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Research methodology MCQ questions and answers pdf for students of competitive and
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Research methodology MCQ questions and answers

1. The researcher who is conducting the research must be ___ and neutral in approach.
Ans. Objective

2. Research always requires a ___ and ___ method of inquiry

Ans. Structured, sequential

3. Research is done for ___ existing theories or arriving at new ___

Ans. Proving, models

4. An important aspect of business research is its ___ assisting nature.

Ans. Decision

5. Applied research is the kind of research where one needs to apply specific statistical
procedures. (True/ false)
Ans. False

6. In basic research, the context is vast and the time period is flexible. (True/ false)
Ans. True

7. The research that is especially carried out to test and validate the study hypotheses is
termed
(a) Fundamental resaeach
(b) Applied research
(c) Conclusive research
(d) Exploratory research
Ans. (c) Conclusive research

8. The research studies that explore the effect of one thing on another and more
specifically, the effect of one variable on another are known as
(a) Causal research
(b) Applied research
(c) Conclusive research
(d) Exploratory research
Ans. (a) Causal research

9. Every research study always begins with a hypothesis. (True/ false)

Ans. False

10. The group of individuals from whom one needs to collect data for the study is called
the sample. (True/ false)
Ans. True

11. The assumption about the expected result of the research is called the ___.
Ans. Hypothesis

12. The data collection methods may be classified into ___ and ___ data methods.
Ans. Primary, secondary

13. Marketing department of a business organization carries out researches related to:
(a) Product
(b) Pricing
(c) Promotion
(d) All the above
Ans. (d) All the above

14. Demand forecasting, and quality assurance and management are part of
(a) Personnel and human resource management
(b) Marketing function
(c) Financial and accounting research
(d) Production and operations management
Ans. (a) Production and operations management

15. The research study must follow a ___ plan for investigation.
Ans. Sequential

16. One of the most important aspects of a research study is that it must be ___ if one
follows similar conditions.
Ans. Replicable

17. The management decision problem must be reduced to a ___ problem.

Ans. Research
18. A research problem can be defined as ___ in the decision makers’ existing body of
knowledge which inhibits efficient decision making.
Ans. A gap

19. Simple research problems usually test ___ relationships.

Ans. Linear

20. Complex problems look at the interrelationship between ___ variables.

Ans. Multiple

21. The management problem is a difficulty face by the ___

Ans. Decision maker

22. The management research problem has to be converted into a ___ before it can be
tested.
Ans. Research problem

23. The management decision problem can be tested, that is, subjected to research
inquiry.
(True/ False)
Ans. False

24. How can students be made to learn the course on research methodology is a
research problem. (True/False)
Ans. False

25. Which of these is not a step in the problem identification process?

(a) Discussion with subject experts
(b) Review of existing literature
(c) Theoretical foundation and model building
(d) Management decision making
Ans. (d) Management decision making

26. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (2001) and the
Chicago Manual of Style (1993) are:
(a) Well known works on research
(b) Referencing style guides in management
(c) Publishing journals
(d) Management journals
Ans. (b) Referencing style guides in management
27. A valuable source of problem formulation is based on informal interviews conducted
with industry experts. (True/False)
Ans. True

28. Formulation of the research problem does not require primary data collection.
(True/False)
Ans. False

29. The causal variable is also called the ___ variable.

Ans. Independent

30. The ___ variable is also called the effect.

Ans. Dependent

31. If one evaluates the impact of the pedagogy of Prof. N S on the research methods
course grades of students, then Prof. N S, here, is the unit of analysis. (True/False)
Ans. False

32. Moderating variables are the ones that have a strong effect on the relationship
between the independent and dependent variables. (True/False)
Ans. True

33. The hypotheses are always made in question form. (True/False)

Ans. False

34. The hypotheses must be measurable and quantifiable. (True/False)

Ans. True

35. The hypotheses that a talk about the relation between two or more variables is
called___ hypotheses.
Ans. Relational

36. If one is making a proposition about the magnitude or behavior of a particular

population, we call it a ___ hypothesis.
Ans. Descriptive

37. A formal document that presents the research objectives, design of achieving these
objectives, and the expected outcomes/deliverables of the study is called
(a) Research design
(b) Research proposal
(c) Research hypothesis
(d) Research report
Ans. (b) Research proposal

38. In a research proposal, the time-bound dissemination of the study with the major
phases of the research has to be presented using the
(a) CPM
(b) GANTT charts
(c) PERT charts
(d) All the above
Ans. (d) All the above

39. Academic proposals require extensive literature review. (True/False)

Ans. True

40. External organizational proposals are generally conducted by external research

agencies. (True/False)
Ans. True

41. The execution details of the research question to be investigated are referred to as
the ___.
Ans. Research design

42. Research designs come ___ the problem formulation stage.

Ans. After

43. Researcher design is the same as the research method. (True/false)

Ans. False

44. The formulated design must ensure:

(a) Converting the research question and the hypotheses into measurable variables
(b) Specifying the process to complete the above task
(c) Specifying the ‘control mechanism(s)’
(d) All the above
Ans. (d) All the above

45. Previously collected findings in facts and figures which have been authenticated and
published are referred to as ___.
Ans. Secondary data sources
46. A carefully selected small set of individuals representative of the larger respondent
population under study is called a ___.
Ans. Focus group

47. The case study method is generally focused on a single unit of analysis. (True/False)
Ans. True

48. Expert opinion survey and respondent group discussions together form a two-tiered
research design. (True/False)
Ans. False

49. A research study that tracks the profile of a typical social networking user is an
example of an exploratory research design. (True/False)
Ans. False

50. If one wants to assess changes in investment behavior of the general public over
time, the best design available to the researcher is a longitudinal design. (True/False)
Ans. True

51. A study to analyze the profile of the supporters of Anna Hazare would need a cross-
sectional research design. (True/False)
Ans. True

52. Married couples are the unit of analysis in a cohort analysis. (True/False)
Ans. False

53. Different groups of people tested over a single stretch of time is a special
characteristic of a longitudinal design. (True/False)
Ans. False

54. The research variable in a longitudinal research design is studied over fixed intervals
in time. (True/False)
Ans. True

55. Descriptive designs do not require any quantitative statistical analysis. (True/False)
Ans. False

56. ___ validity refers to the generalization of the sample results to that of the
population.
Ans. External
57. Test units are selected at random in a quasi-experimental design. (True/ False)
Ans. False

58. There cannot be more than two independent variables in a factorial experiment.
(True/False)
Ans. False

59. There is no possibility of error in true experimental research design. (True/False)

Ans. False

60. In the true experimental design and statistical design, the respondents are selected
at random which may not be the case in real life. (True/False)
Ans. True

61. The data that is always collected first in a research study is called ___ data.
Ans. Primary

62. ___ data is not always specific to the research problem under study.
Ans. Secondary

63. Census data is an example of the primary data source. (True/False)

Ans. False

64. Sampling frame of the respondent population is an example of secondary data.

(True/False)
Ans. True

65. Primary data methods have a significant time and cost advantage over secondary
data. (True/False)
Ans. False

66. Cash register receipt is an example of ___ secondary data sources.

Ans. Internal

67. Customer grievance data available with the company is an important source of ___
data.
Ans. Secondary

68. Statistical abstracts of India are prepared by ___.

Ans. Central Statistical Organization
69. The ___ prepares the National Sample Survey (NSS).
Ans. Ministry of Planning

70. Poor’s Statistical Services is a government publication on the people below the
poverty line.(True/False)
Ans. False

71. Syndicate sources are periodic in nature.(True/False)

Ans. True

72. Observation is a direct method of collecting

(a) Primary data
(b) Secondary data
(c) Both
(d) Published data
Ans. (a) Primary data

73. Observing the remains or the leftovers of the consumers’ basket is referred to as
(a) Structured observation
(b) Unstructured observation
(c) Trace analysis
(d) Mechanical observation
Ans. (c) Trace analysis

74. In case one wants to know why some people use plastic bags for carrying their
groceries even after the imposition of a ban on plastic bags by the Delhi Government,
one may use the observation method to collect the data. (True/False)
Ans. False

75. Usually the observation method entails that the observation is disguised, i.e., carried
out without the respondent’s knowledge. (True/False)
Ans. False
Solved MCQ on Research Methodology pdf for the preparation of academic and
competitive MBA, BBA examinations of all Institutions.

Solved MCQ on Research Methodology

1. The arithmetic mean cannot be computed for ordinal scale data. (True / False)
Ans. True

2. Branded shirts are more expensive than unbranded shirts – this is an example of
effective components. (True/False)
Ans. False

3. The ___ scale measurement has a natural zero.

Ans. Ratio

4. The difference between the score on the ___ scale does not have a meaningful
interpretation.
Ans. Ordinal

5. Coding and analysis of attitudinal data obtained through the use of a pure graphic
rating scale can be done very quickly. (True/False)
Ans. False

6. A comparative rating scale attempts to provide a common frame of reference to all

respondents. (True/False)
Ans. True

7. The Likert scale is a single-item scale. (True/False)

Ans. False

8. The Likert scale is a balanced rating scale with an ___ number of categories and a
neutral point.
Ans. Odd
9. In the ___ scale, if an attribute is twice as important as some other attribute it receives
twice as many points.
Ans. Constant sum rating

10. A scale is said to be valid if it measures what it is supposed to measure. (True/False)

Ans. True

11. A scale is said to be reliable if it is free from systematic errors. (True/False)

Ans. False

12. The ___ of a scale can be increased by adding more questions to it.
Ans. Sensitivity

13. A focus group discussion generally involves a ___ who steers the discussion on the
topic under study.
Ans. Moderator

14. Online focus groups are conducted in ___.

Ans. Web-based chat rooms

15. The ideal number of participants in a focus group discussion is

(a5 2–6
(b) 6–10
(c) 8–12
(d) 10–15
Ans. (c) 8–12

16. Special respondent sub-strata who are passionately involved with a brand or product
category are known as
(a) Brand-obsessive group
(b) Online focus group
(c) Special focus group
(d) Brand ambassadors
Ans. (a) Brand-obsessive group

17. The interview method is a one-to-one interaction between ___ and ___.
Ans. Investigator/interviewer, the interviewee

18. The ___ interview has no defined guidelines.

Ans. Unstructured
19. When interviews are conducted with the help of the computer they are called ___.
Ans. Computer-assisted personal interviewing (CAPI)

20. The questionnaire can be used to collect ___ data from a ___ of subjects.
Ans. Primary, sample

21. The questionnaire method follows a predetermined ___.

Ans. Sequence

22. Exploratory studies should most often make use of the ___ method
Ans. Unstructured interview

23. The questionnaire should ___ the respondent and result in a ___ response.
Ans. Encourage, meaningful

24. In case the population under study is widely scattered, one makes use of the ___.
Ans. Questionnaire

25. In case the population is illiterate it is best to use the ___.

Ans. Schedule

26. The formalized-unconcealed questionnaire is the most difficult to interpret.

(True/False)
Ans. False

27. The process of questionnaire design is called the schedule (True/False)

Ans. False

28. The non-formalized, concealed questionnaire is the most frequently used

questionnaire. (True/False)
Ans. False

29. Sampling control is highest in

(a) A web-based survey
(b) E-mail based survey
(c) Schedule
(d) Mail/fax survey
Ans. (c) Schedule

30. The most cost-effective questionnaire administration method is through

(a) Web-based
(b) Schedule
(c) Telephone survey
(d) Mail survey
Ans. (a) Web-based

31. Response rate is highest in a

(a) Mail interview
(b) Schedule
(c) Email survey
(d) Web-based survey
Ans. (b) Schedule

32. Interviewer bias is high in a telephonic survey. (True/False)

Ans. True

33. Qualifying questions are also termed as filter questions. (True/False)

Ans. True

34. ‘Are you a vegetarian?—Yes/No’ is an example of an open-ended question.

(True/False)
Ans. False

35. ‘Do you sing and dance?’ is an example of a double-barrelled question. (True/False)
Ans. True

36. ‘Do you not think that all fairness creams make false claims? –Yes/No’ is an example
of a loaded question. (True/False)
Ans. False

37. The questionnaire has many advantages. Which of these is not one of them?
(a) Adaptability
(b) Anonymity
(c) Fast and economical
(d) Applicable to all sections of society
Ans. (d) Applicable to all sections of society

38. If the investigator distributes the questionnaire to his friends and acquaintances or if
there is self-selection of the subjects, it could lead to
(a) Lower response
(b) Higher response
(c) Skewed sample response
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c) Skewed sample response

39. The chance of researcher bias is very ___ in the questionnaire method.
Ans. low

40. The difference between the sample result and the results obtained through a census
using the identical procedure is known as sampling error. (True/False)
Ans. True

41. A population that is being sampled is also called the universe. (True/False)
Ans. True

42. Which of these is not a sampling frame?

(a) List of registered voters in a constituency
(b) Subscribers listed in a telephone directory
(c) The total number of students registered with a university
(d) 30 students who are surveyed of a class of 150 MBA students
Ans. (d) 30 students who are surveyed of a class of 150 MBA students

43. A subset of the population is called

(a) Element
(b) Sampling unit
(c) Sample
(d) Sampling frame
Ans. (c) Sample

44. A judgmental sample provides a better representation of the population than a

probability sample. (True/False)
Ans. True

45. Non-probability methods are those in which the sample units are chosen
purposefully. (True/False)
Ans. True

46. The criteria for stratification should be related to the ___ of the study.
Ans. Objectives

47. Only the initial sample unit is chosen randomly in a ___ sampling
Ans. Systematic
48. For a 90% confidence, the value of Z would be ___.
Ans. 1.645

49. The size of the sample depends upon the size of the population. (True/False)
Ans. False

50. The most commonly used approach for determining the size of the sample is the ___
approach covered under inferential statistics.
Ans. Confidence interval

51. The size of the sample is directly proportional to the ___ in the population and the
value of Z for a confidence interval.
Ans. variability

52. The editing process is carried out at two levels, the first of these is field editing and
the second is ___.
Ans. Central in-house editing

53. Going back to the respondent to check any errors during questionnaire
administration is known as ___.
Ans. Backtracking

54. Backtracking is best suited for industrial surveys. (True/False)

Ans. True

55. Plug value refers to the fudged value that an investigator might put for a missing
response. (True/False)
Ans. False

56. The smallest code entry a researcher makes in a codebook is a field. (True/False)
Ans. True

57. Several fields together can be clubbed into a record. (True/False)

Ans. True

58. In a data matrix every column represents a single case. (True/False)

Ans. False

59. All categories formulated for data entry must be mutually exclusive. (True/False)
Ans. True
60. The process of identifying and denoting a numeral to the responses given by a
respondent is called___
Ans. Coding

61. In case the question is a Likert type question and it has agreement/ disagreement on
a five-point scale, the number of corresponding columns in the codebook would be ___
Ans. One

62. Test tabulation is conducted on open-ended questions. (True/False)

Ans. False

63. For classifying nominal data one can tabulate using class intervals. (True/False)
Ans. False

64. Numerical data, like the ratio scale data, can be classified into
(a) Class intervals
(b) Codes
(c) Fields
(d) Files
Ans. (a) Class intervals

65. 10–15 years; 16–20 years; 21 years and beyond is an example of

(a) Inclusive class interval
(b) Exclusive class interval
(c) Class interval
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) Inclusive class interval

66. Median can be computed for ordinal scale data. (True/False)

Ans. True

67. To carry out ___, the sample should be drawn at random.

Ans. Inferential analysis

68. The standard deviation as a measure of dispersion is independent of units of

measurement. (True/False)
Ans. False

69. The range could be obtained from interval scale data. (True/False)
Ans. True
70. The positive square root of ___ is called standard deviation.
Ans. Variance

71. To compare the variability of two distributions, ___ can be used.

Ans. Coefficient of variation

72. The correlation coefficient can assume any value between 0 and 1. (True/False)
Ans. False

73. High association between two variables does not imply cause and effect relationship.
(True/False)
Ans. True

74. In a cross table, the percentages should be computed in the direction of the ___
variable.
Ans. Independent

75. The first step in computing the percentages in a cross table is to identify ___ and ___
variables.
Ans. Dependent, independent

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