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Exam Instructions and Question Format

The document provides instructions for a written examination. It states that the exam is 2 hours long and contains 100 questions divided into two parts. Part A contains 25 questions on a specialized topic worth 50 marks. Part B contains 75 questions on general topics worth 75 marks. Candidates are instructed to use the provided answer sheet to choose one answer for each multiple choice question and are not allowed to bring unauthorized materials into the exam hall. The document emphasizes checking for any errors in the question booklet and correctly filling out personal details on the answer sheet.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
30 views20 pages

Exam Instructions and Question Format

The document provides instructions for a written examination. It states that the exam is 2 hours long and contains 100 questions divided into two parts. Part A contains 25 questions on a specialized topic worth 50 marks. Part B contains 75 questions on general topics worth 75 marks. Candidates are instructed to use the provided answer sheet to choose one answer for each multiple choice question and are not allowed to bring unauthorized materials into the exam hall. The document emphasizes checking for any errors in the question booklet and correctly filling out personal details on the answer sheet.

Uploaded by

Smriti S
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Question Booklet Question Booklet Series


Number

21872001
QUESTION BOOKLET
WRITTEN EXAMINATION A
Maximum Marks : 125
This booklet contains 100 questions in 20 pages
Time Allowed :- 2:00 Hours (120 Minutes)
Time Allowed :- 2:40 Hours (160 Minutes) (PH Candidates only)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Please read the following instructions carefully :
1. The candidates shall advise to check carefully the exam time allowed, Nos. of questions and maximum marks
mentioned on the top of Booklet and also check the nos. of questions and marks section wise mentioned on the top
of every section.
2. Immediately after the commencement of the examination, you should check that this Question Booklet does not
have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items, etc. If so, get it replaced by a New Question Booklet of the
same discipline/post and series.
3. Encode clearly the Question Booklet Series A, B, C or D as the case may be in the appropriate place in the answer
sheet.
4. The question paper for written examination shall be bilingual (English & Hindi) and the applicant will have the
option to undertake the examination in either of the language. In case of discrepancy of questions in Hindi and
English language, the English version shall prevail.
5. Use only Blue/Black ink ball point pen to write Name, Roll Number, Question Booklet No., signature and also to
fill up ovals in the OMR Answer Sheet. Do not use pencil.
6. This examination is of objective type. All questions are compulsory.
7. There are two parts in the Questions-Paper. Each part contains questions on the following subjects.
Group A : Specialised Topic (50 marks) - 25 Questions
Every correct answer will get two marks and for every wrong answer 1/2 marks will be deducted.
Group B : General Intelligence and Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude, General English & General Awareness
(75 marks) – 75 Questions
Every correct answer will get one mark and for every wrong answer 1/4 marks will be deducted.
8. Each Question comprises four options (answers). You will have to select the correct option (answer) which you want
to mark on the OMR Answer Sheet. Choose ONLY ONE APPROPRIATE RESPONSE for each objective type question.
9. OMR Answer sheet will be processed by electronic scanner. Any folding/stapling/putting stray remarks, not filling
the ovals completely, doing rough work, may invalidate the OMR answer sheet and the same will be the responsibility
of the candidate.
10. Rough Work is to be done in any blank space in the Question Booklet. No other papers will be allowed/provided.
11. Candidates are not allowed to carry any blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular
phones, pagers, Wrist Watch and electronic gadgets in any form etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found
using, or in possession of such unauthorized material or involved in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair
means or behaviours will be disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
12. Please carefully go through the instructions given above and in the admit card before filling of the OMR Answer
sheet.
13. The candidates are provided with carbon OMR Answer Sheet. They must submit the original copy to the invigilator
and take the candidate’s carbon copy with them. The candidates must submit the question booklet to the invigilator
at the end of examination. The candidates are not allowed to take question booklet from the examination hall.
14. Keep a note of your Roll No. and Registration No. for further reference since the Admit Cards will be collected back
from you.

Name of the candidate (in Capital letters) :


Roll Number (in figures) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
uksV % fgUnh laLdj.k dk funsZ”k bl iqfLrdk ds fiNys vkoj.k ij Nik gqvk gSA
Page 2 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

GROUP – A (50 vad) - 25 iz”u


1. LVkWd lR;kiu “khV ---------- ds [Link] dks fjdkWMZ djus 8. dS”k vkWu fMyhojh i)fr dk mi;ksx lkekU;r% fdlds
ds fy, cuk, j[kk tkrk gSA fy, fd;k tkrk gS
(A) HkkSfrd lR;kiu (A) rRdky cktkj ds lkFk Fkksd dkxksZ ds
(B) foŸkh; fu;a=.k (B) /kheh xfr ls pyus okyh “krsZa ds
(C) foŸkh; lR;kiu (C) Mkd }kjk Hksts x, NksVs ysfdu ewY;oku lkeku ds
(D) [Link]Ÿkk lR;kiu (D) Hkqxrku larqyu dh leL;k okys ns”kksa dks fu;kZr ds
2. ---------- lkexzh ykxr fu;a=.k dh ,d rduhd gS tks 9. vkiwfrZ J`a[kyk izca/ku dh ,d [Link] fo”ks’krk bldk
ekylwph esa de fuos”k ds [Link]:Ik de ogu ykxr bysDVªkWfud dkWelZ izkS|ksfxdh dk vuqiz;ksx gS tks
dh vksj ys tkrh gS\ daifu;ksa dks fuEufyf[kr ds fy, flLVe lk>k djus vkSj
(A) ABC fo”ys’k.k lapkfyr djus dh vuqefr nsrk gS %
(B) JIT bUosaVjh flLVe (A) vkMZj izkl s sflax] VªkaliksVsZ”ku “ksM~;wfyax vkSj bUosaVªh
(C) VED fo”ys’k.k eSustesaV
(D) ijisP;wvy bUosaVjh flLVe (B) dPps eky dh ykxr izHkkoh izokg
(C) daI;wVj flLVe dh Hkfo’; dh [kjhn
3. viokn }kjk izc/a ku ---------- ij fu;a=.k dj jgk gSA
(D) Hkfo’; foy; ds volj
(A) ykxr
(B) vuqdwy oLrq,¡ 10. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk chek vuqca/k {kfriwfrZ ds
fl)kar ij vk/kkfjr ugha gS
(C) izfrdwy oLrq,¡
(A) vfXu chek
(D) dhersa
(B) leqnzh chek
4. ---------- eky vkSj lkexzh ds HkaMkj.k vkSj lapkyu ds fy, (C) thou chek
,d fu;ksftr LFkku gS
(D) eksVj chek
(A) fMiks (B) os;j gkml
(C) HkaMkj.k LFkku (D) daVsuj 11. LFkku [Link]; dks izHkkfor djus okys dkjdksa esa “kkfey gSa%
(A) fcØh iwokZuqeku@{kerk ;kstuk@lM+d igq¡p
5. Hkkjr esa daVsujhdj.k “kq: fd;k x;k gS
(B) Je ykxr@Hkwfe miyC/krk@{kerk fu;kstu
(A) 1960 (B) 1973
(C) fcØh iwokZuqeku@lM+d igq¡p@Hkwfe ykxr
(C) 1990 (D) 2000
(D) Je ykxr@Hkwfe miyC/krk@i;kZoj.k izfrca/k
6. ewy EOQ ekWMy esa] ;fn vkWMZj nsus dh ykxr nksxquh
gks tkrh gS] vkSj vU; lHkh ewY; fLFkj jgrs gSa] rks EOQ 12. ---------- dk vFkZ gS tgkt esa ys tk;k eky ;k oLrq
gksxk (A) gy (Hull)
(A) yxHkx 41% dh o`f) (B) dkxksZ
(B) 100% dh o`f) (C) Mj (Fright)
(C) 200% dh o`f) (D) eky
(D) ;k rks o`f) ;k deh
13. iSdsftax nks dk;Z djrh gSA ---------- vkSj ykWftfLVDlA
7. Lkhek “kqYd ds Hkqxrku ls igys vk;kfrr eky Lohdkj (A) forj.k
djus ds fy, ljdkj }kjk ykblsl a izkIr 11 xksnkeksa dks (B) LVksj dhfiax
dgk tkrk gS %
(C) lkexzh gSaMfyax
(A) futh xksnke
(D) [Link] (ekdsZfVax)
(B) ca/kqvk xksnke
(C) ljdkjh xksnke
(D) lkoZtfud xksnke

Space for ROUGH work


Question Booklet Series - A Page 3 of 20

GROUP – A : (50 Marks) – 25 Questions

1. Stock verification sheets are maintained to 8. Cash on delivery method is normally used
record the results of ……….. for
(A) physical verification (A) bulk cargo with immediate market
(B) financial control (B) slow moving terms.
(C) financial verification (C) small but valuable items sent by post.
(D) quality verification (D) exports to countries with balance of
2. ……………. is a technique of material cost payments problem
control which leads to low carrying cost as a 9. An important feature of supply chain
result of low investment in inventory? management is its application of electronic
(A) ABC Analysis commerce technology that allows companies
(B) JIT Inventory System to share and operate systems for :
(C) VED Analysis (A) order processing, transportation
scheduling, and inventory management.
(D) Perpetual Inventory System
(B) cost effective flowing of raw materials
3. Management by exception is exercising
(C) future purchasing of computer systems
control over …………..
(D) future merger opportunities
(A) Costs
(B) Favourable items 10. Which of the following insurance contract is
not based on the principle of indemnity.
(C) Unfavourable items
(A) Fire insurance
(D) Prices
(B) Marine insurance
4. ………….. is a planned space for the storage
(C) Life insurance
and handling of goods and material
(D) Motor insurance
(A) Depot (B) Ware house
(C) Storage place (D) Container 11. Factors affecting the location decision
include :
5. Containerisation in India is introduced in
(A) Sales forecasts / capacity planning /
(A) 1960 (B) 1973 road access
(C) 1990 (D) 2000 (B) Labour costs / land availability /
capacity planning
6. In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing
an order doubles, and all other values (C) Sales forecasts / road access / land cost
remain constant, the EOQ will (D) Labour costs / land availability /
(A) increase by about 41% environmental restrictions
(B) increase by 100% 12. …………… means goods or commodities
(C) increase by 200% carried in a ship
(D) either increase or decrease (A) Hull
(B) Cargo
7. 11 Warehouses licensed by the government
to accept imported goods before the payment (C) Fright
of custom duty are known as : (D) Wares
(A) Private warehouses
13. Packaging performs two functions.
(B) Bonded warehouses …………….. and logistics.
(C) Government warehouses (A) Distribution
(D) Public warehouses (B) Store keeping
(C) Material handling
(D) Marketing

Space for ROUGH work P.T.O.


Page 4 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

14. fcØh ewY; esa o`f) % 20. fuekZ.k ;kstuk esa ,d d`f=e xfrfof/k tks bafxr djrh gS
(A) BEP dks izHkkfor ugha djrk gS fd blds vuqxkeh xfrfof/k rc rd 'kq: ugha dh tk
ldrh gS tc rd blls igys okyh xfrfof/k iwjh uk gks
(B) BEP c<k+rk gS
tk,] bls dgk tkrk gS&
(C) BEP dks de djrk gS
(A) eqDr Iyko
(D) BEP dks izHkkfor dj ldrk gS ;k ugha
(B) dqy Iyko
15. Vªd ifjogu dh rqyuk esa] jsy ifjogu gS %
(C) Meh@vkHkklh
(A) de yphyk ysfdu lLrk
(D) ?kVuk
(B) de yphyk vkSj vf/kd egaxk
(C) vf/kd yphyk ysfdu vf/kd egaxk 21. buesa ls dkSu lk lkexzh vko”;drk ;kstuk (MRP) dk
,d vkmViqV gS\
(D) vf/kd yphyk vkSj lLrk
(A) lkexzh ds fcy
16. PERT fo'ys"k.k esa xfrfof/k;ksa ds le; vuqeku vkSj (B) fu;ksftr vkns”k vuqlwph
muds ?kfVr gksus dh laHkkouk dk vuqlj.k djrs gSa& (C) bUosaVªh fLFkfr Qkby
(A) lkekU; forj.k oØ (D) eq[; mRiknu vuqlwph
(B) Iokblu forj.k oØ
22. ,d xSaV pkVZ ………. dh lwpuk nsrk gSA
(C) B&forj.k oØ
(A) inkFkZ gLru
(D) f}in forj.k oØ (B) mRikn vuqlwph
17. ,d ifj;kstuk ds fofHké dk;ksZa esa izkFkfedrk;sa LFkkfir (C) tu “kfDr dk lgh mi;ksx
djus vkSj cuk;s j[kus dh rduhd fuEufyf[kr dgykrh (D) mi;qZDr lHkh
gS &
23. bldk mi;ksx izR;sd dk;Z dsUnz esa rRoksa dks lewfgr
(A) bosUV ¶yks f'kM~;fw yax
djus ds fy, fd;k tkrk gS rkfd izR;sd dk;Z dsUnz esa
(B) Økafrd ¶yks f'kM~;fw yax lHkh dehZ leku le; dh leku eku ………… ds ckjs
(C) f'kM~;wfyax dh LysfVax rduhdh esa lfØ; gks ldsaA ;g dkSu lh rduhd gS\
(D) 'kkWVZ baVjoy f'kM~;fw yax (A) eSfiax
(B) ¶ySfDlcy eSU;wQSDpfjax lsy
18. ,d CPM uVodZ esa ?kVuk 'I' dk uohure lekiu le;
(C) “ksM~;wfyax
10 lIrkg; xfrfof/k i–j iwjk gksus esa 4 lIrkg dk le;
ysrh gSA bosaV 'J' ifj;kstuk lkssygosa lIrkg ds ckn 'kq: (D) ykbu cSysaflax
gksrh gSA xfrfof/k i–j dk dqy izokg (Total float) gksuk
24. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk vkjs[k eNyh dh gìh dh
pkfg, &
rjg fn[krk gS\
(A) 6 lIrkg (A) ju pkVZ
(B) 12 lIrkg (B) fgLVksxzke
(C) 10 lIrkg (C) dkj.k ,oa izHkko vkjs[k
(D) 2 lIrkg (D) iSjsVks pkVZ
19. le; esa o`f) ds lkFk tks izR;{k ykxr dks de ugha 25. dkSu lk PDCA pØ (Msfeax ifg;k) dk fgLlk ugha gS\
djrk gS og le; tkuk tkrk gS&
(A) djuk
(A) ØS'k le; (B) tkap
(B) lk/kkj.k le; (C) vk;kstu

(C) vk'kkoknh le; (D) eatwj

(D) ekud le;

Space for ROUGH work


Question Booklet Series - A Page 5 of 20

14. An increase in sales price : 20. In construction planning, an artificial


(A) Does not affect the BEP activity which indicates that an activity
following it, cannot be started unless the
(B) Increases the BEP
preceding activity is complete is known as :
(C) Lowers the BEP
(A) Free float
(D) May or May not affect the BEP
(B) Total float
15. When compared to truck transport, rail
transport is : (C) Dummy
(A) Less flexible but cheaper (D) Event
(B) Less flexible and more expensive
21. Which of the following is an output of
(C) More flexible but more expensive Material Requirement Planning (MRP) ?
(D) More flexible and cheaper (A) Bills of materials
16. In PERT analysis the time estimates of (B) Planned order schedule
activity and probability of their occurence (C) Inventory status file
follow –
(D) Master production schedule
(A) Normal distribution curve
22. A Gantt chart provides information about :
(B) Poissons distribution curve
(A) Material handling
(C) B-distribution curve
(B) Production schedule
(D) Binomial distribution curve
(C) Proper utilization of man power
17. The technique for establishing and
(D) All of the above
maintaining priorities among various jobs of
a project is known as : 23. It is used to group elements into each work
(A) Event flow scheduling station so that all the worker in each
workstation are active about the same
(B) Critical flow scheduling
amount of time. What technique is it ?
(C) Slating technique scheduling
(A) Mapping
(D) Short interval scheduling
(B) Flexible manufacturing cell
18. In a CPM Network latest finish time for event (C) Scheduling
'I' is 10 weeks; Activity i–j takes 4 weeks for
(D) Line balancing
completion, event 'J' startes after 16 weeks.
Float for Activity i–j is : 24. Which of the following diagrams look like a
(A) 6 weeks fish bone ?
(B) 12 weeks (A) Run chart
(C) 10 weeks (B) Histogram
(D) 2 weeks (C) Cause and effect diagram
19. The time with which direct cost does not (D) Pareto chart
reduce with the increase in time is known
25. Which is not a part of PDCA cycle (Deming
as:
wheel)?
(A) Crash time (A) Do
(B) Normal time (B) Check
(C) Plan
(C) Optimistic time
(D) Approve
(D) Standard time

Space for ROUGH work P.T.O.


Page 6 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

GROUP – B (75 vad) - 75 iz”u

26. ç'u esa fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lEcaf/kr la[;k dks 31. fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls og lgh fodYi pqfu,] tks
pqfu,A vuqØe dks iwjk djsaA
143 : 221 : : 437 : _______ 6, 24, 60, ? , 210, 236
(A) 629 (B) 667 (A) 116 (B) 112
(C) 713 (D) 693 (C) 120 (D) 153

27. ç'u esa fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lEcaf/kr v{kjksa ds 32. fn;k x;k gS
lewg dks pqfu,A 13  12  02
MONTH : NMQPM : : PAPER : _______ 23  32  12
(A) QYTBV (B) QXSBX
33  62  32
(C) QYTAV (D) QYSAW
….
28. ç'u esa fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls lEcaf/kr vkd`fr dks ….
pqfu,A
63  n 2  m 2
iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ :
Rkks m + n dk eku D;k gksxk\

? 33.
(A) 32
(C) 35
(B) 36
(D) 37
vyksd us Ldwy ds igys lIrkg ds nkSjku ,d eSFk
mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ : Dyc ‘kq: fd;kA ,dek= lnL; ds :i esa] mUgksaus
Ldwy ds vxys lIrkg ds nkSjku nks u, lnL;ksa dh
HkrhZ djus dk [Link]; fy;kA izR;sd u, lnL;] lIrkg
ds ckn ds lIrkg ds nkSjku tc og lnL; cu tkrk
gS] rks nks u, lnL;ksa dh HkrhZ djrk gSA ik¡p lIrkg
ds var esa Dyc ds fdrus lnL; gksaxs \
(A) 8 (B) 16
29. tc p;udÙkkZ ls iwNk x;k fd muds ikl fdrus lksus (C) 24 (D) 32
ds flDds gSa] mlus dgk %
34. M vkSj N vyx&vyx la[;k gS tks igys iPphl
vxj eSa mUgsa ik¡p ds <sj esa O;ofLFkr djrk gw¡] rks
dksbZ Hkh flDdk ugha cprk gSA fxurh dh la[;k ls pquh xbZ gSaA ;fn M, N ls cM+h
gS] rks fups fn, x, O;atd dk lcls U;wure eku
;fn eSa mUgsa Ng ds <sj esa O;ofLFkr djrk gw¡] rks dksbZ D;k gksxk \
Hkh flDdk ugha cprk gSA
M N
vxj eSa mUgsa lkr ds <sj esa O;ofLFkr djrk gw¡] rks
,d flDdk cp tkrk gSA M N

muds ikl de ls de fdrus flDds Fks \ 25  1 25  24


(A) (B)
25  1 25  24
(A) 190 (B) 50
(C) 120 (D) 90 25  1
(C) (D) None of these
25  1
30. fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls og lgh fodYi pqfu,] tks
vuqØe dks iwjk djsaA 35. fdlh lkadfs rd Hkk"kk esa 'SINGER' dks 'QLVUHJ’
fy[kk tkrk gS] rks 'TARGEN' dks mlh Hkk"kk esa dSls
OYZ, UCE, BFK, JHR, ….
fy[kk tk,xk\
(A) TIY
(A) NISRHJ
(B) SCZ
(B) RATNHG
(C) SIZ
(C) TDPRTJ
(D) RCZ
(D) UDWQHJ

Space for ROUGH work


Question Booklet Series - A Page 7 of 20

GROUP – B : (75 Marks) – 75 Questions

26. Select the related number from the given 31. Choose the correct alternative from the given
alternative. options that will complete the series.
143 : 221 : : 437 : _______ 6, 24, 60, ? , 210, 236
(A) 629 (B) 667 (A) 116 (B) 112
(C) 713 (D) 693 (C) 120 (D) 153

27. Select the related group of letter from the 32. Given :
given alternative. 13  12  02
MONTH : NMQPM : : PAPER : _______
23  32  12
(A) QYTBV (B) QXSBX
33  62  32
(C) QYTAV (D) QYSAW
….
28. Select the related figure from the given
….
alternative.
63  n 2  m 2
Question Figures :
What is the value of m + n ?

? (A) 32
(C) 35
(B) 36
(D) 37
33. Alok started a Math Club during the first
Answer Figures :
week of school. As the only member, he
decided to recruit two new members during
the following week of school. Each new
member, during the week following the week
when he or she became a member, recruits
two new members. How many members will
the club have at the end of five weeks ?

29. When asked how many gold coins he had, (A) 8 (B) 16
the collector said : (C) 24 (D) 32
If I arrange them in stacks of five, none are 34. The numbers M and N are different numbers
left over. selected from the first twenty-five counting
If I arrange them in stacks of six, none are numbers. If M is larger than N, what is the
left over. smallest value of the given expression ?
If I arrange them in stacks of seven, one is M N
left over.
M N
What is the least number of coins he could
have ? 25  1 25  24
(A) (B)
25  1 25  24
(A) 190 (B) 50
(C) 120 (D) 90 25  1
(C) (D) None of these
25  1
30. Choose the correct alternative from the given
options that will complete the series. 35. In a certain code language, if the word
OYZ, UCE, BFK, JHR, …. 'SINGER' is coded as 'QLVUHJ, then how is
the word 'TARGEN' coded in that language?
(A) TIY
(A) NISRHJ
(B) SCZ
(B) RATNHG
(C) SIZ
(C) TDPRTJ
(D) RCZ
(D) UDWQHJ

Space for ROUGH work P.T.O.


Page 8 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

36. ;fn '×' dk vFkZ '–'; '–' dk vFkZ '÷'; '÷' dk vFkZ '+' 41. fuEu fodYiksa esa ls dkSu&lk fodYi uhps fn;s x;s
rFkk '+' dk vFkZ '×' gksrk gS] rks fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa 'kCnksa dk lkFkZd Øe n'kkZ,xk\
esa dkSu vlR; gS\ 1. IyLrj 2. isafVax
I. 16 ÷ 8 – 4 = 6 + 8 ÷ 2 3. uhao 4. nhokjsa
II. 14 – 2  6 > 19 ÷ 2 + 3 5. Nr
III. 16 + 3 ÷ 7 > 18 – 9  4 (A) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
IV. 26 – 13  130 > 36  10 + 2 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(A) I, II, III, and IV (B) III and IV (C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(D) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
(C) I, II and IV (D) II, III and IV
42. fuEufyf[kr 'kCnksa dks vaxzsth 'kCndks'k ds Øe esa
37. fuEufyf[kr fodYiksa esa ls fo”ke v{kjksa dks pqfu,A
O;ofLFkr fd;k tk,] rks dkSu&lk 'kCn rhljs LFkku
(A) chek (B) Hkfo"; fuf/k
ij vk,xk \
(C) osru (D) 'ks;j EMPHASIS, EMPROVE, EMPHATIC,
EMPLOYEE, EMPIRE
38. nks dFkuksa ds vkxs nks fu"d"kZ I vkSj II fn, x, gSaA
vkidks dFkuksa dks lR; ekudj fopkj djuk gS pkgs os (A) EMPHASIS (B) EMPIRE
lkekU;r% Kkr rF;ksa ls fHkUu izfrr gksrs gksaA vkidks (C) EMPHATIC (D) EMPLOYEE
[Link]; djuk gS fd fn, x, fu"d"kksZa esa ls dkSu&lk] ;fn 43. bl ç'u esa fn, x, 'kCnksa ds v{kjksa dks ftruh ckj
dksbZ gks] fuf'pr :i ls fn, x, dFkuksa ds vk/kkj ij pkgs mruh ckj mi;ksx esa yk;k tk ldrk gSA fn,
ykxq gksrk gSA viuk mÙkj fufnZ"V djsaA x, pkjksa 'kCnksa esa ls fdldh jpuk fn, v{kjksa ls ugha
dFku : dh tk ldrh gSa \
D < Q < S, Q  G  H ELEMENTARY
fu”d”kZ : (A) LAMENT (B) RENTAL

I. H  D, II. H<Q (C) LUMEN (D) MEANLY

(A) dsoy fu"d"kZ I ykxw gksrk gS 44. fn, x, uacjksa ds chp laca/k [kkstsaA bl lac/a k dks
(B) dsoy fu"d"kZ II ykxw gksrk gS le>us dk ç;Ru djrs gq, lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsaA
(C) fu"d"kZ I vkSj II esa ls dksbZ ykxw ugha gksrk gS 19 16 27
(D) fu"d"kZ I vkSj II nksuksa ykxw gksrs gSaA 23 16 31
9 ? 15
39. js[kk nf{k.k&iwoZ dh vksj 12 2 fdeh- rd xkM+h esa
(A) 12 (B) 16
tkrh gS] og iwoZ dha vksj eqM+rh gS] vkSj 7 fdeh-
(C) 10 (D) 14
rd xkM+h pykrh gSA og fQj ckbZa vksj eqM+rh gS] vkSj
17 fdeh- rd xkM+h pykrh gSA var esa og 900 ls 45. fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls og lgh fodYi pqfu,] tks
okekorZ eqM+dj 19 fdeh- rd xkM+h pykrh gSA og vuqØe dks iwjk djsaA
çLFkku LFky ls fdruh nwjh ij gS] ;fn nksuksa LFkyksa ds iz'u vkd`fr;k¡ :
chp lh/kh lM+d gks\
(A) 5 fdeh-] nf{k.k
(B) 5 fdeh-] mÙkj
?
(C) 7 fdeh-] mÙkj&iwoZ
mÙkj vkd`fr;k¡ :
(D) 8 fdeh-] mÙkj&if’pe

40. :i] vkseohj dk HkkbZ gSA ehuk :i dh cgu gSA jke]


gsew dk HkkbZ gSA gsew] vkseohj dh iq=h gSA ';ke] ehuk
ds firk gSaA ';ke dk gsew ls D;k fj'rk gS \
(A) firk (B) ukuk
(C) ekek (D) nknk

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Question Booklet Series - A Page 9 of 20

36. If ‘  ' means ' – ',' – ' means '÷', ‘÷' means '+','+' 41. Which one of the given responses would be
means '  ', then which of the following is a meaningful order of the following words ?
incorrect ? 1. Plaster 2. Paintings
I. 16 ÷ 8 – 4 = 6 + 8 ÷ 2 3. Foundation 4. Walls
II. 14 – 2  6 > 19 ÷ 2 + 3 5. Roof
(A) 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
III. 16 + 3 ÷ 7 > 18 – 9  4
(B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
IV. 26 – 13  130 > 36  10 + 2
(C) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
(A) I, II, III, and IV (B) III and IV
(D) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
(C) I, II and IV (D) II, III and IV
42. Which of the following words would appear
37. Find the odd word from the given on the third number, if they are arranged as
alternatives. per their order in the English dictionary ?
(A) Insurance (B) Provident Fund EMPHASIS, EMPROVE, EMPHATIC,
(C) Wages (D) Share EMPLOYEE, EMPIRE
(A) EMPHASIS (B) EMPIRE
38. Two statements are given followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to consider (C) EMPHATIC (D) EMPLOYEE
the statements to be true even if they seem 43. In this question, if the letters of the given
to be at variance from commonly known words may be used as many times as one
facts. You are to decide which of the given wants to use, which one of the given four
conclusions, if any, follow from the given words cannot be formed from the given
statements. Indicate your answer. words?
Statements : ELEMENTARY
D < Q < S, Q  G  H (A) LAMENT (B) RENTAL
Conclusions : (C) LUMEN (D) MEANLY
I. H  D, II. H<Q 44. Find the relation between the given
(A) Only conclusion I follows. numbers, and choose the correct alternative
from the given options.
(B) Only conclusion II follows.
(C) Neither conclusion I nor II follows. 19 16 27
(D) Both conclusions I and II follow. 23 16 31
9 ? 15
39. Rekha drives 12 2 km towards the South-
(A) 12 (B) 16
East, she turns towards East, and drives 7
km. Again, she turns left, and drives 17 km. (C) 10 (D) 14
Finally, she turns 900 anticlockwise and 45. Choose the correct alternative from the given
drives 19 km. How far is she from her options that will complete the series.
starting point, if these two points are directly
Question Figures :
connected by a road ?
(A) 5 km, South
(B) 5 km, North ?
(C) 7 km, North-East
(D) 8 km, North-West Answer Figures :

40. Roop is the brother of Omvir. Meena is the


sister of Roop. Ram is the brother of Hemu.
Hemu is the daughter of Omvir. Shyam is
the father of Meena. How is Shyam related
to Hemu?
(A) Father (B) Maternal Grandpa
(C) Maternal Uncle (D) Grandpa

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Page 10 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

46. yM+dksa dh ,d drkj esa jkgqy nk,a ls 12osa rFkk ck,a 52. Out of the following options, choose the one
ls pkSFks LFkku ij gSA ml drkj esa fdrus vkSj yM+dksa which best expresses the meaning of the
dks 'kkfey djus ij dqy 28 yM+ds drkj esa gks given word : “crux”
tk,ax\
s (A) gist (B) exteriority
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) nothingness (D) outside
(C) 20 (D) 13 53. Out of the following options, choose the one
which best opposes the meaning of the given
47. og vkjs[k pqfu, tks uhps fn, x, oxksZa ds chp laca/k
word: “collectible”
dk lgh fu:i.k djrk gSA
(A) replaceable (B) cherished
ulZ] Ldwy] dkWyst (C) expensive (D) incalculable
54. Part of the presented sentence is highlighted
in bold. From the given options select the
most appropriate answer that replaces the
bolded text to improve the sentence. In case
no replacement is required, select option (D).
“In the upcoming competitive exam your
answer book will be answered using a
48. uhps fn, x, dFkuksa dks if<+, vkSj blds var esa fn,
computerized process.”
x, ç'u dk mÙkj nhft,A
(A) evaluated (B) extracted
(i) MksukYM gkWdh [ksy ldrk gS ysfdu Vsful vkSj
(C) filled (D) No improvement
fØdsV ughaA
(ii) tSd fØdsV [ksy ldrk gS ysfdu QqVokWy ughaA 55. Part of the presented sentence is highlighted
in bold. From the given options select the
(iii) jkWdh Vsful [ksy ldrk gS ysfdu gkWdh ughaA
most appropriate answer that replaces the
(iv) guh fØdsV vkSj gkWdh [ksy ldrk gSA bolded text to improve the sentence. In case
(v) MSfoM QqVokWy [ksy ldrk gS ysfdu fØdsV ughaA no replacement is required, select option (D).
;fn çR;sd O;fDr nks [ksy] [ksy ldrk gS] rks guh “Mr. Singhal’s son was able to commence
dh rjg dkSu gksxk \ the family business while Mr. Singhal was
recovering from Covid.”
(A) tSd (B) jkWdh
(A) manage (B) explore
(C) MSfoM (D) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(C) skip (D) No improvement
49. lkr yM+fd;ka ,d iafDr esa cSBh gS] ftuds eqag mÙkj
56. In the following options only one word is
dh vksj gSaA A çfrek] eksuk ds nk,a gSA fuf/k] eksuk ds
correctly spelt, find the correctly spelt word
ck,a ysfdu uSuk ds nk,a gSA vuq vkSj urk'kk nksuksa
(A) martir (B) martry
vfUre Nksjksa ij gSaA çfrek vuq ds ck,a gSA ;fn iwue]
fuf/k vkSj eksuk ds chp esa gSa] rks chp esa dkSu&lh (C) marytry (D) martyr
yM+dh cSBh gS \ 57. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate
(A) eksuk (B) iwue option.
A skeptic ____ every level of evidence or
(C) çfrek (D) fuf/k
opinion regarding the subject of their
50. fdlh eghus esa rhljs lkseokj ds vxys fnu 16 rkjh[k skepticism.
gS] rks ikaposa lkseokj ds ,d fnu iwoZ dkSu&lh rkjh[k (A) questions (B) accepts
gksxh \ (C) promotes (D) abhors
(A) 27 (B) 28
58. In the given sentence replace the highlighted
(C) 29 (D) 30 idiom by choosing an alternative that best
51. Out of the following options, choose the expresses the meaning from the given
one which best expresses the meaning of options:
the given word : “indispensable” “When it came to his personal safety, he had
to put his foot down.”
(A) auxiliary (B) minor
(A) took a firm stand (B) stood up in anger
(C) additional (D) essential
(C) sat down timidly (D) started walking

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Question Booklet Series - A Page 11 of 20

46. In the line of boys, Rahul is 12th from the 52. Out of the following options, choose the one
right and 4th from the left. How many boys which best expresses the meaning of the
should be added in the line, so that total of given word : “crux”
28 boys will be in the line. (A) gist (B) exteriority
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) nothingness (D) outside
(C) 20 (D) 13
53. Out of the following options, choose the one
47. Identify the diagram that represents the best which best opposes the meaning of the given
relationship between the classes given word: “collectible”
below. (A) replaceable (B) cherished
Nurse, School, College (C) expensive (D) incalculable
54. Part of the presented sentence is highlighted
in bold. From the given options select the
most appropriate answer that replaces the
bolded text to improve the sentence. In case
no replacement is required, select option (D).
“In the upcoming competitive exam your
answer book will be answered using a
48. Read the following statements and answer computerized process.”
the question.
(A) evaluated (B) extracted
(i) Donald can play hockey, but not tennis (C) filled (D) No improvement
and cricket
(ii) Jack can play cricket, but not football 55. Part of the presented sentence is highlighted
in bold. From the given options select the
(iii) Rockey can play tennis, but not hockey
most appropriate answer that replaces the
(iv) Honey can play both cricket and hockey bolded text to improve the sentence. In case
(v) David can play football but not cricket no replacement is required, select option (D).
If a person can play two games, who would “Mr. Singhal’s son was able to commence
be like Honey ? the family business while Mr. Singhal was
(A) Jack (B) Rocky recovering from Covid.”
(C) David (D) None of these (A) manage (B) explore
49. Seven girls are sitting in a row, who are faces (C) skip (D) No improvement
towards the North. Pratima is on the right 56. In the following options only one word is
side of Mona. Nidhi is on the left side of the correctly spelt, find the correctly spelt word
Mona, but is on the right of Naina. Anu and
(A) martir (B) martry
Natasha both are on the extreme ends.
(C) marytry (D) martyr
Pratima is on the left of Anu. If Poonam is
between Nidhi and Mona. Which girl is 57. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate
sitting on the middle ? option.
(A) Mona (B) Poonam A skeptic ____ every level of evidence or
(C) Pratima (D) Nidhi opinion regarding the subject of their
skepticism.
50. If the next day after 3rd Monday in a month
is 16th, what will be the date on the day (A) questions (B) accepts
before 5th Monday ? (C) promotes (D) abhors
(A) 27 (B) 28 58. In the given sentence replace the highlighted
(C) 29 (D) 30 idiom by choosing an alternative that best
expresses the meaning from the given
51. Out of the following options, choose the one options:
which best expresses the meaning of the “When it came to his personal safety, he had
given word : “indispensable” to put his foot down.”
(A) auxiliary (B) minor (A) took a firm stand (B) stood up in anger
(C) additional (D) essential (C) sat down timidly (D) started walking

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Page 12 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

59. In the given sentence replace the highlighted 64. xq# vaxn nso i'kq fpfdRlk vkSj i'kq foKku fo'ofo|ky;
idiom by choosing an alternative that best iatkc ds fdl 'kgj esa fLFkr gS\
expresses the meaning from the given
options:
(A) ifV;kyk (B) yqf/k;kuk
“They claim to be the biggest company in the (C) ve`rlj (D) paMhx<+
world, which is stretching a point”
65. ßfnoklksÞ dks ________ ds <ksfM;k vkSj ojyh tutkfr;ksa
(A) using their most valuable asset }kjk euk;k tkrk gSA
(B) saying the same thing repeatedly
(A) vaMeku vkSj fudksckj }hi lewg
(C) belittling their weaker competitors
(B) nknjk vkSj uxj gosyh
(D) making a claim which is not completely
true (C) iqnqpsjh
60. From the following options, select the most (D) y{k}hi
suitable word to substitute the phrase or
66. /ofu rjaxksa ds ckjs esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu lk dFku
sentence:
“any person or institution with authority to
xyr gS\
judge, adjudicate on, or determine claims or (A) Hkwdai ds eq[; >Vds 'kq: gksus ls igys mPp vko`fÙk
disputes” ds vYVªklkmaM mRiUu djrs gSa tks laHkor% thoksa dks
(A) tribunal (B) congregation lpsr djrk gSA
(C) abdicator (D) lawyer (B) MkWfYQu] pexknM+ vkSj lhy rFkk lwalksa }kjk
vYVªklkmaM mRiUu fd;k tkrk gSA
61. A sentence has been given in Active/Passive
Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested (C) 20 KHz ls vf/kd /ofu rjaxksa dh vko`fÙk;ksa dks
below, select the one which best expresses vYVªklksfud /ofu rjax dgk tkrk gSA
the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. (D) euq"; ds fy, /ofu dh JO; lhek yxHkx 20 gV~tZ
We are taught English here. ls 20000 gV~tZ rd gksrh gSA
(A) A teacher teaches us English here. 67. fons'kh izR;{k fuos'k (FDI) ij uhfr rS;kj djus dk uksMy
(B) English is taught here. foHkkx gS %
(C) A lady teaches us English here. (A) m|ksx vkSj vkarfjd O;kikj ds lao/kZu foHkkx
(D) You teach us English here. (B) lsch

62. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate (C) vkjchvkbZ
option : (D) ukckMZ
She prefers ___________ dinner as she is not
68. Hkkjr ds lafo/kku dh 11oha vuqlwph esa fdrus fo"k; gSa\
good at cooking.
(A) 22 (B) 24
(A) my making (B) me making
(C) 29 (D) 32
(C) me to make (D) me make
69. ^usfVo eSfjt ,DV* fdl o"kZ ikfjr fd;k x;k Fkk\
63. A sentence has been given in direct/Indirect
form. Out of the four alternatives suggested, (A) 1870 (B) 1872
select the one which best expresses the same (C) 1874 (D) 1876
sentence in Indirect/Direct form.
70. eklisf'k;ksa dh Fkdku _______ ds lap;u ds dkj.k gksrh
She said, “I’m afraid we are rather late !”
gSA
(A) She exclaimed that they were frightened
(A) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
of being late.
(B) dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM
(B) She exclaimed that she was afraid that
they were rather late. (C) fØ,fVu QkWLQsV
(C) She shouted that they were scared that (D) ySfDVd vEy
they would be late.
(D) She screamed that she was worried that
they would all be late.

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Question Booklet Series - A Page 13 of 20

59. In the given sentence replace the highlighted 64. The Guru Angad Dev Veterinary and Animal
idiom by choosing an alternative that best Sciences University is located in which city
expresses the meaning from the given of Punjab ?
options: (A) Patiala (B) Ludhiana
“They claim to be the biggest company in the
(C) Amritsar (D) Chandigarh
world, which is stretching a point”
(A) using their most valuable asset 65. 'Divaso' is celebrated by Dhodia and Varli
tribes of ________.
(B) saying the same thing repeatedly
(C) belittling their weaker competitors (A) Andaman & Nicobar islands

(D) making a claim which is not completely (B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
true (C) Puducherry
(D) Lakshadweep
60. From the following options, select the most
suitable word to substitute the phrase or 66. Which of the following statements regarding
sentence: soundwaves is incorrect ?
“any person or institution with authority to
(A) Earthquakes produce high frequency
judge, adjudicate on, or determine claims or ultrasound before the main shockwaves
disputes” begin which possibly alerts the animals.
(A) tribunal (B) congregation (B) Ultrasound is produced by dolphins, bats
(C) abdicator (D) lawyer and porpoises.
(C) Frequencies of sound waves higher than
61. A sentence has been given in Active/Passive
20 KHz are called ultrasonic sound
Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested
waves.
below, select the one which best expresses
the same sentence in Passive/Active Voice. (D) The audible range of sound for human
beings extends from about 20 Hz and
We are taught English here. 20000 Hz.
(A) A teacher teaches us English here.
67. ________ is the nodal department for
(B) English is taught here. formulation of the policy on Foreign Direct
(C) A lady teaches us English here. Investment (FDI).

(D) You teach us English here. (A) Department of Promotion of Industry and
Internal Trade
62. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate (B) SEBI
option : (C) RBI
She prefers ___________ dinner as she is not (D) NABARD
good at cooking.
68. How many items are there in the 11th
(A) my making (B) me making Schedule of the Constitution of India ?
(C) me to make (D) me make (A) 22 (B) 24
63. A sentence has been given in direct/Indirect (C) 29 (D) 32
form. Out of the four alternatives suggested, 69. In which year was the 'Native Marriage Act'
select the one which best expresses the same passed ?
sentence in Indirect/Direct form.
(A) 1870 (B) 1872
She said, “I’m afraid we are rather late !”
(C) 1874 (D) 1876
(A) She exclaimed that they were frightened
of being late. 70. Muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation
of -
(B) She exclaimed that she was afraid that
(A) Carbon monooxide
they were rather late.
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) She shouted that they were scared that
(C) Creatine phosphate
they would be late.
(D) Lactic acid
(D) She screamed that she was worried that
they would all be late.

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Page 14 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

71. ekuo xfrfof/k;ksa ls ifjofrZr i;kZoj.k dgykrk gS


79. 5  11  19  29  49 dk eku gS &
(A) uSlfxZd i;kZoj.k
(B) ,UFkzksikstsfud i;kZoj.k (A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 'kgjh i;kZoj.k (C) 4 (D) 6
(D) vk/kqfud i;kZoj.k 80. jke 300 fdåehå dh ;k=k va”kr% jsy ,oa va”kr% dkj ls
72. Hkkjr ds orZeku eq[; pquko vk;qDr dkSu gS\a djrk gSA ml ;k=k esa mls 4 ?kaVs yxrs gSa] ;fn og 60
fdåehå jsy ls tk, vkSj “ks’k dkj lsA mlh ;k=k esa mls
(A) lq'khy panz (B) lquhy vjksM+k
10 feuV vf/kd yxsaxs ;fn og 100 fdåehå jsy ls
(C) vkse izdk'k jkor (D) lqdqekj lsu vkSj “ks’k dkj ls tk,A rn~uqlkj jsy dh xfr fdruh gS\
73. 15 vizSy] 2021 dks jk"Vªh; LVkVZvi lykgdkj ifj"kn (A) 40 fdåehå@?kaVk (B) 60 fdåehå@?kaVk
dh igyh cSBd dh v/;{krk fdlus dh \ (C) 80 fdåehå@?kaVk (D) 110 fdåehå@?kaVk
(A) izdk'k tkoM+sdj
81. ,d uko esa cSBs gq, 5 O;fDr;ksa dk vkSlr Hkkj 38 fdåxzkå
(B) jfo 'kadj izlkn gS mlh uko dk ,oa mlesa cSBs O;fDr;ksa dk vkSlr Hkkj
(C) ih;w"k xks;y 52 fdåxzkå gSA ml uko dk Hkkj fdruk gS \
(D) vfer 'kkg (A) 122 fdåxzkå (B) 120 fdåxzkå
74. 22 ekpZ 2021 dks jk"Vªh; fQYe iqjLdkj esa fdl (C) 170 fdåxzkå (D) 208 fdåxzkå
fQYe us ÞloZ{ks"B fganh fQYeÞ iqjLdkj thrk\
82. nks o`Ùk ckgj ls ,d nwljs ¼ls feyrs½ dks Li”kZ djrs gSaA
(A) FkIiM+ (B) [Link] muds dsaæksa ds chp dh nwjh 7 lseh- gSA ;fn ,d o`Ùk dh
(C) Hkkslys (D) fNNksjs f=T;k 4 lseh- gks] rks nwljs o`Ùk dh f=T;k fdruh gksxh\
75. o"kZ 2020-21 esa Hkkjr esa jktekxZ fuekZ.k dh fjdkWMZ (A) 2 lseh- (B) 3 lseh-
czsfdax yackbZ D;k gS\ (C) 4 lseh- (D) 3.5 lseh-
(A) 25 fdåehå@fnu
83. ;fn cgqin x 6  px 5  qx 4  x 2  x  3, (x 4  1)
(B) 37 fdåehå@fnu
ls foHkkT; gS] rks p 2  q 2 dk eku D;k gS \
(C) 42 fdåehå@fnu
(A) 8 (B) 9
(D) 29 fdåehå@fnu
(C) 10 (D) 13
76. ;fn a (a  8)  a  b  c , b(b  8)  a  b  c ,oa
c (c  8)  a  b  c rks]
84. 5 lnL;ksa ds ,d ifjokj esa bl le; vkSlr vk;q 33
o"kZ gSA lcls NksVk lnL; 9 o"kZ dk gSA lcls NksVs
1 1 1
  dk eku gksxk ---- lnL; ds tUe ls rRdky iwoZ ifjokj dh vkSlr vk;q
a 8 b 8 c 8 Fkh\
(A) 2 (B) 0
(A) 30 o"kZ (B) 26 o"kZ
(C) 1 (D) –1
(C) 24 o"kZ (D) 22 o"kZ
77. eku yhft, nks vadksa dh ,d la[;k vius vadksa ds
85. ,d o`Ùk dh f=T;k ,d oxZ dh Hkqtk gSA o`Ùk vkSj oxZ ds
;ksxQy dh K xquh gSA ;fn la[;k ds vadksa dks vkil
{ks=Qyksa dk vuqikr gSA
esa cnyus ls cuh la[;k vius vadksa ds ;ksxQy dh m
(A)  :1 (B) 2 : 
xquh gS] rks m dk eku D;k gS \
(C)  : 2 (D)  : 3
(A) 11  K (B) 9  K
86. A ,oa B ,d dk;Z dks 30 fnuksa esa dj ldrs gSaA B ,oa
(C) K  1 (D) 10  K
C fey dj mls 20 fnuksa esa dj ldrs gSaA A dk;Z
78. ,d foØsrk 400 #i;s esa 20 fdxzkå phuh csprk gSA ,d vkjaHk djrk gS 5 fnuksa rd dk;Z djrk gS rc B ml
Øsrk 20% cV~Vk ekaxrk gSA foØsrk jkth gks tkrk gS ij dk;Z dks ys ysrk gS vkSj 15 fnuksa rd dk;Z djrk gSA
og 1 fdxzkå phuh ls 4% de nsrk gSA rks okLrfod var esa C mls 18 fnuksa esa iwjk djrk gSA C vyx ls
cV~Vk D;k gS \ dk;Z djrs gq, ml dk;Z dks vdsys fdrus fnuksa esa iwjk
(A) 15% (B) 16.66%
dj ldrk gS\
(C) 16% (D) 19.6% (A) 20 fnu (B) 24 fnu
(C) 30 fnu (D) 40 fnu

Space for ROUGH work


Question Booklet Series - A Page 15 of 20

71. The environment modified by human


activities is called 79. The value of 5  11  19  29  49 is :
(A) Natural environment (A) 3 (B) 5
(B) Anthropogenic environment (C) 4 (D) 6
(C) Urban environment 80. Ram travels 300 km partly by train and
(D) Modern environment partly by car. He takes 4 hours to reach, if
he travels 60 km by train and rest by car. He
72. Who is the current Chief Election
Commissioner of India ? will take 10 minutes more if he were to travel
100 km by train and rest by car. The speed
(A) Sushil Chandra (B) Sunil Arora of the train is
(C) Om Prakash Rawat (D) Sukumar Sen (A) 40 km/hr (B) 60 km/hr
73. Who chaired the first meeting of the National (C) 80 km/hr (D) 110 km/hr
Startup Advisory Council on April 15, 2021 81. The average weight of five persons sitting in
(A) Prakash Javadekar a boat is 38 kg. The average weight of the
(B) Ravi Shankar Prasad boat and the person sitting in the boat is 52
(C) Piyush Goyal kg. What is the weight of the boat ?
(A) 122 kg (B) 120 kg
(D) Amit Shah
(C) 170 kg (D) 208 kg
74. Which film won the “Best Hindi Film” award
at National Film Awards 2020 on March 22, 82. Two circles touch each-other externally. The
2021 ? distance between their centres is 7 cm. If the
radius of one circle be 4cm, then the radius
(A) Thappad (B) Manikarnika of the other circle is
(C) Bhosle (D) Chhichhore (A) 2 cm (B) 3 cm
75. What is the record-breaking length of (C) 4 cm (D) 3.5 cm
highway construction India achieved in year
83. If the polynomial x 6  px 5  qx 4  x 2  x  3
2020-21 ?
(A) 25 km/day (B) 37 km/day is divisible by  x 4  1 , then p 2  q 2  ?
(C) 42 km/day (D) 29 km/day (A) 8 (B) 9
(C) 10 (D) 13
76. If a (a  8)  a  b  c , b(b  8)  a  b  c and
c (c  8)  a  b  c , then the value of 84. In a family of 5 members, the average age at
present is 33 years. The youngest member is
1 1 1 9 years old. The average age of the family
  is
a 8 b 8 c 8 just before the birth of the youngest member
(A) 2 (B) 0 was
(A) 30 yrs (B) 26 yrs
(C) 1 (D) –1
(C) 24 yrs (D) 22 yrs
77. Let a two-digit number be K times the sum
85. The radius of a circle is a side of a square.
of its digits. If the number formed by
The ratio of the areas of the circle and the
interchanging the digits is m times the sum
square is
of the digits, then the value of m is
(A)  :1 (B) 2 : 
(A) 11  K (B) 9  K (C)  : 2 (D)  : 3
(C) K  1 (D) 10  K
86. A and B together can do a piece of work in
78. A trader sells 20kg of sugar at `400. A 30 days. B and C together can do it in 20
customer asks 20% discount and he agrees days. A starts the work and works on it for 5
to it but instead of 1 kg he gives 4% less days, then B takes up and works for 15 days.
sugar. Then the effective discount is ….. Finally, C finishes the work in 18 days. The
number of days in which C alone can do the
(A) 15% (B) 16.66%
work when doing it separately is :-
(C) 16% (D) 19.6% (A) 20 days (B) 24 days
(C) 30 days (D) 40 days

Space for ROUGH work P.T.O.


Page 16 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

87. ;fn (P – Q) dk 50% = (P + Q) dk 30% ,oa Q = 94. ,d leyac csyukdkj crZu] ikuh ls Hkjk gqvk gSA mlh
P dk x% gks] rks x dk eku D;k gksxk \ ikuh dks j[kus ds fy,] ml cÙkZu ds cjkcj O;kl rFkk
(A) 20 (B) 25 špkbZ okys fdrus yac 'kadqvksa dh vko';drk gksxh \
(C) 30 (D) 40 (A) 6 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5
88. ,d o`Ùkh; iFk nks ladsanzh o`Ùkh; oy;ksa als bl izdkj cuk
gS fd tc NksVs oy; dks cM+s oy; dh ifjf/k ij ?kqek;k 95. ,d yEc o`Ùkh; csyu] ,d v/kZ xksyk vkSj ,d yac o`Ùkh;
tkrk gS] rks og iwjs rhu ifjØe.k djrk gSA ;fn ekxZ 'kadq ,d gh vk/kkj ij fLFkr gSa vkSj mudh Å¡pkbZ cjkcj
dk {ks=Qy] NksVs cy; ds {ks=Qy dk n xquk gS] rks n gSA muds vk;ru dk vuqikr gS
fdlds cjkcj gS\ (A) 3 : 6 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 : 1
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 : 3 : 2 (D) 3 : 1 : 4
(C) 8 (D) 9
96. ,d fHkUu ds va'k esa ls 4 ?kVkus ij vkSj gj esa 1 tksM+us
89. ,d Bsdsnkj 12 fd-eh- yach ugj 350 fnuksa esa [kksnus 1
ij og cu tkrh gSA ;fn mlh fHkUu ds va'k rFkk
ds fy, 45 vknfe;ksa dks dke ij yxkrk gSA 200 fnuksa 6
ckn og ikrk gS fd ugj dk dsoy 4.5 fdeh- gh iwjk 1
gks ik;k gSA dke dks le; ij iwjk djus ds fy, mls gj esa Øe'k% 2 rFkk 1 tksM+ fn, tk,a] rks og cu
3
vkSj fdrus vknfe;ksa dks dke ij yxkuk gksxk\ tkrh gSA rnuqlkj mlds va'k rFkk gj dk y?kqÙke
(A) 55 vkneh (B) 65 vkneh lekioR;Z fdruk gksxk \
(C) 75 vkneh (D) 40 vkneh (A) 14 (B) 350
(C) 5 (D) 70
90. nks O;atdksa dk tksM+ ,oa varj Øe'k% 5x 2  x  4 ,oa
x 2  9x  10 gSaA mu nks O;atuksa dk egÙke lekioÙkZd
97. og /kujkf'k fdruh gksxh] ftl ij 6% okf"kZd nj ij
2 o"kksZa ds fy, lk/kkj.k C;kt vkSj pØo`f) C;kt dk
(HCF) gksxk \
varj `18 ds cjkcj gksxk \
(A) x – 1 (B) 3x – 7
(A) `4000 (B) `5000
(C) 2x + 3 (D) x + 1
(C) `4300 (D) `5350
91. ,d Bksl ydM+h dk f[kykSuk] ,d xksyk?kZ ds Åij yEc
o`Ùkh; 'kadq ds vkdkj dk gSA ;fn mlds xksyk/kZ dh
f=T;k 4.2 lseh gks vkSj f[kykSus dh iwjh Å¡pkbZ 10.2 funsZ'k (98 – 100) : fuEu LraHk vkys[k esa ,d daiuh ds yxkrkj
lseh- gks] rks ydM+h ds f[kykSus dk vk;ru ¼yxHkx½ gksxk N% o"kksZa ds dhVuk”kd mRiknu dks (Vuksa es)a n'kkZ;k x;k gSA bl
vkys[k dk vè;;u djds iz'uksa ds mÙkj nhft,A
(A) 133 lseh-3 (B) 266 lseh-3
(C) 172 lseh-3 (D) 162 lseh-3 90
80
Production (in tonnes)

92. ,d deZpkjh dk HkÙks mlds ewy osru ds 165% gSA ;fn


70
ml deZpkjh dk lexz (Gross) osru `15900 gks rks
mldk ewy osru ¼`½ fdruk gksxk\ 60
50
(A) 4000 (B) 5000
40
(C) 6000 (D) 6500
30
93. `950 ykxr okyh ,d oLrq ij Øekuqlkj 5% ,oa
20
10% dh NwV nh tkrh gSA ml oLrq dh orZeku ykxr
10
¼`esa½ D;k gksxh\
0
(A) `812.25 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020

(B) `726.75 98. og o"kZ dkSu&lk ftlesa dhVuk”kdksa dk mRiknu] lHkh


N% o"kksZa ds vkSlr mRiknu ds yxHkx cjkcj Fkk \
(C) `800
(A) 2019 (B) 2018
(D) `700
(C) 2015 (D) 2020

Space for ROUGH work


Question Booklet Series - A Page 17 of 20

87. If 50% of (P – Q) = 30% of (P + Q) and Q = x% 94. A right cylindrical vessel is full with water.
of P, then the value of x is How many right cones having the same
(A) 20 (B) 25 diameter and height as that of the right
cylinder will be needed to store that water?
(C) 30 (D) 40
(A) 6 (B) 2
88. A circular path is made from two concentric (C) 3 (D) 5
circular rings in such a way that the smaller
ring when allowed to roll over the 95. A right circular cylinder, a hemisphere and
circumference of the bigger ring. It takes a right circular cone stand on the same base
three full revolutions. If the area of the and have the same height. The ratio of their
pathway is equal to n times the area of the volume is
smaller ring, then n is equal to (A) 3 : 6 : 1 (B) 3 : 2 : 1
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 : 3 : 2 (D) 3 : 1 : 4
(C) 8 (D) 9 1
96. A fraction becomes when 4 is subtracted
89. A contractor undertakes to dig a canal 12 km 6
long in 350 days and employs 45 men. After from its numerator and 1 is added to its
200 days he finds that only 4.5 km of the denominator. If 2 and 1 are respectively
canal has been completed. Find the number added to its numerator and the
of extra men he must employ to finish the 1
denominator, it becomes . Then, the LCM
work on time. 3
(A) 55 men (B) 65 men of the numerator and denominator of the
said fraction, must be
(C) 75 men (D) 40 men
(A) 14 (B) 350
90. The sum and difference of two expressions (C) 5 (D) 70
are 5x 2  x  4 and x 2  9x  10
97. On what sum of money will the difference
respectively. The HCF of the two expressions between the simple interest and the
will be compound interest for 2 years at 6% per
(A) x – 1 (B) 3x – 7 annum be equal to `18 ?
(C) 2x + 3 (D) x + 1 (A) `4000 (B) `5000
(C) `4300 (D) `5350
91. A solid wooden toy is in the shape of a right
circular cone mounted on a hemisphere. If Directions (98 – 100) : The following bar graph
the radius of the hemisphere is 4.2 cm and shows the production of pesticides (in tonnes) by
the total height of the toy is 10.2 cm. Find a company, in six consecutive years. Study the
the volume of the wooden toy [nearly or graph and answer the questions.
approx.]
90
(A) 133 cm3 (B) 266 cm3
80
Production (in tonnes)

(C) 172 cm3 (D) 162 cm3


70
92. The allowances of an employee constitute 60
165% of his basic pay. If he receives `15900
50
as gross salary, then his basic pay is (in `)
40
(A) 4000 (B) 5000
30
(C) 6000 (D) 6500
20
93. Two successive discount of 5%, 10% are 10
given for an article costing `950. Present
cost of the article (in `) is ..... 0
2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020
(A) `812.25 98. The year in which the production of
(B) `726.75 pesticides is nearest to the average
production of all the six years, is
(C) `800
(A) 2019 (B) 2018
(D) `700 (C) 2015 (D) 2020

Space for ROUGH work P.T.O.


Page 18 of 20 Question Booklet Series - A

99. o"kZ 2016 vkSj 2018 ds dhVuk”kdksa ds dqy mRiknu 100. o"kZ 2018 rFkk 2020 ds moZjd dhVuk”kdksa dk dqy
,oa o"kZ 2019 vkSj 2020 ds dqy mRiknu dk vuqikr mRiknu] o"kZ 2017 rFkk 2019 ds dqy mRiknu dk
fdruk gS \ y% gS] rks y dk eku fdruk Fkk\

(A) 27 : 25 (B) 28 : 23 1 7
(A) 103 (B) 79
9 17
(C) 31 : 25 (D) 35 : 25
24 1
(C) 96 (D) 111
35 9

Space for ROUGH work


Question Booklet Series - A Page 19 of 20

99. The ratio of the total production of pesticides 100. The total production of pesticides in the
in the years 2016 and 2018 to the total years 2018 and 2020 is y% of the total
production in the years 2019 and 2020 is production in the years 2017 and 2019.
(A) 27 : 25 (B) 28 : 23 Then y is equal to
(C) 31 : 25 (D) 35 : 25 1 7
(A) 103 (B) 79
9 17
24 1
(C) 96 (D) 111
35 9

Space for ROUGH work P.T.O.


Question Booklet Series – A Page 20 of 20
tc rd vkidks ;g iz”ui= [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa
iz”ui= laa[;k iz”ui= vuqØe
iz”ui=
21872001
fyf[kr ijh{kk A
bl iz”ui= esa dqy 100 iz”u 20 i`’Bksa esa gSaA [Link]±d : 125
le; % 2:00 ?kaVs ¼120 feuV½
le; % 2:40 ?kaVs ¼160 feuV½ ¼dsoy PH mEehnokjksa ds fy,½

[Link] funsZ”k
Ñi;k fuEufyf[kr funsZ'kksa dks lko/kkuhiwoZd i<+s %
1. Ikjh{kkFkhZ;ksa dks lykg nh tkrh gS fd os ijh{kk le;] iz”uksa dh la[;k vkSj vf/kdre vad tks cqdysV ds “kh’kZ ij vafdr
gS mls lko/kkuhiwoZd tkap dj ysa rFkk blds vykok izR;sd vuqHkkx ds “kh’kZ ij vafdr iz”uksa dh la[;k ,oa vad dh Hkh
tkap dj ysaA
2. ijh{kk izkjaHk gksus ds rqjar ckn vki bl iz”ui= dh tk¡p vo”; dj ysa fd blesa fcuk dksbZ Nik] QVk ;k NwVk gqvk i`’B
vFkok iz”u vkfn u gksA ;fn ,slk gS rks bls mlh fo’k;@in ds iz”ui= [Link] ls cny ysaA
3. vks,evkj mÙkj “khV esa lgh LFkku ij iz”ui= [Link] A, B, C ;k D ;Fkk LFkku ij Li’V :i ls vafdr djsaA
4. fyf[kr ijh{kk dk iz'ui= f}Hkk"kh ¼fgUnh@vaxzsth½ esa gS vkSj vkosnd ds ikl nks Hkk"kk esa ls fdlh ,d esa ijh{kk nsus dk
fodYi gksxkA n~foHkkf’kd ¼fgUnh@vaxzsth½ esa fdlh Hkh izdkj dk Hkze gksus dh fLFkfr esa vaxzsth Hkk’kk gh ekU; gksxhA
5. dsoy uhyk@dkyh L;kgh ds ckWy IokbaV isu dk iz;ksx vks,evkj mÙkj “khV ij cDls Hkjus vkSj vksoYl dks Hkjus ds fy,
djsaA isafly dk mi;ksx ugha djsaA
6. ;g ijh{kk oLrqfu"B izdkj dh gSA lHkh iz'u vfuok;Z gSaA
7. iz”u i= esa nks Hkkx gSaA izR;sd Hkkx esa fuEufyf[kr fo’k;ksa ij iz”u gSa %
xzqi , % Lis”kykbTM VWfid (50 vad) – 25 iz”u
izR;sd iz”u nks vad dk gSA izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, 2 vad feysaxsA tcfd xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1@2 vad dVkSrh dh
tk;sxhA
xzqi ch % tujy baVsfytsal ,aM jhtfuax] DokafVVsfVo ,IVhV~;wM] tujy bafXy”k ,aM tujy vos;jusl (75 vad) – 75 iz”u
izR;sd iz”u ,d vad dk gSA izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, 1 vad feysaxsA tcfd xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1@4 vad dVkSrh dh
tk;sxhA
8. izR;sd iz”u ds fy, pkj mÙkj fn, x;s gSaA buesa ls dsoy ,d lgh mÙkj dks pqu ysa ftls vki vks,evkj mÙkj “khV ij
vafdr djuk pkgrs gSaA
9. vks,evkj mÙkj “khV iqfLrdk dh bysDVªkWfud e”khu }kjk tk¡p dh tk,sxhA ;fn vki bls eksM+ nsrs gSa@ LVsiy dj nsrs
gSa@ bl ij fdlh izdkj dk fu”kku yxk nsrs gSa@ blds vksoYl dks iwjh rjg ugha Hkjrsa gSa vFkok bl ij jQ odZ dj
nsrs gSa] rks bl vks,evkj mÙkj “khV dks vekU; ?kksf’kr dj fn;k tk,xk ftldh ftEesokjh mEehnokj dh gkssxhA
10. jQ dk;Z ds fy, iz”ui= ds [kkyh LFkku dk iz;ksx djsaA blds fy, vU; dkxt dh vuqefr ugha gS vkSj u gh iznku
fd;k tk,xkA
11. lknk dkxt] fDyi cksMZ] ykWx Vscy] LykbM :y] dSYdqysVj] lsy Qksu] istj] ?kM+h ;k fdlh vU; izdkj ds bysDVªkWfud
[Link] dks ijh{kk d{k esa ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA dksbZ vH;FkhZ bu fuf"k) oLrqvksa dk bLrseky djrs ik, tk,xk
;k ftuds ikl ls ;s phtsa cjken gksaxh] vFkok tks udy djus ;k izfr:i.k ;k vU; vuqfpr O;ogkjksa esa fyIr ik,a tk,axs]
os v;ksX; dj fn, tk,axs rFkk mu ij [Link] dkjZokbZ Hkh dh tk ldrh gSA
12. vks,evkj mÙkj “khV] izos”k i= esa fn;s x;s funsZ”kksa ds lkFk Åij fn;s x;s funsZ”kksa dks vPNh rjg i<+us ds ckn gh vks,evkj
mÙkj “khV dks Hkjsa@fy[ksaA
13. Ikjh{kkFkhZ;ksa dks dkcZu vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= iznku fd;k tk;sxkA mUgsa ewy izfr ifjos{kd dks tek djuh gksxh vkSj Ikjh{kkFkhZ
dh dkcZu dkWih vius lkFk ys tk;saxsA Ikjh{kkFkhZ dks ijh{kk ds var esa fujh{kd dks iz'u iqfLrdk tek djuh gksxhA vH;fFkZ;ksa
dks ijh{kk gkWy ls iz”u iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
14. d`i;k vius jksy uaacj ,oa jftLVª”s ku uacj dks Hkfo’; ds fy, uksV dj ysa] D;ksafd vkidk izos”k i= vkils okil ys fy;k
tk,xkA
Note : English version of the instruction is printed on the front cover of this Booklet.

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