Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M ODEL TEST-8

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction (1-5): Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful
paragraph and answer the questions.
A. The irony is that the humblest street entrepreneurs face the most repression,
because they cannot afford to pay the bribes needed to prevent municipal officials
from confiscating their goods and destroying them.
B. So they spend their time crushing underfoot anyone who dares to become an
entrepreneur.
C. And it cannot revive until there are drastic changes in the rules that govern
economic activities.
D. Captains of industry have the money power to keep officials at bay, but have
now started saying publicly that doing business in India has not become easier.
E. India’s biggest political problem is the economy.
F. Decades of Nehruvian socialism have created a mindset in officials across the
country that makes them see enterprise as evil.
1. Which of the following is Fifth sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) A 5) F
2. Which of the following is third sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) C 4) D 5) F
3. Which of the following is second sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F
4. Which of the following is FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) A
5. Which of the following is LAST sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F
Direction (6-12): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The rising average temperature of Earth’s climate system, called global
warming, is driving changes in rainfall patterns, extreme weather, arrival of
seasons, and more. Collectively, global warming and its effects are known as
climate change. While there have been prehistoric periods of global warming,
observed changes since the mid-20th century have been unprecedented in rate
and scale. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) concluded
that “human influence on climate has been the dominant cause of observed
warming since the mid-20th century”. These findings have been ____________ by
the national science academies of major nations and are not disputed by any
scientific body of national or international standing. The largest human influence
has been the emission of greenhouse gases, with over 90% of the impact from
carbon dioxide and methane. Fossil fuel burning is the principal source of these
gases, with agricultural emissions and deforestation also playing significant roles.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

Temperature rise is enhanced by self-reinforcing climate feedbacks, such as loss

of snow cover, increased water vapour, and melting permafrost. Land surfaces
are heating faster than the ocean surface, leading to heat waves, wildfires, and
the expansion of deserts. Increasing atmospheric energy and rates of evaporation
are causing more intense storms and weather extremes, damaging infrastructure
and agriculture. Surface temperature increases are greatest in the Arctic and
have contributed to the retreat of glaciers, permafrost, and sea ice. Environmental
impacts include the extinction or relocation of many species as their ecosystems
change, most immediately in coral reefs, mountains, and the Arctic. Surface
temperatures would stabilize and decline a little if emissions were cut off, but
other impacts will continue for centuries, including rising sea levels from melting
ice sheets, rising ocean temperatures, and ocean acidification from elevated levels
of carbon dioxide. Mitigation efforts to address global warming include the
development and deployment of low carbon energy technologies, policies to reduce
fossil fuel emissions, reforestation, forest preservation, as well as the development
of potential climate engineering technologies. Societies and governments are
also working to adapt to current and future global warming impacts, including
improved coastline protection, better disaster management, and the development
of more resistant crops. Countries work together on climate change under the
umbrella of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), which has near-universal membership. The goal of the convention is
to “prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system”. The
IPCC has stressed the need to keep global warming below 1.5 °C (2.7 °F) compared
to pre-industrial levels in order to avoid some irreversible impacts. With current
policies and pledges, global warming by the end of the century is expected to
reach about 2.8 °C (5.0 °F). At the current greenhouse gas (GHG) emission rate,
the carbon budget for staying below 1.5 °C (2.7 °F) would be exhausted by 2028.
6. Which of the following words can be used to fill the blank in the passage ?
1) established 2) prevented 3) invent 4) compared 5) recognized
7. Who emit more greenhouse gasses ?
1) Humans 2) Mammals 3) Farmers 4) Aquatic Animals 5) Dissimulation
8. Name the region where the surface temperature is more.
1) Asia 2) America 3) Australia 4) Arctic 5) Africa
9. The contextual meaning of the word “mitigation” is
1) Assuagement 2) Reduction 3) Diminution 4) Soothing 5) All the above
10. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has stressed the need to keep
global warming below 1.5 °C (2.7 °F) compared to pre-industrial levels in order to
avoid some irreversible impacts by
1) 2020 2) 2021 3) 2028 4) 2022 5) 2025
11. What are the measures taken by the governments to prevent impact of
global warming ?
1) Coastline protection 2) Development of more resistant crops.
3) Better disaster management 4) All the above 5) None of the above.
12. Which of the following is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word
‘preservation’ as used in the passage?
1) conservation 2) salvation 3) upkeep 4) destruction 5) canning

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

Direction (13-16): This question has two blanks. Each blank indicates that
something has been omitted. Choose the option with the words that best fits the
meaning of the sentence as a whole and mark it as your answer.
13. Western scientists were _________, with some warning that moving too quickly on
a vaccine could be dangerous, but Russia ___________ criticism as an attempt to
undermine Moscow’s research.
1) rational, announced 2) conventional, frowned 3) skeptical, denounced
4) hierarchical, denied 5) froze, defied
14. In the 20th century the world saw shoots of democratic _________ grow amidst
the rise of Fascist domination which ________ ideologies of unquestioned power
and hatred for other people.
1) respiration, hosted 2) voice, pertained 3) regulations, fabricated
4) implications, unified 5) aspiration, fostered
15. During the wars, the world was divided into the West which was experiencing
economic growth and ‘the Rest’ whose ________ backwardness was worsened by
colonial ________ by the West.
1) obtuse, confederation 2) acute, exploitation 3) ailed, repercussions
4) allied, invasion 5) fragile, implementation
16. After partition the conflicts between India and Pakistan became _________, the
main bone of _________ between the two countries being Kashmir.
1) advisory, resource 2) perpetual, contention 3) rational, intention
4) acclaimed, necessary 5) reasonable, coarse
Direction (17-21): In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold.
Below the sentence, alternatives to the emboldened part are given as (1), (2), 3)
and (4), which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative out
of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer will
be option (5), i.e., “No correction required”.
17. Any stream of science deals with the study of the physical and natural world
thorough the medium in observation and experiment.
1) thorough the medium of observation
2) thorough the medium about observation
3) through the medium of observation
4) through the medium in observation 5) no correction required
18. I promise I’ll be very quicker indeed and I’ll be back in two shakes of a lamb’s
tail.
1) I’ll be very quick on need 2) I’ll be very quick in need
3) I’ll be very quick indeed 4) I’ll be mostly quick indeed
5) No correction required
19. It took me ages to set up my computer because I spent the deal of a time trying to
understand the notes.
1) spent the devil of a time 2) spent the time of a devil
3) spent the devil time to 4) spending the devil of a time
5) no correction required

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

20. I don’t mind sleeping on an uncomfortable bed, in a hostel anything is to preferable

sleeping in a tent.
1) anything is preferable at 2) anything is preferable to
3) anything is preferred at 4) anything is preferring to
5) No correction required
21. He had to be isolated from all the other patients in the hospital because he has
been a highly contagious disease.
1) he had been a highly contagious 2) he has a highly contagious
3) he had a higher contagious 4) he had a highly contagious
5) No correction required
Direction (22-26): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are given below the passage and against each,
five options are given. Find out the appropriate word which fits the blank
appropriately to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence.
A modern economy grows by lending and a modern state is a welfare state.
But fiscal constraints or natural disasters often create ___________ (22) to disguise
spending as lending. COVID’s pain is breeding unreasonable requests like interest
waivers, endless moratorium extensions, blanket one-time restructurings, fudging
accounting, reducing capital ____________(23), 24-month IBC suspension, etc. It’s
also breeding an academic blame game that insists the problem pertains to
personalities, not structure. The last 50 years suggest that the Diet Coke approach
to banking — taste without the calories — doesn’t work in raising the financial
___________(24) of migrants, self-employed, and MSMEs. And the last 20 years
have given three lessons: Giving loans is easier than getting them back (corporate
credit growing from Rs 18 lakh crore in 2008 to Rs 54 lakh crore in 2014 created
a Rs 12 lakh crore bad loan problem); breaking the thermometer doesn’t help the
fever (disallowing accounting fudging and ___________(25) would have saved Rs 7
lakh crore because banks would have run out of capital) and government banks
need more than capital (their risk-weighted assets are lower than two years ago
despite a Rs 2 lakh crore capital infusion). History recommends patiently balancing
financial inclusion and stability by __________ (26) with our five-pillar strategy:
22. 1) temptations 2) discourage 3) preventions 4) repulsions 5) detaches
23. 1) unsuitability 2) adequacy 3) improperly 4) deficit 5) insufficiency
24. 1) availability 2) scrapping 3) inclusion 4) exclusion 5) exception
25. 1) simulation 2) replica 3) restructuring 4) imitation 5) emulation
26. 1) halt 2) unmoved 3) struck 4) mutable 5) persisting

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

Direction (27-30): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(1), (2),3) and 4) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there is
any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence.
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation if any.
27. The candidates’ attempts at (1)/moral clarity got muddled when (2)/conversation
turns to the trade-offs inherent(3)/ in actually conducting American statecraft.(4)/
No error
28. The studio’s latest film (1)/is a sweet, inventive, and original story of (2)/two
brothers growing up in(3)/ a fantasy universe that’s lost it’s edge.(4)/No error
29. The swarm of flies (1)/ and the noise made by(2)/ the shopkeepers and pilgrims(3)/
were perfectly insufferable.(4)/ No error
30. He sat under a tamarind (1)/ tree everyday and people were(2)/ attracted towards
him as bees are(3)/ attracted to the cosmos or dahlia stalks.(4)/ No error
NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction(31-35) : Study the table and answer the given question :
Total number of perfumes sold by 6 stores during 5 months :

Months Stores
P Q R S T U
April 165 211 210 160 231 154
May 188 175 193 148 165 157
June 196 142 156 187 233 236
July 163 156 214 241 190 173
August 215 172 188 228 215 289

31. Number of perfumes sold by store S increased by what percent from April to
August ?
1) 38.5 2) 42.5 3) 36 4) 40.5 5) 44
32. What is the average number of perfumes sold by all the given stores in May ?
1) 179 2) 171 3) 167 4) 177 5) 173
33. What is the difference between total number of perfumes sold by stores P, Q, T
and U together in April and total number of perfumes sold by stores R. S and T
together in July ?
1) 124 2) 108 3) 116 4) 122 5) 112
34. What is the respective ratio between total number of perfumes sold by store P in
July and August together and total number of perfumes sold by store U in the
same months together ?
1) 9 : 13 2) 9 : 11 3) 11 : 14 4) 11 : 13 5) 13 : 14
35. The perfumes sold by all the given stores were either for male or for female If
64% of perfumes sold by all the given companies together in June were for male,
how many perfumes for female were sold by all the given stores together in the
same month ?
1) 310 2) 414 3) 450 4) 480 5) 418

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

Directions (36-45) what will come in place of question mark (?) in the following
questions?

343  49
36. ?
216  16  81

75 75 76 74 75
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
67 68 67 68 64
37. 23 x 15 – 60 + ?  31 = 292
1) 218 2) 186 3) 217 4) 201 5) 224
38. 15% of 578 + 22.5% of 644 =?
1) 231.4 2) 233.6 3) 231.8 4) 231.6 5) 144.9

?
39. 52 14  6  7   4  =18

1) 1 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5 5) 2

40.
3 2 1
3 4 3  ?
4 5 8
1 1 1 3 3
1) 4 2) 5 3) 6 4) 5 5) 6
40 40 40 40 40
41. 6.66 x 6  0.4  0.3 = ?
1) 33.3 2) 666 3) 22.2 4) 222 5) 333

3267  552
42.  4  (?) 2
414
1) 46 2) 37 3) 33 4) 40 5) 28
43. 11 + 0.11 + 0.011 - 0.021 = ?
1) 11.2 2) 11.1 3) 11.9 4) 11.5 5) 11.8
44. 8559.48 - 3463.69 - ? = 3362.46
1) 1643.56 2) 1735.56 3) 1733.33 4) 1557.78 5) 1653.45

7 7 7
45. 7   ?
2 4 5
1) 15.10 2) 15.85 3) 14.95 4) 14.45 5) 13.65
46. What would be the compound interest accrued on an amount of Rs. 7400 at the
rate of 13.5% per annum at the end of 2yr? (Rounded off to two digits after
decimal.)
1) Rs. 2136.87 2) Rs. 2306.81 3) Rs. 2032.18 4) Rs. 2132.87 5) Rs. 2000.18

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

47. Sonu invested 10% more than Mona. Mona invested 10% less than Raghu. If the
total sum of their investment is Rs. 5780, how much amount did Raghu invest?
1) Rs.2010 2) Rs.2000 3) Rs.2100 4) Rs.2210 5) Rs. 2200
48. The ratio of the ages of Tina and Rakesh is 9 : 10, respectively. 10 yr ago, the ratio
of their ages was 4 : 5, respectively. What is the present age of Rakesh?
1) 25 yr 2) 20 yr 3) 30 yr 4) 24 yr 5) 35 yr
49. The circumference of two circles is 132 m and 176 m, respectively. What is the
difference between the area of the larger circle and the smaller circle?
1) 1048 sq m 2) 1076 sq m 3) 1078 sqm 4) 1090 sqm 5) 1098 sqm
50. When 20% of a number is added to another number the number increases by
50%. What is the ratio of the first number to the second?
1) 3 : 2 2) 2 : 3 3) 5 : 2 4) Can’t be determined 5)10 : 13
51. A boat can travel 8.5 km downstream in 15 minutes and 3.6 km upstream in 8
minutes. What is the speed of the boat in still water ? (in kmph)
1) 31 2) 34.5 3) 30.5 4) 29 5) 33.5
52. The respective ratio between the number of boys and number of girls in a school
is 10 : 9. If 20% of boys and 25% girls score 80% or above marks in an examination,
what percentage of students score less than 80% marks in the same examination
approximately ?
1) 64 2) 75 3) 78 4) 72 5) 60
53. In an examination, a student scores 9 marks for every correct answer and loses 4
marks for every wrong answer. If a student had attempted in all 67 questions and
secured 395 marks, what was the total number of questions he had attempted
correctly ?
1) 55 2) 49 3) 51 4) 53 5) 47
54. In a show, the total amount received after selling all the tickets was Rs. 3.300. If
30 children and 40 adults attended the show and the price of children’s ticket
was half the price adult’s ticket, how much was the price of each children’s ticket
?
1) Rs. 30 2) Rs. 32 3) Rs. 35 4) Rs. 38 5) Rs. 40
55. A started a business by investing Rs. 8,800. After 4 months B joined him with an
amount of Rs. 11,200. After 2 months of B’s joining C joined them. The respective
ratio of investments of B and C was 7 :12. If they earned annual profit of Rs.
43,650. what is B’s share of profit ?
1) Rs. 13.600 2) Rs. 11,800 3) Rs. 13.200 4) Rs. 12.200 5) Rs. 12.600
56. Two concentric circles form a circular track If the width of the circular track is 7
m. and the circumference of the outer circle is 264 m.. what is the circumference
of the inner circle ?
1) 210 m. 2) 140 m. 3) 320 m. 4) 280 m. 5) 220 m.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

57. Rice worth Rs. 66 per kg Is mixed with another variety of rice in the respective
ratio of 3 : 1. If the mixture is worth Rs. 74 per kg. what is the price of the second
variety of rice (per kg) ?
1) Rs. 104 2) Rs. 94 3) Rs. 106 4) Rs. 98 5) Rs. 100
58. In a competitive exam 20% of the applicants were found ineligible and 64% of the
eligible applicants were male. If the number of eligible female applicants was
8064. Total how many applicants were there (both eligible and ineligible) ?
1) 32000 2) 31500 3) 50400 4) 30000 5) 28000
59. Trisha travelled a distance of 30 km in 8 hrs. She travelled this distance partly on
foot at 2 km/h and partly on bicycle at 6 km/h. What is the distance that she
travelled on foot ?
1) 5 km. 2) 9 km. 3) 10 km. 4) 6 km. 5) 4 km.
4
60. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 hrs when opened simultaneously. If B
7
alone takes five hours more than A alone takes to fill the tank completely, how
much time does A alone take to fill the tank ?
1) 12 hrs. 2) 18 hrs. 3) 14 hrs. 4) 15 hrs. 5) 10 hrs.
Directions (61-65) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the
following series?
61. 17, 9, ?, 16.5, 35, 90
1) 5 2) 15 3) 10 4) 20 5) 12
62. 6, 13, 38, ?, 532, 2675
1) 129 2) 123 3) 172 4) 164 5) 125
63. 286, 142, ?, 34, 16, ?
1) 66 2) 72 3) 64 4) 74 5) 70
64. 17, 52, 158, 477, ?, 4310
1) 1433 2) 1432 3) 1435 4) 1434 5) 1400
65. 3, 22, ?, 673, 2696, 8093
1) 133 2) 155 3) 156 4) 134 5) 135
REASONING
66. If in the word DYNAMICS all the letters are arranged alphabetically (from left to
right as in a dictionary), the position/s of how many letters will remain unchanged
as compared to the original word ?
1) One 2) None 3) Three 4) Four 5) Two
67. What will come next in the series in place of the question mark ?
1 3 5 7 2 4 63 5 7 24 5 7 2 ?
1) 3 2) 8 3) 7 4) 4 5) 6

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

Direction (68-70) : Read the following information carefully and answer the
question.
M is the only son of Q. Q is married to C. C is the mother of Y and S. C is the
daughter of W and R. B is the grandmother of Y. C is the grandmother of F. None
of the daughters of Q is married.
68. Which of the following statements is definitely true with respect to the given
information ?
(a) Y does not have any brother
(b) W is the wife of R
(c) M is the grandson of R
1) Only (c) 2) Only (b) 3) Both (a) and (b)
4) None of the given statements is true 5) Both (b) and (c)
69. How is B related to C ?
1) Mother-in-law 2) Daughter-in-law 3) Sister-in-law
4) Daughter 5) Aunt
70. How is S related to F ?
1) Brother-in-law 2) Sister 3) Grandmother
4) Aunt 5) Uncle
Direction (71-75) : Study the following information and answer the given question :
Eight people - E, F, G, H, L, M, N and O live on eight different floors of a
building that not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the
building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the top
most floor is numbered 8.
G lives on floor number 5. Only two people live between G and N. As many
people live above N as below H. L lives on an odd numbered floor immediately
above O. More than three people live between O and F. E lives on one of the floors
below M.
71. Who amongst the following lives on floor number 3 ?
1) M 2) E 3) F 4) L 5) H
72. Which of the following is true regarding F ?
1) Only four people live below F
2) M lives immediately below the floor on which F lives
3) F lives on one of the floors below O
4) None of the given options is true 5) F lives on floor number 6
73. Who amongst the following lives immediately above N ?
1) No one as N lives on the topmost floor
2) F 3) M 4) E 5) L
74. How many people live between the floors on which M and G live ?
1) One 2) Four 3) Three 4) None 5) Two
75. On which of the following floor numbers does E live ?
1) 3 2) 1 3) 4 4) 7 5) 2

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

Directions: (76-80) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
L9*T5^3R#EIY$U5AJE@?BVEQJOAP79$XGZ64W
76. Which of the following is sixteenth from right end in the above arrangement?
1) @ 2) V 3) B 4) ? 5) E
77. How many such letters are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded by a symbol?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) Two
78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the
above arrangement and hence from a group. Find out the one that does not
belong to that group?
1) T^R 2) XZ4 3) 5J@ 4) BEO 5) EYU
79. Which of the following is fifth to the right of the fifteenth from the right end?
1) 7 2) 9 3) P 4) A 5) O
80. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a latter?
1) No one 2) Three 3) One 4) Two 5) Four
Direction (81-83) :Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions :
Soham starts from Point A, walks 6m towards North and reaches Point B. He
then takes a right turn, walks 13m and reaches Point C. He then takes a right
turn, walks 13 m and reaches Point D. He takes another right turn, walks 8m
and reaches Point E. He takes a final right turn, walks 7m and reaches Point F.
81. If Point Z is 10 m to the west of Point C, in which direction would Point Z be with
respect to Point E ?
1) South-West 2) North 3) South-East 4) North-East 5) North-West
82. In which direction is Point D with respect to Point A ?
1) South-East 2) North 3) West 4) East 5) North-West
83. How far and in which direction is Point A with respect to Point F ?
1) 4m towards west 2) 21m towards east 3) 6m towards west
4) 14 m towards east 5) 5m towards west
Direction (84-88) : Study the information to answer the given questions :
In a certain code,
‘may be drawn here’ is written as ‘fu li ka sa’,
‘water drawn from well’ is written as ‘br ka vc mt’
‘be well and happy’ is written as ‘xy sa db br’
‘happy from result drawn’ is written as ‘gv ka mt db
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
84. What is the code for ‘result’ in the given code language ?
1) xy 2) ka 3) db 4) gv 5) mt

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

85. What does the code ‘li’ stand for in the given code language ?
1) Either ‘may’ or ‘here’ 2) drawn 3) Either ‘be’ or ‘drawn’
4) well 5) be
86. What is the code for ‘from’ in the given code language ?
1) db 2) vc 3) mt 4) br 5) ka
87. Which of the following may represent ‘water and draught’ in the given code language ?
1) po db xy 2) vc xy fu 3) xy po vc 4) br xy ui 5) gv xy vc
88. What is the code for ‘be happy’ in the given code language ?
1) db sa 2) gv vc 3) sa vc 4) br db 5) li gv
89. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, third and the
sixth letters from the left of the word ‘INTEREST’, which would be the second
letter of the word from the right ? If more than one such word can be formed, give
‘X’ as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give ‘Z’ as your answer.
1)S 2) Z 3) T 4) N 5) X
90. Among six friends, B is taller than A and C but shorter than Q. Q is shorter than
M. M is not the tallest. R is taller than C. Who amongst them is the third tallest ?
1) M 2) C 3) A 4) R 5) Q
91. Zoya correctly remembers that she had an exam before October but after April.
Myna correctly remembers that Zoya had her exam after February but before
July. In which month did Zoya definitely had her exam ?
1) Either May or June 2) July 3) September
4) Either March or September 5) August
Direction (92-95) : In this question, relationship between different elements is
shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the
conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.
92. Statements :D < S  I < C  M < Q
Conclusion : I. D < M
Conclusion : II. Q > I
1) neither Conclusion I nor II is true 2) both Conclusions I and II are true
3) either Conclusion I or II is true
4) only Conclusion I is true 5) only Conclusion II is true
93. Statements : S  J < C ; P > J < Q
Conclusion : I. P > S
Conclusion : II. C < Q
1) only Conclusion II is true 2) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
3) either Conclusion I or II is true
4) both Conclusions I and II are true 5) only Conclusion I is true
94. Statements :P  R = E  N < S  T
Conclusion : I. N  P
Conclusion : II. T  E
1) both Conclusions I and II are true
2) neither Conclusion I nor II is true 3) only Conclusion I is true
4) either Conclusion I or II is true 5) only Conclusion II is true
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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I / I B PS CLERK PRELI M S & K DCC CLERK -M T-8

95. Statements :C > T = J  L < M < V

Conclusion : I. L < C
Conclusion : II. V > L
1) only Conclusion II is true 2) neither Conclusion I nor II is true
3) only Conclusion I is true 4) both Conclusions I and II are true
5) either Conclusion I or II is true
Directions: (96-100) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Balu, Suresh, Mahesh, Pavani, Seetha, Sanju and Geetha are sitting around
a circle facing the [Link] is second to the left of Sanju, who is not an
immediate neighbor of Seetha. Balu is third to the left of Geetha and to the
immediate right of Pavani.
96. Who is to the immediate left of Seetha?
1) Seetha 2) Mahesh 3) Geetha 4) Balu 5) Cannot be determined
97. Who is fourth to the left of Pavani?
1) Balu 2) Seetha 3) Suresh 4) Mahesh 5) Sanju
98. Which of the following pairs of persons has the first person sitting to the immediate
left of the second person?
1) Pavani-Seetha 2) Balu-Mahesh 3) Mahesh-Geetha
4) Pavani-Balu 5) Geetha - Seetha
99. Which of the following is the correct position of Sanju with respect to Geetha?
1) Third to the right 2) Third to the left 3) Fourth to the left
4) Fourth to the right 5) Immediate right
100. How many persons sitting between Pavani and Suresh to the right of suresh?
1) One 2) No one 3) Three 4) Two 5) Five

KEY
1.4 2.5 3.2 4.4 5.3 6.5 7.1 8.4 9.5 10.3 11.4 12.4 13.3
14.5 15.2 16.2 17.3 18.3 19.1 20.2 21.4 22.1 23.2 24.3 25.3 26.5
27.3 28.4 29.1 30.5 31.2 32.2 33.3 34.2 35.2 36.1 37.3 38.4 39.5
40.2 41.5 42.3 43.2 44.3 45.5 46.4 47.2 48.2 49.3 50.5 51.3 52.3
53.3 54.1 55.5 56.5 57.4 58.5 59.2 60.4 61.3 62.1 63.5 64.3 65.4
66.1 67.3 68.1 69.1 70.4 71.4 72.2 73.1 74.4 75.3 76.2 77.3 78.4
79.3 80.4 81.5 82.1 83.5 84.4 85.1 86.3 87.3 88.1 89.5 90.5 91.1
92.5 93.2 94.3 95.4 96.4 97.3 98.4 99.5 100.3

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