If a packet is too short, nodes at either end of a cable could get on, send a packet, and get off before the
packets travel far enough to collide. The collision would not be detected.

[Link] is a NIC address, and why is it unique?

ANS:
The address is a long binary number "burned" into a NIC's memory chip at the factory. Each factory uses
a different sequence of numbers, so the chances of two NICs on the same network having the same
address is extremely small.
Chapter 11: Wide-Area Networks and the Internet

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. MAN stands for:

[Link] Access Network c. Metropolitan-Area Network
[Link]-Area Network d. Multiple Access Network
ANS: C

2. Packet switching is based on:

[Link]-and-forward c. real-time delivery
[Link] circuits d. all of the above
ANS: A

3. SNA stands for:

[Link] Network Access c. Standard Network Architecture
[Link] Network Access d. Systems Network Architecture
ANS: D

4. The number of layers in ISO OSI is:

a.3 c. 7
b.5 d. 8
ANS: C

5. The lowest-level layer in ISO OSI is called the:

[Link] layer c. cable layer
[Link] layer d. transport layer
ANS: A

6. Bad frames are usually detected by the:

[Link] layer c. error-check layer
[Link] layer d. link layer
ANS: D

7. A virtual circuit is set up by the:

[Link] c. network
[Link] layer d. frame
ANS: C

8. Frame Relay:
[Link] faster than X.25 c. allows for variable length packets
[Link] less error checking than X.25 d. all of the above
ANS: D
9. ATM stands for:
[Link] Transfer Mode c. Asynchronous Transmission Model
[Link] Transmission Mode d. Automatic Test Mode

ANS: A

10. A bridge:
[Link] a network into "collision domains"
[Link] at the address of each packet
[Link] at the data-link level
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

11. IP stands for:

[Link] Process c. Interconnect Protocol
[Link] Protocol d. Interconnect Procedure
ANS: B

12. TCP stands for:

[Link] Control Process c. Transfer Connection Protocol
[Link] Control Protocol d. none of the above
ANS: B

13. Together, TCP/IP consists of:

a.5 layersc. an application and a process
b.7 layers d. datagrams
ANS: A

14. IP is a:
[Link]-oriented protocol c. connectionless protocol
[Link] circuit d. non-robust protocol
ANS: C

15. The "lifetime" of a packet in an IP network:

[Link] essentially forever
[Link] on elapsed time since transmission
[Link] on number of "hops" between nodes
[Link] approximately 200 milliseconds
ANS: C

16. UDP stands for:

[Link] Datagram Protocol c. User Data Packet
[Link] Data Protocol d. Universal Data Packet
ANS: A

17. HTTP stands for:

a. High-speed Transmission Test Procedure
 [Link]-Level Transfer Test Procedure
[Link] Transmission and Transport Procedure
[Link] Transport Protocol
ANS: D

18. HTTP allows the use of:

[Link] terminals c. browsers
[Link] transport d. none of the above

ANS: C

19. HTML stands for:

[Link] Markup Language c. Hypertext Transfer-Mode Layer
[Link] Transfer-Mode Level d. High-speed Transfer-Mode Language

ANS: A

20. HTML allows:

a. telneting c. web page layout
[Link]-speed file transfer d. all of the above
ANS: C

21. FTP stands for:

[Link] Transfer Protocol c. File Test Procedure
[Link] Transport Protocol d. Fast Transport Packet

ANS: A

22. FTP is used to:

[Link] files between a server on the network and a user
[Link] files to see if their data has been "corrupted"
[Link] packets at maximum speed through the network
[Link] of the above
ANS: A

23. SMTP stands for:

[Link] Message Transport Protocol c. Simple Mail Transport Protocol
[Link] Message Transport Protocol d. Secondary Mail Transfer Procedure

ANS: C

24. ISP stands for:

[Link] Service Protocol c. Internet Service Procedure
[Link] Service Provider d. none of the above
ANS: B
25. The standard Internet address (or URL) is:
a.a 32-bit binary number c. running out of available values
[Link] groups of base-ten numbers d. all of the above
 ANS: D
26. DNS stands for:
[Link] Name Server c. Domain Numbering System
[Link] Name System d. Domain Naming System
ANS: A
27. A DNS:
[Link] become obsolete on the Internet
[Link] words to numbers
[Link] all domain addresses
[Link] the Internet address-naming procedure
ANS: B

28. An intranet connected to the Internet is often protected by:

a.a DNS c. a "firewall"
b.a "brick wall" d. the use of "spoofing" protocols
ANS: C
29. OSI stands for:
[Link] Systems Interconnectionc. Open Systems Internet
[Link] Standard Interconnection d. none of the above
ANS: A

COMPLETION

1. A -Area Network would extend typically across a city.

ANS: Metropolitan

2. A -Area Network could extend across a nation.

ANS: Wide

3. A dedicated telephone line can be on a monthly basis.

ANS: leased

4. The use of digital circuit- lines is cheaper than dedicated lines.

ANS: switched

5. Packet switching is done on a store-and- network.

ANS: forward

6. A is a hierarchy of procedures for implementing digital communications.

 ANS: protocol
7. Voltage levels on a cable are specified at the layer.
ANS: physical
8. Bad frames are usually detected at the layer.
ANS: data-link

9. Setting up a path through the network is done by the layer.

ANS: network

10. The X.25 protocol was developed by the .

ANS: CCITT

11. In X.25, the data-link layer is called the layer.

ANS: frame
12. In X.25, the network layer is called the layer.

ANS: packet
13. The physical route of a circuit changes each time it is used.
ANS: virtual

14. Frame Relay requires channels with low rates.

ANS: bit-error

15. Compared to X.25, Frame Relay does error checking.

ANS: less
16. All ATM frames contain just bytes.

ANS: 53

17. Small frame size and a high-speed channel allow -time communications.
ANS: real

18. simply regenerate and retransmit packets in a network.

ANS: Repeaters
19. look at the address inside a packet to decide whether or not to retransmit it.

ANS: Bridges

20. decide the best network path on which to forward a packet.

ANS: Routers
21. TCP/IP goes back to the of the 1970s.

ANS:
ARPANET
DARPANET

22. Between ISO OSI and TCP/IP, was used first.

ANS: TCP/IP

23. A protocol does not track packets after they are sent.

ANS: connectionless

24. HTTP allows the use of that jump to other pages on the web.

ANS: hyperlinks

25. The Internet "backbone" mostly uses high-speed cables.

ANS: fiber-optic

26. A translates words in an Internet address to numbers.

ANS: DNS

27. Intranets usually connect to the Internet through a for security.

ANS: firewall

28. Voice over is telephony done over the Internet.

ANS: IP

29. " " is another term for real-time transmission over the Internet.

ANS: Streaming

30. Most people gain access to the Internet by subscribing to an .

ANS: ISP
SHORT ANSWER

1. Name the three parts of an IP address as used on the Internet.

ANS:
Network number, Subnet number, Host number

2. Why is a logical channel called a "virtual" circuit?

ANS:
A logical channel is a way of keeping track of which two nodes on the network have messages for each
other. The actual physical path can change while packets are being sent. Virtual means it behaves like
direct circuit between 'A' and 'B', but it is not a direct circuit.

3. Why is it faster to send packets of a fixed size compared to packets of variable size?

ANS:
The processing required to store and forward packets of different lengths is greater than that required for
packets of a fixed length. More processing implies more time per packet, which implies fewer packets per
second through the network.

4. Why are the tasks involved in digital communications divided into layers in a protocol stack? Why not
just have one layer that does it all?

ANS:
Divide and conquer: it reduces complexity to a manageable job. One big layer could not be adapted to
newer media etc as easily as a system of independent layers. Think of subroutines in a computer program.

5. What is a "hop"?

ANS:
Every time a packet is forwarded on to the next store-and-forward node in the network, it is considered to
be one "hop".
6. What does it mean to say a packet has a lifetime measured in hops?

ANS:
Each packet contains a number representing the maximum number of allowed hops. At each hop, this
number is reduced by one. When it gets to zero, the packet is deleted from the network.

7. Why should packets have a lifetime?

ANS:
If they didn't, then the number of "lost" packets traveling around the network would continuously
increase. At some point, there would be no bandwidth left to carry real traffic.
Chapter 12: Digital Modulation and Modems

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. FSK stands for:

[Link]-Shift Keying c. Full-Signal Keying
[Link]-Shift Keying d. none of the above
ANS: B

2. PSK stands for:

[Link]-Signal Keying c. Phase-Signal Keying
[Link]-Shift Keying d. Phase-Shift Keying
ANS: D

3. QAM stands for:

[Link] Amplitude Modulation c. Quadrature Amplitude Marking
[Link] Amplitude Masking d. none of the above
ANS: A

4. In the equation I = ktB, I is measured in:

[Link] c. bits
[Link] per second d. bits per second
ANS: C

5. In the equation C = 2Blog2M, M is the:

[Link] of noise c. number of possible states per symbol
[Link] index d. maximum number of symbols per second

ANS: C

6. An "eye pattern" shows a good channel when:

[Link] eye is maximally open c. the eye is half open
[Link] eye is maximally closed d. the eye alternately opens and closes

ANS: A

7. What you see in an eye pattern is the effect of:

[Link] many bits high c. intermodulation distortion
[Link] many bits low d. intersymbol interference

ANS: D

8. High-frequency radioteletype systems commonly use:

[Link] c. PSK
[Link] d. QAM
ANS: A
9. Instead of a single bit, a QPSK symbol contains:
a.a byte c. a dibit
b.4 bits d. a Q-bit
ANS: C

10. To reduce the need for linearity, /4 DQPSK uses:

ir

[Link] of 0, 90, 180, and 270 degrees c. angles of /4, 2 /4, 3 /4, and 4 /4
ir ir ir ir

[Link] of 45, 135, 225, and 315 degrees d. double phase-shift angles
ANS: B

11. For QAM, a "constellation diagram" shows:

[Link] of symbols in "symbol space" c. effects of noise on symbols
[Link] of symbols in "symbol space" d. all of the above
ANS: D

12. For QAM, the two dimensions of its symbol space are:
[Link] and frequency c. frequency and phase angle
[Link] and phase angle d. I-bits and Q-bits
ANS: B

13. The specs of the old Bell type 103 modem were:
a.300 bps, full-duplex, FSK c. 1200 bps, full-duplex, FSK
b.600 bps, full-duplex, FSK d. 1200 bps, half-duplex, FSK
ANS: A

14. ITU is an abbreviation for:

[Link] Telephony Unit c. International Telecommunications Union
[Link] Telephony Union d. International Telecommunications Units
ANS: C

15. The ITU is under the auspices of:

[Link] c. IEEE
[Link] U.N. d. ANSI
ANS: B

16. High-speed modems equalize the line to compensate for:

[Link] and interference
[Link] phase and frequency response
[Link] SNR
[Link] bit rates at either end of channel
ANS: B
17. The bits sent to allow equalization are called:
[Link] bits c. a training sequence
[Link] bits d. a random sequence
 ANS: C

18. The V.90 standard is issued by:

[Link] EIA c. the ITU
[Link] TIA d. the ISO
ANS: C

19. MNP2, MNP3, MNP4, and MNP10 are all:

[Link]-compression schemes c. both a and b
[Link]-correction protocols d. none of the above
ANS: B
20. MNP5 and V.42 bis are both:
[Link]-compression schemes c. both a and b
[Link]-correction protocols d. none of the above
ANS: A
21. In RS-232, flow control is done using:
[Link]/CTS handshake c. both a and b
[Link]/XOFF characters d. none of the above
ANS: C
22. The official name for RS-232C is:
[Link]-232C c. ISO-232C/D
[Link]-232D d. ANSI-232C
ANS: B

23. In RS-232, a modem would be:

a.a DTR c. a DCE
b.a DSR d. a DTE
ANS: C
24. In RS-232, a personal computer would be:
a.a DTR c. a DCE
b.a DSR d. a DTE
ANS: D

25. On a DB-9 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:

a.1 c. 5
b.3 d. 7
ANS: C

26. On a DB-25 RS-232 connector, signal ground is pin:

a.1 c. 5
b.3 d. 7
 ANS: C

27. The minimum lines required for RS-232 are:

[Link] and RD c. TD, RD, DSR, and signal ground
[Link], RD, and signal ground d. TD, RD, RTS, CTS, and signal ground

ANS: B

28. Hardware flow control uses:

[Link] and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
[Link] and RD d. DSR and DCD
ANS: C

29. Software flow control uses:

[Link] and XOFF c. RTS and CTS
[Link] and RD d. DSR and DCD
ANS: A

30. Which voltage represents a binary zero on an RS-232 data pin:

a.+15 volts c. +9 volts
b.+12 volts d. all of the above
ANS: D

31. DSL stands for:

[Link] Signal Line c. Digital Subscriber Line
[Link] Signal Line d. Double-Speed Loop

ANS: C

32. ADSL stands for:

[Link] DSL c. Analog DSL
[Link] DSL d. All DSL

ANS: B

33. In a CATV system, HFC stands for:

[Link] Frequency Control c. Hybrid Fiber-Coax
[Link] Frequency Control d. Hybrid Fiber Control
ANS: C

34. In a CATV system, CMTS stands for:

[Link] Modem Terminal Server c. Cable Modem Terminal System
[Link] Modem Transmission System d. Cable Modem Transmission Server
ANS: A

35. A "splitter" at the subscriber end is not required for:

[Link] DSL scheme c. ADSL Lite
[Link] d. none of the above
 ANS: C

COMPLETION

1. RTS means Request To .

ANS: Send

2. The response to RTS is .

ANS: CTS

3. FSK stands for Frequency-Shift .

ANS: Keying

4. DSR stands for Set Ready.

ANS: Data

5. QAM stands for Amplitude Modulation.

ANS: Quadrature

6. The number of symbols per second is called the rate.

ANS: baud

7. The 2 bits of information in a QPSK symbol is called a .

ANS: dibit

8. QPSK uses different phase angles.

ANS: four

9. DPSK stands for PSK.

ANS: Delta

10. The QAM amplitude-phase combinations are shown with a diagram.

ANS: constellation

11. ITU stands for International Union.

ANS: Telecommunications
12. In QAM modems, coding adds extra bits to improve performance on a noisy
line.
 ANS: Trellis

13. is used in a high-speed modem to compensate for uneven frequency and phase
response on a line.

ANS: Equalization

14. The maximum allowed speed for a modem on a dial-up line is about bps.

ANS: 54k

15. The nominal maximum speed on an RS-232 cable is bps.

ANS: 20k

16. In RS-232, the line is asserted when the analog carrier from another modem is
being received.

ANS:
CD
DCD
RLSD

17. Between hardware flow control and software flow control, flow control is
preferred.

ANS: hardware

18. A voltage higher than volts should be considered a high on an RS-232 receiver.

ANS: 3

19. A modem cable is used to connect two DTEs via their serial ports.
ANS: null
20. ADSL stands for DSL.

ANS: Asymmetrical

21. A typical CATV system is organized as a network.

ANS: tree

22. In a CATV system using cable modems, a is used to put several channels of data
onto a fiber-optic backbone.

ANS: CMTS
23. is the process of synchronizing transmitted data from cable modems to a CMTS.
 ANS: Ranging

24. systems send high-speed data over a POTS line while sharing the line with dial-
up service.

ANS: ADSL

25. The version of ADSL does not require a splitter at the subscriber end.

ANS: lite

26. modulation divides the line bandwidth into many narrow bands called tones or
bins for ADSL.

ANS: DMT
27. A DSLAM is a DSL Access .

ANS: Multiplexer

SHORT ANSWER
1. Calculate the bits per second capacity of a system sending 1000 symbols per second with 16 possible
states per symbol.

ANS:
4000

2. How many points will be on the constellation diagram of a QAM system using 8 phase angles and 2
amplitude levels?

ANS:
16

3. A CATV system has 100 cable-modem customers sharing a single channel with a data rate of 36 Mbps.
If half the modems are active at any given time, what bit rate can a customer expect?

ANS:
720 kbps

4. A DMT system uses 4.3-kHz bins on a 1-MHz cable. Approximately how many bins are there?

ANS:
230
5. Assuming a maximum symbol rate of 400 per second, how many possible states must a symbol have to
achieve a data rate of 1200 bps?

ANS:
8
Chapter 13: Multiplexing and Multiple-Access Techniques

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. TDMA stands for:

[Link] Domain Multiple Access c. Tone Division Multiple Access
[Link]-Division Multiple Access d. none of the above
ANS: B

2. CDMA stands for:

[Link]-Division Multiple Access c. Compact Digital Multiplex Arrangement
[Link] Division Multiple Access d. none of the above
ANS: A

3. TDMA is used instead of TDM when:

[Link] the signals come from the same source
[Link] signals come from different sources
[Link] is used in RF communications
[Link] mean the same thing
ANS: B

4. When calculating the maximum number of users, a limiting factor in FDM is:
[Link] type of media used c. the bandwidth of each signal
[Link] length of the channel d. all of the above
ANS: C

5. A DS-1 signal contains:

a.12 channels c. 32 channels
b.24 channels d. 64 channels
ANS: B

6. The bit-rate of a DS-1 signal over a T-1 line is:

a.64 kbps c. 1.536 Mbps
b.256 kbps d. 1.544 Mbps
ANS: D

7. Besides data bits, a DS-1 frame contains a:

[Link] bit c. signaling bit
b.T-bit d. framing bit
ANS: D
8. In DS-1, a bit is "stolen" out of each channel:
[Link] frame c. every sixth frame
[Link] other frame d. every twelfth frame
 ANS: C

9. Moving signals from one line to another is called:

[Link] switching c. line switching
[Link] switching d. cross-point switching
ANS: B

10. Moving PCM samples from one time-slot to another is called:

[Link] switching c. signal switching
[Link] switching d. crosspoint switching
ANS: A

11. A digital space switch is a:

[Link] c. computerized Strowger switch
[Link] switch d. crosspoint switch
ANS: D

12. Spread-spectrum can be done by using:

[Link]-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
[Link]-hopping d. all of the above
ANS: D
13. The term "chip rate" is used in describing:
[Link]-controlled frequency reuse c. direct-sequence method
[Link]-hopping d. all of the above
ANS: C

14. For a given data rate, direct-sequence systems, compared to standard RF systems, use:
[Link] the same bandwidth c. much less bandwidth
[Link] more bandwidth d. approximately double the bandwidth
ANS: B
15. "Processing gain" is another term for:
[Link] gain c. spreading gain
[Link] speed d. improved signal-to-noise ratio
ANS: C

16. To calculate processing gain, divide the transmitted RF bandwidth by:

[Link] digital data bit rate c. the S/N ratio
[Link] of original baseband d. the chip size
ANS: B

17. A receiver for frequency-hopping spread-spectrum would be:

a.a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
b.a wideband receiver d. a CDMA receiver
 ANS: A

18. A receiver for direct-sequence spread-spectrum would be:

a.a narrowband receiver c. a direct-conversion receiver
b.a wideband receiver d. a "chip-rate" receiver
ANS: B
19. CDMA:
[Link] be used with frequency-hopping spread-spectrum
[Link] be used with direct-sequence spread-spectrum
[Link] be used on an RF channel
[Link] many transmitters to use a band simultaneously
ANS: D

20. For optimal performance, CDMA requires the use of:

[Link] PN sequences c. true-random PN sequences
[Link]-orthogonal PN sequences d. none of the above
ANS: A

COMPLETION

1. Multiplexing allows many signals to a channel.

ANS: share

2. Three methods of multiple access are FDMA, TDMA, and .

ANS: CDMA

3. In FDM, each signal uses part of the bandwidth of the time.

ANS: all

4. In TDM, each signal uses all of the bandwidth of the time.

ANS: part

5. Using CDMA on a radio channel, all signals can transmit of the time.
ANS: all

6. DS-1 is an example of -division multiplexing.

ANS: time

7. The AM radio band is an example of -division multiplexing.

ANS: frequency
8. A DS-1 frame contains one sample from each of channels.
ANS: 24
9. T1 uses the line code.
ANS: AMI

10. Each DS-1 frame contains a total of bits.

ANS: 193
11. A DS-1 frame is transmitted at a rate ofbits per second.

ANS: 1.544 Meg

12. Each sample in a DS-1 frame contains bits.

ANS: 8

13. A group of twelve DS-1 frames is called a .

ANS: superframe

14. Switching signals from one line to another is called switching.

ANS: space

15. Moving PCM samples from one time slot to another is called switching.
ANS: time

16. The deep fades caused by signal-cancellation due to reflection are called fading.
ANS: Rayleigh

17. A PN sequence is a -random noise sequence.

ANS: pseudo
18. One method of spread-spectrum is frequency .
ANS: hopping
19. It is to jam a spread-spectrum signal.
ANS: difficult

20. It is to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal.

 ANS: difficult
21. The extra bits added to the data in direct-sequence spread-spectrum are called .

ANS: chips

22. A chipping-rate of at least times the bit rate of the data is common.

ANS: ten

23. The 'C' in CDMA stands for .

ANS: code
24. In a frequency-hopping CDMA system, when no two transmitters use the same frequency at the same
time the PN sequences are said to be .
ANS: orthogonal

SHORT ANSWER

1. What does Hartley's Law tell us about the relationship between time and bandwidth for digital
transmission?

ANS:
The more bandwidth, the less time it takes to send a given amount of information. So the more bandwidth
available, the higher the possible bit rate.
2. How many signals could fit into 1 MHz of bandwidth if each signal required 100 kHz of bandwidth
and the separation between adjacent channels was 10 kHz?
ANS:
9

3. Why is it difficult to jam a spread-spectrum signal?

ANS:
Jamming requires an interference signal of sufficient power in the same part of the spectrum the
information signal occupies. Because a spread-spectrum signal is, by definition, spread out over a very
wide bandwidth, jamming can interfere with only a small fraction of the total signal.
4. Why is it difficult to eavesdrop on a spread-spectrum signal?

ANS:
In a spread-spectrum transmission, the signal power at any given frequency in its band is so low that it is
virtually indistinguishable from noise. An eavesdropper would not know a signal was being sent. And
without knowing the exact sequence being used, it is virtually impossible to "de-spread" the signal.
5. Why is autocorrelation used to receive direct-sequence spread-spectrum signals?
 ANS:
Autocorrelation allows a signal to be "pulled out of" the noise even when the signal-to-noise ratio is less
than one, as it is in spread-spectrum.

6. What is meant by "orthogonal sequences" in CDMA?

ANS:
During transmission, the PN sequences determine which parts of the available bandwidth the spread-
spectrum signal will occupy. Assume you have two PN sequences: PN1 and PN2. At some point in time,
suppose PN1 would cause a transmission to occupy frequencies f11, f12, f13, and so forth. Now suppose
PN2 would cause the transmission to occupy frequencies f21, f22, f23, and so forth. If the two sets of
frequencies, (f11, f12, f13, ...) and (f21, f22, f23, ...), have no frequencies in common, then the two PN
sequences are said to be orthogonal.
Chapter 14: Transmission Lines

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. SWR stands for:

[Link] Wave Radiation c. Shorted Wire Region
[Link] Wave Response d. none of the above
ANS: D

2. TDR stands for:

[Link] Distance of Reflection c. Time-Domain Response
[Link]-Domain Reflectometer d. Transmission Delay Ratio
ANS: B

3. An example of an unbalanced line is:

a.a coaxial cable c. an open-wire-line cable
b.300-ohm twin-lead TV cable d. all of the above
ANS: A

4. When analyzing a transmission line, its inductance and capacitance are considered to be:
[Link] c. equal reactances
[Link] d. ideal elements
ANS: B

5. As frequency increases, the resistance of a wire:

[Link] c. stays the same
[Link] d. changes periodically
ANS: A

6. The effect of frequency on the resistance of a wire is called:

a.I2R loss c. the skin effect
[Link] Ohmic effect d. there is no such effect
ANS: C

7. As frequency increases, the loss in a cable's dielectric:

[Link] c. stays the same
[Link] d. there is no loss in a dielectric
ANS: A
8. The characteristic impedance of a cable depends on:
[Link] resistance per foot of the wire used
[Link] resistance per foot and the inductance per foot
[Link] resistance per foot and the capacitance per foot
[Link] inductance per foot and the capacitance per foot
 ANS: D

9. For best matching, the load on a cable should be:

[Link] than Z 0 c. equal to Z 0
[Link] than Z 0 d. 50 ohms

ANS: C

10. The characteristic impedance of a cable:

[Link] with length c. increases with voltage
[Link] with frequency d. none of the above

ANS: D

11. The velocity factor of a cable depends mostly on:

[Link] wire resistance c. the inductance per foot
[Link] dielectric constant d. all of the above
ANS: B

12. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in a short-circuit:
[Link] reflect as a positive pulse
[Link] reflect as a negative pulse
[Link] reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
[Link] not reflect at all
ANS: B

13. A positive voltage pulse sent down a transmission line terminated with its characteristic impedance:
[Link] reflect as a positive pulse
[Link] reflect as a negative pulse
[Link] reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
[Link] not reflect at all
ANS: D

14. A positive voltage-pulse sent down a transmission line terminated in an open-circuit:

[Link] reflect as a positive pulse
[Link] reflect as a negative pulse
[Link] reflect as a positive pulse followed by a negative pulse
[Link] not reflect at all
ANS: A

15. The optimum value for SWR is:

[Link] c. as large as possible
[Link] d. there is no optimum value
ANS: B
16. A non-optimum value for SWR will cause:
[Link] waves c. higher voltage peaks on cable
[Link] of power to load d. all of the above
 ANS: D

17. VSWR stands for:

[Link] SWR c. voltage SWR
[Link] SWR d. none of the above
ANS: C

18. The impedance "looking into" a matched line:

[Link] infinite c. is the characteristic impedance
[Link] zero d. 50 ohms
ANS: C

19. A Smith Chart is used to calculate:

[Link] line impedances c. optimum length of a transmission line
[Link] velocity d. transmission line losses
ANS: A

20. Compared to a 300-ohm line, the loss of a 50-ohm cable carrying the same power:
[Link] be less c. would be the same
[Link] be more d. cannot be compared
ANS: B

21. A balanced load can be connected to an unbalanced cable:

[Link] c. by using a "balun"
[Link] using a filter d. cannot be connected
ANS: C

22. On a Smith Chart, you "normalize" the impedance by:

[Link] it to be zeroc. multiplying it by 2 

[Link] it by 2 t d. dividing it by Z0
ANS: D

23. The radius of the circle you draw on a Smith Chart represents:
[Link] voltage c. the impedance
[Link] current d. none of the above
ANS: D

24. The center of the Smith Chart always represents:

[Link] c. the characteristic impedance
[Link] d. none of the above
ANS: C
25. A TDR is commonly used to:
[Link] the characteristic impedance of a cable
[Link] the position of a defect in a cable
 [Link] a slotted-line
[Link] of the above
ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. A cable that lacks symmetry with respect to ground is called .

ANS: unbalanced

2. Parallel lines are usually operated as lines since both wires are symmetrical with
respect to ground.
ANS: balanced

3. Normally, a transmission line is terminated with a load equal to its impedance.

ANS: characteristic

4. Twisted-pair cables are transmission lines for relatively frequencies.

ANS: low

5. To analyze a transmission line, it is necessary to use parameters instead of

lumped ones.
ANS: distributed

6. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is called the effect.

ANS: skin
7. The increase of a wire's resistance with frequency is caused by the field inside
the wire.

ANS: magnetic

8. Dielectrics become more as the frequency increases.

ANS: lossy

9. The inductance and capacitance of a cable are given per unit .

ANS: length

10. Characteristic impedance is sometimes called impedance.

ANS: surge
11. A cable that is terminated in its characteristic impedance is called a line.
ANS: matched

12. A pulse sent down a cable terminated in a short-circuit will reflect with the

polarity.
ANS: opposite

13. The apparently stationary pattern of waves on a mismatched cable is called a

wave.
ANS: standing
14. SWR stands for -wave ratio.

ANS: standing
15. The ideal value for SWR is .
ANS: one

16. Transmission line impedances can be found using a chart.

ANS: Smith

17. Short transmission-line sections called can be used as capacitors or inductors.

ANS: stubs

18. Any cable that radiates energy can also energy.

ANS: absorb

19. A -dB loss in a cable means only half the power sent reaches the load.
ANS: 3

20. It is often best to measure SWR at the end of a cable.

ANS: load
21. Besides heat from I2R, the power a cable can carry is limited by the voltage of
its dielectric.
ANS: breakdown

22. To normalize an impedance on a Smith Chart, you divide it by .

ANS: Z 0
23. The of a Smith Chart always represents the characteristic impedance.

ANS: center

24. A wavelength transmission line can be used a transformer.

ANS: one-quarter

25. A slotted line is used to make measurements in the domain.

ANS: frequency

SHORT ANSWER
1. A transmission line has 2.5 pF of capacitance per foot and 100 nH of inductance per foot. Calculate its
characteristic impedance.
ANS:
Z0 = 200 ohms
2. Two wires with air as a dielectric are one inch apart. The diameter of the wire is .04 inch. Calculate,
approximately, its characteristic impedance.
ANS:
386 ohms
3. If a coaxial cable uses plastic insulation with a dielectric constant = 2.6 , what is the velocity factor for
E
r

the cable?

ANS:
0.62
4. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, how long would it take a signal to travel 3000 kilometers along the
cable?

ANS:
12.5 ms

5. If a cable has a velocity factor of 0.8, what length of cable is required for a 90° phase shift at 100 MHz?

ANS:
0.6 meters

6. A cable has a VSWR of 10. If the minimum voltage along the cable is 20 volts, what is the maximum
voltage along the cable?

ANS: 200
volts
7. A lossless line has a characteristic impedance of 50 ohms, but is terminated with a 75-ohm resistive load.
What SWR do you expect to measure?

ANS:
1.5

8. If a cable has an SWR of 1.5, what will be the absolute value of its voltage coefficient of reflection?

ANS:
0.2

9. A generator matched to a line with a voltage coefficient of reflection equal to 0.2 transmits 100 watts into
the line. How much power is actually absorbed by the load?

ANS:
96 watts

10. Using a Smith Chart to analyze a 50-ohm cable, what would be the normalized value of an impedance
equal to 200 + j50 ohms?

ANS:
4 + j1
Chapter 15: Radio-Wave Propagation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Radio waves were first predicted mathematically by:

[Link] c. Maxwell
[Link] d. Marconi
ANS: C

2. Radio waves were first demonstrated experimentally by:

[Link] c. Maxwell
[Link] d. Marconi
ANS: B

3. The technology that made cell phones practical was:

[Link] microprocessor chip c. high-power microwave transmitters
[Link] miniature cell-site d. all of the above
ANS: A

4. Cell phones reduce much of the problems of mobile communications with:

[Link] power levels c. reuse of frequencies
[Link] antennas d. all of the above
ANS: C

5. Which of the following are electromagnetic:

[Link] waves c. gamma waves
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D

6. The electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are:

[Link] to each other c. both a and b
[Link] to the direction of travel d. none of the above
ANS: C

7. TEM stands for:

[Link] Electromagnetic c. True Electromagnetic
[Link] Electromagnetic d. none of the above
ANS: A

8. In free space, radio waves travel at a speed of:

a.3 10 6 meters per second
x c. 3 10 6 miles per second
x

b.300 10 meters per second d. 300 106 miles per second

x
6
x

ANS: B
9. Which is a possible polarization for an electromagnetic wave:
[Link] c. circular
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D

10. Which polarization can be reasonably well received by a circularly polarized antenna:
[Link] c. circular
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D

11. The number of circular polarization modes (directions) is:

a.1 c. 3
b.2 d. many
ANS: B

12. An antenna has "gain" as compared to:

[Link] isotropic radiator c. a ground-wave antenna
b.a vertically polarized radiator d. none of the above
ANS: A

13. EIRP stands for:

[Link] E and I fields of the Radiated Power
[Link] Effective Isotropic Radiated Power
[Link] Effective Internal Reflected Power
[Link] Electric-field Intensity of the Radiated Power

ANS: B

14. The "attenuation of free space" is due to:

[Link] in the characteristic impedance of free space
[Link] due to absorption in the upper atmosphere
[Link] decrease in energy per square meter due to expansion of the wavefront
[Link] decrease in energy per square meter due to absorption of the wavefront

ANS: C

15. Ground waves are most effective:

[Link] about 2 MHz c. at microwave frequencies
[Link] about 20 MHz d. when using horizontally polarized waves

ANS: A

16. Radio waves would most strongly reflect off:

a.a flat insulating surface of the right size c. a flat metallic surface of the right size
b.a flat dielectric surface of the right size d. a flat body of water

ANS: C
17. Radio waves sometimes "bend" around a corner because of:
25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit:
a. the cell area is increased c. the power levels are increased

a. reflection c. refraction
 b. diffusion d. diffraction
ANS: D

18. Space waves are:

[Link]-of-sight
[Link] off the ionosphere
[Link] as sky waves
[Link] waves used for satellite communications
ANS: A

19. Sky waves:

[Link] line-of-sight
b."bounce" off the ionosphere
[Link] same as space waves
[Link] radio waves used for satellite communications
ANS: B

20. Sky waves cannot be "heard":

[Link] to the transmitter c. in the "silent" zone
[Link] from the transmitter d. in the "skip" zone

ANS: D

21. A 20-dB reduction in the strength of a radio wave due to reflection is called:
[Link] c. frequency diversity
[Link] d. spatial diversity

ANS: A

22. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of:

[Link] c. multipath distortion
[Link] d. cancellation due to reflection
ANS: C

23. A "repeater" is used to:

[Link] a message multiple times over a channel
[Link] a message over multiple channels at the same time
[Link] the range of a radio communications system
[Link] the effects of fading
ANS: C

24. Cellular phone systems rely on:

[Link] power c. the radio horizon
[Link] d. the reuse of frequencies
ANS: D
25. If the number of cell-phone users within a cell increases above some limit:
a. the cell area is increased c. the power levels are increased

b. the cell area is split d. the number of channels is reduced

ANS: B

26. As a cell-phone user passes from one cell to another:

a.a "handoff" process occurs c. both cells will handle the call
b.a "sectoring" process occurs d. nothing occurs
ANS: A
27. To receive several data streams at once, a CDMA spread-spectrum system uses:
a.a "funnel" receiver c. multiple receivers
b.a "rake" receiver d. none of the above
ANS: B

28. The troposphere is the:

[Link] layer of the atmosphere c. lowest layer of the atmosphere
[Link] layer of the atmosphere d. the most ionized layer of the atmosphere
ANS: C

29. Meteor-trail propagation is:

[Link] for radio telephony c. also called "ducting"
[Link] to send data by radio d. not possible
ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. Radio waves were mathematically predicted by .

ANS: Maxwell

2. Radio waves were first demonstrated by .

ANS: Hertz

3. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves.

ANS: transverse

4. The propagation speed of radio waves in free space is m/sec.

ANS: 300 10 6×

5. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles called .

ANS: photons

6. Unlike sound or water waves, radio waves do not need a to travel through.
 ANS: medium

7. The dielectric strength of clean dry air is about volts per meter.
ANS: 3 10 6
×

8. Waves from an source radiate equally in all directions.

ANS: isotropic
9. The wavefront of a point source would have the shape of a .
ANS: sphere

10. At a far distance from the source, a radio wavefront looks like a flat -wave.
ANS: plane

11. The polarization of a radio wave is the direction of its field.

ANS: electric

12. The electric field of a radio wave is to its magnetic field.

ANS: perpendicular
13. Both the electric and magnetic fields of a radio wave are to its propagation
direction.

ANS: perpendicular
14. With polarization, the direction of a radio wave's electric field rotates as it
travels through space.
ANS: circular

15. An antenna is said to have in a certain direction if it radiates more power in that
direction than in other directions.
ANS: gain

16. The watts per square meter of a radio wave as the wave-front moves through
space.
ANS: decrease

17. Reflection of plane-waves from a smooth surface is called reflection.

ANS: specular
18. is the "bending" of radio waves as they travel across the boundary between two
different dielectrics.
ANS: Refraction

19. The process of makes radio waves appear to "bend around a corner".
ANS: diffraction

20. waves travel from transmitter to receiver in a "line-of-sight" fashion.

ANS: Space

21. waves are vertically polarized radio waves that travel along the earth's surface.
ANS: Ground

22. waves are radio waves that "bounce off" the ionosphere due to refraction.
ANS: Sky

23. The zone is a region where sky waves cannot be received.

ANS: skip

24. "Ghosts" on a TV screen are an example of distortion.

ANS: multipath

25. The "fast fading" seen in mobile communications is caused by waves interfering
with direct waves.
ANS: reflected

26. Cell phones typically operate at a power level.

ANS: low

27. The of frequencies allows many cell-phone users to share a geographical area.
ANS: reuse

28. is when a cell-site uses three directional antennas, each covering a third of the
cell area, to reduce interference.
ANS: Sectoring

29. The use of chips makes cell phones a practical technology.

ANS: microprocessor
SHORT ANSWER

1. A certain dielectric has permittivity of 6.3 10–10 F/m and the same permeability as free space. What is
×

the characteristic impedance of that dielectric?

ANS:
45 ohms

2. If a point source of radio waves transmits 1 watt, what is the power density 10,000 meters from the
source?
ANS:
796 pW/m2

3. What power must a point-source of radio waves transmit so that the power density at 3000 meters
from the source is 1 W/m2?
µ

ANS:
113 watts
4. If a radio receiver needs 1 nW/m2 of power density to function, how far away from a 1-watt point source
will it continue to work?

ANS:
8.9 km

5. A line-of-sight radio link over flat terrain needs to use antenna towers 50 km apart. What, approximately,
is the minimum height for the towers assuming all the towers are the same?
ANS:
37 meters
6. A mobile radio is being used at 1 GHz in an urban environment with lots of reflecting structures. If the
car is traveling 36 km/hour, what is the expected time between fades?
ANS:
15 msec
Chapter 16: Antenna

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The real part of an antenna's input impedance is due to:

[Link] radiated signal c. the SWR
[Link] reflected signal d. all of the above

ANS: A

2. A half-wave dipole is sometimes called:

a.a Marconi antenna c. a Yagi antenna
b.a Hertz antenna d. none of the above
ANS: B

3. The end-to-end length of a half-wave dipole antenna is actually:

[Link] wavelength c. slightly longer than a half-wavelength
[Link] half-wavelength d. slightly shorter than a half-wavelength

ANS: D

4. The radiation of energy from an antenna can be seen in the:

[Link] wave pattern around the antenna c. radiation resistance of the antenna
[Link] along the feed cable d. I2R loss of the antenna
ANS: C

5. Measured on the ground, the field strength of a horizontally polarized half-wave dipole antenna is
strongest:
[Link] one direction c. in all directions
[Link] two directions d. depends on the number of elements
ANS: B

6. The ability of an antenna to radiate more energy in one direction than in other directions is called:
[Link] c. active antenna
[Link] d. resonance
ANS: A

7. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole antenna is:

a.0 dB c. 10 dB
b.3 dB d. infinite
ANS: A

8. An antenna's beamwidth is measured:

[Link] +90 to –90
° ° c. between half-power points
[Link] front to back d. between the minor side-lobes
 ANS: C

9. ERP stands for:

[Link] Radiation Pattern c. Equivalent Radiated Power
[Link] Radiation Pattern d. Effective Radiated Power
ANS: D

10. "Ground Effects" refers to the effects on an antenna's radiation pattern caused by:
[Link] signals reflecting off the ground
[Link] and other structures on the ground
[Link]
[Link] connection of the feed cable ground
ANS: A

11. A 1-MHz monopole antenna must be:

[Link] vertically c. at least one half-wavelength long
[Link] horizontally d. at least one wavelength long
ANS: A

12. The typical antenna in an AM radio is a:

[Link] c. ferrite "loop-stick"
[Link] dipole d. none of the above
ANS: C

13. The polarization of plane waves received from a satellite is changed by:
[Link] rays c. helical rotation
[Link] Rotation d. the distance traveled

ANS: B

14. A nonresonant antenna:

[Link] not transmit c. will cause SWR on the feed cable
[Link] not receive d. all of the above
ANS: C

15. At resonance, the input impedance to a lossless antenna should be:

[Link] c. capacitive
[Link] d. infinite
ANS: A

16. An antenna can be matched to a feed line using:

a.a shorted stub c. an LC network
b.a loading coil d. all of the above
ANS: D
17. As the length of a "long-wire" antenna is increased:
a. the number of lobes increases c. efficiency decreases
 An antenna is the interface between the transmission line and .
ANS: space.
Hertz antenna is another name for a half-wave

b. the number of nodes decreases d. none of the above

ANS: A

18. Arrays can be:

[Link] c. parasitic
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D

19. An array with one driven element, a reflector, and one or more directors is called a:
[Link] c. Log-Periodic Dipole
[Link] d. stacked array

ANS: B

20. LPDA stands for:

[Link]-Power Dipole Array c. Log-Periodic Dipole Array
[Link]-Power Directed Array d. Log Power Dipole Array

ANS: C

21. The radiated beam from a parabolic "dish" transmitting antenna is:
[Link] c. dispersed
[Link] d. none of the above

ANS: A

22. The energy picked up by a parabolic antenna is concentrated at the:

[Link] c. focus
[Link] d. horn

ANS: C

23. Antennas are often tested in:

[Link] echo chamber c. a vacuum chamber
[Link] anechoic chamber d. an RF reflective chamber
ANS: B

24. Field strength at a distance from an antenna is measured with:

a.a slotted line c. an EIRP meter
b.a dipole d. a field-strength meter
ANS: D

COMPLETION
 ANS: dipole

3. The length of a half-wave dipole is about % of a half-wave in free space.

ANS: 95

4. The resistance is the portion of an antenna's input impedance due to transmitted

radio waves leaving the antenna.
ANS: radiation

5. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant half-wave dipole is about
 .

ANS: 70

6. Input impedance at the center feed point of a resonant folded dipole is about  .

ANS: 280 – 300

7. The vertical angle of radiation is called the angle of .

ANS: elevation

8. Antenna radiation patterns are typically drawn on graphs with coordinates.

ANS: polar

9. As compared to a source, a half-wave dipole has a gain of about 2 dBi.

ANS:
point
isotropic

10. Antenna gain measured in is with reference to a half-wave dipole.

ANS: dBd

11. is the same as the gain for a lossless antenna.

ANS: Directivity

12. The front-to-back ratio of a half-wave dipole is dB.

ANS: 0

13. The of a directional antenna is the angle between its half-power points.
ANS: beamwidth
14. ERP stands for radiated power.
ANS: effective

15. ERP is the power input to the antenna multiplied by the antenna's .
ANS: gain

16. A is required to connect a coaxial cable to a center-fed dipole antenna.

ANS: balun

17. A horizontally mounted dipole will radiate waves with polarization.

ANS: horizontal

18. A folded dipole has bandwidth than a standard dipole.

ANS:
wider
greater
more

19. A monopole antenna is typically mounted in the direction.

ANS: vertical

20. The length of a typical monopole antenna is wavelength.

ANS:
one-quarter
1/4

21. A monopole antenna mounted high on a tower typically uses a plane.

ANS: ground

22. A vertical antenna has an radiation pattern for ground-based receivers.

ANS: omnidirectional

23. The number of driven elements in a Yagi antenna is typically .

ANS: one

24. The reflector on a Yagi antenna is called a element.

ANS: parasitic
25. An LPDA is a dipole array.
 ANS: log-periodic

26. If an LPDA had five elements, the number of driven elements it had would be .
ANS: five

27. All the waves that hit the surface of a parabolic antenna merge at the .
ANS: focus

28. A beam has all its individual rays parallel to each other.
ANS: collimated

29. A microwave antenna is essentially an extension of a waveguide.

ANS: horn

[Link] chamber is often used to test microwave antennas.

ANS: anechoic

SHORT ANSWER

1. Calculate the physical length of a half-wave dipole for use at 300 MHz.
ANS:
475 millimeters

2. How much power will a 95% efficient antenna radiate if driven with 100 watts?
ANS:
95 watts

3. If an antenna has 10.14 dB of gain compared to a point source, how much gain does it have compared to a
half-wave dipole?
ANS:
8 dB

4. What is the ERP of an antenna with 10 dBd of gain and driven by one watt?
ANS:
10 watts

5. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
current in the antenna?
ANS:
1 ampere
6. A resonant antenna has an input impedance of 100 ohms and is driven by 100 watts. What is the RMS
voltage at the feed-point of the antenna?
ANS:
100 volts
Chapter 17: Microwave Devices

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The microwave frequency range is considered to start at:

a.100 MHz c. 10 GHz
b.1 GHz d. 100 GHz
ANS: B

2. The UHF range is:

[Link] the microwave range c. above the microwave range
[Link] the microwave range d. same as the microwave range
ANS: A

3. The dominant mode of a waveguide depends on:

[Link] shape of the waveguide c. the point of signal injection
[Link] power level of the signal d. none of the above
ANS: A

4. The dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide is:

a . T E 0 1 c. TE 1 0
[Link] 0 1 d. TM 1 0
ANS: C

5. The dominant mode of a circular waveguide is:

a . T E 0 1 c. TE 1 1
[Link] 0 1 d. TM11
ANS: C

6. Circular waveguides use TM 01 mode because:

[Link] is dominant c. it is the only mode possible
[Link] its circular symmetry d. it is more efficient

ANS: B

7. The characteristic impedance of a waveguide:

[Link] fixed
[Link] on the frequency it carries
[Link] on the longer dimension of its cross section
[Link] b and c
ANS: D
8. Power can be coupled into or out of a waveguide:
[Link] a magnetic field probe c. through a hole in the waveguide
[Link] an electric field probe d. all of the above
 ANS: D

9. Directional couplers for waveguides are characterized by:

[Link] insertion loss c. their directivity
[Link] coupling specification d. all of the above

ANS: D

10. Striplines and microstrips are used to:

[Link] sections of waveguide c. couple components on a circuit board
[Link] waveguides to antennas d. none of the above

ANS: C

11. A resonant cavity is a type of:

[Link] circuit c. antenna
[Link] in a waveguide d. none of the above

ANS: A

12. A TEE connector used with waveguides is:

[Link] H-plane TEE c. a "magic" TEE
[Link] E-plane TEE d. all of the above

ANS: D

13. TWT stands for:

[Link] Wave Transmissionc. Traveling-Wave Tube
[Link]-Wave Tube d. Traveling-Wave Transmission
ANS: C

14. An "isolator" is a device that:

[Link] frequencies in a waveguide
[Link] a signal to pass in one direction only
[Link] signals among various ports
[Link] microwaves from leaking out of a waveguide
ANS: B

15. A "circulator" is a device that:

[Link] signal polarity in a waveguide
[Link] a signal to pass in one direction only
[Link] signals among various ports
[Link] microwaves from being "trapped" in a waveguide
ANS: C

16. GaAs stands for:

[Link] arsenide c. gallium astenite
[Link] assembly d. none of the above
ANS: D
17. IMPATT stands for:
[Link] avalanche and transit time c. implied power at transmission terminal
[Link] mobility at transmission time d. none of the above

ANS: A

18. YIG stands for:

[Link]-Iron-Gallium c. Yttrium-Iron-Garnet
[Link]-Iron-Germanium d. none of the above
ANS: C

19. A YIG can be tuned by applying:

[Link] electric field c. mechanical pressure
b.a magnetic field d. an "exciter" signal

ANS: B

20. The device commonly used in microwave ovens is the:

[Link] c. magnetron
[Link] d. YIG

ANS: C

21. The device commonly used in satellite communications is the:

[Link] c. magnetron
[Link] d. YIG

ANS: A

22. The device commonly used in UHF transmitters is the:

[Link] c. magnetron
[Link] d. YIG
ANS: B

23. A microwave phased array is often made using:

[Link] c. Fresnel lenses
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: A

24. RADAR stands for:

[Link] ranging c. radio detection and ranging
[Link] depth and ranging d. remote detection and ranging
ANS: C

25. RADAR uses:

[Link] transmission c. the Doppler effect
[Link] transmission d. all of the above
ANS: D
26. The maximum effective range for pulsed radar:
[Link] with increasing repetition rate c. decreases with increasing pulse period
[Link] with increasing repetition rate d. none of the above
ANS: B

27. The minimum effective range for pulsed radar:

[Link] with increasing pulse duration c. is always a tenth of the maximum range
[Link] with increasing pulse duration d. none of the above
ANS: A

COMPLETION

1. is the effect of a pulse "spreading out" as it travels through a waveguide.

ANS: Dispersion

2. The electric field is along the walls of a rectangular waveguide.

ANS: zero

3. The waveguide mode with the lowest cutoff frequency is the mode.
ANS: dominant

4. In TE10
mode, the field peaks in the middle of the waveguide cross section.
ANS: electric

5. In TE20 mode, the electric field has peaks in the waveguide cross section.
ANS: two

6. In a circular waveguide, mode is used because of its circular symmetry.

ANS: TM01

7. A waveguide acts as a -pass filter.

ANS: high
8. In a waveguide, group velocity is always than the speed of light.
ANS: slower

9. In a waveguide, phase velocity is always than the speed of light.

ANS: faster

10. In a waveguide, impedance as frequency increases.

 ANS: decreases

11. A TEE is a combination of E-plane and H-plane TEES.

ANS: hybrid

12. The Q of a resonant cavity is very compared to lumped LC circuits.

ANS: high

13. A wavemeter is a resonant with an adjustable plunger.

ANS: cavity

14. A Gunn device oscillates because of its negative .

ANS: resistance

15. Both magnetrons and TWTs are slow tubes.

ANS: wave

16. Both klystrons and TWTs are -beam tubes.

ANS: linear

17. A antenna is just a waveguide with a hole in it.

ANS: slot

18. A antenna is a flat piece of copper on an insulating substrate with a ground

plane on the other side.
ANS: patch

19. The radar cross section of a target is typically than its actual size.
ANS: smaller

20. The frequency of the returned signal will be than the transmitted signal if the
target is moving toward the radar antenna.

ANS: higher

SHORT ANSWER

1. Calculate the TE10 cutoff frequency for a rectangular waveguide if the longer dimension of its cross
section is 5 cm.
 ANS:
3 GHz
[Link] the group velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
ANS:
260 106 meters per second
×

[Link] the phase velocity in a waveguide carrying a signal that is twice its cutoff frequency.
ANS:
346 106 meters per second
×

[Link] the wavelength of a 2-GHz signal in a waveguide with a 1-GHz cutoff frequency.
ANS:
173 millimeters

[Link] the gain in dBi of a 10-GHz horn antenna with dE = dH= 60 mm.
ANS:
14.8

[Link] the maximum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 10k pulses per second.
ANS:
15 km

[Link] the minimum unambiguous range for a pulsed radar sending 2- sec duration pulses.
µ

ANS:
300 meters
Chapter 18: Terrestrial Microwave Communication Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Another term for a single microwave link is a:

[Link] c. skip
[Link] d. jump
ANS: B

2. Microwave systems use:

[Link] c. QAM
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D

3. The typical reliability of a microwave system is:

a.90% c. 99.9%
b.99% d. 99.99%
ANS: D

4. A typical microwave system uses a transmitted power of about:

a.2 watts c. 200 watts
b.20 watts d. none of the above
ANS: A

5. In analog microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:

[Link] c. jitter
[Link] level d. all of the above
ANS: B

6. In digital microwave systems, additional repeaters increase the:

[Link] c. jitter
[Link] level d. all of the above
ANS: C

7. LOS stands for:

[Link] Of Skip c. Line-Of-Sight
[Link] Of Signal d. Line-Of-Signal

ANS: C

8. Too much antenna gain causes:

a.a very narrow microwave beam c. excessive noise
b.a very wide microwave beam d. jitter
ANS: A
9. The microwave signal path should clear obstacles by at least:
a.60% of the Faraday zone c. 60% of the height of the antenna tower
b.60% of the Fresnel zone d. 60% of the highest obstacle height
ANS: B

10. Satisfactory performance of an analog microwave system is defined as:

a.a carrier-to-noise ratio that exceeds a given value
[Link] ERP level that exceeds a given value
[Link] energy-per-hertz level that exceeds a given value
[Link] of the above
ANS: A

11. Satisfactory performance of a digital microwave system requires a:

[Link] level of transmitted power
[Link] level of ERP
[Link] energy per bit per transmitted Watt ratio
[Link] energy per bit per noise density ratio
ANS: D

12. Fading is caused by:

[Link] reception c. ducting
[Link] due to weather d. all of the above
ANS: D

13. The effects of fading due to multipath reception are often reduced using:
[Link] c. high-gain antennas
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: A

14. Repeaters are used in a microwave system:

[Link] c. above 10 GHz
[Link] distance exceeds line-of-sight d. below 10 GHz
ANS: B

15. Microwave repeaters can be:

[Link] type c. regenerative type
[Link] type d. all of the above
ANS: D

16. An advantage of digital techniques over analog in a microwave system is:

[Link] bandwidth is required c. it requires less power
[Link] of noise is reduced d. all of the above
ANS: B

17. MMDS stands for:

a. Multichannel Microwave Distribution System
 [Link] Microwave Distribution System
[Link] Multipoint Distribution System
[Link] Microwave Distribution Systems
ANS: C
18. LMDS stands for:
[Link] Microwave Distribution System
[Link] Multipoint Distribution System
[Link] Multichannel Distribution System
[Link]-power Microwave Distribution System
ANS: B
19. LMDS is:
[Link] c. multidirectional
[Link] d. none of the above
ANS: A

COMPLETION
1. One microwave link is called a .

ANS: hop
2. STL stands for -to-transmitter links.
ANS: studio

3. A typical microwave system has about one hour per or less of downtime.
ANS: year

4. Adding more links causes in a digital microwave system.

ANS: jitter
5. In microwave systems, it is more convenient to use noisethan noise figure in
calculations.

ANS: temperature

6. In digital microwave systems, the energy per bit per is a key parameter.
ANS: noise density

7. Multipath reception can cause 20 dB or more of .

ANS: fading
8. Two antennas stacked one above the other on a tower is an example of diversity
in a microwave system.
ANS: space

9. The ability to use two frequencies simultaneously is an example of .

ANS: diversity

10. Microwave systems generally use less than watts of power.

ANS: ten

11. are necessary in a microwave system that extends beyond the line-of-sight
distance.

ANS: Repeaters

12. Analog microwave systems use both IF and repeaters.

ANS: baseband

13. Microwave digital radio techniques reduce the accumulation of as a signal goes
from link to link.
ANS: noise

14. MMDS is unidirectional, but is bidirectional.

ANS: LMDS

SHORT ANSWER

1. If the line-of-sight distance for an optical beam is 12 km, what would it be, approximately, for a
microwave beam?
ANS:
16 km

2. A line-of-sight microwave link operating at 4 GHz has a separation of 40 km between antennas. An

obstacle in the path is located midway between the two antennas. By how much must the beam clear the
obstacle?
ANS:
16.4 meters

3. A transmitter and receiver operating at 1 GHz are separated by 10 km. How many dBm of power gets to
the receiver if the transmitter puts out 1 Watt, and both the sending and receiving antennas have a gain of
20 dBi?
 ANS: –
42.4 dBm

4. A microwave system has a feed-line loss of 2 dB and sees a sky temperature of 150 K. Calculate the noise
temperature of the antenna/feed-line system referenced to the receiver input.

ANS:
201 K

5. A microwave receiver receives –60 dBm of signal. The noise power is –100 dBm. What is the carrier-to-
noise power ratio?

ANS:
40 dB
Chapter 19: Television

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. NTSC stands for:

[Link] Television Systems Commission
[Link] Television Systems Committee
[Link] Television Systems Council
[Link] Television Systems Commission
ANS: B

2. The NTSC specification was drawn up by the:

[Link] c. EIA
[Link] d. IEEE
ANS: C

3. RGB stands for:

[Link]-Green Burst c. Red-Green Bandwidth
[Link]-Green Brightness d. Red-Green-Blue
ANS: D

4. The number of scan lines in an NTSC signal is:

a.525 c. 1024
b.625 d. 1250
ANS: A

5. The number of NTSC frames sent per second is:

a.25 c. 50
b.30 d. 60
ANS: B

6. The number of NTSC fields sent per second is:

a.25 c. 50
b.30 d. 60
ANS: D

7. The aspect ratio of a standard TV receiver is:

a. 3 : 4 c. 525 : 625
b.4 : 3 d. 625 : 525
ANS: B
8. Luminance refers to:
[Link] c. chroma
[Link] d. raster
 ANS: A

9. Luminance is measured in:

[Link]-candles c. IRE units
[Link] d. NTSC units
ANS: C

10. The maximum luminance level is called:

[Link] white c. all white
[Link] white d. whiter than white
ANS: B

11. The blanking level corresponds to a luminance of:

[Link] c. whiter than white
[Link] d. blacker than black
ANS: B

12. The sync pulse level corresponds to a luminance of:

[Link] c. whiter than white
[Link] d. blacker than black
ANS: D

13. The vertical blanking pulse is serrated to:

[Link] horizontal sync c. equalize the DC level
[Link] vertical sync d. all of the above
ANS: A

14. When measured in lines, horizontal resolution:

[Link] greater than vertical resolution
[Link] about the same as vertical resolution
[Link] less than vertical resolution
[Link] resolution is not measured in lines
ANS: B

15. The smallest picture element is called a:

[Link] c. pixel
[Link] d. none of the above

ANS: C

16. In a color TV receiver, Y I Q refers to:

[Link] signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
[Link] color signal, in-phase color component, quadrature phase color component
[Link] video signal, in-phase video component, quadrature video color component
d.a method of demodulating stereo sound
ANS: A
17. Compared to the luminance signal, the horizontal resolution for color is:
[Link] greater c. much less
[Link] the same d. resolution does not apply to color
ANS: C

18. The modulation used for the video signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
[Link] c. suppressed-carrier AM
[Link] sideband AM d. FM
ANS: B

19. The modulation used for the audio signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
[Link] c. suppressed-carrier AM
[Link] sideband AM d. FM
ANS: D

20. The modulation used for the chroma signal in a standard NTSC color TV receiver is:
[Link] c. suppressed-carrier AM
[Link] sideband AM d. FM
ANS: C

21. The function of the "color burst" is to:

[Link] the presence of a color video signal
[Link] the color sub-carrier
[Link] synchronize the color demodulation line by line
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

22. SAP stands for:

[Link] audio program c. sync amplitude pulse
[Link] audio pulse d. sync audio pulse
ANS: A

23. The horizontal output transformer is also called:

[Link] isolation transformer c. the flyback transformer
[Link] video transformer d. the yoke
ANS: C

24. Compared to a monochrome CRT, the accelerating voltage on a color CRT is:
[Link] the same c. much lower
[Link] higher d. color CRTs use magnetic acceleration
ANS: B

25. Deflection in CRTs used in TV receivers is done:

[Link] for both vertical and horizontal
[Link] for both vertical and horizontal
[Link] for vertical and magnetically for horizontal
 d. magnetically for vertical and electrostatically for horizontal
ANS: A
26. AFPC stands for:
[Link] full picture chroma c. automatic frequency and picture control
[Link] frequency and phase control d. none of the above
ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. is a conductive coating on both the inside and outside of the CRT in a TV.
ANS: Aquadag

2. The standard for TV has been in use since 1953.

ANS: NTSC

3. Video systems form pictures by a process.

ANS: scanning

4. During the horizontal blanking interval, the electron beam from right to left.
ANS: retraces

5. The NTSC specifies a video signal.

ANS: composite
6. The ratio of a CRT screen is the ratio of width to height.
ANS: aspect
7. Brightness information is called .
ANS:
luma
luminance
8. Color information is called .
ANS:
chroma
chrominance

9. The blanking period before the sync pulse is called the front .
ANS: porch
10. Odd and even fields are identified by the of the vertical sync pulse.
ANS: position

11. Each horizontal scan line takes microseconds, not including blanking.
ANS: 62.5

12. Horizontal blanking lasts microseconds.

ANS: 10
13. Vertical blanking lasts about milliseconds.
ANS: 1.3

14. Picture elements are called .

ANS: pixels
15. The maximum number of scan lines under NTSC is .
ANS: 525

16. The human eye is most sensitive to the color .

ANS: green
17. The color sub-carrier frequency is approximately MHz.
ANS: 3.58

18. SAP stands for audio program.

ANS: separate
19. The second anode of a CRT is often called the .
ANS: ultor
20. The accelerating voltage for a color CRT is about kV.
ANS: 20 to 30

21. The inside of a CRT's face-plate is coated with to generate the picture.
ANS: phosphor

22. The horizontal output transformer is called the transformer.

 ANS: flyback

23. A good way to separate luma from chroma is to use a filter.

ANS: comb

24. The color turns off the color circuitry when a color TV is receiving a
monochrome signal.
ANS: killer
25. Signal levels in cable TV systems are usually measured in .

ANS: dBmV

26. The antenna for a CATV system is located at the end.

ANS: head

27. A shows a color-bar signal with predetermined levels and phases.

ANS: vectorscope

28. Color intensity is called .

ANS: saturation

29. The of the chroma signal represents the color hue.

ANS: phase

30. The controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct color
phosphor dots.

ANS: purity

31. The controls in a color TV adjust the electron beams to strike the correct triad of
phosphor dots.

ANS: convergence
Chapter 20: Satellite Communications

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. The height of the geosynchronous orbit above the equator is about:

a.3,578 km c. 357,800 km
b.35,780 km d. depends on satellite velocity
ANS: B

2. The high and low points of a satellite's orbit are called, respectively,:
[Link] and perigee c. uplink and downlink
[Link] and apogee d. downlink and uplink

ANS: A

3. The area on the earth that is "covered" by a satellite is called its:

[Link] station c. footprint
[Link] d. plate

ANS: C

4. The velocity required to stay in orbit:

[Link] constant
[Link] zero (freefall)
[Link] lower close to the earth than far from the earth
[Link] higher close to the earth than far from the earth
ANS: D

5. An antenna is aimed by adjusting the two "look angles" called:

[Link] and elevationc. declination and elevation
[Link] and declination d. apogee and perigee
ANS: A

6. The power per transponder of a typical Ku-band satellite is in the range:

a.5 to 25 watts c. 500 to 2500 watts
b.50 to 250 watts d. depends on its orbit

ANS: B

7. The power level for an earth station to transmit to a satellite is on the order of:
a.10 1 watts c. 10 3 watts
b.10 watts
2
d. 104 watts

ANS: C

8. The "payload" on a communications satellite consists of:

[Link] c. solar cells
[Link] d. all of the above
 ANS: A

9. "Station-keeping" refers to:

[Link] maintenance c. orbital adjustments
[Link]-level adjustments d. none of the above

ANS: C

10. DBS stands for:

[Link] of signal c. direct-broadcast system
[Link]-beam signal d. direct-broadcast satellite

ANS: D

11. LNA stands for:

[Link]-noise amplifier c. low-noise amplitude
[Link] north angle d. low-noise array

ANS: A

12. A reduction in TWT power for linearity is called:

[Link] c. power-down
[Link] d. EIRP drop

ANS: B

13. TVRO stands for:

[Link] receive only c. television remote origin
[Link] repeater only d. none of the above

ANS: A

14. TDMA stands for:

[Link]-directed multiple antennas c. time-division multiple access
[Link] distribution master antenna d. transmit delay minimum aperture

ANS: C

15. VSAT stands for:

[Link] satellite c. very small antenna terminal
[Link] signal antenna terminal d. very small aperture terminal
ANS: D

16. On the uplink from a terminal, a VSAT system uses:

[Link] power to a small antenna c. low power to a large antenna
[Link] power to a small antenna d. LEO satellites
ANS: B
17. A typical VSAT system is configured as a:
[Link] c. ring
[Link] d. repeater
 ANS: A
18. LEO stands for:
[Link] elliptic orbit c. lateral earth orbit
[Link]-earth orbit d. longitudinal earth orbit
ANS: B

19. For real-time communication, LEO systems require:

a.a constellation of satellites c. very high power
[Link] dish antennasd. all of the above
ANS: A

20. The frequency bands used by Ku-band satellites are:

a.4 GHz and 6 GHz c. 20 GHz and 30 GHz
b.12 GHz and 14 GHz d. none of the above
ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. A satellite in geosynchronous orbit takes hours to complete one orbit.

ANS: 24

2. The is the signal path from the earth station to the satellite.
ANS: uplink

3. The is the signal path from the satellite to the earth station.
ANS: downlink

4. A satellite in a orbit appears to stay directly above one spot on the equator.
ANS: geostationary

5. Non-geostationary satellites are sometimes called satellites.

ANS: orbital

6. A geosynchronous orbit is about km above the earth.

ANS: 35,780

7. A is an outline of the area on the earth's surface that a satellite broadcasts to.
ANS: footprint

8. All satellite orbits are in shape.

 ANS: elliptical

9. The is the distance of a satellite's closest approach to the earth.

ANS: perigee

10. The is a satellite's farthest distance from the earth.

ANS: apogee

11. An antenna's is its angular direction between east and west.

ANS: azimuth

12. An antenna's is its vertical angle with respect to the earth's surface.
ANS: elevation

13. An antenna's is the angle by which it is offset from the earth's axis.
ANS: declination

14. Satellites using the band operate on 12 GHz.

ANS: Ku

15. The time for a signal to make a round trip via satellite is about milliseconds.
ANS: 500

16. A is a type of repeater used on communications satellites.

ANS: transponder

17. Both the gain and the beamwidth of a dish antenna depend on its .
ANS: diameter

18. VSAT systems commonly use a network configuration.

ANS: star

19. To date, LEO satellite systems have been a financial .

ANS: failure

20. C-band antennas are than Ku-band antennas.

ANS: larger
SHORT ANSWER

1. A receiving antenna with a gain of 44.4 dBi looks at a sky with a noise temperature of 15 K. The loss
between the output of the antenna and the input of the LNA is 0.4 dB, and the LNA has a noise
temperature of 40 K. Calculate the G/T.

ANS:
25 dB

2. A receiver has a noise figure of 1.7 dB. Find its equivalent noise temperature.

ANS:
139 K.

3. A receiving antenna with a G/T of 25 dB is used to receive signals from a satellite 38,000 km away. The
satellite has a 100-watt transmitter and an antenna with a gain of 30 dBi. The signal has a bandwidth of 1
MHz at a frequency of 12 GHz. Calculate the C/N at the receiver.

ANS:
38 dB
Chapter 21: Cellular Radio

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. AMPS stand for:

[Link] Mobile Phone System c. Advanced Mobile Phone System
[Link] Mobile Phone Service d. Advanced Mobile Phone Service
ANS: D

2. PCS stands for:

[Link] Communications Service c. Personal Cell phone Service
[Link] Communications Systems d. Portable Communications Systems
ANS: B

3. RCC stands for:

[Link] Common Carrier c. Regional Cellular Carrier
[Link] Cellular Carrierd. none of the above
ANS: A

4. MSC stands for:

[Link] Switching Center c. Maximum Signal Carrier
[Link] Service Cellular d. Minimum Signal Carrier
ANS: A

5. MTSO stands for:

[Link] Transmitted Signal Output c. Mobile Telephone Switching Office
[Link] Transmitted Signal Output d. Mobile Transmission Time-Out
ANS: C

6. MIN stands for:

[Link] Identification Number c. Maximum In-band Noise
[Link] Identification Number d. Minimum In-band Noise
ANS: B

7. NAM stands for:

[Link] Access Mode c. Number Access Module
[Link] Assignment Mode d. Number Assignment Module

ANS: D

8. ESN stands for:

[Link] Serial Number c. Emission Strength Number
[Link] Signal Number d. none of the above
ANS: A
9. SCM stands for:
[Link] Class Mark c. Signal Class Mark
[Link] Class Mark d. Serial-Code Mode
ANS: B

10. SCM identifies the:

[Link] number of a cell phone c. signal classification (analog or digital)
[Link]-station class d. maximum power level of a cell phone

ANS: D

11. SID stands for:

[Link] Interrupt Demand c. System Identification Number
[Link] Identification Number d. Signal Intensity Descriptor

ANS: C

12. The SID is used by a cell phone to:

[Link] the type of system (analog or digital)
[Link] an AMPS system
[Link] its transmitted power level
[Link] that it is "roaming"

ANS: D

13. DCC stands for:

[Link] Color Code c. Digital Communications Carrier
[Link] Communications Code d. Direct Channel Code

ANS: A

14. SAT stands for:

[Link] Antenna Tower c. Supervisory Access Tone
[Link] Audio Tone d. none of the above

ANS: B

15. CMAC stands for:

[Link] Mobile Attenuation Code c. Central Mobile Access Control
[Link] Mobile Access Code d. Carrier Mode Attenuation Control
ANS: A

16. The CMAC is used to:

[Link] access to the cell site
[Link] the access code of the cell phone
[Link] the transmit power of the cell phone
[Link] the transmit channel for the cell phone
ANS: C
 COMPLETION

17. In an AMPS system, voice is sent using:

a. AM c. FSK
 b. FM d. CDMA
ANS: B

18. In an AMPS system, control-channel signals are sent using:

[Link] c. FSK
[Link] d. CDMA
ANS: C

19. The ERP of a typical handheld AMPS cell phone is:

[Link] than 600 W.µ c. between 1 and 2 watts
[Link] than 600 mW. d. 4 watts
ANS: B

20. BSC stands for:

[Link] Station Controller c. Basic Service Contract
[Link] Signal Controller d. Basic Service Code
ANS: A

21. The combination of the mobile cell phone and the cell site radio equipment is called the:
[Link] c. RF interface
[Link] d. air interface
ANS: D

22. The optimum cell-site radius is:

a.2 km c. as small as possible
b.0.5 km d. none of the above
ANS: D

23. Phone traffic is measured in:

[Link] c. number of users
[Link] d. number of blocked calls
ANS: B

24. One way to increase the capacity of a cell phone system is:
[Link] the number of cells c. increase the ERP
[Link] the number of cells d. decrease the ERP
ANS: A

25. CDPD stands for:

[Link]-Division Packet Data c. Coded Digital Packet Data
[Link] Digital Packet Data d. Cellular Digital Pulse Data
ANS: B
 COMPLETION

1. AMPS uses the -MHz band.

ANS: 800

2. is still the most common cellular phone system in North America.

ANS: AMPS

3. Frequency is what makes cellular phone systems complex.

ANS: reuse

4. A occurs when an in-use cell-phone moves from one cell site to another.

ANS: handoff

5. If a cell-site radius drops below km, handoffs will occur too frequently.

ANS: 0.5

6. The number of ERP classes in AMPS is .

ANS: three
7. A cell phone permanently installed in a car would be ERP class .
ANS:
I
one

8. The maximum ERP of class III cell phones is .

ANS: 600 mW

9. A portable, handheld cell phone would be ERP class .

ANS:
III
three
10. Mobile transmitter power is controlled by the .
ANS: land station
11. A MAC is a mobile code.

ANS: attenuation
12. For security, you should always assume that AMPS transmissions are .
 ANS: public

13. A mobile switching center is also called an .

ANS: MTSO

14. The optimum size of a cell site depends on the amount of .

ANS: traffic

15. Telephone call traffic is measured in .

ANS: erlangs

16. A cell phone moving into a site with no available frequencies will have a call.

ANS: dropped

17. The reduction in cell size to increase traffic is called cell .

ANS: splitting
18. A site is a very small unit that can mount on a streetlight pole.

ANS: microcell

19. Very small cells called are used for reliable indoor reception.

ANS: picocells

20. Compared with AMPS, digital cellular phones require bandwidth.

ANS: less

SHORT ANSWER

1. Give two reasons why digital cell phone systems are more secure than analog cell phone systems.

ANS:
[Link] is inherently more secure because of its format.
[Link] voice signals are easily encrypted.

2. If a 28.8-kbps modem is being used over a cell phone, how many words of text would be lost during a
100-msec handoff interruption assuming 10 bits per letter and 5 letters per word?

ANS:
57.6
 ANS:
30

4. What is "trunking gain"?

ANS:
For a given probability of being blocked, the maximum allowable traffic per channel increases as the
number of channels increases.
Chapter 22: Personal Communications Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Current PCS systems are referred to as:

[Link]-generation c. third-generation
[Link]-generation d. digital-generation

ANS: B

2. The frequency band designated for PCS in North America is:

a.800 MHz c. 1.9 GHz
b.900 MHz d. 12 GHz
ANS: C

3. The "forward" PCS channel is:

[Link] the base to the mobile c. from mobile to mobile
[Link] the mobile to the base d. same as the uplink

ANS: A

4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cell sites are:

[Link] c. distributed
[Link] d. higher-power

ANS: B

5. AMPS was designed for:

[Link] c. use built into an automobile
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D

6. The number of competing PCS systems in North America is:

a.2 c. 4
b.3 d. many
ANS: B

7. CDMA technology was invented by:

[Link]&T c. Bell Labs
[Link] d. Qualcomm
ANS: D

8. GSM is used in:

[Link] c. North America
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D
9. In GSM, voice channels are called:
[Link] channels c. bearer channels
[Link] channels d. talking channels

ANS: A

10. AMPS uses:

[Link] c. spread-spectrum
[Link] d. none of the above
ANS: D

11. Other things being equal, battery life in a GSM phone should be:
[Link] than in a TDMA phone c. greater than in a TDMA phone
[Link] better than in an AMPS phone d. no better than a TDMA phone
ANS: C

12. It is necessary to send control information on traffic channels in:

[Link] PCS system c. TDMA only
[Link] only d. both GSM and TDMA
ANS: D

13. GSM uses:

[Link] hopping c. CDMA
[Link]-sequence modulation d. all of the above
ANS: A

14. In GSM, SIM stands for:

[Link] Inbound Message c. Subscriber ID Module
[Link]-Initiated Message d. Subscriber ID Method
ANS: C

15. IMSI stands for:

[Link] Mobile Subscriber Identification
[Link] Mobile Subscriber Identification
[Link] Mobile Subscriber Identification
[Link] System Interference

ANS: B

16. IS-95 uses:

[Link] hopping c. CDMA
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: C

17. IS-136 uses:

[Link] hopping c. CDMA
[Link] d. all of the above
 ANS: B

18. In CDMA:
[Link] frequencies are used in all cells
[Link] cell uses half the available frequencies
[Link] cell is assigned a frequency by the base
[Link] frequency is selected by the mobile phone
ANS: A

19. CDMA uses a set of PN sequences that are:

[Link] c. rotating
[Link] d. orthogonal
ANS: D

20. The next generation of PCS is expected to have:

[Link] data rates c. wider roaming area
[Link] access d. all of the above
ANS: D

COMPLETION

1. PCS stands for Communications System.

ANS: Personal

2. Current PCS systems are called -generation systems.

ANS: second

3. In North America, PCS is assigned the -MHz band.

ANS: 1900

4. Compared to AMPS, PCS cells are in size.

ANS: smaller
5. Besides TDMA and CDMA, is also used in North America for PCS.

ANS: GSM

6. The spread-spectrum technique used in IS-95 PCS is .

ANS:
CDMA
direct sequence
7. The spread-spectrum technique used in GSM is .
ANS: frequency hopping

8. Unlike AMPS, CDMA allows for a handoff.

ANS: soft

9. The orthogonal PN sequences used in CDMA are called a code.

ANS: Walsh

10. Unlike other systems, in CDMA frequencies are used in all cells.
ANS: all

11. PN stands for Pseudo- Noise.

ANS: random

12. diversity is inherent in any spread-spectrum system.

ANS: Frequency

13. RF channel S/N ratios than zero are typical in CDMA systems.
ANS: less

14. CDMA uses a -rate vocoder.

ANS: variable

15. A phone user typically talks less than % of the time during a conversation.
ANS: 50

16. CDMA requires -loop power control to work properly.

ANS: closed

17. GPRS stands for General Radio Service.

ANS: Packet

18. IMT stands for International Telecommunications.

ANS: Mobile

19. UPT stands for Personal Telecommunications.

ANS: Universal
20. UWT stands for Universal Telecommunications.

ANS: Wireless

21. W-CDMA stands for CDMA.

ANS: Wideband

SHORT ANSWER

[Link] is the advantage of a "soft" handoff?

ANS:
No calls are dropped.

[Link] CDMA receivers hear all frequencies all the time, how do they pick a specific frequency?

ANS:
Each frequency is modulated using a separate orthogonal PN sequence. To demodulate, the receiver uses
the PN sequence specific to the channel it wants.

[Link] is the effect of cochannel interference in CDMA?

ANS:
It increases the background noise level, but CDMA can tolerate a lot of such noise.

[Link] does GSM achieve frequency diversity?

ANS:
It uses limited frequency hopping.
[Link] was PCS assigned to 1.9 GHz instead of the 800-MHz band used for AMPS?

ANS:
The 800 MHz band was already overcrowded.

[Link] would a battery in a GSM phone be expected to last longer than a battery in a TDMA phone?

ANS:
A TDMA phone is active during one out of every three time slots. A GSM phone is active during one out
of every eight.

[Link] is the advantage of using offset QPSK over standard QPSK?

ANS:
With standard QPSK, the transmitted power repeatedly goes to zero. With offset QPSK, it never goes to
zero. Linearity requirements are less strict for offset QPSK transmitters.
[Link] is the "near/far" effect in CDMA, and what causes it?
ANS:
A stronger station farther away can "drown out" a weaker station that is near. This happens when the
power transmitted by mobile units is not well controlled by the base.
Chapter 23: Paging and Wireless Data Networking

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Pagers use:
[Link] VHF band only
[Link] UHF band only
[Link] the VHF and UHF bands
[Link] VHF band, the UHF band, and the ISM band

ANS: C

2. ISM stands for:

[Link] Standard Message c. Industrial, Scientific, and Messaging
[Link] Secure Messaged. Industrial, Scientific, and Medical

ANS: D
3. CAPCODE is:
[Link] encryption scheme used for pagers
[Link] addressing scheme used for pagers
[Link] error-detection scheme used for pagers
d.a digital modulation scheme used for pagers

ANS: B

4. In a one-way pager system:

[Link] pages are sent from all transmitters
[Link] transmitting antenna covers a wide area
[Link] use relatively high power
[Link] of the above
ANS: D

5. POCSAG stands for:

[Link] Operations Common Standards Advisory Group
[Link] Operations Code Standardization Advisory Group
[Link] Office Code Standardization Advisory Group
[Link] Office Common Standards Advisory Group

ANS: C

6. A typical pager system does not:

[Link] "handoffs" c. require error detection
[Link] "roaming" d. all of the above

ANS: A

7. The IEEE specification covering wireless LANs is:

a. 802.10 c. 802.12
 b. 802.11 d. 802.13
ANS: B

8. The IEEE 802 spec for wireless LANs uses the:

[Link] band c. ISM band
[Link] band d. infrared band
ANS: C

9. The IEEE 802 document for wireless LANs specifies the use of:
[Link]/CA c. CDMA
[Link]/CD d. all of the above
ANS: A

10. BSS stands for:

[Link] Service Set c. Bluetooth Service System
[Link] Service System d. none of the above

ANS: A
11. Bluetooth uses:
[Link] c. QPSK
[Link] hopping d. all of the above
ANS: B

12. Bluetooth uses the:

[Link] band c. ISM band
[Link] band d. infrared band
ANS: C

13. TDD stands for:

[Link]-Division Duplex c. Time Delay Difference
[Link]-Delayed Duplex d. Total Distance Delay

ANS: A

14. A Bluetooth "piconet" has:

a.2 nodes c. 2 to 8 nodes
b.2 to 4 nodes d. 2 to 16 nodes
ANS: C

15. Two or more connected piconets forms a:

[Link] c. TDD net
[Link] d. scatternet
ANS: D

16. The basic range of a Bluetooth device is:

a. 10 cm to 1 meter c. 10 cm to 100 meters
 b. 10 cm to 10 meters d. within 10 feet
ANS: B

17. IRDA stands for:

[Link] Data Association c. Infrared Restricted Data Area
[Link] Digital Association d. Infrared Roaming Data Area
ANS: A

18. The range of an IRDA system is:

a.1 meter c. 1 foot
b.10 meters d. 10 feet
ANS: A

19. Infrared networks:

[Link] penetrate walls c. can use reflected infrared beams
[Link] use diffused infrared beams d. all of the above
ANS: D

20. The maximum range of a typical wireless modem is:

a.1 meter c. several hundred meters
[Link] meters d. several thousand meters.
ANS: D

COMPLETION

[Link] pager has a unique address called a .

ANS: capcode

[Link] pagers can share a frequency using .

ANS: TDMA

[Link] POCSAG was devised by the British Office.

ANS: Post

4.A POCSAG message uses a -bit error correction code.

ANS: 10

[Link] covers wireless LANs.

ANS: 802.11
[Link] IEEE document specifies a maximum power of for wireless LANs.
 ANS: 1 watt

7. Bluetooth uses the band.

ANS: ISM

8. A network of 2 to 8 Bluetooth devices is called a .

ANS: piconet
9. A Bluetooth scatternet consists of 2 or more .
ANS: piconets

10. An IRDA system is deliberately restricted to a range of .

ANS: 1 meter
Chapter 24: Fiber Optics

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Compared to the core, the index of refraction of the cladding must be:
[Link] same c. less
[Link] d. doesn't have an index of refraction

ANS: C

2. Fiber-optic cables do not:

[Link] current c. generate EMI
[Link] crosstalk d. all of the above
ANS: D

3. Single-mode fiber is made from:

[Link] c. both a and b
[Link] d. none of the above

ANS: A

4. Fiber-optic cable cannot be used:

[Link] an explosive environment
[Link] connect a transmitter to an antenna
[Link] isolate a medical patient from a shock hazard
[Link] of the above
ANS: B

5. A single-mode cable does not suffer from:

[Link] dispersion c. waveguide dispersion
[Link] dispersion d. all of the above
ANS: A

6. Scattering causes:
[Link] c. intersymbol interference
[Link] d. all of the above

ANS: A

7. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to the glass is about:

a.40 dB per km c. 0.4 dB per km
b.4 db per km d. zero loss

ANS: C
8. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a splice is about:
a. 0.02 dB c. 1 dB
 b. 0.2 db d. 3 dB
ANS: A

9. The loss in single-mode fiber-optic cable due to a connector is about:

a.0.02 dB c. 1 dB
b.0.2 db d. 3 dB
ANS: B

10. Which of the following is a type of fiber connector:

[Link] c. SMA
[Link] d. all of the above
ANS: D

11. The quantum of light is called:

[Link] erg c. a photon
[Link] e-v d. a phonon
ANS: C

12. LASER stands for:

[Link] Amplification by Simulated Emission of Radiation
[Link] Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
[Link] Amplification by Simulated Emitted Rays
[Link] Amplification by Stimulated Emitted Rays
ANS: B

13. APD stands for:

[Link] Photodiode c. Avalanche Photo Detector
[Link] Photodiode d. Advanced Photo Detector
ANS: A

14. In a PIN diode, leakage current in the absence of light is called:

[Link] current c. dark current
[Link]-point current d. E-H current

ANS: C

15. For a light detector, responsivity is measured in:

amps per watt c. mA per joule
a.

W per amp
0.µ d. sec per W
µ µ

ANS: A

COMPLETION

1. In the core, the angle of incidence equals the angle of______________________.

ANS: reflection
2. The core is surrounded by the .
ANS: cladding
3. The angle is where refraction changes to reflection.
ANS: critical

4. An electron-volt is a measure of.

ANS: energy
5. The numerical aperture is the of the angle of acceptance.
ANS: sine

6. Optical fiber relies on total reflection.

ANS: internal

7. Chromatic dispersion is also called dispersion.

ANS: intramodal

8. With optical fiber, light is more common than visible light.

ANS: infrared

9. In multimode fiber, index has less dispersion than step index.

ANS: graded

10. For laser diodes, the term is used instead of bandwidth.

ANS: linewidth

11. Dispersion can be expressed in units ofrather than bandwidth.

ANS: time

12. interference is when one pulse merges with the next pulse.
ANS: Intersymbol

13. The optical fiber is free to move around in a cable.

ANS: loose-tube

14. The optical fiber is not free to move around in a cable.

 ANS: tight-buffer

15. A is a short length of fiber that carries the light away from the source.
ANS: pigtail
16. Good connections are more critical with -mode fiber.
ANS: single

17. A diode is the usual light source for single-mode cable.

ANS: laser

18. The quantum of light is called the .

ANS: photon

19. A diode is the usual light detector for single-mode cable.

ANS: PIN

20. For safety, you should never at the end of an optical fiber unless you know it is
not connected to a light source.
ANS: look
Chapter 25: Fiber-Optic Systems

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. FDDI stands for:

[Link] Digital Data Interface c. Fiber Distribution Delay Interface
[Link] Distributed Data Interface d. Frequency-Division Data Interface
ANS: B

2. FITL stands for:

[Link] In The Loop c. Frequency Input to The Loop
[Link] Input Timing Loss d. Fiber Input Timing Loop
ANS: A

3. FTTC stands for:

[Link] Transmission Timing Constraint
[Link] Transmission Technology Committee
[Link] Telephone Transmission Cable
[Link] To The Curb
ANS: D

4. SONET stands for:

[Link] Optical Network c. Synchronous Optical Network
[Link] Optical Network d. none of the above
ANS: C

5. DWDM stands for:

[Link] Wavelength-Division Modulation
[Link] Wavelength-Division Modulation
[Link] Wavelength-Division Modulation
[Link] Wavelength-Division Multiplexing

ANS: D

6. A Soliton is a:
[Link] in the glass c. type of pulse
[Link] of particle d. type of optical network
ANS: C

7. Adding bits to synchronize one digital signal to another is called:

[Link] stuffing c. SDH
[Link]-synch d. WDM
ANS: A
8. Power above the minimum required by an optical receiver is called:
 2. FITL stands for Fiber In The .

a. gain margin c. excess gain

 b. system margin d. overdrive
ANS: B

9. Typically, repeaters are not required for fiber-optic cable lengths up to:
a.1000 miles c. 100 km
b.100 miles d. 10 km
ANS: C

10. In SONET, OC-1 stands for:

[Link] Carrier level one c. Optical Channel one
[Link] Coupler unidirectional d. Optical Cable type 1

ANS: A

11. In SONET, STS stands for:

[Link] Transport Signal c. Synchronous Transmission Signal
[Link] Transport System d. Synchronous Transmission System

ANS: A

12. A commonly used fiber-based system for LANs is:

[Link] c. gigabit Ethernet
[Link]-speed Ethernet d. all of the above
ANS: D

13. The use of solitons on fiber-optic cables is:

[Link] c. obsolete
[Link] d. not possible

ANS: B

14. OTDR stands for:

[Link] Time-Delay Response c. Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer
[Link] Timing Delay Requirement d. Optical Time-Division Relay

ANS: C

15. Using fiber-optic cable in a telephone system except for the connection to the subscriber's phone is called:
[Link] c. FITL
[Link] d. SONET
ANS: B

COMPLETION

1. FTTC stands for Fiber To The .

ANS: Curb
 2. FITL stands for Fiber In The .

ANS: Loop

3. SDH stands for Synchronous Data .

ANS: Hierarchy

4. WDM stands for -division multiplexing.

ANS: Wavelength

5. SONET stands for Optical Network.

ANS: Synchronous

6. FDDI stands for Fiber Data Interface.

ANS: Distributed

7. Optical amplifiers use -doped glass.

ANS: erbium

8. Optical amplifiers use a laser.

ANS: pump

9. Dense allows many different wavelengths of light to share a cable.

ANS: WDM

10. The OC-1 line rate is Mbps.

ANS: 51.84
11. SONET does not use bit to synchronize two digital signals.

ANS: stuffing

12. SONET uses a to denote the starting position of an information frame.

ANS: pointer

13. FDDI systems use two rings to carry signals.

ANS: token
14. The two rings of an FDDI system carry data in directions.
ANS: opposite
1 5 . E a c h in an FDDI system acts as a regenerative repeater.
ANS: node
16. FDDI uses mode cables.

ANS: multi17. The data rate of an FDDI system is________________________bps.

ANS: 100 M
18. SONET frames have considerably more than do DS frames for information
about signal routing and setup.
ANS: overhead
19. The number of bytes in a SONET frame is .
ANS: 810

20. The number of bytes in the payload of a SONET frame is .

ANS: 774

21. The number of rows in a SONET frame is .

ANS: 9

22. The total number of overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is .

ANS: 4

23. The number of path overhead bytes in a SONET frame row is .

ANS: 1

24. SONET frame rows contain path overhead and overhead.

ANS: transport

25. In SONET, SPE stands for synchronous payload .

ANS: envelope

SHORT ANSWER

1. What is the bandwidth of a first-order LPF with a rise time of 350 nanoseconds?
ANS:
 1 MHz

2. Calculate the total rise time for a fiber-optic system if the transmitter, receiver, and cable each have a rise
time of 50 nanoseconds.
ANS:
86.6 nanoseconds