QUIZ BEE

LEVEL I
EASY
1. Removal of waste products from the blood is carried out by the:
a. Endocrine system
b. Lymphatic system
c. Urinary system
d. Circulatory system

2. The heart and the lungs are located in what cavity?

a. Abdominal cavity
b. Thoracic cavity
c. Dorsal cavity
d. Peritoneal cavity

3. It gives strength to the dermal layer of the skin.

a. Collagen
b. Elastin
c. Reticular fibers
d. Elastin fibers

4. The visual area of the brain is in the:

a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Temporal lobe

5. The second largest brain region is the:

a. Pons
b. Midbrain
c. Cerebrum
d. Cerebellum

6. The target organ of prolactin is the:

a. Mammary gland
b. Adrenal gland
c. Ovaries
d. Testes

7. Anatomical location of the adrenal glands is on the top of the:

a. Pancreas
b. Kidney
c. Liver
d. Thyroid gland

8. The endocrine portion of the pancreas is called:

a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
 c. Islet of Langerhans
d. Delta cells

9. The concepts common to nursing that appear in each of the current conceptual
models are:
a. Person, Environment, Psychology, and Nursing
b. Person, Nursing, Environment, and Medicine
c. Person, Health, Nursing, and Support system
d. Person, Environment, Health, and Nursing

[Link] provides laws that covered the people’s life including the medical practices
during the Babylonian civilization:
a. Code of Hammurabi
b. Sushruta’s writings
c. Materia Medica
d. Caduceus

AVERAGE

1. The lymphatic system is involved in:

a. Transport of oxygen and nutrients
b. Destroying pathogens that enters the body
c. Regulating body functions through hormonal influence
d. Barrier to pathogens and chemicals

2. The stem cell that give rise to the blood cells are:
a. Epithelial stem cell
b. Hematopoietic stem cell
c. Endothelial stem cell
d. Mesenchymal stem cell

3. In the normal anatomy, adult spinal cord ends at the level of:
a. L4
b. L5
c. L2
d. L1

4. The medulla oblongata is:

a. The most superior portion of the brainstem
b. The center for all central reflexes
c. Regulator for cardiac and respiratory functions
d. The exit for cranial nerves 7 to 8

5. The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland stored which of the following hormone?
a. Oxytocin
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Thyroid stimulating hormone
d. Glucocorticoids
 6. Glucagon increases blood glucose level by:
a. Increasing glycogen production
b. Increasing glucose breakdown
c. Increasing glycogen breakdown
d. Glycogenesis

7. All chemical and physical reactions that takes place in the body is called:
a. Homeostasis
b. Metabolism
c. Anabolism
d. Hydrostatic pressure

8. The major parts of the cell are the following except:

a. Cell membrane
b. Nucleus
c. Cytoplasm
d. Ribosomes

9. The nurse takes the patient’s advocate role when he/she:

a. Works with the significant others
b. Defends the rights of the patient
c. Refers the patient to other services
d. Intercedes on behalf of the patient

10. A nursing theory is a set of concepts, definitions, relationships, and

assumptions that:
a. Reflect the domain of nursing practice
b. Measure nursing functions
c. Formulate course of actions
d. Explain nursing situations

DIFFICULT

1. In physiology, the endocrine system is involved in:

a. Transport of oxygen and nutrients
b. Destroying pathogens that enters the body
c. Regulating body functions through hormonal influence
d. Serving as barrier to pathogens and chemicals

2. Communication of impulses between the different regions of the body is

facilitated by:
a. Muscle tissue
b. Cardiac tissue
c. Nervous tissue
d. Skeletal tissue

3. Which of the following is the reason why our hair does not have sensation?
 a. The hair structure is superficial
b. The new cells are not deposited in the hair bulb
c. The external hair is entirely dead and composed of keratin
d. It is influence by keratinization

4. Which spinal nerve group is not matched with its correct number of pairs?
a. Cervical 7-8
b. Thoracic 5
c. Lumbar 5
d. Sacral 12

5. 11th cranial nerve provides motor function to the:

a. Salivary glands
b. Neck and upper back muscles
c. Pharynx
d. Mouth for chewing

6. The two lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the structure called:
a. Cricoid cartilage
b. Isthmus
c. Thyroid artery
d. Inferior thyroid artery

7. The hormonal regulation of the endocrine system is not influenced by:

a. Hypothalamus
b. Thalamus
c. Pituitary gland
d. Other endocrine glands

8. Theory-based nursing practice uses a theoretical approach for nursing care.

This approach moves nursing forward as a science. This suggest that:
a. Scientists will decide nursing decisions
b. One theory will guide nursing practice
c. Theories will be tested to describe or predict patient’s outcomes
d. Nursing will base patient care on the practice of other sciences and
disciplines

9. A classification of nursing theory based on the level of abstraction that have a

narrower scope and focuses on the specific patient population at a specific time
are:
a. Nursing philosophies
b. Grand nursing theories
c. Middle-range nursing theories
d. Practice-level nursing theories
 10. Which of the following theories is NOT an example of need-based theory
according to Meleis classifications?
a. Henderson’s theory
b. Abdella’s theory
c. Peplau’s theory
d. Orem’s theory

Tie breaking Questions

1. The scientific study of the functions of the human body is:

a. Anatomy
b. Physiology
c. Gross anatomy
d. Gross physiology

2. Chromosomes are made up of DNA and:

a. Glucose
b. Proteins
c. Phospholipids
d. Nucleic acids

3. Accessory structures of the integumentary system do not include:

a. hair
b. nails
c. skin
d. sebaceous glands

4. In anatomical terms, inguinal refers to:

a. Liver
b. Hips
c. Buttocks
d. Groin

5. Urinary bladder can be found in which of the following cavity?

a. Pelvic cavity
b. Abdominal cavity
c. Thoracic cavity
d. Pleural cavity

6. Mata Hari helped the wounded soldiers during World War 1 for both the
English and Russian troops. The real name of Mata Hari is:
a. Clara Barton
b. Edith Cavell
c. Dorothea Dix
d. Caroline Halstead

7. Which classification of nursing theories according to Alligood are considered to

be precise and can answer specific nursing practice questions?
a. Nursing Philosophy
 b. Nursing Conceptual Model
c. Grand Nursing Theory
d. Middle-range Nursing Theory

LEVEL 2
EASY

1. Which of the following organ is considered as the main route for drug excretion?
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Lungs
d. Skin

2. Drugs that are administered by oral respiratory route for systemic effects are
called:
a. Inhalations
b. Emulsions
c. Liniments
d. Paste

3. The following parenteral routes of administration produces a systemic effect

except:
a. Intradermal
b. Sub-cutaneous
c. Intramuscular
d. Intravenous

4. In the reproductive system, the male organ for copulation is:

a. Scrotum
b. Penis
c. Vas deferens
d. Duct secreting fluids

5. Abnormality in the normal secretion of bile by the liver can result to:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Jaundice
c. Atrophy of the testes
d. Bleeding

6. The difference between the systolic pressure and the diastolic pressure is:
a. Apical rate
b. Cardiac rate
c. Pulse deficit
d. Pulse pressure

7. Respiratory rate of 25 cycle per minute among adults is:

a. Pyrexia
 b. Tachypnea
c. Bradypnea
d. Bradycardia

8. The main organ for copulation:

a. Fallopian tubes
b. Ovaries
c. Uterus
d. Vagina
9. The phase of MCN that focuses on educating clients to be aware of good health
is:
a. Health promotion
b. Health maintenance
c. Health rehabilitation
d. None of the above

10. Which is the primary goal of community health nursing?

a. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families, and communities to cope
with their health needs
b. To increase the productivity of the people by providing them with services
that will increase their level of health
c. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical profession in the
promotion of health and prevention of illness
d. To contribute to national development through promotion of family welfare,
focusing particularly on mothers and children

Average
1. It refers to the time for the drug to reach the minimum effective concentration
after being administered.
a. Duration
b. Peak of action
c. Onset of action
d. Dose response

2. The process of drug movement to achieve drug action is:

a. Pharmaceutic
b. Disintegration
c. Pharmacokinetic
d. Distribution

3. Adrenergic antagonist drugs are also called:

a. Adrenergic blockers
b. Adrenergic stimulators
c. Beta adrenergic stimulators
d. Sympathomimetic drugs

4. This is the ability of the muscle to return to its original strength after being
stretched.
 a. Elasticity
b. Contractility
c. Extensibility
d. Excitability

5. When pyloric sphincter contracts, it prevents the backup of food from the
duodenum to the:
a. Esophagus
b. Stomach
c. Small intestine
d. Mouth

6. What factor contributes to the effectiveness of care to your clients as a Rural

Health Nurse?
a. Expertise in health education
b. Knowledge of the objectives of health programs
c. Interpersonal relationship with key officials
d. Respect of customs, beliefs, and values of the clients

7. One important function and responsibility of the Regional Training Nurse is:
a. Organizing fieldtrips to tertiary hospitals
b. Evaluating the credentials of applicants
c. Assessing the needs of nurses and midwives
d. Designing training program for nurses and midwives

8. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of indigenous technology.

Which medicinal herb is given for fever, headache and cough?
a. Lagundi
b. Akapulko
c. Sambong
d. Tsaang gubat

9. Which phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by a surge in Luteinizing

Hormone (LH) from the pituitary gland?
a. Ischemic Phase
b. Secretory Phase
c. Proliferative Phase
d. Menstruation Phase

10. During application of medication into the ear, which of the following is
inappropriate nursing action?
a. In an adult, pull the pina upward
b. Warm the medication at room or body temperature
c. Instill medication directly into the tympanic membrane
d. Press the tragus of the ear a few times to assist flow of medication into the
ear canal
Difficult

1. In pharmacology, drug distribution is influence by the following except:

a. Blood flow
b. Protein binding effect
c. Weight of the person taking the drug
d. Drug concentration in the body

2. As adrenergic agonist drug. Epinephrine is indicated in the following condition

except:
a. Management of hypertension
b. Treatment of upper airway obstruction
c. Management of cardiac arrest
d. Maintenance of heart rate and blood pressure

3. Therapeutic effect of dopamine can result to:

a. Improve cardiac output
b. Decrease blood pressure
c. Decrease renal blood flow
d. Peripheral vasoconstriction

4. The part of the brain that regulates the heart rate and blood pressure is the:
a. Cerebrum
b. Hypothalamus
c. Cerebellum
d. Medulla

5. Which of the following is not a parasympathetic response?

a. Decrease peristalsis
b. Constriction of the pupils
c. Contraction of the urinary bladder
d. Increased secretion of the saliva

6. Urea as one of the nitrogenous waste products of the urine is a byproduct of:
a. Amino acid metabolism
b. Carbohydrate metabolism
c. Muscle metabolism
d. Fat metabolism

7. Which the following is inappropriate nursing action when performing genital

care to a male client?
a. Wear clean gloves
b. Use moist washcloth with soap
c. Retract prepuce if uncircumcised
d. Use circular motion from the penile shaft towards the glans penis

8. When turning a client to the side, which of the following is NOT appropriate
nursing action?
a. Turn the client away from you with your back bent
b. Move the client to one side of the bed before turning
 c. Untuck the top sheet at the foot part of the bed to facilitate change of
position
d. Turn the client towards you with your hips, knees, and ankles flexed and
feet apart

9. You work as a Community Health Nurse. Which of the following is your general
duty as a Community Health Nurse?
a. Establishes rapport with clients
b. Communicates to the health team
c. Coordinates with the Municipal Health Officer
d. Provides nursing care to the community members

10. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of public health nursing is

based on which of the following?
a. The worth and dignity of man
b. Health and longevity as birthrights
c. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing
d. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of its citizens

Tie breaking questions

1. The nurse is doing health teaching to the client while on diuretic therapy, which
of the following statement by the nurse needs further instruction?
a. Take drug even when feeling well
b. The best time to take the drug is in the morning
c. Weight the patient every day to assess fluid status
d. Report to the doctor if dizziness is experience.

2. The following are the hormones of the adrenal cortex except:

a. Epinephrine
b. Mineralocorticoids
c. Glucocorticoids
d. Sex hormones

LEVEL 3
EASY
1. The normal value of potassium is around:
a. 1.5-2.5 mEq/L
b. 3.5-5mEq/L
c. 8-10mg/dl
d. 135-145mg/dl

2. The average daily fluid intake for a normal adult is usually:

a. 1, 500 ml
 b. 3, 000 ml
c. 2, 500 ml
d. 250 ml

3. The fluids contain with in the arteries and veins as well as in the capillaries is
called:
a. Interstitial fluids
b. Intravascular fluids
c. Extracellular fluids
d. Intracellular fluids

4. Which of the following controllable risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD)
appears most closely linked to the development of the disease?
a. Age
b. Medication usage
c. High cholesterol levels
d. Gender

5. Acute pulmonary edema cause by heart failure is usually a result of damage to

which of the following areas of the heart?
a. Left atrium
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle

6. Which of the following is the most common symptoms of myocardial infarction?

a. Chest pain
b. Dyspnea
c. Edema
d. Palpitations

7. Which of the following reflect the normal growth and developmental pattern of
an infant regarding weight gain?
a. weight is doubled by 1 year and tripled by 6 months
b. weight is doubled by 6 months and tripled by 1 year
c. weight is consistently increase by 2 lbs. every month
d. it varies according to the infant’s weight at birth

8. According to Erik Erikson, autonomy is an important milestone in the

developmental period of:
a. infancy
b. toddler
c. school age
d. preschool

9. Which of these scientific processes is used by the nurse wherein biological and
sociological sciences are utilized to obtain community resources?
a. Nursing program
b. Nursing process
c. Nursing management
 d. Nursing networking

10. The most common site for ectopic pregnancy is:

a. Isthmus
b. Fimbria
c. Ampulla
d. Interstitial

AVERAGE

1. A male client with a history of pulmonary edema and left sided heart failure
comes to the clinic for his regular visit. The nurse noticed that the patient is 12
pounds heavier than is usual weight. The nurse interprets that the most likely
cause of this sudden weight gain is:
a. renal insufficiency
b. urinary retention
c. fluid retention
d. abdominal distention

2. Which of the following statement is true regarding hypovolemic shock?

a. Decrease pumping action of the heart resulting to nutrients and O2
deprivation
b. Low circulating blood volume resulting to 02 and nutrients deprivation
c. Allergen’s reaction that causes excessive vasodilation
d. Immediate response of the autonomic nervous system resulting to
deprivation of o2 and nutrients

3. In the following conditions, which of these will most likely leads to cardiogenic
shock?
a. Excessive blood loss
b. Left sided congestive heart failure
c. Exposure to histamine related substances?
d. Vasomotor depression

4. When monitoring for hyponatremia, the nurse should assess the client for:
a. Dry skin
b. Confusion
c. Tachycardia
d. Pale coloring

5. A client is scheduled for cardiac catheterization using a radio opaque dye.

Which of the following assessment is most critical before the procedure?
a. intake and output
b. baseline peripheral pulses
c. height and weight
d. allergy to iodine or shellfish

6. The nurse admitting a client with coronary artery disease to ICU understands
that the pain the client is experiencing is a result of:
 a. Compression of the heart muscle
b. Inadequate perfusion of the myocardium
c. Release of myocardial isoenzymes
d. Rapid vasodilation of the coronary arteries

7. The nurse receives emergency laboratory for a client with chest pain and
immediately informs the physician. An increased CK-MB level may suggest
which of the following?
a. Cancer
b. Hypertension
c. Liver disease
d. Myocardial damage

8. In the normal growth and development pattern, the following characteristics

belong to the period of infancy except:
a. the most rapid period of growth and development
b. period of attachment is being formed
c. period to develop a trusting relationship
d. independence is of great importance

9. A client at her first visit to the prenatal clinic states that she has missed three
menstrual periods and thinks she is carrying twins because her abdomen is so
large, but has started to have a brownish vaginal discharge. Her blood pressure
is elevated, indicating that she may have gestational hypertension. The nurse
must perform a further assessment because the client may have:
a. Renal failure
b. Placenta previa
c. Hydatidiform mole
d. Abruptio placentae

[Link] nurse is aware that placenta previa occurs when:

a. There is premature separation of a normally implanted placenta
b. The placenta is not implanted securely in place on the uterine wall
c. There is premature aging of a placenta implanted in the uterine fundus
d. The placenta is implanted in the lower uterine segment, covering part or all
of the cervical os

DIFFICULT

1. If the patient is taking loop diuretic on long term basis, he/ she is prone to
develop which of the following electrolyte imbalances?
a. Hypokalemia, hypernatremia
b. Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia
c. Hypokalemia, hyponatremia
d. Hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, hypocalcemia

2. The ABG result of your newly admitted clients as follows: ph 7:31, PCO2 41,
HCO3 14. The nurse interprets this as:
a. respiratory acidosis
 b. metabolic acidosis
c. respiratory alkalosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

3. A patient with a history of liver cirrhosis and ascites is admitted for

paracentesis. After the procedure, it very important for the nurse to observe for?
a. Hypotension
b. Increase in body temperature
c. Decrease peristalsis
d. Slow radial pulse but palpable

4. A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients, in review of the client’s

medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for a fluid
volume excess?
a. The client who is taking diuretic
b. The client who is taking corticosteroids
c. The client with renal failure
d. The client on NPO

5. A client returns from a cardiac catheterization with a pressure dressing over the
left groin. The client is to be flat in bed for 6 hours with the leg straight. These
measures are important to prevent:
a. Orthostatic hypotension
b. Bleeding at the arterial puncture site
c. Headache and disorientation
d. Infiltration of radiopaque dye into the tissue

6. A client has had a ventricular demand pacemaker inserted. The priority nursing
intervention immediately after the pacemaker insertion would be:
a. Encourage fluids
b. Monitor the heart rate and rhythm
c. Assess the implant site
d. Encourage turning and deep breathing

7. Which of the following factors can cause blood pressure to drop to normal
levels?
a. Kidney’s excretion of sodium only
b. Kidneys retention of sodium and water
c. Kidneys excretion of sodium and water
d. Kidneys retention of sodium and excretion of water
8. An infant undergo surgery to remove myelomeningocele. To detect the
complication of increased ICP, the nurse should stay alert for which of the
following post op finding?
a. decrease urine output
b. increased heart rate
c. bulging fontanels
d. sunken eyeballs

9. The nursing action that has the highest priority for a client with class I heart
disease during the postpartum period should be:
 a. Promotion of aggressive ambulation
b. Observation for signs of cardiac decompression
c. Assessment of the mother's reaction to the birth
d. Advise on the activity levels during the postpartum period

10.A client with a history of rheumatic fever and class I cardiac disease is admitted
to the labor suite in active labor. Proper positioning for this client would be:
a. Supine; high-Fowler's position
b. Supine; semi-Fowler's position
c. Left lateral; semi-Fowler's position
d. Lying on the right side; head elevated 30 degrees

Tie breaking questions

1. The following are considered electrolyte except:

a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Urea

2. Which of the following condition is most commonly responsible for myocardial

infarction?
a. Aneurysm
b. Heart failure
c. Coronary artery thrombosis
d. Renal failure

3. Which of the following position would best aid breathing for a client with
pulmonary edema?
a. Lying flat on bed
b. Left side lying
c. High fowler’s position
d. Semi fowlers position

4. In administration of albumin intravenously, the nurse knows that fluid shift

due to which of the following reasons?
a. Interstitial compartment moves to extracellular compartment
b. Increase colloid osmotic pressure
c. ECF fluids moves to intracellular compartment
d. Decrease hydrostatic pressure

5. Which of the following classes of medication should be avoided in increasing

myocardial force of contraction in a client with heart failure?
a. Beta adrenergic blockers
b. Cardiac Glycosides
c. Diuretics
d. Inotropic agents
 LEVEL IV

Easy

1. A client has a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Clinical manifestations

associated with a diagnosis include all of the following except:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Ketonuria
d. Polyphagia

2. Nurse Trisha teaches a client with heart failure to take oral Furosemide in the
morning. The reason for this is to help:
a. Retard rapid drug absorption
b. Excrete excessive fluids accumulated at night
c. Prevents sleep disturbances during night
d. Prevention of electrolyte imbalance

3. Hypersecretion of which of the following hormones would cause pituitary

gigantism?
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Growth hormone
c. Parathyroid hormone
d. Thyroid stimulating hormone

4. Which of the following is the primary function of the hormone prolactin?

a. it directly affects the function of the other glands of the endocrine system
b. it stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroxine
c. it enables the adrenal glands to release glucocorticoids
d. stimulates the release of milk during lactation

5. Which of the following medications is the drug of choice for chest pain of
suspected myocardial infarction?
a. Morphine Sulfate
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Nifedifine (Procardia)

6. In which of the following positions should the nurse place a client with heart
cardiac tamponade who has orthopnea?
a. Semi-sitting (low Fowler's position) with legs elevated on pillows.
b. Lying on the right side (Sims' position) with a pillow between the legs.
c. Sitting upright (high Fowler's position) with legs resting on the mattress.
d. Lying on the back with the head lowered (Trendelenburg position) and legs
elevated

7. Which of the following mechanisms is believed to cause gout?

a. Overproduction of calcium
b. Underproduction of calcium
c. Overproduction of uric acid
 d. Underproduction of uric acid

8. Which of the following conditions is the primary complication of osteoporosis?

a. Pain
b. Fractures
c. Hardening of the bones
d. Increased bone matrix and demineralization

9. Community involvement is not only cleaning surroundings and toilet

construction but also sharing responsibilities and participation in one of the
following:
a. Meeting with barangay officials
b. Social work about livelihood
c. Problem-solving seminars
d. Defining health needs

10. When the client describes fear of leaving his apartment as well as the desire to
get out and meet others, the client is exhibiting:
a. Ambivalence
b. Anhedonia
c. Alogia
d. Avoidance

Average

1. A nurse is caring for a client with hemiplegia who is frustrated. How can the
nurse motivate the client toward independence?
a. Establish long-range goals for the client.
b. Identify errors that the client can correct.
c. Reinforce success in tasks accomplished.
d. Demonstrate ways to promote self-reliance.

2. Risk factors for the development of hiatal hernias are those that lead to
increased abdominal pressure. Which of the following complications can cause
increased abdominal pressure?
a. Obesity
b. Volvulus
c. Constipation
d. Intestinal obstruction

3. Which of the following dietary measures would be useful in preventing

esophageal reflux?
a. Eating small, frequent meals
b. Increasing fluid intake
c. Avoiding air swallowing with meals
d. Adding a bedtime snack to the dietary plan

4. Dr. Marquez orders a continuous intravenous nitroglycerin infusion for the

client suffering from myocardial infarction. Which of the following is the most
essential nursing action?
 a. Monitoring urine output frequently
b. Monitoring blood pressure every 4 hours
c. Obtaining serum potassium levels daily
d. Obtaining infusion pump for the medication

5. Nurse Liza is assigned to care for a client who has returned to the nursing unit
after left nephrectomy. Nurse Liza’s highest priority would be…
a. Hourly urine output
b. Temperature
c. Able to turn side to side
d. Able to sips clear liquid.

6. Which of the following signs and symptoms possess a greatest danger to the
client with Meniere’s disease?
a. Sensorineural hearing loss
b. Severe vertigo
c. Tinnitus
d. Loss of appetite

7. A client admitted with a neurological problem indicates to the nurse that

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be done. The nurse interprets that the
client may be ineligible for the diagnostic procedure based on the client’s
history of:
a. hypertension
b. heart failure
c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder
d. pacemaker

8. An unconscious client with suspected Guillane Barre Syndrome is receiving

mechanical ventilation. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority?
a. ineffective airway clearance related to inability to expectorate
b. risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility
c. imbalance nutrition less than body requirement related to dysphagia
d. Self-care deficit related to unconsciousness

9. Despite repeated nursing interventions to improve reality orientation, a client

insists that he is the commander of an alien spaceship. What is this adaptation
known as?
a. Illusion
b. Delusion
c. Hallucination
d. Confabulation

10.A client who has been admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia says to the
nurse, "Yes, it's March. March is Little Women. That's literal you know." These
statements illustrate:
a. Echolalia
b. Neologisms
c. Flight of ideas
d. Looseness of associations
Difficult

1. A client has an anaphylactic reaction after receiving intravenous penicillin.

What does the nurse conclude is the cause of this reaction?
a. An acquired atopic sensitization occurred.
b. There was passive immunity to the penicillin allergen.
c. Antibodies to penicillin developed after a previous exposure.
d. Potent antibodies were produced when the infusion was instituted.

2. A client with coronary artery disease has a sudden episode of cyanosis and a
change in respirations. The nurse starts oxygen administration immediately.
Legally, should the nurse have administered the oxygen?
a. The oxygen had not been ordered and therefore should not have been
administered.
b. The symptoms were too vague for the nurse to determine a need for
administering oxygen.
c. The nurse’s observations were sufficient, and therefore oxygen should have
been administered.
d. The health care provider should have been called for an order before the
nurse administered the oxygen.

3. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following gastrectomy.

Which measure will the nurse instruct the client to follow to assist in preventing
dumping syndrome?
a. Eat high-carbohydrate foods
b. Limit the fluids taken with meals
c. Ambulate following a meal
d. Sit in a High-Fowler’s position during meals

4. A client has been taking aluminum hydroxide 30 mL six times per day at home
to treat his peptic ulcer. He tells the nurse that he has been unable to have a
bowel movement for 3 days. Based on this information, the nurse would
determine that which of the following is the most likely cause of the client’s
constipation?
a. The client has not been including enough fiber in his diet
b. The client needs to increase his daily exercise
c. The client is experiencing a side effect of the aluminum hydroxide.
d. The client has developed a gastrointestinal obstruction.

5. Patrick who is hospitalized following a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why
he is taking morphine. The nurse explains that morphine:
a. Decrease anxiety and restlessness
b. Prevents shock and relieves pain
c. Dilates coronary blood vessels
d. Helps prevent fibrillation of the heart
 6. The nurse is taking care of a client with pulmonary edema due to left sided
heart failure. What would be the primary goal of therapy by the nurse for this
type of client?
a. Enhance comfort
b. Increase cardiac output
c. Improve respiratory status
d. Peripheral edema decreased

7. A male client with a history of cirrhosis and alcoholism is admitted with severe
dyspnea resulted to ascites. The nurse should be aware that the ascites is most
likely the result of:
a. Decrease pressure in the portal vein
b. Decrease production of serum albumin
c. Secretion of bile salts
d. Increase interstitial osmotic pressure

8. To encourage community participation, which of the following should a nurse

do?
a. Encourage sponsorship to programs
b. Listen when people relate their problems
c. Refer to the doctor for drug prescriptions
d. Invite people from different civic organizations

9. A young woman, who is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of

schizophrenia, is actively hallucinating and delusional. When planning care, the
nurse should be aware that hallucinations are:
a. Upsetting to the client
b. Usually triggered by unknown factors
c. Misinterpretations of environmental stimuli
d. Generally related to the client's thought processes

10.A nursing approach that may be helpful when planning the care of clients
diagnosed with schizophrenia of the paranoid type is:
a. Exploring prominent life events
b. Limiting exploration to recent situations
c. Providing a nonthreatening environment
d. Exploring the content of their delusions

Tie breaking questions

1. A nurse is teaching the client how to use the call bell system. Which level of
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs does this nursing action address?
a. Safety
b. Self-esteem
c. Physiologic
d. Interpersonal
 2. In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, (COPD) the term “pink puffer” refers
to the client with which of the following conditions?
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema

3. A client using fentanyl (Duragesic) transdermal patches for pain management in

late-stage cancer dies. What should the hospice nurse who is caring for this
client do about the patch?
a. Tell the family to remove and dispose of the patch.
b. Leave the patch in place for the mortician to remove.
c. Have the family return the patch to the pharmacy for disposal.
d. Remove and dispose of the patch in an appropriate receptacle.

4. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the
client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:
a. 2-4 hours after administration
b. 6-14 hours after administration
c. 16-18 hours after administration
d. 18-24 hours after administration

5. Which of the following assessment findings would help confirm a diagnosis of

asthma in a client suspected of having the disorder?
a. Circumoral cyanosis
b. Increased forced expiratory volume
c. Expiratory wheezing
d. Normal breath sounds

6. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the ER with DKA. In the acute phase
the priority nursing action is to prepare to:
a. Administer regular insulin intravenously
b. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously
c. Correct the acidosis
d. Apply an electrocardiogram monitor.

7. Nurse Rachel teaches a client who has been recently diagnosed with hepatitis A
about untoward signs and symptoms related to Hepatitis that may develop. The
one that should be reported immediately to the physician is:
a. Restlessness
b. Yellow urine
c. Nausea
d. Clay- colored stools
8. To deal with a client's hallucinations therapeutically, the nurse plans to:
a. Reinforce the perceptual distortions until the client develops new defenses
b. Provide an unstructured environment and assign the client to a private room
c. Avoid helping the client make connections between anxiety-producing
situations and hallucinations
 d. Distract the client's attention by providing a competing stimulus that is
stronger than hallucinations