Assistant Director, Town Planning

Total Number of questions : 100; Tick the right option

Each question carries one mark
Time : 1 hour

Section A: General Awareness

1. Total Tally of Medals won by India in Summer London Olympics-2012 was :

a. four
b. five
c. three
d. six

2. Which of the following films from India was nominated for Academy Awards under the
category of Foreign Language films?

a. Barfi
b. Lagan
c. Rang de Basanti
d. Devdas

3. Which of the following classical dance forms is most popular in Kerala ?

a. Kathak
b. Bharat Natyam
c. Odisi
d. Kathakali

4. Which of the following books has been authored by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad ?

a. Discovery of India
b. India Wins Freedom
c. The Story of My Experiments with Truth
d. Ideas of a Nation

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5. The Great Tohuku Disaster in March 2011 off the Pacific Coast of Japan was caused by :

a. accidental nuclear explosion

b. tornado
c. earthquake under the sea near by
d. cyclone
.
6. Last Governor General of India was :

a. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

b. Viscount Mountbatten
c. C. Rajagopalachari
d. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

7. The equator passes through :

a. Sri Lanka
b. Indonesia
c. India
d. Laos

8. Number of cities in India, with population of one crore or more (2011 census) is:

a. five
b. four
c. three
d. two

9. Under RTI Act, 2005 the committee which recommends names for appointment of
Chief Information Commissioner includes:

a. Chief Justice of India

b. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
c. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
d. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

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10. If a person is aggrieved by a decision of central or state public information officer, the
aggrieved person can file an appeal to a senior officer of the public authority under
section 19 of the RTI Act, within :

a. ninety days
b. sixty days
c. thirty days
d. seven days

11. Dalton's Atomic Theory has been challenged by :

a. General Theory of Relativity

b. Theory of Sub-atomic (nuclear) Particles
c. Theory of Uncertainty
d. Quantum Theory

12. Archimedes' Principle can be used in :

a. Finding specific gravity of certain solids

b. Generating electricity from thermal power plants
c. Finding velocity of light
d. Explaining chemical reactions

13. Scientific Methods are based on :

a. study of cause and effects relationship

b. reasoning
c. conducting experiments
d. all of above

14. Developing scientific temper is enshrined in the Constitution of India :

a. as a fundamental right
b. as a directive principle of state
c. as a fundamental duty
b. as a human right

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15. Epidemics can be prevented by :

a. vaccination
b. providing potable water
c. scientific disposal of wastes
d. by all of above

16. HIV is caused by :

a. bacteria
b. virus
c. mosquitoes
d. worms

17. Which fuel was used in first stage of satellite launch vehicles (SLVs) in India?

a. CNG
b. refined petrol
c. aviation fuel
d. solid fuels

[Link] House Gases Effects are produced by

a. water vapour and clouds

b. Burning fossil fuels
c. Vehicular emissions
d. above all

19. Which, amongst the following, is the tallest ?

a. Taipei 101 in Taipei

b. Petronas Twin Tower in Kuala Lumpur
c. Khalifa Burg in Dubai
d. Eiffel Tower in Paris

20. Organic farming includes:

a. scientific use of chemical fertilizers

b. spraying chemicas by air
c. ripening of fruits by scientific use of chemicals
d. none of above

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21. Female Sex Ratio (Number of females per 1000 males) in India as per Census 2011 is
nearest to :

a. 920
b. 940
c. 960
d. 980

22. Punishment for violation of certain provisions in The Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education Act 2009 stipulates :

a. Imposition of Fine
b. Simple Imprisonment.
c. Rigorous Imprisonment
d. both- imposition of fine and simple imprisonment

23. President of the United States of America (USA) holds office for a period of :

a. six years
b. five years
c. four years
d. three years

24. During hundred years (1901- 2000) rise in sea level around the world was closest to :

a. 10 inches
b. 20 inches
c. 30 inches
d. 40 inches

25. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) generated per day in Municipal Corporation of Greater
Mumbai (MCGM) is closest to :

a. 4,000 MT
b. 6,000 MT
c. 8,000 MT
d. 10,000 MT

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 Section B: Planning

Theoretical Aspects of Planning

26. Spatial model of urban land use planning, where a city grows from several nodes
rather than from one nucleus is called:

a. Sector
b. Multi Nuclei
c. Ribbon Development
d. Concentric Zone

27. Which of the following is the method of Demographic Projections?

a. Cohort Component
b. Exponential Growth
c. Logistic Growth
d. All the above

28. The Neighbourhood Unit Theory in urban planning was conceptualized by:

a. C.A. Perry
b. Homer Hoyt
c. Patrick Geddas
d. Von Thunen

29. Sampling method in which a homogenous listing is done for different groups of
population and then collecting a certain percentage of samples from each group is called:

a. Simple Random Sampling

b. Stratified Sampling
c. Cluster Sampling
d. Systematic Sampling

30. Which of the following states has the highest number of persons in urban area?

a. Tamil Nadu
b. Kerala
c. Maharashtra
d. Uttar Pradesh

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31. The urban growth theory which states that development takes place along the routes
on which the movement is concentrated is called :

a. Circular
b. Sector
c. Nucleus
d. Axial

32. Which district in Maharashtra has experienced highest urban growth rate during
2001-11?

a. Thane
b. Raigarh
c. Nandurbar
d. Gadchiroli

33. Central Act on effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental
protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of
any legal right has the title of :

a. The Mines Act, 1952

b. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
c. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010
d. Industrial Development and Regulation Act, 1951

Regional Plan

34. Methodological framework to identify regional units and analyse their spatial
structure systematically is called as:

a. Polarisation
b. Regionalisation
c. Functionalisation
d. Formalisation

35. Population of a city grew from 1,05,000 to 1,55,000 in ten years. The annual rate of
growth of population is:

a. 3.4%
b. 4.0%
c. 34%
d. 40%

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36. According to the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act (MR&TP), 1966 for
hearing the suggestions and objections received on draft Regional Plan, the “Regional
Board” appoints:

a. Metropolitan Planning Committee

b. Regional Planning Committee
c. Area Planning Task Force
d. Tribunal of Appeal

37. A statutorily demarcated zone for manufacture of goods or rendering services or for
both or as a Free Trade and Warehousing Zone is known as:

a. Eco-sensitive Zone
b. Ecological Zone
c. Special Economic Zone
d. Special Transition Zone

38. In Maharashtra, the total built-up area for low cost housing which is to be handed over
to State Government in lieu of various concessions provided for ‘Special Township
Projects’ has recently been revised:

a. From 15% to 20%

b. From 10% to 20%
c. From 15% to 25%
d. From 10% to 25%

39. A Regional Planning Authority may undertake “development” through:

a. Land Acquisition
b. Land Pooling
c. Transfer of Development Right
d. All the above

40. Functions of a Metropolitan Planning Committee DO NOT include :

a. Integration of rural and urban area planning

b. Integration of spatial and sector planning
c. Optimal utilization of investment in the area
d. assignment of taxes to ULBs in metropolitan area

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Development Plans

41. A town with a population of 60,000 has an average household size of 5. The number of
occupied dwelling units is 10,500 out of which 10% is dilapidated. The present housing
shortage is:

a. 2550
b. 1500
c. 1405
d. 2600

42. Under MR&TP Act, to initiate the process of preparation of development plan, the
Planning Authority has to:

a. Delineate the proposed area

b. Make a declaration of its intention
c. Submit the proposal to State Government
d. invite suggestions / objections to the proposal

43. Rajiv Awas Yojana of the Central Government addresses housing need of :

a. MIG
b. LIG
c. Government Employees
d. Slums Dwellers

44. GRIHA is rating for green buildings given by:

a. Development Alternatives
b. Bureau of Energy Efficiency
c. The Energy and Resources Institute
d. Institute of Renewable Energy

45. If any modification needs to be carried out after publication of a Development Plan,
the Planning Authority:

a. Submits proposed modification to State Government

b. Submits proposed modification to TCPO of Central Government
c. submits proposed modification to Director, Town Planning in the state
d. Cannot make modification after publication of Development Plan

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46. A plot of Land has been reserved/allotted in the development plan. A period of 10
years has lapsed since such allotment/reservation without land having been acquired. In
such a case (u/s 127, MR&TP Act) which of the following in correct:

a. Land gets automatically de - reserved

b. Owner has to serve notice to planning authority
c. Owner may straight away construct a house on the land
d. None of the above

47. A neighbourhood with a total area of 300 hectares has been planned for a gross
density of 300 pph. If the residential area is 60% of the total area, then net density of the
neighbourhood will be:

a. 200 pph
b. 450 pph
c. 500 pph
d. 650 pph

48. A Planning Authority can directly receive funds for implementation of Development
Plan through :

a. Loan from Multilateral Agencies

b. Loan from Bilateral Agencies
c. Grant/loan from Government
d. All the above

49. ‘Desires Lines’ are associated with:

a. Demand and Supply analysis in Economic Planning

b. Origin-Destination analysis in Transport Planning
c. Cut and Fill analysis in Landscape Planning
d. Income analysis in Financial Planning

50. The rationale for increasing public participation in planning process is to:

a. Promote transparency and accountability

b. Increase the efficiency of service delivery
c. Improve the quality of decision making
d. All the above

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Town Planning Schemes

51. Which of the following governs the implementation of the Town Planning Schemes in
Maharashtra?

a. Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act, 1966

b. Maharashtra Housing and Area Development Act, 1976
c. Maharashtra Municipality Act, 1985
d. Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act, 1949

52. In a Town Planning Scheme, if the size of the reconstituted plot is smaller than that of
the original plot, the compensation amount is reflected in the difference between:

a. Semi Final Value of plot and Final Value of plot

b. Original Value of plot and Final Value of plot
c. Original Value of plot and Semi Final Value of plot
d. None of the above

53. The Tribunal of Appeal set up for a Town Planning Scheme in Maharashtra comprise :
i. President ii. Arbitrator iii. Two Assessors iv. Representative of Planning Authority

a. i, ii and iii
b. i, and iii
c. i, ii, iv
d. i, ii, iii, iv

54. In Maharashtra, if the Planning Authority fails to submit the draft Town Planning
Scheme within the period specified:

a. State Government can appoint an Officer to prepare and submit the draft scheme
b. Planning Authority can apply for extension of time period.
c. Planning Authority can make fresh declaration for the same scheme after stipulated
time.
d. All the above

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55. As per section 99 of MR&TP Act, the contribution by the owner of a plot in meeting
the cost of Town Planning Scheme should :

a. Not exceed 50% of the increment estimated by the Arbitrator

b. Include the cost of plot reserved for public purpose
c. Include the cost of plot reserved for Planning Authority
d. All the above

56. If a contiguous area for which a Town Planning Scheme is to be prepared lies within
the jurisdiction of two separate Planning Authorities then :

a. State Government forms a Special Planning Authority for the scheme

b. Each Planning Authority makes its own scheme
c. Planning Authority where larger area falls is liable for making the scheme
d. Planning Authority which serves larger population is liable for making the scheme

57. In Maharashtra, under a Town Planning Scheme, the Original, Semi Final and Final
market values of plot is computed with reference to the value on the day when :

a. Final Scheme was submitted

b. Draft Scheme was submitted
c. Sanction was issued by the State Government
d. Intention to prepare scheme was declared

58. In Town Planning Scheme, the decision of Arbitrator is considered as final and has
binding on all parties in case of :

a. Demarcation of area for public purpose

b. Contribution to be levied on each final plot
c. Estimation of the amount of compensation payable
d. Exemption granted to religious organisation

Development Control

59. The per capita daily water requirement for a 200-bedded Hospital as per model
building bye laws, circulated by TCPO, Ministry of Urban Development is:

a. 135 liter
b. 450 liter
c. 500 liter
d. 200 liter

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60. As per the model building byelaws of TCPO, the maximum net density of dwelling
units per hectare for low income group (LIG) housing is up to :

a. 200
b. 350
c. 300
d. 150

61. As per MR&TP Act 1966, the land owned by Central Government is:

a. Exempted from paying the development charge

b. Partially exempted from paying the development charge
c. Liable to pay the minimum development charge
d. Liable to pay the stipulated development charge

62. If a person undertakes development without the requisite permission, the Planning
Authority may:

a. Serve notice for discontinuation of work

b. Ask to demolish unauthorized structure
c. Itself demolish unauthorized structure
d. All the above

63. The maximum permissible ground coverage allotted to a Foreign Mission for non
residential purpose as per model building bye-laws of TCPO is:

a. 33%
b. 25%
c. 35%
d. 50%

64. Land appurtenant to a building is used for a purpose independent of the building,
development charge may be levied:

a. Separately for the building and the land

b. same as for the building
c. same as for the appurtenant land
d. Only on the area on which building stands

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65. Any person aggrieved by the assessment of development charge levied by the
Planning Authority can ordinarily make an appeal (under 124G) before the expiry of : :

a. 60 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 90 days

Acts and Rules

66. As per the Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act 1949, NO permission from
the Municipal Commissioner is required to erect a sky-sign when :

a. It is illuminated
b. Any addition or alteration is made
c. It is re-erected on expiry of approved period
d. It relates to the trade carried within the building upon which it is erected

67. Who can set up an SEZ ?

a. Private Developer
b. PSU /State Government
c. Joint Sector Company
d. All the above

68. If land falling under the area of a Regional Plan is assessed under Maharashtra Land
and Revenue Code, the owner of the land has to seek approval for construction of any
structure on that land from:

a. Collector
b. Regional Planning Board
c. Municipal Corporation
d. No approval is required

69. According to the Special Economic Zones Act 2005, the minimum requirement of
contiguous land for a multi-product SEZ in North-Eastern States is:

a. 500 hectares
b. 200 hectares
c. 1000 hectares
d. 100 hectares

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70. As per Maharashtra Land Revenue Code the land revenue assessed by the Collector is
fixed for the maximum period of:

a. 99 years
b. 30 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years

71. Which one of the following is correct?

a. Panchayats receive funds for implementation of centrally sponsored schemes.

b. The enactment of the 73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act,1992 bestows
constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRI)s
c. Panchayats receive funds as local body grant as recommended by the Central and
state finance Commissions
d. All the Above

72. As per the Bombay Provincial Municipal Corporation Act 1949, permission is to be
obtained for which of the following:

a. Reconstruction of principal staircase or to alter its position

b. Repair and maintenance of the exterior wall
c. Construction of parapet of 1.5 m. or less in height
d. Reconstruction of portions damaged by natural calamity according to the earlier
specification

73. X mortgages a house of the value of Rs. 1,00,000 to Y for Rs. 50,000. Afterwards, Y
buys the house from X. Stamp duty is payable on sale deed is :

a. Rs. 1,00,000 less the amount of stamp duty already paid for the mortgage
b. Rs. 1,00,000
c. Rs 1,50,000
d. Rs 50,000

74. According to the MR&TP Act 1966, for developing a New Town on the area designated
in Regional Plan the New Area Development Authority can acquire any land:

a. Within the area designated as the site of the new town

b. Adjacent to the area designated for the new town
c. Whether adjacent to that area or not, but required for provision of amenities for the
new town
d. All the above

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75. Which of the following does NOT have the status of Planning Authority in
Maharashtra?

a. CIDCO
b. MIDC
c. Airports Authority of India
d. SRA

Section C: Valuation and Land Acquisition

Theoretical Aspects of Land Valuation

76. Estimate of the price that is likely to be obtained if a property were to be sold in the
market is termed as :

a. Cost
b. Value
c. Worth
d. None of the above

77. Valuation made under the provisions of enabling legislation and for the purposes and
requirements under which the valuation is to be made is termed as:

a. Statutory Valuation
b. Non statutory Valuation
c. Consent Valuation
d. Residual Valuation

78. The valuation of a property is done for the purposes of :

a. Acquisition
b. Sale/Purchase
c. Mortgage
d. All the above

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79. The highest estimated price that a buyer would pay and a seller would accept for a
property in an open and competitive market and where both the parties make informed
choices without compulsion is called :

a. Market Value
b. Lease Value
c. Speculated Value
d. Purchase Price

80. Which of the following characteristics results in high demand of a landed property :

a. Transferability
b. Marketability
c. Productivity
d. All the above

Valuation of Lands and Building

81. Appropriateness of the method of valuation depends on:

a. Purpose of valuation
b. Type of Property
c. Availability of relevant data
d. All the above

82. Which of the following methods of valuation is best suited for undeveloped land with
latent value after development :

a. Residual Method
b. Replacement cost approach
c. Belting Method
d. Cost Method

83. Which method of valuation assumes that the value of some properties will be related
to the profit or annual return which can be made from their use ?

a. Profit Method
b. Belting Method
c. Contractors Method
d. Comparative Method

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84. Which of the following factors need to be considered while adopting Comparative
Method of Valuation?

a. Property market is heterogeneous

b. It is volatile
c. Adequate Availability of details of recent transactions in the same area
d. All the above

85. Which method of valuation is generally used for those properties which are not
bought and sold in the market and valuation is done for technical or accounts purposes
only?

a. Residual Method
b. Developmental Method
c. Contractor's Method
d. Comparative Method

86. Belting method of valuation is generally practiced when:

a. The building is of public use and is not salable in the market

b. The plot size is big and has less frontage and more depth
c. Information available on transaction of properties in the same area is weak
d. When the real estate market is volatile

87. Best method suited to valuation for a Church, which is a specialized property, will be:

a. Development Method
b. Income Capitalization Method
c. Contractors Method
d. All the above

88. If the rate of interest is 10% per annum, future value of Rs. 100/- invested at present,
after two years, will be:

a. INR 120
b. INR 121
c. INR 122
d. INR 125

89. In case of leasehold property, the value of the lessee's interest in the property is:

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a. maximum at the beginning of the lease period
b. minimum at the beginning of the lease period
c. remains constant through out the period
d. maximum at the end of the lease period

90. The Development method of valuation is also called as :

a. Profit Method
b. Residual Method
c. Belting Method
d. Contractors Method

Rental Value and its Estimation

91. Indicator of estimated rental value of a property, which expresses the ratio between
gross scheduled income and its price, is called :

a. Gross Rent Multiplier

b. Capitalization Rate
c. Capital Asset Pricing
d. Ratable Value

92. Which of the following, in respect of a rented property, are considered as Landlord’s
outgoings ?

a. Repairs
b. Insurance
c. Rates and Taxes
d. All the above

93. The factors affecting the rental value of a property are:

a. Location
b. Age
c. Floor
d. All the above

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94. The sum which needs to be invested at the present time, at given rate of interest in
order to accumulate Rs 1 by the end of the given period of time” is termed as:

a. Present value of Rs 1/-

b. Remuneration Fund
c. Annual sinking fund
d. Outgoing Fund

95. A purchaser may view property transaction from the position of :

a. social and commercial benefits, if he / she prefers to use it

b. annual return from the investment made
c. selling at a higher price at a later date
d. all above

Acquisition of Land and Building

96. As per Land Acquisition Act 1894, which of the following is NOT taken into account
while computing compensation ?

a. Affected person compelled to change his residence or place of business

b. Urgency of acquisition
c. Loss of standing crop
d. Adverse effects on other properties of affected person

97. Within how many days of preliminary notification, affected persons can raise
objection to the land acquisition?

a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 180 days

98. In case land acquisition is withdrawn under section 48 of LA Act ,

a. No compensation is to be paid
b. Compensation for damage suffered is to be paid
c. Compensation only for 50% of the total damage is to be paid

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d. Compensation is to be paid only on agriculture land

99. According Section 8(1) of Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill 2011,
a committee headed by Chief secretary has to examine the proposal of land acquisition, if
the land to be acquired is equal to or more than :

a. 100 hectares
b. 100 acres
c. 50 acres
d. 50 hectares

100. According to the Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Bill 2011, consent
of how many affected families is essential for land acquisition for transfer to a private
company for a public private partnership project t?

a. one-third
b. two-fifths
c. four-fifths
d. one-half

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